Anatomy And Physiology I Test III
Questions and Answers
- 1.
This test is done to monitor heart activity for 24 hours or more.
- A.
EKG
- B.
ECG
- C.
Stress Test
- D.
Cardiac Monitor
- E.
Holter Monitor
Correct Answer
E. Holter MonitorExplanation
A Holter monitor is a device that is used to monitor the heart's activity continuously for 24 hours or more. It is a portable electrocardiogram (ECG) device that records the electrical signals of the heart. It is typically used to detect and diagnose abnormal heart rhythms, evaluate the effectiveness of heart medications, and assess the risk of heart disease. Unlike a traditional ECG, which is only performed for a short period of time in a medical facility, a Holter monitor allows for long-term monitoring and provides a more comprehensive assessment of the heart's activity.Rate this question:
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- 2.
We want to measure if the lymphocytes are elevated what test can we order?
- A.
CBC without differential
- B.
CBC with differential
- C.
Neutrophil count
- D.
WBC count
Correct Answer
B. CBC with differentialExplanation
To measure if the lymphocytes are elevated, the most appropriate test to order would be a CBC with differential. This test provides a detailed breakdown of different types of white blood cells, including lymphocytes. By analyzing the lymphocyte count in the CBC with differential, we can determine if there is an elevation in lymphocytes, which may indicate an infection or other medical condition. The other options, such as Neutrophil count and WBC count, do not specifically focus on lymphocytes and may not provide the necessary information to measure lymphocyte elevation accurately.Rate this question:
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- 3.
This test can be used to test for sleeping disorders such as sleep apnea.
- A.
Spirometry
- B.
Peak flows
- C.
Polysommnography
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. PolysommnographyExplanation
Polysomnography is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive test that monitors various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain activity, eye movements, heart rate, and breathing patterns. It is commonly used to diagnose sleep disorders, including sleep apnea, by providing detailed information about the individual's sleep patterns and identifying any abnormalities. Spirometry and peak flows, on the other hand, are tests used to assess lung function and would not be directly applicable for testing sleeping disorders like sleep apnea.Rate this question:
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- 4.
You suspect a patient has a bladder tumor. This test can view the inside of the bladder.
- A.
Cystoscope
- B.
Endoscope
- C.
Gall bladder scope
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. CystoscopeExplanation
A cystoscope is a medical instrument that is used to view the inside of the bladder. It is commonly used to diagnose and treat bladder conditions, such as tumors. The other options, endoscope and gall bladder scope, are not specifically designed to view the inside of the bladder. Therefore, the correct answer is cystoscope.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which test can measure the ability of the blood to clot?
- A.
CBC
- B.
Hemoglobin
- C.
Heme
- D.
Prothrombin
Correct Answer
D. ProthrombinExplanation
Prothrombin is the correct answer because it is a protein produced by the liver that plays a crucial role in blood clotting. A prothrombin test, also known as a prothrombin time (PT) test, measures the time it takes for blood to clot. This test is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant medications, assess liver function, or diagnose bleeding disorders. The other options, CBC, Hemoglobin, and Heme, do not specifically measure the blood's ability to clot.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The lumbar spine has ________ vertebrae
- A.
7
- B.
5
- C.
2
- D.
12
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
The lumbar spine has 5 vertebrae. The lumbar spine is the lower part of the spine, located in the lower back area. It consists of five individual vertebrae, which are numbered L1 to L5. These vertebrae are larger and stronger compared to the other vertebrae in the spine, as they support a significant amount of body weight and provide stability to the lower back.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Herniated disk are most likely to occur in _____________ region.
- A.
Cervical
- B.
Lumbar
- C.
Sacral
- D.
Thoracic
Correct Answer
B. LumbarExplanation
Herniated disks are most likely to occur in the lumbar region. The lumbar region refers to the lower back area of the spine, which is the most common site for herniated disks. This is because the lumbar region bears most of the body's weight and is subjected to a lot of stress and strain. Herniated disks occur when the soft inner portion of a disk protrudes through the tough outer layer, causing pain and discomfort. Therefore, the lumbar region is the most susceptible to this condition.Rate this question:
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- 8.
_______________means to move towards the midline.
- A.
Adduction
- B.
Abduction
- C.
Extension
- D.
