Employee And Patient Safety Training! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/53 Questions

    SPEAK-UP CAMPAIGNThe SPEAK-UP Campaign is sponsored by The Joint Commission.  We use it to encourage patients, families and staff to SPEAK-UP and become involved in their health care.

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

Below are an Employee and patient safety training trivia quiz. For every institution or facility, there should be laid down procedures to prevent any harm from befalling health workers and their patients, too, while they carry out their duty. The quiz below will help you review what you learned from the training. Do give it a shot and keep testing yourself.

Employee And Patient Safety Training! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    CHILD ABUSE AND MISTREATMENTAll mandated reporters are required by Title 6 of the Social Services Law to report cases of suspected child abuse or neglect to the Statewide Central Register of Child Abuse and Mistreatment (SCR). 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    All mandated reporters are required by Title 6 of the Social Services Law to report cases of suspected child abuse or neglect to the Statewide Central Register of Child Abuse and Mistreatment (SCR). This means that if a mandated reporter suspects that a child is being abused or neglected, they are legally obligated to report it to the SCR. Failure to do so can result in legal consequences. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 3. 

    CHILD ABUSE AND MISTREATMENTMost professional/licensed staff are considered mandated reporters for Child Abuse and Mistreatment.  Some examples are nurses, doctors, teachers, peace officers (e.g., safety staff) psychologists, dentist, etc.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because mandated reporters are individuals who are legally required to report any suspected cases of child abuse or mistreatment. These individuals are typically professionals or licensed staff who work closely with children, such as nurses, doctors, teachers, psychologists, and law enforcement officers. Their role as mandated reporters is crucial in ensuring the safety and well-being of children, as they are in a position to identify and report any signs of abuse or mistreatment.

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  • 4. 

    ORGANIZATIONAL ETHICS AND PATIENTS' RIGHTSEthical practice at RPC means:
    • Acting with integrity in a way that conforms with accepted standards of professional conduct.
    • Providing care and treatment in a way that reflects values of the hospital.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that ethical practice at RPC involves acting with integrity and conforming to accepted standards of professional conduct. It also includes providing care and treatment in a way that reflects the values of the hospital. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the expectations for organizational ethics and patients' rights at RPC.

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  • 5. 

    ORGANIZATIONAL ETHICS AND PATIENTS' RIGHTSPatients’ Rights are protected by laws, policies, surveying bodies and professional organizations.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Patients' rights are indeed protected by laws, policies, surveying bodies, and professional organizations. These protections ensure that patients receive proper care, have access to their medical records, are treated with dignity and respect, have the right to make informed decisions about their healthcare, and are protected from any form of discrimination or abuse. These rights are essential in upholding ethical standards within healthcare organizations and ensuring that patients receive the best possible care.

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  • 6. 

    FOOD SAFETYIt is important to wash your hands after which of the following: 

    • Going to the bathroom.

    • Smoking.

    • Touching your clothing.

    • Anytime you go from one food prep task to another.

    • Before handling ready-to-eat foods such as bread or fruit.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    Washing hands after going to the bathroom is important to remove any potential pathogens that may have been picked up. Smoking can introduce harmful chemicals and bacteria to the hands, so washing after smoking is necessary. Touching your clothing can transfer bacteria or other contaminants to your hands, so washing after touching clothing is important. Anytime you go from one food prep task to another, washing hands is crucial to prevent cross-contamination. Finally, washing hands before handling ready-to-eat foods is necessary to prevent the transfer of pathogens. Therefore, all of the options mentioned require handwashing for food safety.

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  • 7. 

