Anatomy II Test 2 Part 1
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Anatomy. Two. Test. Two. Part one.
- 1.The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the
- A.
Tunica media
- B.
Tunica adventitia
- C.
Tunica intima
- D.
Tunica externa
- E.
Tunica interna
- 2.Compared to arteries, veins
- A.
Have a pleated endothelium
- B.
Are more elastic
- C.
Have thinner walls
- D.
Hold their shape when cut
- E.
Have more smooth muscle in their tunica media
- 3.Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
- A.
Vasa vasorum
- B.
Sinuses
- C.
Discontinuous capillaries
- D.
Fenestrated capillaries
- E.
Perforated capillaries
- 4.Materials can move across capillary walls by
- A.
Reabsorbtion
- B.
Filtraton
- C.
Diffusion
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and b only
- 5.Metabolites exchange by diffusion with tissue cells in which of the following locations?
- A.
Venule
- B.
Artery
- C.
Vein
- D.
Arteriole
- E.
Capillary
- 6.Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the
- A.
Osmolarity of interstital fluids
- B.
Blood vessel diameter
- C.
Flow characteristics
- D.
Blood viscosity
- E.
Length of a blood vessel
- 7.As blood travels from arteries to veins
- A.
Pressure builds
- B.
Pressure drops
- C.
Diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller
- D.
Flow becomes turbulent
- E.
Viscosity increases
- 8.Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the
- A.
Veins constrict
- B.
Level of oxygen at the tissue increases
- C.
Arterioles dilate
- D.
Level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases
- E.
Both c and d
- 9.Blood pressure is highest here.
- A.
Artery
- B.
Vein
- C.
Capillary
- D.
Venule
- E.
Areriole
- 10.The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ______ pressure.
- A.
Critical closing
- B.
Circulatory
- C.
Mean arterial
- D.
Pulse
- E.
Blood
- 11.The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the
- A.
Concentration of plasma waste products
- B.
Number of red blood cells
- C.
Concentration of plasma proteins
- D.
Concentration of plasma glucose
- E.
Concentration of plasma sodium ions
- 12.When renin is released from the kidney
- A.
Blood pressure goes down
- B.
Angiotensiongen is converted into angiotensis I
- C.
Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II
- D.
Blood flow to the kidney decreases
- E.
Angiotensin I increases salt reabsorbtion at the kidneys
- 13.Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except
- A.
Decrease in blood volume
- B.
Increased levels of ANP
- C.
Decreased peripheral resistance
- D.
Release of renin
- E.
Increased levels of aldosterone
- 14.Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the
- A.
Lungs
- B.
Aorta
- C.
Left atrium
- D.
Systemic circuit
- E.
Right atrium
- 15.Pulmonary Veins carry blood to the
- A.
Aorta
- B.
Right atrium
- C.
Lungs
- D.
Pulmonary circuit
- E.
Left atrium
- 16.An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ____ artery
- A.
Azygos
- B.
Mental
- C.
External carotid
- D.
Internal carotid
- E.
Maxillary
- 17.Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the _____ vein
- A.
Azygos
- B.
External jugular
- C.
Internal jugular
- D.
Vertebral
- E.
Innominate
- 18.Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexy results in
- A.
Increased heart rate
- B.
Stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain
- C.
Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart
- D.
Stimulation of the vascconstrictive center
- E.
Increased activity by parasympathetic nervous system
- 19.In response to hemorrhage there is
- A.
Peripheral vasoconstriction
- B.
Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart
- C.
Mobilzation of the venous reserve
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and c only
- 20.Branches off the aortic arch include the
- A.
Left subclavin artery
- B.
Brachiocephalic trunk
- C.
Left comman carotid artery
- D.
All of the above
- E.
B and c only
- 21.After passing the first rib, the sub clavin artery becomes the ____ artery.
- A.
Ulnar
- B.
Digital
- C.
Brachial
- D.
Axillary
- E.
Radial
- 22.After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ____ artery.
- A.
Ulnar
- B.
Brachial
- C.
Radial
- D.
Digital
- E.
Subclavin
- 23.The brachial artery branches to form the radical and _____ arteries.
- A.
Digital
- B.
Brachiocephalic
- C.
Ulnar
- D.
Axillary
- E.
Subclavin
- 24.The inernal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the
- A.
Common carotid artery
- B.
