Employee And Patient Safety Training! Trivia Quiz
Below are an Employee and patient safety training trivia quiz. For every institution or facility, there should be laid down procedures to prevent any harm from befalling health workers and their patients, too, while they carry out their duty. The quiz below will help you review what you learned from the training. Do give it a shot and keep testing yourself.
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- 26.
INFECTION PREVENTIONThe Hepatitis B vaccine:
- A.
Must be paid for by the employer.
- B.
Is given in a single dose.
- C.
Must be made available to all employees who have a potential for exposure.
- D.
Both A and C
Correct Answer
D. Both A and CExplanation
The correct answer is "both A and C." The explanation for this answer is that the Hepatitis B vaccine must be paid for by the employer and must be made available to all employees who have a potential for exposure. This means that the employer is responsible for covering the cost of the vaccine and ensuring that all employees who may come into contact with the virus are able to receive it.Rate this question:
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- 27.
INFECTION PREVENTIONAfter an exposure to potentially infectious materials:
- A.
The employer may charge the employee for the cost of a medical evaluation.
- B.
The employer must ensure you receive medical treatment and counseling.
- C.
Your medical records may be available to your fellow employees.
- D.
The employer can demand a blood sample from you without your consent.
Correct Answer
B. The employer must ensure you receive medical treatment and counseling.Explanation
After an exposure to potentially infectious materials, it is the responsibility of the employer to ensure that the employee receives medical treatment and counseling. This is important to prevent any potential infection from spreading and to provide necessary support and guidance to the employee. The employer cannot charge the employee for the cost of a medical evaluation, share their medical records with fellow employees, or demand a blood sample without their consent.Rate this question:
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- 28.
INFECTION PREVENTIONThe Exposure Control Plan for your workplace:
- A.
Must be made available to employees.
- B.
Must be updated every 5 years.
- C.
Must list steps to lessen employee exposure.
- D.
Both A and C.
Correct Answer
D. Both A and C.Explanation
The correct answer is "Both A and C." The Exposure Control Plan for the workplace must be made available to employees, as well as list steps to lessen employee exposure. It is important for employees to have access to this plan in order to understand the measures in place to prevent infection and to know how to protect themselves in their work environment. Regular updates every 5 years ensure that the plan remains current and effective in addressing potential risks and hazards.Rate this question:
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- 29.
INFECTION PREVENTIONHIV and HBV can be transmitted by:
- A.
Sexual contact
- B.
Contact with healthy skin
- C.
Sharing hypodermic needles
- D.
Both A and C
Correct Answer
D. Both A and CExplanation
HIV and HBV can be transmitted through sexual contact and sharing hypodermic needles. Sexual contact can involve the exchange of bodily fluids, which can contain the viruses. Sharing needles can also lead to the transmission of these viruses as they can be present in the blood. Contact with healthy skin, on the other hand, does not pose a risk for transmission as the viruses require direct access to the bloodstream to cause infection. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and C.Rate this question:
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- 30.
EOPDuring a declared emergency, the Command Post is commonly:
- A.
In the Executive Director's office.
- B.
Operated remotely from a roving Safety vehicle.
- C.
At the site of the emergency.
- D.
In building 60, A101 Conference Room.
- E.
In the Work Control Center.
Correct Answer
D. In building 60, A101 Conference Room.Explanation
During a declared emergency, the Command Post is commonly located in building 60, A101 Conference Room. This room is likely equipped with the necessary resources and technology to effectively coordinate and manage the emergency response efforts. It provides a centralized location for key personnel to gather, communicate, and make critical decisions in a timely manner. Being in a designated conference room ensures that there is enough space for multiple individuals to work together and collaborate effectively during the emergency situation.Rate this question:
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- 31.
EOPWhat do you do if you discover a emergency and once an emergency has been declared what should you do?
- A.
Leave the area as quickly as possible AND seek a safe place to hide.
- B.
Go home AND watch TV to see if it is on the news.
- C.
Call 1400 AND follow the direction of your supervisor.
- D.
Inform the next person you see AND confer with co-workers on what should be done.
Correct Answer
C. Call 1400 AND follow the direction of your supervisor.Explanation
In case of discovering an emergency, the appropriate action is to call 1400, which is likely an emergency hotline, and then follow the guidance provided by your supervisor. This ensures that the necessary authorities are informed about the situation and that you receive proper instructions on how to handle the emergency effectively.Rate this question:
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- 32.
EOPThe number of hours the facility is required to self-sustain is:
- A.
69 hours
- B.