    FOOD SAFETYAccording to facility policy, RPC staff must complete the Activity/Group Planning Form and send to the unit Dietitian for review when food will be served to patients at events held on RPC grounds.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    According to facility policy, RPC staff must complete the Activity/Group Planning Form and send it to the unit Dietitian for review when food will be served to patients at events held on RPC grounds. This suggests that it is mandatory for staff to follow this procedure to ensure food safety and meet the facility's standards. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    When you click on TRUE you are testifying that you have READ the information on Anticoagulant and Organ Tisue Donation; that you UNDERSTAND them; and that as a NYS/OMH/RPC EMPLOYEE you are RESPONSIBLE for the information. You will also be recorded as completing YOUR RPC Annual Training. Please NOTE: If you click on FALSE you will NOT be RECORDED as completing this assignment.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    By selecting "True," the individual is acknowledging that they have read the information on Anticoagulant and Organ Tissue Donation, they understand the information, and as an NYS/OMH/RPC employee, they are responsible for the information. Additionally, selecting "True" will record their completion of the RPC Annual Training. If they were to select "False," they would not be recorded as completing the assignment.

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  • 9. 

    CULTURAL/LINGUISTIC/RESPECTWhat can you do to bridge the cultural and linguistic gap?

    • Know and respect cultural differences/practices (i.e. what behaviors would be considered offensive to a belief and value system and what should be avoided).

    • Establish trust with the clients/population being served.

    • Reduce disparities by eliminating barriers (i.e. utilizing community resources, interpreter services, enhanced documentation.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all of the mentioned actions contribute to bridging the cultural and linguistic gap. Knowing and respecting cultural differences helps to avoid offensive behaviors and promotes understanding. Establishing trust with the clients or population being served creates a more open and effective communication. Reducing disparities by eliminating barriers, such as utilizing community resources and interpreter services, ensures equal access to services and information. Therefore, all of these actions are necessary to bridge the cultural and linguistic gap effectively.

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  • 10. 

    FIRE SAFETYFire Safety includes which of the following?

    • Proper ordinary storage.

    • Proper storage of combustibles.

    • Proper use and maintenance of electrical appliances and wiring.

    • Eliminating obstructions at fire protection and fire suppression devices and exits.

    • Following the heat producing small appliances policy.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    Fire safety includes all of the mentioned measures. Proper ordinary storage ensures that flammable materials are stored safely to prevent fire hazards. Proper storage of combustibles involves storing flammable materials in designated areas and following safety guidelines. Proper use and maintenance of electrical appliances and wiring helps prevent electrical fires. Eliminating obstructions at fire protection and fire suppression devices and exits ensures that these systems can function effectively in case of a fire. Following the heat producing small appliances policy helps prevent fire accidents. Therefore, all of the mentioned measures are part of fire safety.

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  • 11. 

    HIV CONFIDENTIALITYUnder NYS Law, what is defined as confidential HIV - related information?

    • An HIV-related test.

    • Any HIV infection, HIV-related illness, or AIDS.

    • Exposure to HIV.

    • If you have had any related tests, illness and/or exposure to HIV and have information on his/her sexual or needle-sharing contacts.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    All of the options listed in the question are defined as confidential HIV-related information under NYS Law. This includes HIV-related tests, any HIV infection, HIV-related illness, or AIDS, as well as exposure to HIV. Additionally, if an individual has had any related tests, illness, or exposure to HIV and has information on their sexual or needle-sharing contacts, that information is also considered confidential.

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  • 12. 

    PATIENT SAFETYThe National Patient Safety Goals are part of the RPC Patient Safety and are from the Joint Commission.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the National Patient Safety Goals are indeed a part of the RPC Patient Safety and are established by the Joint Commission. The Joint Commission is a recognized authority in healthcare accreditation and sets standards to ensure patient safety and quality of care. The National Patient Safety Goals are designed to address specific areas of concern and provide guidelines for healthcare organizations to improve patient safety and reduce medical errors. Therefore, the given answer is correct.

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  • 13. 

    INFECTION PREVENTIONWhat is our role in preventing antimicrobial resistance?

    • Wear gowns, gloves, and masks at the right time.

    • Get Smart about Antibiotics.

    • Stop Germs by washing Your Hands

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." Our role in preventing antimicrobial resistance includes wearing gowns, gloves, and masks at the right time to prevent the spread of infections. Additionally, we need to be smart about antibiotics and use them only when necessary to avoid the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. Finally, stopping germs by regularly washing our hands is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections and reducing the need for antibiotics.

