Human Body Quiz: Anatomy L3 Mock Exam #2

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  • 1/40 Questions

    What system of the body are proprioceptors part of?

    • Nervous
    • Digestive
    • Endocrine
    • Skeletal 
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About This Quiz

Do you enjoy learning about anatomy? This quiz can predict how well you will do on the exam. Anatomy is the discovery and description of the structures of organisms. It is a division of biology and medicine. When you understand anatomy, you are one step closer to obtaining a job in the field of health and medicine. If you are See moreprimed for a challenge and need to put your knowledge into practice, take a gander at this quiz.

Human Body Quiz: Anatomy L3 Mock Exam #2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which plane of motion is the shoulder joint moving in during a wide-arm press up?

    • Transverse

    • Coronal 

    • Frontal

    • Sagittal 

    Correct Answer
    A. Transverse
    Explanation
    The shoulder joint is moving in the transverse plane during a wide-arm press up. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves and movements in this plane involve rotation around a vertical axis. In a wide-arm press up, the shoulders are externally rotated as the arms move away from the midline of the body, which corresponds to movement in the transverse plane.

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  • 3. 

    What name is given to the thin protein filament in the sliding filament theory?

    • Myosin

    • Actin

    • Sarcomere

    • Cross-bridge

    Correct Answer
    A. Actin
    Explanation
    Actin is the correct answer because in the sliding filament theory, actin is the thin protein filament that slides over the myosin filament during muscle contraction. Actin and myosin are the two main proteins involved in muscle contraction, with actin forming the thin filaments and myosin forming the thick filaments. The sliding filament theory states that during muscle contraction, the actin filaments slide past the myosin filaments, causing the muscle to shorten and generate force. Sarcomere is a structural unit of a muscle fiber, and cross-bridge is the attachment formed between myosin and actin during muscle contraction.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following increases in proportion to the number of motor units recruited?

    • The anticipated force requirement

    • The amount of muscle mass present

    • The amount of testosterone present

    • The size of an action potential

    Correct Answer
    A. The anticipated force requirement
    Explanation
    The anticipated force requirement increases in proportion to the number of motor units recruited because as more motor units are activated, more muscle fibers are contracted, resulting in a greater force output. This is because each motor unit consists of a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates, and when more motor units are recruited, a larger number of muscle fibers are stimulated to contract, leading to an increased force generation.

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  • 5. 

    What is one risk of following a low-calorie fad diet?

    • Weight gain

    • Hyperglycaemia

    • Hypotension

    • Constipation 

    Correct Answer
    A. Constipation 
    Explanation
    Following a low-calorie fad diet can lead to constipation. This is because these diets often restrict the intake of fiber-rich foods, which are essential for maintaining regular bowel movements. Without enough fiber, the stool becomes hard and difficult to pass, resulting in constipation. It is important to include a variety of nutrient-dense foods in the diet to ensure a healthy digestive system and prevent constipation.

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  • 6. 

    What is the function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

    • Moisten food

    • Kill bacteria 

    • Produce bile

    • Absorb nutrients 

    Correct Answer
    A. Kill bacteria 
    Explanation
    Hydrochloric acid in the stomach serves the function of killing bacteria. It creates an acidic environment that helps to destroy harmful microorganisms that may be present in the food we consume. This acid also aids in the breakdown of proteins, activates digestive enzymes, and helps in the absorption of certain nutrients.

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  • 7. 

    In the sliding filament theory, which mineral ion is essential for the process of muscle contraction?

    • Magnesium

    • Iron

    • Zinc

    • Calcium 

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium 
    Explanation
    Calcium is essential for the process of muscle contraction in the sliding filament theory. When a muscle is stimulated, calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm of the muscle cell. These calcium ions then bind to the protein troponin, causing a conformational change that allows the myosin heads to bind to actin filaments. This interaction between myosin and actin leads to the sliding of the filaments, resulting in muscle contraction. Therefore, without calcium, the muscle contraction process cannot occur effectively.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is most likely to cause delayed onset of muscle soreness?

    • Aerobic intervals

    • Muscular endurance 

    • Negative reps

    • Supersetting 

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative reps
    Explanation
    Negative reps are most likely to cause delayed onset of muscle soreness. Negative reps involve focusing on the eccentric phase of a movement, which is when the muscle lengthens under tension. This places a greater amount of stress on the muscle fibers, leading to microscopic damage. This damage triggers an inflammatory response, resulting in muscle soreness. By emphasizing the eccentric phase, negative reps can cause more muscle damage and therefore a greater delay in the onset of soreness compared to other forms of exercise.