Flexion
Correct Answer
A. AdductionExplanation
Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. This means that when a body part is adducted, it is moved closer to the center of the body. For example, when you bring your arms down to your sides from a raised position, you are performing adduction. This movement is opposite to abduction, which is the movement of a body part away from the midline. Extension refers to the straightening or lengthening of a body part, while flexion refers to the bending or decreasing of the angle of a body part.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The _______________allows long bones to increase in height.
- A.
Spongy bone
- B.
Growth plates
- C.
Yellow marrow
- D.
Compact bone
Correct Answer
B. Growth platesExplanation
The growth plates, also known as epiphyseal plates, are responsible for the longitudinal growth of long bones. These plates are located near the ends of long bones and consist of cartilage cells that continuously divide and multiply. As these cells divide, they push the older cells towards the ends of the bones, causing the bones to lengthen. Therefore, the growth plates allow long bones to increase in height.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Compact bone contain structures called?
- A.
Spongy bone
- B.
Yellow marrow
- C.
Osteon units
- D.
RBCs
Correct Answer
C. Osteon unitsExplanation
Compact bone contains structures called osteon units. These units consist of concentric rings of bone tissue called lamellae, which surround a central canal called the Haversian canal. The Haversian canal contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue. The lamellae also contain lacunae, which house bone cells called osteocytes. Canaliculi, tiny channels, connect the lacunae and allow for communication between osteocytes. Osteon units are responsible for providing strength and support to compact bone, as well as facilitating the exchange of nutrients and waste materials within the bone tissue.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The ends of long bones are known as?
- A.
Epiphysis
- B.
Diaphysis
- C.
Compact bone
- D.
Medullary cavity
Correct Answer
A. EpiphysisExplanation
The ends of long bones are known as epiphysis. The epiphysis is the rounded, bulbous part of the bone that articulates with other bones to form joints. It is composed of spongy bone and contains red bone marrow, which is responsible for producing blood cells. The epiphysis plays a crucial role in the growth and development of bones, as well as in providing stability and support to the skeletal system.Rate this question:
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- 12.
As we age the growth plates disappear throught the process of ____________
- A.
Necrosis
- B.
Ossification
- C.
Ischemia
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. OssificationExplanation
Ossification is the process by which the growth plates in our bones disappear as we age. During ossification, new bone tissue is formed and replaces the cartilage in the growth plates, leading to their closure. This process is essential for the normal development and growth of bones, and it helps to increase bone density and strength. Necrosis refers to the death of cells or tissues, and ischemia refers to the inadequate blood supply to a particular organ or tissue. Therefore, neither necrosis nor ischemia is involved in the disappearance of growth plates.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A disease seen after menopause in which bone desity is decreased is known as?
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Osteomalacia
- D.
Rheumatoidism
Correct Answer
B. OsteoporosisExplanation
Osteoporosis is a disease that commonly occurs after menopause, characterized by a decrease in bone density. This condition leads to fragile and brittle bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures and breaks. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that affects the cartilage in the joints, causing pain and stiffness. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by softening of the bones due to a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. Rheumatoidism refers to rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and joint pain. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis.Rate this question:
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- 14.
This is an autoimmune disease of the joints.
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- C.
Septic arthritis
- D.
Gout
Correct Answer
B. Rheumatoid arthritisExplanation
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints. It occurs when the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the synovium, which is the lining of the joints. This leads to inflammation, pain, and stiffness in the affected joints. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is caused by wear and tear on the joints, rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic condition that can affect multiple joints throughout the body. Septic arthritis is caused by an infection in the joint, while gout is a form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints.Rate this question:
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- 15.
This structure connects muscles to bone.
- A.
Ligaments
- B.
Tendons
- C.
Nerves
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. TendonsExplanation
Tendons are the correct answer because they are fibrous connective tissues that connect muscles to bones. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bones to other bones, and nerves are responsible for transmitting signals between the brain and different parts of the body. Therefore, tendons are specifically designed to connect muscles to bones.Rate this question:
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- 16.
An anterior curve of the lower spine is known as.
- A.
Lordosis
- B.
Kyphosis
- C.
Scoliosis
Correct Answer
A. LordosisExplanation
Lordosis is the correct answer because it refers to the anterior curve of the lower spine. Lordosis is a normal curvature of the spine that helps to maintain balance and absorb shock. It is commonly seen in the lumbar region of the spine, creating a slight inward curve. This curve is necessary for proper posture and movement.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A condition where the upper spine exibits a posterior curve is known as.