Basal ring
- C.
Arterial bypass
- D.
External carotid artery
- E.
Cerebral arterial circle
- 25.The _____ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta
- A.
Diaphragm
- B.
Peritoneum
- C.
Mediastinum
- D.
Pleura
- E.
Pericardium
- 26.The vessel that recievs blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the
- A.
Coronary sinus
- B.
External juglar vein
- C.
Internal jugular vein
- D.
Superior vena cava
- E.
Inferior vena cava
- 27.The radical and ulnar veins fuse to form the _____ vein.
- A.
Hemiazygos
- B.
Azygos
- C.
Axillary
- D.
Basilic
- E.
Barchial
- 28.When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ______ vein.
- A.
Deep formal
- B.
Femoral
- C.
Interal iliac
- D.
Lumbar
- E.
External iliac
- 29.The two comman iliac veins form the
- A.
Inferior vena cava
- B.
Femoral vein
- C.
Innominate vein
- D.
Greater saphenous vein
- E.
Hepatic portal vein
- 30.Elderly individuals usually have
- A.
Stiff inelastic arteries
- B.
Increased blood pressure
- C.
Reduced hematocrits
- D.
Decreased cardiac reserve
- E.
All of the above
- 31.The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called
- A.
Arterioles
- B.
Capillaries
- C.
Venules
- D.
Arteries
- E.
Veins
- 32.In large arteries the thick layer of elastic fibers is called the
- A.
Tunia media
- B.
Tunica externa
- C.
Internal elastic membrane
- D.
External elastic membrane
- E.
Tunica intima
- 33.Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery?
- A.
Quadriplegia
- B.
Stroke
- C.
Pulmonary embolism
- D.
Myocardial infarction
- E.
Hypotension
- 34.These vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply
- A.
Vein
- B.
Artery
- C.
Capillary
- D.
Venule
- E.
Arteriole
- 35.A vein that measures 5 mm would be considered
- A.
A venous valve
- B.
A medium vein
- C.
An arteriovenule
- D.
A venule
- E.
A large vein
- 36.Clinically the term blood pressure usually refers to
- A.
Arteriovenous pressure
- B.
Peripheral pressure
- C.
Capillary hydrostatic pressure
- D.
Pulse pressure
- E.
Arterial pressure
- 37.Venous valces are responsible for
- A.
Preventing anterograde flow
- B.
Channeling blood toward the heart
- C.
Channeling blood away from the heart
- D.
Both a and b
- E.
Both a and c
- 38.ADH and aldosterone secreation are part of the bodys long term compensation for
- A.
A heavy meal
- B.
Prolonged exercise
- C.
A serious hemmorage
- D.
Hypertension
- E.
A heart attack
- 39.Factors that increase the rish of artherosclerosis include which of the following?
- A.
Smoking
- B.
Lack of exercies
- C.
Obesity
- D.
High cholesterol
- E.
All of the above
- 40.Turbulent blood flow occurs
- A.
A high flow rates
- B.
When there are irregularities in the vessel wall
- C.
When there are sudden changes in vessel diameter
- D.
A and c only
- E.
A b and c
- 41.Edema is favored when
- A.
Endothelial permeabiltiy goes up
- B.
Capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated
- C.
The plasma concentration of protein is reduced
- D.
A and c only
- E.
A b and c
- 42.When a person rises quickly from a sitting position
- A.
Reflex vasoconstriction of peropheral blood vessels occurs
- B.
Heart rate is reflexy elevated
- C.
The carotid baroreceptors become less active
- D.
Venous return is decreased
- E.
All of the above
- 43.After losing 25 percent of blood volume in a motorcycle accident which of the following compensatory responses would occur?
- A.
Vasoconstricion of the body wall
- B.
Increase of contractility
- C.
Venoconstriction of skin vessels
- D.
Increased heart rate
- E.
All of the above
- 44.Identify the artery labeled 16
- A.
Axiallary
- B.
Splenic
- C.
Celiac
- D.
Superior mesenteric
- E.
Inferior mesenteric
- 45.Identify the artery labeled 12
- A.
Axiallary
- B.
Inferior mesenteric
- C.
Celiac trunk
- D.
Splenic
- E.
Superior mesenteric
- 46.Identify the artery labeled 1
- A.
Brachiocephalic
- B.