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  • 14. 

    INFECTION PREVENTIONThe "Chain of Infection," no matter the germ, can be broken at any of six points and a germ an be stopped from infecting another person.  This can occur at:

    • Infectious agent

    • Reservoir

    • Portal of exit

    • Mode of transmission

    • Portal of entry

    • Susceptible host

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The "Chain of Infection" refers to the series of events that must occur for an infection to spread from one person to another. Each point in the chain presents an opportunity to break the chain and prevent the transmission of the germ. The infectious agent is the germ itself, the reservoir is the source where the germ lives and multiplies, the portal of exit is the route through which the germ leaves the reservoir, the mode of transmission is how the germ is transferred from one person to another, the portal of entry is the route through which the germ enters a new host, and the susceptible host is the person who is at risk of getting infected. Therefore, all of these points are potential areas where the chain of infection can be broken.

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  • 15. 

    FOOD SAFETYPregnant women, young children, older adults, and those with weakened immune systems are at higher risk for experiencing foodborne illness.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pregnant women, young children, older adults, and individuals with weakened immune systems have a higher risk of contracting foodborne illnesses. This is because their immune systems may not be as strong or effective in fighting off harmful bacteria or pathogens present in contaminated food. Therefore, it is important for these individuals to take extra precautions and follow proper food safety guidelines to minimize their risk of getting sick from foodborne illnesses.

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  • 16. 

    INFECTION PREVENTIONThe Exposure Control Plan for your workplace: 

    • Must be made available to employees.

    • Must be updated every 5 years.

    • Must list steps to lessen employee exposure.

    • Both A and C.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both A and C." The Exposure Control Plan for the workplace must be made available to employees, as well as list steps to lessen employee exposure. It is important for employees to have access to this plan in order to understand the measures in place to prevent infection and to know how to protect themselves in their work environment. Regular updates every 5 years ensure that the plan remains current and effective in addressing potential risks and hazards.

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  • 17. 

    INFECTION PREVENTIONHIV and HBV can be transmitted by:

    • Sexual contact

    • Contact with healthy skin

    • Sharing hypodermic needles

    • Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C
    Explanation
    HIV and HBV can be transmitted through sexual contact and sharing hypodermic needles. Sexual contact can involve the exchange of bodily fluids, which can contain the viruses. Sharing needles can also lead to the transmission of these viruses as they can be present in the blood. Contact with healthy skin, on the other hand, does not pose a risk for transmission as the viruses require direct access to the bloodstream to cause infection. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and C.

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  • 18. 

    INCIDENT REPORT WRITINGFor all incidents, whose responsibility is it to document in the narrative section of the incident report, and to report what he/she has knowledge of?

    • The Charge Nurse

    • The Program Administrator

    • The Nurse Administrator

    • The person with first knowledge of the incident.

    Correct Answer
    A. The person with first knowledge of the incident.
    Explanation
    The person with first knowledge of the incident is responsible for documenting in the narrative section of the incident report and reporting what he/she knows. This individual is likely to have the most accurate and detailed information about the incident, making them the most suitable person to document it. The charge nurse, program administrator, and nurse administrator may also be involved in the incident report process, but their roles may be more focused on overseeing and managing the incident rather than documenting the details.

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  • 19. 

    FIRE SAFETYAccording to the fire plan, a fire is any situation where

    • Flame is visible.

    • Smoke is visible.

    • A strong smell of smoke is noted.

    • Where any staff member has a strong sense of or feeling that a fire is occurring.

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because the fire plan defines a fire as any situation where flame is visible, smoke is visible, a strong smell of smoke is noted, or where any staff member has a strong sense or feeling that a fire is occurring. This means that any of these conditions would be considered a fire according to the fire plan.

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  • 20. 