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  • 9. 

    Which body system is responsible for the break-down and absorption of nutrients?

    • Endocrine

    • Integumentary

    • Digestive 

    • Urinary 

    Correct Answer
    A. Digestive 
    Explanation
    The digestive system is responsible for the break-down and absorption of nutrients. It consists of organs such as the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine, which work together to break down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed into the bloodstream. The nutrients are then transported to different parts of the body to provide energy and support various bodily functions.

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  • 10. 

    What does a motor unit consist of?

    • A sensory neuron and muscle fibres

    • A sensory neuron and mechanoreceptors 

    • A motor neuron and muscle fibres 

    • A motor neuron and mechanoreceptors 

    Correct Answer
    A. A motor neuron and muscle fibres 
    Explanation
    A motor unit consists of a motor neuron and muscle fibers. Motor neurons transmit signals from the central nervous system to the muscles, while muscle fibers are the individual cells within the muscles that contract and generate force. Together, the motor neuron and muscle fibers work together to coordinate muscle movement.

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  • 11. 

    What is inhibited during reciprocal inhibition?

    • Agonist

    • Antagonist 

    • Synergist

    • Fixator

    Correct Answer
    A. Antagonist 
    Explanation
    During reciprocal inhibition, the antagonist muscle is inhibited. Reciprocal inhibition is a neuromuscular process where the activation of one muscle is accompanied by the inhibition of its antagonist muscle. This occurs to ensure smooth and coordinated movement by preventing simultaneous contraction of opposing muscles. Therefore, the correct answer is "Antagonist."

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  • 12. 

    What hormone is released when blood glucose levels fall?

    • Insulin 

    • Thyroxine 

    • Glycogen

    • Glucagon 

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucagon 
    Explanation
    Glucagon is released when blood glucose levels fall. Glucagon is a hormone that is produced by the pancreas and it acts to increase blood glucose levels. It does this by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This helps to counteract the drop in blood glucose levels and maintain a stable level of glucose in the body.

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  • 13. 

    What is a chronic hypertensive at increased risk of?

    • Deafness

    • Kidney disease

    • Vertigo

    • Vomiting 

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidney disease
    Explanation
    A chronic hypertensive individual is at an increased risk of developing kidney disease. This is because high blood pressure can cause damage to the blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to a condition called chronic kidney disease. Over time, this can result in a loss of kidney function and potentially lead to kidney failure. Therefore, it is important for individuals with chronic hypertension to manage their blood pressure effectively to reduce the risk of kidney disease.

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  • 14. 

    What muscle inserts onto both the clavicle and scapula?

    • Trapezius 

    • Rhomboid major

    • Sternocleidomastoid

    • Levator scapulae 

    Correct Answer
    A. Trapezius 
    Explanation
    The trapezius muscle is the correct answer because it is the only muscle listed that inserts onto both the clavicle and scapula. The trapezius muscle originates from the occipital bone and the spinous processes of the cervical and thoracic vertebrae, and it inserts onto the clavicle and the spine and acromion process of the scapula. This muscle is responsible for movements of the shoulder girdle, including elevation, retraction, and rotation of the scapula.

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  • 15. 

    What joint may be at an increased risk of injury as a result of weak vasti muscles?

    • Ankle

    • Elbow

    • Hip

    • Knee

    Correct Answer
    A. Knee
    Explanation
    Weak vasti muscles can lead to an increased risk of injury in the knee joint. The vasti muscles, which include the vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius, are responsible for extending the knee and stabilizing the patella. When these muscles are weak, it can result in poor knee stability and alignment, making the knee joint more susceptible to injuries such as ligament sprains, meniscus tears, or patellofemoral pain syndrome. Therefore, the knee joint is at an increased risk of injury when the vasti muscles are weak.

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  • 16. 

    What does hyperkyphosis most commonly cause?

    • Reduced hip flexion

    • Increased hip flexion

    • Increased shoulder flexion

    • Reduced shoulder flexion 

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced shoulder flexion 
    Explanation
    Hyperkyphosis refers to an excessive forward curvature of the thoracic spine, leading to a rounded upper back or hunchback appearance. This condition can cause tightness and stiffness in the muscles of the shoulders and upper back, leading to a reduction in shoulder flexion. As the upper back becomes more rounded, the range of motion in the shoulders is limited, making it difficult to raise the arms overhead or perform activities that require full shoulder mobility. Therefore, reduced shoulder flexion is the most common consequence of hyperkyphosis.