- A.
Scoliosis
- B.
Kyphosis
- C.
Lordosis
Correct Answer
B. KyphosisExplanation
Kyphosis is a condition where the upper spine exhibits a posterior curve, causing a hunchback appearance. It is characterized by an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine, leading to a rounded or humped back. This condition can be caused by various factors such as poor posture, osteoporosis, spinal injuries, or certain medical conditions. Treatment for kyphosis depends on the severity and underlying cause, and may involve physical therapy, bracing, or in severe cases, surgery.Rate this question:
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- 18.
This type of fracture is often seen by a forced twisting motion of a long bone.
- A.
Oblique
- B.
Nurse maids elbow
- C.
Slipped capital
- D.
Spiral
Correct Answer
D. SpiralExplanation
A spiral fracture occurs when a long bone is subjected to a forced twisting motion. This type of fracture is characterized by a fracture line that spirals around the bone, usually resulting from a rotational force applied to the bone. It is commonly seen in sports injuries or accidents where a twisting force is applied to the bone, causing it to fracture in a spiral pattern.Rate this question:
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- 19.
This test can visualize tumors in the colon
- A.
Cystoscope
- B.
Urethroscope
- C.
Otoscope
- D.
Endoscope
Correct Answer
D. EndoscopeExplanation
An endoscope is a medical device that is used to visualize the internal organs and structures of the body. It consists of a long, flexible tube with a light and camera attached to the end. In this case, an endoscope can be used to visualize tumors in the colon. By inserting the endoscope into the colon, doctors can examine the area and identify any abnormal growths or tumors. This allows for early detection and diagnosis of colon cancer, leading to timely treatment and improved outcomes for patients.Rate this question:
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- 20.
- A.
Clavicle
- B.
Carpals
- C.
Femur
- D.
Radius
Correct Answer
A. Clavicle -
- 21.
The the image above the letter B represents
- A.
Femur
- B.
Radius
- C.
Ulna
- D.
Humerus
Correct Answer
D. HumerusExplanation
The correct answer is Humerus because the image above the letter B in the given options represents the upper arm bone. The humerus is the long bone located between the shoulder and the elbow, and it is the largest bone in the upper limb. It connects the scapula and the radius and ulna bones of the forearm, allowing for movements of the arm.Rate this question:
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- 22.
In the figure above C represents the ___________
- A.
Ulna
- B.
Radius
- C.
Femur
- D.
Humerus
Correct Answer
B. RadiusExplanation
In the given figure, the letter C is pointing towards the radius bone. The radius is one of the two bones in the forearm, along with the ulna. It is located on the thumb side of the forearm and runs parallel to the ulna. The radius is responsible for rotating the forearm and allowing movements of the hand and wrist.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The structure labeled D above represents?
- A.
Radius
- B.
Ulna
- C.
Femur
- D.
Humerus
Correct Answer
B. UlnaExplanation
The structure labeled D represents the ulna. The ulna is one of the two long bones in the forearm, along with the radius. It is located on the inner side of the forearm, opposite to the radius. The ulna plays a crucial role in forearm rotation and stability, as well as providing attachment sites for muscles and ligaments.Rate this question:
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- 24.
E above represents
- A.
Ulna
- B.
Radius
- C.
Hemurus
- D.
Carpals
Correct Answer
D. CarpalsExplanation
E represents carpals, which are the bones in the wrist. The ulna and radius are bones in the forearm, while hemurus is not a recognized bone in the human body.Rate this question:
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- 25.
I above represents
- A.
Tibia
- B.
Fibula
- C.
Carpals
- D.
Femur
Correct Answer
A. TibiaExplanation
The correct answer is tibia because it is one of the bones mentioned in the list. The question is asking which bone is represented by the letter "I" and out of the options given, tibia is the only bone that matches.Rate this question:
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- 26.
J above represents
- A.
Tibia
- B.
Fibula
- C.