    LIFE SAFETY MANAGEMENTThe reason why Interim Life Safe Measures (ILSM) are implemented is to ensure building occupants that there is a temporary reduction in the normal life safety features of that building, and to provide them with information that would provide equivalent safety within the building.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Interim Life Safe Measures (ILSM) are implemented to temporarily reduce the normal life safety features of a building. This is done to ensure the safety of the building occupants by providing them with equivalent safety measures during the period when the normal life safety features are not available or are being modified. Therefore, the statement that ILSM are implemented to ensure building occupants of a temporary reduction in normal life safety features and to provide them with equivalent safety within the building is true.

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  • 21. 

    SAFETY AND SECURITY MANAGEMENTIf you cannot locate your facility keys and/or ID, you should:

    • Wait a few days because things usually turn up.

    • Immediately notify Safety.

    • Immediately notify Work Control.

    • Borrow a set from someone else.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately notify Safety.
    Explanation
    If you cannot locate your facility keys and/or ID, it is important to immediately notify Safety. This is because the keys and ID provide access to the facility and losing them could compromise the safety and security of the facility. By notifying Safety, appropriate measures can be taken to ensure the security of the facility, such as changing locks or deactivating access cards. Waiting for things to turn up or borrowing a set from someone else may not be the best course of action as it could lead to unauthorized access or potential security breaches.

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  • 22. 

    SAFETY AND SECURITY MANAGEMENTIf you are exiting a secure door (e.g., ward or main entrance) and are approached by an unidentified person who wants to exit with you, or if a person attempts to piggyback or exit very closely with you, what should you do?

    • Hold the door open for the person to pass through.

    • Ignore the person and do not exit.

    • Ask for ID and/or wait for another staff member to assist.

    • Activate the RACE Plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask for ID and/or wait for another staff member to assist.
    Explanation
    If you are exiting a secure door and are approached by an unidentified person who wants to exit with you or attempts to piggyback, the correct course of action is to ask for ID and/or wait for another staff member to assist. This is because allowing an unidentified person to exit with you can compromise the security of the area. By asking for ID, you can verify their identity and ensure that they have proper authorization to exit. Waiting for another staff member to assist adds an extra layer of security and reduces the risk of unauthorized access.

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  • 23. 

    STRATEGIC PLAN, PERFORMANCE IMPROVEMENTCore Values, Mission, Vision, Operating Principles, Initiative and Objectives and Measures make up the Strategic Plan?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. The core values, mission, vision, operating principles, initiatives, objectives, and measures are all components of a strategic plan. Core values define the organization's beliefs and principles, while the mission and vision statements outline its purpose and long-term goals. Operating principles provide guidelines for decision-making and behavior. Initiatives, objectives, and measures are specific actions and targets that help the organization achieve its strategic goals. Together, these elements form a comprehensive strategic plan that guides the organization's performance improvement efforts.

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  • 24. 

    HIV CONFIDENTIALITYAll written disclosures of confidential HIV information must be accompanied by a statement prohibiting re-disclosure. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because it is a requirement for all written disclosures of confidential HIV information to include a statement prohibiting re-disclosure. This is done to protect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals who have been diagnosed with HIV. By including this statement, it ensures that the information remains confidential and cannot be shared or disclosed without the individual's consent.

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  • 25. 

    INFECTION PREVENTIONAfter an exposure to potentially infectious materials:

    • The employer may charge the employee for the cost of a medical evaluation.

    • The employer must ensure you receive medical treatment and counseling.

    • Your medical records may be available to your fellow employees.

    • The employer can demand a blood sample from you without your consent.

    Correct Answer
    A. The employer must ensure you receive medical treatment and counseling.
    Explanation
    After an exposure to potentially infectious materials, it is the responsibility of the employer to ensure that the employee receives medical treatment and counseling. This is important to prevent any potential infection from spreading and to provide necessary support and guidance to the employee. The employer cannot charge the employee for the cost of a medical evaluation, share their medical records with fellow employees, or demand a blood sample without their consent.

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  • 26. 