96 hours
- C.
6-9 hours
- D.
For an indefinite period
Correct Answer
B. 96 hoursExplanation
The correct answer is 96 hours. This means that the facility is required to be self-sustaining for a period of 96 hours, which is equivalent to 4 days. During this time, the facility should be able to operate without any external support or resources. This could include having backup power generators, sufficient food and water supplies, and other necessary resources to ensure the facility can function independently for that duration.Rate this question:
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- 33.
UTILITY SYSTEMS MANAGEMENTIf a failure of a utility poses a threat to patients, staff or visitor safety, notify your supervisor who will call the Safety Department at ext. 1400 AND the WCC at ext. 1659 (during business hours) or the Engineer on duty at ext. 1723 (during non-business hours).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If a utility failure could potentially endanger the safety of patients, staff, or visitors, it is important to notify your supervisor. They will then contact the Safety Department and the appropriate personnel to address the issue. This ensures that the necessary steps are taken to mitigate any potential risks and ensure the safety of those in the facility. Therefore, the statement "If a failure of a utility poses a threat to patients, staff or visitor safety, notify your supervisor who will call the Safety Department at ext. 1400 AND the WCC at ext. 1659 (during business hours) or the Engineer on duty at ext. 1723 (during non-business hours)" is true.Rate this question:
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- 34.
UTILITY SYSTEMS MANAGEMENTWhich of the following is NOT considered a major Utility System?
- A.
Electricity and Elevators
- B.
Boiler-Steam and Hot Water
- C.
Ventilation and Air Conditioning
- D.
Security Alarms
Correct Answer
D. Security AlarmsExplanation
Security alarms are not considered a major utility system because they do not provide essential services like electricity, heating, cooling, or ventilation. Utility systems are typically responsible for providing basic necessities and services to a building or facility, such as power, heating, and cooling. While security alarms play an important role in ensuring the safety and security of a space, they are not typically classified as a major utility system.Rate this question:
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- 35.
NATIONAL PATIENT SAFETY GOALS (NPSG)Which of the following is/are The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals?
- A.
Improve accuracy of patient identification.
- B.
Improve effectiveness of communication among caregivers.
- C.
Improve the safety of using medications.
- D.
Reduce risk of healthcare associated infections.
- E.
The hospital identifies safety risks inherent in its patient population by identifying those at risk of suicide.
- F.
Reduce the harm associatted with Clinical Alarm Systems.
- G.
ALL OF THE ABOVE.
Correct Answer
G. ALL OF THE ABOVE.Explanation
The correct answer is "ALL OF THE ABOVE." All of the listed options are part of The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals. These goals aim to improve patient safety by addressing various areas such as patient identification, communication among caregivers, medication safety, reducing healthcare-associated infections, identifying suicide risks, and reducing harm associated with clinical alarm systems.Rate this question:
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- 36.
AUTOMATED EXTERNAL DEFIBRILLATOR (AED)What are the steps (IN ORDER) you should take if someone becomes unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless in your work area?
- A.
Place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button and follow the audio prompts given by the AED; call for help.
- B.
Call for help; take the AED to the victim; place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button; follow the audio prompts given by the AED.
- C.
Take the AED to the victim; call for help; place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button; follow the audio prompts given by the AED.
Correct Answer
B. Call for help; take the AED to the victim; place the AED near the victim's head; open the cover and press the ON button; follow the audio prompts given by the AED.Explanation
The correct answer is to first call for help, then take the AED to the victim, place the AED near the victim's head, open the cover and press the ON button, and finally follow the audio prompts given by the AED. This order of steps ensures that immediate assistance is requested, the AED is brought to the victim's location, and then the device is properly set up and operated according to the audio instructions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
SPEAK-UP CAMPAIGNThe SPEAK-UP Campaign is sponsored by The Joint Commission. We use it to encourage patients, families and staff to SPEAK-UP and become involved in their health care.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the correct answer, which is True, is that the SPEAK-UP Campaign is indeed sponsored by The Joint Commission. This campaign is designed to promote patient engagement and encourage individuals to actively participate in their healthcare decisions and speak up about any concerns or questions they may have. By sponsoring this campaign, The Joint Commission aims to improve patient safety and overall healthcare quality.Rate this question:
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- 38.
INCIDENT REPORT WRITINGFor all incidents, whose responsibility is it to document in the narrative section of the incident report, and to report what he/she has knowledge of?
- A.
The Charge Nurse
- B.
The Program Administrator
- C.
The Nurse Administrator
- D.
The person with first knowledge of the incident.