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  • 17. 

    What could regular cycle rides lasting several hours make type 2a fibres behave like?

    • Type 1 muscle fibres

    • Type 2b muscle fibres

    • Cardiac muscle fibres

    • Smooth muscle fibres

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 1 muscle fibres
    Explanation
    Regular cycle rides lasting several hours can make type 2a muscle fibres behave like type 1 muscle fibres. This is because type 2a muscle fibres have the ability to adapt and change their characteristics based on the demands placed on them. Prolonged endurance exercise, such as cycling, can stimulate the conversion of type 2a fibres into type 1 fibres, which are more fatigue-resistant and better suited for endurance activities. This adaptation allows the muscles to improve their oxygen delivery, increase their aerobic capacity, and enhance their endurance performance.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following would be a benefit of performing regular weight- bearing exercise that may reduce the risk of falls occurring?

    • Increased peak bone mass

    • Increased joint stability 

    • Decreased range of motion

    • Decreased joint loading 

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased joint stability 
    Explanation
    Performing regular weight-bearing exercise can help increase joint stability, which in turn can reduce the risk of falls occurring. When the joints are stable, it becomes easier to maintain balance and prevent falls. This is especially important for older adults who may have weaker muscles and less stable joints. Increasing joint stability through weight-bearing exercise can also improve overall mobility and reduce the risk of injuries from falls.

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  • 19. 

    Which gland is known as the master control gland?

    • Ovaries

    • Testes

    • Adrenal

    • Pituitary

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary
    Explanation
    The pituitary gland is known as the master control gland because it produces and releases hormones that regulate the functions of other endocrine glands in the body. It controls various processes such as growth, metabolism, reproduction, and stress response. The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and is responsible for maintaining the overall hormonal balance in the body.

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  • 20. 

    Which muscle may be lengthened by hyperkyphotic posture?

    • Lower trapezius

    • Pectoralis major 

    • Rectus abdominis 

    • Levator scapulae

    Correct Answer
    A. Lower trapezius
    Explanation
    Hyperkyphotic posture refers to an excessive curvature of the upper spine, causing a rounded back. This posture can lead to the lengthening or stretching of certain muscles. The lower trapezius muscle is located in the upper back and plays a role in maintaining good posture. In hyperkyphotic posture, the rounded back position can cause the lower trapezius to become lengthened or stretched. Therefore, the lower trapezius may be the muscle that is lengthened by hyperkyphotic posture.

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  • 21. 

    What happens to the antagonist muscle during reciprocal inhibition?

    • It contracts concentrically

    • It relaxes

    • It contracts eccentrically 

    • It recoils 

    Correct Answer
    A. It relaxes
    Explanation
    Reciprocal inhibition is a neurophysiological process that occurs when one muscle group is activated while the antagonist muscle group is inhibited. This allows for smooth and coordinated movement. During reciprocal inhibition, the antagonist muscle relaxes, allowing the agonist muscle to contract without any opposing force. This relaxation of the antagonist muscle helps to maintain balance and control during movement.

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  • 22. 

    During the upward phase of a back extension, what action is occurring at iliocostalis?

    • Concentric

    • Eccentric

    • Isometric

    • Isokinetic 

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentric
    Explanation
    During the upward phase of a back extension, the iliocostalis muscle is contracting concentrically. This means that the muscle is shortening while generating force to lift the upper body off the ground. Concentric contractions are responsible for generating movement and are commonly associated with muscle contraction during the lifting phase of an exercise.

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  • 23. 

    What division of the nervous system is responsible for the analysis of information?

    • Autonomic

    • Peripheral 

    • Somatic

    • Central

    Correct Answer
    A. Central
    Explanation
    The central division of the nervous system is responsible for the analysis of information. This division includes the brain and spinal cord, which process and interpret sensory information from the body and external environment. The central nervous system plays a crucial role in receiving, integrating, and coordinating signals, allowing for the analysis and generation of appropriate responses to stimuli.

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  • 24. 

    What would be one of the major cardiovascular benefits of completing relaxation exercises at the end of an exercise session?

    • Reduced heart rate

    • Reduced mitochondria

    • Increased cardiac output

    • Increased total peripheral resistance 

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced heart rate
    Explanation
    Completing relaxation exercises at the end of an exercise session can lead to a reduced heart rate. This is because relaxation exercises help activate the body's parasympathetic nervous system, which promotes relaxation and decreases the heart rate. By slowing down the heart rate, the body can recover more efficiently after exercise and reduce the risk of cardiovascular issues.