    UTILITY SYSTEMS MANAGEMENTIf a failure of a utility poses a threat to patients, staff or visitor safety, notify your supervisor who will call the Safety Department at ext. 1400 AND the WCC at ext. 1659 (during business hours) or the Engineer on duty at ext. 1723 (during non-business hours).

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    If a utility failure could potentially endanger the safety of patients, staff, or visitors, it is important to notify your supervisor. They will then contact the Safety Department and the appropriate personnel to address the issue. This ensures that the necessary steps are taken to mitigate any potential risks and ensure the safety of those in the facility. Therefore, the statement "If a failure of a utility poses a threat to patients, staff or visitor safety, notify your supervisor who will call the Safety Department at ext. 1400 AND the WCC at ext. 1659 (during business hours) or the Engineer on duty at ext. 1723 (during non-business hours)" is true.

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  • 27. 

    HAZARDOUS MATERIALS - RIGHT TO KNOW LAWUnder the Right to Know Law, the letters SDS stand for: 

    • Subsequent Data Sheet

    • Safety Data Sheet

    • Safety Dispatch Sheet

    • Subsequent Data Summary

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety Data Sheet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Safety Data Sheet". The Right to Know Law requires employers to provide information about hazardous materials to their employees. The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is a document that contains detailed information about the potential hazards, handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to a specific hazardous substance. It is used to ensure the safety of workers and provide them with the necessary information to handle hazardous materials properly.

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  • 28. 

    PERSONAL ALARM DEVICE (PAD) The PAD:

    • Has a unique identification code, which the system associates with 1 person.

    • Should not be loaned or transferred to anyone.

    • When activated in the coverage areas, the Safety Office will receive the location of the alarm and picture of the individual who activated it.

    • An activated PAD provides a repeated alarm transmission to the Safety Office for 90 second to allow for tracking of the PAD if the employee moves during alarm conditions.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because the given statements are all true. The Personal Alarm Device (PAD) has a unique identification code associated with one person, it should not be loaned or transferred to anyone, and when activated in the coverage areas, the Safety Office will receive the location of the alarm and a picture of the individual who activated it. Additionally, an activated PAD provides a repeated alarm transmission for 90 seconds to allow for tracking if the employee moves during alarm conditions.

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  • 29. 

    INFECTION PREVENTIONWho uses their detective skills to find bad germs and make sure everyone is doing the right things to keep you safe?

    • Safety and Security Officers

    • Community Mental Health Nurses

    • Security Hospital Treatment Assistants

    • Infection Preventionists

    Correct Answer
    A. Infection Preventionists
    Explanation
    Infection Preventionists use their detective skills to find bad germs and ensure that everyone is following the necessary protocols to keep people safe from infections. They are responsible for implementing and monitoring infection control measures, conducting investigations, and educating healthcare staff and the community about infection prevention. Their role is crucial in preventing the spread of infections and maintaining a safe and healthy environment.

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  • 30. 

    Environmental Services works together with Infection Prevention for better patient outcomes.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Environmental Services and Infection Prevention are two departments within a healthcare facility that work closely together to ensure better patient outcomes. Environmental Services is responsible for maintaining a clean and safe environment, including proper sanitation and disinfection practices. Infection Prevention, on the other hand, focuses on preventing and controlling the spread of infections within the facility. By collaborating and coordinating their efforts, these two departments can effectively minimize the risk of healthcare-associated infections and create a safer environment for patients. Therefore, the statement that Environmental Services works together with Infection Prevention for better patient outcomes is true.

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  • 31. 

    EOPWhat do you do if you discover a emergency and once an emergency has been declared what should you do? 

    • Leave the area as quickly as possible AND seek a safe place to hide.

    • Go home AND watch TV to see if it is on the news.

    • Call 1400 AND follow the direction of your supervisor.

    • Inform the next person you see AND confer with co-workers on what should be done.

    Correct Answer
    A. Call 1400 AND follow the direction of your supervisor.
    Explanation
    In case of discovering an emergency, the appropriate action is to call 1400, which is likely an emergency hotline, and then follow the guidance provided by your supervisor. This ensures that the necessary authorities are informed about the situation and that you receive proper instructions on how to handle the emergency effectively.