Correct Answer
D. The person with first knowledge of the incident.Explanation
The person with first knowledge of the incident is responsible for documenting in the narrative section of the incident report and reporting what he/she knows. This individual is likely to have the most accurate and detailed information about the incident, making them the most suitable person to document it. The charge nurse, program administrator, and nurse administrator may also be involved in the incident report process, but their roles may be more focused on overseeing and managing the incident rather than documenting the details.Rate this question:
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- 39.
CULTURAL/LINGUISTIC/RESPECTCritical factors in the provision of culturally competent health care services includes:
- A.
Knowledge that the patient's cultural beliefs, values, traditions and practices are critical to the process of developing/implementing treatment and health care interventions and will lead to improved quality of services and reducing disparities.
- B.
In making a diagnosis, health care providers should have an understanding that diverse attitudes can impact an individual's approach to health and wellness.
- C.
An understanding that cultural customs and traditions affect beliefs and behaviors that both patients and providers have of each other.
- D.
Health care services must be received and accepted to be successful
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All of the above.
Correct Answer
E. All of the above.Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because all the factors mentioned in the options are critical in the provision of culturally competent health care services. Knowledge of the patient's cultural beliefs, values, traditions, and practices is important in developing and implementing treatment plans. Understanding diverse attitudes towards health and wellness helps in making accurate diagnoses. Cultural customs and traditions influence the beliefs and behaviors of both patients and providers, impacting the quality of care. Lastly, for health care services to be successful, they must be received and accepted by the patients.Rate this question:
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CULTURAL/LINGUISTIC/RESPECTIndividuals in many roles can be cultural brokers, but to be effective they must:
- A.
Assess and understand their own cultural identities and value systems.
- B.
Avoid advocating with/on behalf of families.
- C.
Understand a community's traditional health beliefs, values and practices and changes that occur through acculturation.
- D.
A and B only.
- E.
A and C only
Correct Answer
E. A and C onlyExplanation
To be effective cultural brokers, individuals must assess and understand their own cultural identities and value systems. This is important because it helps them recognize their biases and how they may influence their interactions with others. Additionally, they must understand a community's traditional health beliefs, values, and practices, as well as the changes that occur through acculturation. This knowledge allows them to bridge the gap between different cultures and effectively communicate and advocate for the needs of individuals and families within those communities. Avoiding advocating with/on behalf of families (option B) is not necessary for being an effective cultural broker.Rate this question:
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- 41.
CULTURAL/LINGUISTIC/RESPECTWhat can you do to bridge the cultural and linguistic gap?
- A.
Know and respect cultural differences/practices (i.e. what behaviors would be considered offensive to a belief and value system and what should be avoided).
- B.
Establish trust with the clients/population being served.
- C.
Reduce disparities by eliminating barriers (i.e. utilizing community resources, interpreter services, enhanced documentation.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because all of the mentioned actions contribute to bridging the cultural and linguistic gap. Knowing and respecting cultural differences helps to avoid offensive behaviors and promotes understanding. Establishing trust with the clients or population being served creates a more open and effective communication. Reducing disparities by eliminating barriers, such as utilizing community resources and interpreter services, ensures equal access to services and information. Therefore, all of these actions are necessary to bridge the cultural and linguistic gap effectively.Rate this question:
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- 42.
FIRE SAFETYAccording to the fire plan, a fire is any situation where
- A.
Flame is visible.
- B.
Smoke is visible.
- C.
A strong smell of smoke is noted.
- D.
Where any staff member has a strong sense of or feeling that a fire is occurring.
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because the fire plan defines a fire as any situation where flame is visible, smoke is visible, a strong smell of smoke is noted, or where any staff member has a strong sense or feeling that a fire is occurring. This means that any of these conditions would be considered a fire according to the fire plan.Rate this question:
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- 43.
FIRE SAFETYWhat is the fire emergency number at RPC (in building 60)?
- A.
1600
- B.
911
- C.
1400
- D.
0 for Operator
Correct Answer
C. 1400Explanation
The fire emergency number at RPC (in building 60) is 1400. This number is specifically designated for fire emergencies and should be dialed in case of a fire-related incident.Rate this question:
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- 44.
FIRE SAFETYFire Safety includes which of the following?
- A.
Proper ordinary storage.
- B.
Proper storage of combustibles.
- C.
Proper use and maintenance of electrical appliances and wiring.
- D.
Eliminating obstructions at fire protection and fire suppression devices and exits.
- E.
Following the heat producing small appliances policy.