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  • 25. 

    What initiates the process of damage to the arteries?

    • LDL cholesterol

    • HDL cholesterol

    • Inflammation

    • Antioxidants

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Inflammation initiates the process of damage to the arteries. When there is inflammation in the body, it can cause the arteries to become damaged and lead to the development of atherosclerosis. This occurs when the immune system responds to injury or infection, causing the arteries to become inflamed. Over time, this inflammation can lead to the buildup of plaque, narrowing the arteries and restricting blood flow. This can increase the risk of heart disease and other cardiovascular problems.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of exercise would aid the development of an increased peak bone mass in young people?

    • Non-weight bearing 

    • Weight-bearing

    • Swimming 

    • Cycling

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight-bearing
    Explanation
    Weight-bearing exercise refers to any activity that requires your body to work against gravity, such as walking, running, or weightlifting. These exercises stimulate the bones to become stronger and denser, leading to an increased peak bone mass. This is particularly important for young people, as they are in a crucial stage of bone development. Non-weight bearing exercises, such as swimming or cycling, do not provide the same impact on bone health as they do not put stress on the bones. Therefore, weight-bearing exercise is the most effective type of exercise for increasing peak bone mass in young people.

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  • 27. 

    Which muscle attaches to the calcaneus?

    • Rectus femoris

    • Tibialis anterior 

    • Soleus

    • Biceps femoris

    Correct Answer
    A. Soleus
    Explanation
    The soleus muscle attaches to the calcaneus. The soleus is a powerful muscle located in the calf that plays a crucial role in plantar flexion of the foot. It originates from the tibia and fibula bones and inserts into the calcaneus, or heel bone. When the soleus contracts, it helps to push the foot downward, allowing for movements such as walking, running, and jumping.

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  • 28. 

    In addition to water, what is a by-product of aerobic energy production?

    • Creatine monohydrate

    • Carbon monoxide

    • Creatine phosphate 

    • Carbon dioxide 

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon dioxide 
    Explanation
    During aerobic energy production, the body breaks down glucose and other molecules to produce energy. This process, known as cellular respiration, occurs in the mitochondria of cells. One of the by-products of this process is carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is released into the bloodstream and transported to the lungs, where it is exhaled out of the body. Therefore, carbon dioxide is a by-product of aerobic energy production.

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  • 29. 

    How are hormones transported?

    • In the blood

    • In the lymph

    • Via nerves

    • Via the digestive system 

    Correct Answer
    A. In the blood
    Explanation
    Hormones are transported in the blood because they are produced by various glands in the body and released directly into the bloodstream. The bloodstream acts as a carrier, allowing the hormones to travel throughout the body and reach their target organs or tissues. This mode of transportation ensures that hormones can effectively communicate with different parts of the body and regulate various physiological processes.

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  • 30. 

    Which posture type can reduce lung capacity?

    • Hyperlordosis

    • Hyperkyphosis

    • Military posture

    • Flat back 

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperkyphosis
    Explanation
    Hyperkyphosis is a posture type characterized by an excessive forward curvature of the upper spine, leading to a rounded or hunched back. This posture can reduce lung capacity because it compresses the chest cavity, limiting the expansion of the lungs and restricting the ability to take deep breaths. As a result, it can impair the ability to fully oxygenate the body and may lead to respiratory difficulties.

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  • 31. 

    When exercise intensity and cardiac output increase, what is controlled by vasodilation to prevent the dangerous increase of blood pressure?

    • Stroke volume

    • Total peripheral resistance 

    • Heart rate

    • Oxygen uptake 

    Correct Answer
    A. Total peripheral resistance 
    Explanation
    When exercise intensity and cardiac output increase, the body needs to prevent a dangerous increase in blood pressure. Vasodilation, the widening of blood vessels, is controlled to decrease total peripheral resistance. By reducing resistance, blood flow is facilitated, allowing blood to flow more easily through the vessels and preventing a dangerous increase in blood pressure. This helps maintain a stable blood pressure during exercise.

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  • 32. 

    What do the coronary arteries supply blood to?

    • Lungs

    • Heart

    • Brain

    • Body

    Correct Answer
    A. Heart
    Explanation
    The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart. These arteries branch off from the aorta and deliver oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. The heart needs a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients in order to function properly, and the coronary arteries ensure that the heart receives this necessary blood supply. Without adequate blood flow through the coronary arteries, the heart muscle can become damaged, leading to conditions like heart attack or heart failure.

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  • 33. 