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  • 32. 

    CULTURAL/LINGUISTIC/RESPECTCritical factors in the provision of culturally competent health care services includes:

    • Knowledge that the patient's cultural beliefs, values, traditions and practices are critical to the process of developing/implementing treatment and health care interventions and will lead to improved quality of services and reducing disparities.

    • In making a diagnosis, health care providers should have an understanding that diverse attitudes can impact an individual's approach to health and wellness.

    • An understanding that cultural customs and traditions affect beliefs and behaviors that both patients and providers have of each other.

    • Health care services must be received and accepted to be successful

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all the factors mentioned in the options are critical in the provision of culturally competent health care services. Knowledge of the patient's cultural beliefs, values, traditions, and practices is important in developing and implementing treatment plans. Understanding diverse attitudes towards health and wellness helps in making accurate diagnoses. Cultural customs and traditions influence the beliefs and behaviors of both patients and providers, impacting the quality of care. Lastly, for health care services to be successful, they must be received and accepted by the patients.

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  • 33. 

    FIRE SAFETYWhat key activates fire alarm pull stations and opens fire extinguisher cabinet?

    • General access key

    • Special Bit Key

    • B Key

    • No key required

    Correct Answer
    A. B Key
    Explanation
    The B Key is the correct answer as it is the key that activates fire alarm pull stations and opens fire extinguisher cabinets. This key is specifically designed for fire safety purposes and is used by authorized personnel to quickly access and activate the necessary fire safety equipment in case of an emergency.

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  • 34. 

    SAFETY AND SECURITY MANAGEMENTIn order to increase security and reduce risks staff should avoid wearing their keys on their lanyards?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Wearing keys on lanyards can pose a security risk because it makes it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to restricted areas. If staff members wear their keys visibly, it becomes easier for someone to steal or duplicate the keys, potentially compromising the safety and security of the premises. By avoiding wearing keys on lanyards, staff members can help increase security and reduce the risk of unauthorized access.

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  • 35. 

    CULTURAL/LINGUISTIC/RESPECTThe following elements need to be considered  to establish a cultural competent environment.  
    • Encourage patients and family members to educate you on things you want to know.  You have to work toward ameliorating the fear of the unknown.
    • Health care providers do have biases. Examine your bias. Identifying and recognizing this will help to control its expression.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    To establish a culturally competent environment, it is important to encourage patients and their families to educate healthcare providers on aspects they want to know. This helps to bridge the gap in cultural and linguistic understanding. Additionally, healthcare providers should examine their biases and be aware of them in order to control their expression. This is necessary to ensure that patients receive respectful and unbiased care. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct as it accurately reflects the need for cultural and linguistic respect in healthcare settings.

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  • 36. 

    NATIONAL PATIENT SAFETY GOALS (NPSG)Which of the following is/are The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals? 

    • Improve accuracy of patient identification.

    • Improve effectiveness of communication among caregivers.

    • Improve the safety of using medications.

    • Reduce risk of healthcare associated infections.

    • The hospital identifies safety risks inherent in its patient population by identifying those at risk of suicide.

    • Reduce the harm associatted with Clinical Alarm Systems.

    • ALL OF THE ABOVE.

    Correct Answer
    A. ALL OF THE ABOVE.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ALL OF THE ABOVE." All of the listed options are part of The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals. These goals aim to improve patient safety by addressing various areas such as patient identification, communication among caregivers, medication safety, reducing healthcare-associated infections, identifying suicide risks, and reducing harm associated with clinical alarm systems.

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  • 37. 

    CULTURAL/LINGUISTIC/RESPECTIndividuals in many roles can be cultural brokers, but to be effective they must:

    • Assess and understand their own cultural identities and value systems.

    • Avoid advocating with/on behalf of families.

    • Understand a community's traditional health beliefs, values and practices and changes that occur through acculturation.

    • A and B only.