Humerus
Correct Answer
B. FibulaExplanation
J above represents the fibula.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Gout is caused by uric acid accumulation in jounts
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs due to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints. These crystals form when there is an excess of uric acid in the body, which can result from the body's inability to properly process and eliminate uric acid. The accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints leads to inflammation, swelling, and severe pain, characteristic symptoms of gout. Therefore, it is true that gout is caused by uric acid accumulation in joints.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Calcium and vitmain D promote bone health
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Calcium and vitamin D are essential for promoting bone health. Calcium is a mineral that is necessary for building and maintaining strong bones, while vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium. Together, they work synergistically to support bone growth and prevent conditions like osteoporosis. Therefore, the statement "Calcium and vitamin D promote bone health" is true.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Osteoarthrits is a wear and tear of joints
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs when the cartilage in the joints wears down over time. This can happen due to age, injury, or other factors. As a result, the bones in the joint may rub against each other, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. Therefore, it is correct to say that osteoarthritis is a wear and tear of joints.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Osteoporosis is an autoimmune disease
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Osteoporosis is not an autoimmune disease. It is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, typically caused by a decrease in bone density. Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body, whereas osteoporosis is primarily caused by factors such as aging, hormonal changes, and lifestyle choices.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Excessive Vitamin C can cause a false positive fecal occult blood test
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Excessive intake of Vitamin C can lead to a false positive result in a fecal occult blood test. This is because Vitamin C can interfere with the chemical reaction that detects blood in the stool, causing a false indication of blood presence. Therefore, it is important to avoid consuming high doses of Vitamin C before undergoing this test to ensure accurate results.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Ketones can be measure with a urine dipstick
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Ketones can be measured with a urine dipstick because when the body does not have enough insulin to convert glucose into energy, it starts breaking down fat for fuel. This process produces ketones, which are acidic chemicals that can be detected in the urine. By using a urine dipstick, the presence of ketones can be easily identified, making it an effective method for measuring ketone levels in the body.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A culture cannot be performed with a stool test
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The given statement is "A culture cannot be performed with a stool test." This statement is false. A stool culture is a laboratory test that is performed on a stool sample to detect and identify any bacteria or other pathogens that may be causing an infection in the digestive system. It helps in diagnosing various gastrointestinal infections, such as bacterial gastroenteritis. Therefore, a culture can be performed with a stool test.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Orange urine may be a sign of certain antibiotics
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Orange urine can be a sign of certain antibiotics because some antibiotics, such as rifampin and nitrofurantoin, can cause the urine to turn orange. This discoloration occurs because these medications can be excreted in the urine and can cause a chemical reaction that changes the color. It is important to note that not all antibiotics cause orange urine, so it is always best to consult a healthcare professional for a proper diagnosis and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 35.
This hematocrit measure the hemoglobin content
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Hematocrit measures the volume percentage of red blood cells in the blood, not the hemoglobin content. Hemoglobin content is measured by other tests such as hemoglobin concentration or total hemoglobin. Therefore, the given statement is false.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Turbidity describes a clear urine
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Turbidity refers to the cloudiness or haziness of a liquid caused by suspended particles. In the context of urine, turbidity is not associated with clear urine but rather with the presence of particles or substances that make it appear cloudy. Therefore, the statement that turbidity describes clear urine is false.Rate this question:
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- 37.
High WBC content in urine is a sign of possible urinary tract infection
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A high white blood cell (WBC) content in urine indicates the presence of an infection in the urinary tract. White blood cells are responsible for fighting off infections in the body, so an increased number of WBCs in the urine suggests that the body is trying to combat an infection in the urinary tract. This can be a sign of a urinary tract infection, which is a common condition caused by bacteria entering the urethra and traveling up into the bladder or kidneys. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Hematuria (blood in urine) is detectable with a urine dipstick
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Hematuria, which refers to the presence of blood in the urine, can be detected using a urine dipstick. A urine dipstick is a simple diagnostic tool that can quickly analyze the composition of urine. It contains chemical reagents that react to different substances in the urine, including red blood cells. When blood is present in the urine, the dipstick will indicate a positive result, confirming the presence of hematuria. Therefore, the statement that hematuria is detectable with a urine dipstick is true.Rate this question:
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- 39.
High ketones can be seen in times of starvation or anorexia nervosa
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
High ketones can be seen in times of starvation or anorexia nervosa because in these conditions, the body does not have enough glucose to use as fuel. As a result, it starts breaking down stored fat for energy, which leads to the production of ketones. Ketones are a byproduct of fat metabolism and their levels increase in the blood and urine when the body is in a state of ketosis. This is a natural response to provide an alternate source of energy when glucose is scarce.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 01, 2011Quiz Created by
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