    What type of exercise would help a moderate hypertensive normalise their blood pressure over a period of time?

    • Aerobic exercise

    • Isometric exercise 

    • Maximal strength training

    • Hypertrophy training 

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerobic exercise
    Explanation
    Aerobic exercise is the correct answer because it is known to be effective in reducing blood pressure in individuals with hypertension. Aerobic exercise involves continuous and rhythmic movements of large muscle groups, which helps to strengthen the heart and improve cardiovascular fitness. Regular aerobic exercise can lower blood pressure by reducing the resistance to blood flow in the arteries, improving blood vessel function, and reducing overall inflammation in the body. Therefore, engaging in aerobic exercise over a period of time can help a moderate hypertensive individual normalize their blood pressure levels.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of blood flows through which structure after gaseous exchange takes place in the pulmonary capillaries?

    • Deoxygenated blood through the venules

    • Oxygenated blood through the venules

    • Deoxygenated blood through the arterioles

    • Oxygenated blood through the arterioles

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygenated blood through the venules
    Explanation
    After gaseous exchange takes place in the pulmonary capillaries, oxygenated blood flows through the venules.

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  • 35. 

    In the sliding filament theory, which molecule provides the energy to enable myosin to pull on actin?

    • Creatine phosphate

    • Adenosine triphosphate

    • Adenosine diphosphate

    • Calcium phosphate 

    Correct Answer
    A. Adenosine triphosphate
    Explanation
    Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the correct answer because it is the primary source of energy for muscle contraction in the sliding filament theory. ATP is broken down by myosin into adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate, releasing energy that allows myosin to pull on actin and generate muscle movement. Creatine phosphate is a high-energy molecule that can quickly regenerate ATP, but it does not directly provide the energy for myosin to pull on actin. Calcium phosphate is not directly involved in muscle contraction and does not provide energy for myosin.

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  • 36. 

    Which organ secretes juices that contain lipase, amylase and trypsin to aid the digestion and absorption of nutrients?

    • Gall bladder

    • Liver

    • Pancreas

    • Oesophagus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreas
    Explanation
    The pancreas secretes juices that contain lipase, amylase, and trypsin to aid in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. Lipase helps in the breakdown of fats, amylase aids in the breakdown of carbohydrates, and trypsin assists in the breakdown of proteins. These enzymes are essential for the proper digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine. The gall bladder stores bile, which is produced by the liver and helps in the digestion of fats, but it does not secrete lipase, amylase, or trypsin. The liver produces bile, but it does not secrete these digestive enzymes. The esophagus is not involved in the secretion of digestive juices.

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  • 37. 

    Which hormone develops male sexual characteristics?

    • Progesterone

    • Oestrogen

    • Testosterone 

    • Relaxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Testosterone 
    Explanation
    Testosterone is the hormone that develops male sexual characteristics. It is primarily produced in the testicles and is responsible for the development of male reproductive organs, deepening of the voice, growth of facial and body hair, and muscle development. Testosterone also plays a role in sex drive and sperm production.

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  • 38. 

    The intake of which nutrient must be balanced to effectively bulk out food and aid the transportation of food through the gastrointestinal tract?

    • Fat

    • Protein

    • Iron

    • Fibre

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibre
    Explanation
    Fibre is the nutrient that must be balanced to effectively bulk out food and aid the transportation of food through the gastrointestinal tract. Fibre adds bulk to the stool, making it easier to pass through the digestive system and preventing constipation. It also helps to regulate bowel movements and promote overall digestive health.

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  • 39. 

    How does improved neuromuscular coordination benefit exercise performance?

    • Increased power

    • Increased heart rate

    • Increased oxygen

    • Increased energy production 

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased power
    Explanation
    Improved neuromuscular coordination benefits exercise performance by increasing power. When the nervous system and muscles work together more efficiently, it allows for greater force production, speed, and accuracy in movement. This enhanced power output can lead to improved athletic performance, such as being able to lift heavier weights, run faster, or jump higher.

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  • 40. 

    What is a muscle spindle able to detect a change in?

    • Length

    • Tension

    • Strength 

    • Endurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Length
    Explanation
    A muscle spindle is a sensory organ located in the muscle that is able to detect changes in muscle length. It consists of specialized muscle fibers that are sensitive to stretch. When a muscle is stretched, the muscle spindle is activated and sends signals to the brain, providing information about the length and position of the muscle. This allows the brain to coordinate muscle contractions and maintain proper posture and movement.

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 23, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 07, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Hodgesd

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