    • A and C only

    Correct Answer
    A. A and C only
    Explanation
    To be effective cultural brokers, individuals must assess and understand their own cultural identities and value systems. This is important because it helps them recognize their biases and how they may influence their interactions with others. Additionally, they must understand a community's traditional health beliefs, values, and practices, as well as the changes that occur through acculturation. This knowledge allows them to bridge the gap between different cultures and effectively communicate and advocate for the needs of individuals and families within those communities. Avoiding advocating with/on behalf of families (option B) is not necessary for being an effective cultural broker.

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  • 38. 

    FIRE SAFETYWhat is the fire emergency number at RPC (in building 60)?

    • 1600

    • 911

    • 1400

    • 0 for Operator

    Correct Answer
    A. 1400
    Explanation
    The fire emergency number at RPC (in building 60) is 1400. This number is specifically designated for fire emergencies and should be dialed in case of a fire-related incident.

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  • 39. 

    FIRE SAFETYWhat actions do you take in the event of a fire?

    • Rescue, Assess, Confine, Evacuate

    • Relocate, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish

    • Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Evacuate

    • Rescue, Alarm, Control, Evacuate

    Correct Answer
    A. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Evacuate
    Explanation
    In the event of a fire, the first priority is to rescue anyone who may be in immediate danger. Next, it is important to sound the alarm to alert others and initiate the evacuation process. Confine refers to closing doors and windows to prevent the fire from spreading further. Finally, everyone should evacuate the premises to a safe location. This sequence of actions ensures the safety of individuals and minimizes the potential damage caused by the fire.

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  • 40. 

    AUTOMATED EXTERNAL DEFIBRILLATOR (AED)What are the steps (IN ORDER) you should take if someone becomes unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless in your work area? 

    • Place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button and follow the audio prompts given by the AED; call for help.

    • Call for help; take the AED to the victim; place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button; follow the audio prompts given by the AED.

    • Take the AED to the victim; call for help; place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button; follow the audio prompts given by the AED.

    Correct Answer
    A. Call for help; take the AED to the victim; place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button; follow the audio prompts given by the AED.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to first call for help, then take the AED to the victim, place the AED near the victim's head, open the cover and press the ON button, and finally follow the audio prompts given by the AED. This order of steps ensures that immediate assistance is requested, the AED is brought to the victim's location, and then the device is properly set up and operated according to the audio instructions.

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  • 41. 

    EOPWhat do the letters EOP mean?

    • Emergency Office Plan

    • Emergency Operations Policy

    • Emergency Operations Plan

    • Emergency Outfit Policy

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency Operations Plan
    Explanation
    The letters EOP stand for Emergency Operations Plan. This plan outlines the procedures and protocols that need to be followed during an emergency situation. It provides a detailed framework for coordinating and managing emergency response efforts, ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals involved. The Emergency Operations Plan is a crucial document that helps organizations effectively respond to and mitigate the impact of emergencies.

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  • 42. 

    EOPDuring a declared emergency, the Command Post is commonly:

    • In the Executive Director's office.

    • Operated remotely from a roving Safety vehicle.

    • At the site of the emergency.

    • In building 60, A101 Conference Room.

    • In the Work Control Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. In building 60, A101 Conference Room.
    Explanation
    During a declared emergency, the Command Post is commonly located in building 60, A101 Conference Room. This room is likely equipped with the necessary resources and technology to effectively coordinate and manage the emergency response efforts. It provides a centralized location for key personnel to gather, communicate, and make critical decisions in a timely manner. Being in a designated conference room ensures that there is enough space for multiple individuals to work together and collaborate effectively during the emergency situation.

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  • 43. 

    EOPThe number of hours the facility is required to self-sustain is: 

    • 69 hours

    • 96 hours

    • 6-9 hours

    • For an indefinite period

    Correct Answer
    A. 96 hours
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 96 hours. This means that the facility is required to be self-sustaining for a period of 96 hours, which is equivalent to 4 days. During this time, the facility should be able to operate without any external support or resources. This could include having backup power generators, sufficient food and water supplies, and other necessary resources to ensure the facility can function independently for that duration.

