Anatomy Lower Extremity Quiz 1
Lower Extremity Quiz over Gluteal, thigh & knee, ankle & foot.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A patient comes into your office with complaints of pain on the right side of her hip. Upon taking a history you note that the pain began during a track event where she was jumping over hurdles. Being a skilled physician you are able to pinpoint the tenderness to the anterior inferior iliac spine. Which of the following muscles could most likely cause an avulsion fracture of the above point?
- A.
Sartorius
- B.
Rectus Femoris
- C.
Vastus Lateralis
- D.
Gracilis
- E.
Vastus Medialis
- F.
Pectineus
Correct Answer
B. Rectus FemorisExplanation
The rectus femoris muscle is the only muscle listed that attaches to the anterior inferior iliac spine. An avulsion fracture occurs when a tendon or ligament pulls away a small piece of bone. In this case, the force exerted during the track event could have caused the rectus femoris muscle to contract forcefully, leading to an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior iliac spine. The other muscles listed do not attach to this specific point and therefore would not be likely to cause an avulsion fracture in this location.Rate this question:
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- 2.
You are examining a patient for a possible Trendelenberg's Sign. You ask the patient to stand on his left foot and you notice that his right hip appears to drop relative to the left. Suspecting muscular injury in the hip region you perform imaging studies and find a blood clot that is completely occluding the blood flow to the muscles responsible for the above physical findings. Which of the following arteries is most likely occluded?
- A.
Left Superior Gluteal Artery
- B.
Right Superior Gluteal Artery
- C.
Left Inferior Gluteal Artery
- D.
Right Inferior Gluteal Artery
- E.
Left External Iliac Artery
- F.
Right External Iliac Artery
- G.
Left Femoral Circumflex Artery
- H.
Right Femoral Circumflex Artery
Correct Answer
A. Left Superior Gluteal ArteryExplanation
The left superior gluteal artery is most likely occluded in this case. The Trendelenberg's sign is characterized by drooping of the hip on the side opposite to the affected gluteal muscles. In this scenario, the patient's right hip drops when standing on the left foot, indicating weakness in the muscles responsible for supporting the right hip. The left superior gluteal artery supplies blood to these muscles, and the occlusion of this artery would result in diminished blood flow, leading to muscular injury and weakness.Rate this question:
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- 3.
After a snowboarding accident where you landed on solid ice with your butt, you begin to notice a tingling sensation radiating down your right leg. Shortly thereafter you notice that there is no sensation to the webbed area between your big toe (1st digit) and your second digit, parts of the lower leg, and parts of the thigh. Suspecting neuromuscular injury, which of the following actions is spared that would help pinpoint the nerve being affected?
- A.
Plantarflexion of the foot
- B.
Dorsiflexion of the foot
- C.
Eversion of the foot
- D.
Flexion of the knee
- E.
Extension of the knee
Correct Answer
E. Extension of the kneeExplanation
Extension of the knee is spared in this case because the affected nerve is not involved in this movement. By testing the different actions, it can help pinpoint the specific nerve that is affected. In this scenario, the tingling sensation and loss of sensation in specific areas suggest a nerve injury, and by ruling out the actions that are spared, it can help narrow down the affected nerve.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In the previous question you noticed a tingling sensation in the webbed area between digits 1 and 2. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the cutaneous sensation in that area?
- A.
Saphenous Nerve
- B.
Superior Gluteal Nerve
- C.
Femoral Nerve
- D.
Sural Nerve
- E.
Superficial Fibular Nerve
- F.
Deep Fibular Nerve
Correct Answer
F. Deep Fibular NerveExplanation
The deep fibular nerve is responsible for the cutaneous sensation in the webbed area between digits 1 and 2. This nerve supplies sensory innervation to the skin on the dorsal surface of the foot, including the area between the first and second digits. The other nerves listed do not provide sensation to this specific area.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Your patient is suffering from severe pain and you determine it is necessary to apply an IV injection of an opiod analgesic. With your superb knowledge of anatomy, you know that if you were going to administer this injection into the femoral vein for distribution to the rest of the body you would aim the needle........
- A.
Lateral to the femoral nerve
- B.
Medial to the femoral nerve
- C.
Lateral to the femoral artery
- D.
Medial to the femoral artery
Correct Answer
D. Medial to the femoral arteryExplanation
When administering an IV injection of an opioid analgesic into the femoral vein, it is important to aim the needle medial to the femoral artery. The femoral artery is located laterally in the thigh, while the femoral vein is located medially. By aiming the needle medial to the femoral artery, you can ensure that the medication is delivered directly into the femoral vein for distribution to the rest of the body.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A 17 year old male patient comes into your office with complaints of knee pain after playing a football game with his friends. He explains to you that he was struck forcefully on his lower leg and hasn't been able to walk without extreme pain in his knee. On physical exam, you note that moving his lower leg seems to go further in an anterior direction than you expected. You order an MRI to confirm your diagnosis and note that there is a tear in the ______.