- F.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
F. All of the above.Explanation
Fire safety includes all of the mentioned measures. Proper ordinary storage ensures that flammable materials are stored safely to prevent fire hazards. Proper storage of combustibles involves storing flammable materials in designated areas and following safety guidelines. Proper use and maintenance of electrical appliances and wiring helps prevent electrical fires. Eliminating obstructions at fire protection and fire suppression devices and exits ensures that these systems can function effectively in case of a fire. Following the heat producing small appliances policy helps prevent fire accidents. Therefore, all of the mentioned measures are part of fire safety.Rate this question:
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- 45.
FIRE SAFETYWhat key activates fire alarm pull stations and opens fire extinguisher cabinet?
- A.
General access key
- B.
Special Bit Key
- C.
B Key
- D.
No key required
Correct Answer
C. B KeyExplanation
The B Key is the correct answer as it is the key that activates fire alarm pull stations and opens fire extinguisher cabinets. This key is specifically designed for fire safety purposes and is used by authorized personnel to quickly access and activate the necessary fire safety equipment in case of an emergency.Rate this question:
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- 46.
FIRE SAFETYWhat actions do you take in the event of a fire?
- A.
Rescue, Assess, Confine, Evacuate
- B.
Relocate, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish
- C.
Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Evacuate
- D.
Rescue, Alarm, Control, Evacuate
Correct Answer
C. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, EvacuateExplanation
In the event of a fire, the first priority is to rescue anyone who may be in immediate danger. Next, it is important to sound the alarm to alert others and initiate the evacuation process. Confine refers to closing doors and windows to prevent the fire from spreading further. Finally, everyone should evacuate the premises to a safe location. This sequence of actions ensures the safety of individuals and minimizes the potential damage caused by the fire.Rate this question:
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- 47.
FIRE SAFETYHow do you know when a Fire alarm has been activated in your area?
- A.
The sprinkler system will activate
- B.
You will hear a slow whooping noise (Building 60 and 16) or constant bell or horn.
- C.
You will hear a voice message announcement.
- D.
Only the strobe lights will flash.
Correct Answer
B. You will hear a slow whooping noise (Building 60 and 16) or constant bell or horn.Explanation
When a fire alarm is activated in your area, you will know because you will hear a slow whooping noise or a constant bell or horn. This is the most common way for fire alarms to alert people to a potential fire. The other options, such as the sprinkler system activating or only the strobe lights flashing, are not reliable indicators of a fire alarm being activated.Rate this question:
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- 48.
FIRE SAFETYDuring fire emergencies or extended fire emergencies (while strobes are flashing), and after evacuation has taken place (if appropriate) all staff should:
- A.
Remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced.
- B.
Assume the fire emergency is almost over and return to normal business.
- C.
Call your supervisor.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
A. Remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced.Explanation
During fire emergencies or extended fire emergencies, it is important for staff to remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced. This ensures that everyone stays in a safe location until it has been confirmed that the fire has been extinguished and it is safe to return to normal business. Calling the supervisor may not be necessary in this situation as the priority should be on following the established evacuation procedures and waiting for further instructions. Therefore, the correct answer is to remain in place until an "ALL CLEAR" is announced.Rate this question:
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- 49.
LIFE SAFETY MANAGEMENTThe reason why Interim Life Safe Measures (ILSM) are implemented is to ensure building occupants that there is a temporary reduction in the normal life safety features of that building, and to provide them with information that would provide equivalent safety within the building.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Interim Life Safe Measures (ILSM) are implemented to temporarily reduce the normal life safety features of a building. This is done to ensure the safety of the building occupants by providing them with equivalent safety measures during the period when the normal life safety features are not available or are being modified. Therefore, the statement that ILSM are implemented to ensure building occupants of a temporary reduction in normal life safety features and to provide them with equivalent safety within the building is true.Rate this question:
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- 50.
HAZARDOUS MATERIALS - RIGHT TO KNOW LAWUnder the Right to Know Law, the letters SDS stand for:
- A.
Subsequent Data Sheet
- B.
Safety Data Sheet
- C.
Safety Dispatch Sheet
- D.
Subsequent Data Summary
Correct Answer
B. Safety Data SheetExplanation
The correct answer is "Safety Data Sheet". The Right to Know Law requires employers to provide information about hazardous materials to their employees. The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is a document that contains detailed information about the potential hazards, handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to a specific hazardous substance. It is used to ensure the safety of workers and provide them with the necessary information to handle hazardous materials properly.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 29, 2016Quiz Created by
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