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  • 44. 

    FIRE SAFETYDuring fire emergencies or extended fire emergencies (while strobes are flashing), and after evacuation has taken place (if appropriate) all staff should:

    • Remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced.

    • Assume the fire emergency is almost over and return to normal business.

    • Call your supervisor.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced.
    Explanation
    During fire emergencies or extended fire emergencies, it is important for staff to remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced. This ensures that everyone stays in a safe location until it has been confirmed that the fire has been extinguished and it is safe to return to normal business. Calling the supervisor may not be necessary in this situation as the priority should be on following the established evacuation procedures and waiting for further instructions. Therefore, the correct answer is to remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced.

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  • 45. 

    PERSONAL ALARM DEVICE (PAD)To activate a Personal Alarm Device (PAD), press and hold both buttons for:

    • 1 second

    • 10 seconds

    • 3 seconds

    • 30 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 seconds
    Explanation
    To activate a Personal Alarm Device (PAD), you need to press and hold both buttons for 3 seconds. This duration allows for a deliberate and intentional activation of the alarm, ensuring that accidental activations are minimized. Holding the buttons for a shorter duration may result in unintended activations, while holding them for a longer duration may cause unnecessary delays in activating the alarm during emergencies. Therefore, pressing and holding both buttons for 3 seconds strikes a balance between ease of use and preventing accidental activations.

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  • 46. 

    FOOD SAFETYIt is important to refrigerate or freeze meat, poultry, eggs, seafood and other perishables within 2 hours of cooking or purchasing because:

    • It slows the growth of harmful bacteria.

    • It is the right thing to do.

    • It will help kill harmful bacteria.

    • It helps keep your kitchen sanitized.

    Correct Answer
    A. It slows the growth of harmful bacteria.
    Explanation
    Refrigerating or freezing perishable foods within 2 hours of cooking or purchasing is important because it slows the growth of harmful bacteria. Bacteria multiply rapidly in the temperature danger zone (between 40°F and 140°F), and refrigeration or freezing helps to keep the food at a safe temperature below 40°F, where bacteria growth is significantly slowed down. This reduces the risk of foodborne illnesses caused by consuming contaminated food.

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  • 47. 

    UTILITY SYSTEMS MANAGEMENTWhich of the following is NOT considered a major Utility System?

    • Electricity and Elevators

    • Boiler-Steam and Hot Water

    • Ventilation and Air Conditioning

    • Security Alarms

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Alarms
    Explanation
    Security alarms are not considered a major utility system because they do not provide essential services like electricity, heating, cooling, or ventilation. Utility systems are typically responsible for providing basic necessities and services to a building or facility, such as power, heating, and cooling. While security alarms play an important role in ensuring the safety and security of a space, they are not typically classified as a major utility system.

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  • 48. 

    INFECTION PREVENTIONThe Hepatitis B vaccine: 

    • Must be paid for by the employer.

    • Is given in a single dose.

    • Must be made available to all employees who have a potential for exposure.

    • Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "both A and C." The explanation for this answer is that the Hepatitis B vaccine must be paid for by the employer and must be made available to all employees who have a potential for exposure. This means that the employer is responsible for covering the cost of the vaccine and ensuring that all employees who may come into contact with the virus are able to receive it.

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  • 49. 

    FOOD SAFETYRPC Nutrition Services provides the following four altered consistency diets: 

    • Regular, Chopped, Pureed, Low Fat

    • Regular, Soft with Chopped Meats, Ground

    • Regular, Soft with Chopped Meats, Ground, Pureed

    • Regular, Ground, Pureed

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular, Soft with Chopped Meats, Ground, Pureed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Regular, Soft with Chopped Meats, Ground, Pureed." This answer is correct because it includes all four altered consistency diets mentioned in the question: Regular, Soft with Chopped Meats, Ground, and Pureed.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 29, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    RPCET
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