- A.
Fibular Collateral Ligament
- B.
Tibial Collateral Ligament
- C.
Anterior Cruciate Ligament
- D.
Posterior Cruciate Ligament
Correct Answer
C. Anterior Cruciate LigamentExplanation
Based on the given information, the patient's complaint of knee pain after being struck forcefully on his lower leg, along with the finding of the lower leg moving further in an anterior direction than expected on physical exam, suggests a possible tear in the Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL). The ACL is responsible for stabilizing the knee joint and preventing excessive forward movement of the tibia (lower leg bone) in relation to the femur (thigh bone). A tear in the ACL can result in instability and pain in the knee, especially during activities that involve pivoting or sudden changes in direction.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Your patient suffers a traumatic injury to the neck of their fibula. If you suspected a lesion with the nerve associated in that region, which of the following would be relatively spared?
- A.
Dorsiflexion of the foot
- B.
Plantarflexion of the foot
- C.
Eversion of the foot
- D.
Cutaneous sensation, anterior leg
Correct Answer
B. Plantarflexion of the footExplanation
If the patient has a traumatic injury to the neck of their fibula and there is a suspected lesion with the nerve associated in that region, plantarflexion of the foot would be relatively spared. This is because plantarflexion is primarily controlled by the tibial nerve, which innervates the muscles responsible for this movement. The fibular nerve, which is the nerve associated with the neck of the fibula, primarily innervates the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot and eversion of the foot. Therefore, these movements would be more affected in the presence of a lesion in this region. Cutaneous sensation in the anterior leg may also be affected, as the fibular nerve provides sensory innervation to this area.Rate this question:
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- 8.
If you wanted to give an intra-arterial injection of medicine in the tarsal tunnel, you would aim your needle posterior to which of the following structures?
- A.
Tendon of the Tibialis Posterior
- B.
Tendon of the Flexor Digitorum Longus
- C.
Tendon of the Flexor Hallucis Longus
- D.
Tendon of the Gastrocnemius
- E.
Tendon of the Plantaris
Correct Answer
B. Tendon of the Flexor Digitorum LongusExplanation
To give an intra-arterial injection of medicine in the tarsal tunnel, you would aim your needle posterior to the tendon of the Flexor Digitorum Longus. The tarsal tunnel is a narrow space located on the inside of the ankle, and it contains several structures including the tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery, and the tendons of the Flexor Digitorum Longus, Flexor Hallucis Longus, and Tibialis Posterior. By aiming the needle posterior to the tendon of the Flexor Digitorum Longus, you can avoid damaging the tendon and ensure accurate administration of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Your patient comes into your office with complaints of his "foot dropping" and an inability to move it in the opposite direction. You note that there are no other accompanying complaints. A lesion in which of the following nerves would best explain the above scenario?
- A.
Sciatic Nerve
- B.
Tibial Nerve
- C.
Common Fibular Nerve
- D.
Deep Fibular Nerve
- E.
Superficial Fibular Nerve
Correct Answer
D. Deep Fibular NerveExplanation
A lesion in the deep fibular nerve would best explain the presented scenario. The deep fibular nerve innervates the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, which is the movement of lifting the foot upwards. If there is a lesion in this nerve, it can lead to foot drop, where the patient is unable to lift the foot and move it in the opposite direction. The absence of other accompanying complaints suggests that the lesion is localized to this specific nerve.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A patient comes into your office with comlaints of pain in her lower extremity. You note that the areas she's pointing to feel cool to the touch and are a pale, almost bluish in color. You suspect that blood flow is not being circulated adequately to the area. You order imaging to try and pinpoint the location. One of the images come back indicating inflammation and swelling near the adductor hiatus. You suspect that the adductor hiatus has become narrowed to the point it is pinching off blood supply distal to that point. Which of the following arteries would most likely be attempting to provide anastomic flow distal to the occlusion through one of its primary branches?
- A.
External Iliac Artery
- B.
Internal Iliac Artery
- C.
Obturator Artery
- D.
Femoral Artery
- E.
Superior Gluteal Artery
- F.
Inferior Gluteal Artery
- G.
Popliteal Artery
Correct Answer
D. Femoral ArteryExplanation
The femoral artery would most likely be attempting to provide anastomotic flow distal to the occlusion through one of its primary branches. The femoral artery is a major artery in the lower extremity and is responsible for supplying blood to the thigh and lower leg. In cases where there is a blockage or narrowing of blood flow in a specific area, the body may attempt to compensate by diverting blood through collateral vessels or anastomotic connections. Since the adductor hiatus is involved in this case, which is located in the distal thigh, it is likely that the femoral artery would be the main artery attempting to provide an alternative blood supply to the affected area.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 15, 2011Quiz Created by
Andrewteh
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