Common carotid
- C.
Aorta
- D.
Brachial
- E.
Axiallary
- 47.Identify the arteries labeled 9
- A.
Aorta
- B.
Brachial
- C.
Brachiocephalic
- D.
Common carotid
- E.
Axiallary
- 48.Identify the arteries labeled 6
- A.
Femoral
- B.
Interal iliac
- C.
Abdominal aorta
- D.
External iliac
- E.
Comman iliac
- 49.Identify the vein labeled 9
- A.
Brachial
- B.
Median cubital
- C.
Axillary
- D.
Basilic
- E.
Cephalic
- 50.Identify the vein labeled 15
- A.
Ulnar
- B.
Axiallary
- C.
Brachial
- D.
Radial
- E.
Basilic
- 51.Identify the vein labeled 10
- A.
Super vena cava
- B.
Aorta
- C.
Inferior vena cava
- D.
Thoracic
- E.
Pulmonary
- 52.Identify the vein labeled 8
- A.
External jugular
- B.
Superior vena cava
- C.
Subclavian
- D.
Brachiocephalic
- E.
Axiallary
- 53.Identify the vein labeled 6
- A.
Comman iliac
- B.
Internal iliac
- C.
Inferior vena cava
- D.
External iliac
- E.
Femoral
- 54.The lymphiod system is composed of all of the following except
- A.
Lymph
- B.
The venae cavae
- C.
Lymphatic vessels
- D.
Lyph nodes
- E.
The spleen
- 55.Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the
- A.
Dural sinus
- B.
Thoraic duct
- C.
Right lyphatic duct
- D.
Cisterna chyli
- E.
Hepatic portal vein
- 56.In general, lyphocytes
- A.
Spend most of their time in lymphoid tissue
- B.
Have relatively long life spans
- C.
Have two nuceli
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and b only
- 57.The term lymphadenopathy refers to
- A.
The lack of lymphocytes in the perpheral circulation
- B.
A chronic or excessice enlargement of lyph nodes
- C.
A congenital lack of lyph nodes
- D.
Accumulations of lyph in the tissue space
- E.
Increases numbers of circulating lyphocytes
- 58.The largest single colletion of lyphoid tissue in the adult body is located in the
- A.
Spleen
- B.
Thymus
- C.
Liver
- D.
Lyph nodes
- E.
Tonsils
- 59.An inflammatory response is triggered when
- A.
Red blood cells release pyrogens
- B.
T cells release interferon
- C.
Neutrophils phagocytize bacteria
- D.
Blood flow to an area increases
- E.
Mast cells release histamine and heparin
- 60.Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by
- A.
Immunological surveillance
- B.
Fever
- C.
Nonspecific immunity
- D.
Specific immunity
- E.
Skin defenses
- 61.The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to
- A.
A cell surface antigen
- B.
The plasma membrane of bacteria
- C.
The cell wall of bacteria
- D.
An antibody attached to an antigen
- E.
A plasma protein
- 62.Immunity that results from antibodies that pass that placenta from mother to fetus is called _________ immunity
- A.
Naturally acquired passive
- B.
Auto
- C.
Passive
- D.
Innate
- E.
Active
- 63.The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the _____ cells
- A.
Helper T
- B.
B
- C.
Suppressor T
- D.
NK
- E.
Cytotoxic t
- 64.Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus infected cells are __________ cells
- A.
Cytotoxic T
- B.
B
- C.
Helper T
- D.
Suppressor T
- E.
Plasma
- 65.The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the
- A.
NK
- B.
B
- C.
Suppressor T
- D.
Helper T
- E.
Plasma
- 66.Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses bacteria and bacterial toxins are
- A.
IgE
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgD
- E.
IgG
- 67.Immunoglobulins forred of five subunits that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection are
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgG
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgD
- E.
IgE
- 68.The binding of antigen to antibody can result in
- A.
Complement activation and opsonization
- B.
Neutruliazation of the antigen
- C.
Agglutination of precipitation
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and b only
- 69.When an antigen is bound to a class I MHC molecule it can stimulate a _____________ cell
- A.
Helper T
- B.
Nk
- C.
B
- D.
Cyotoxic T
- E.
Plasma
- 70.B cells are primarily activated by the activities of
- A.
Antibodies
- B.
Antigens
- C.
Macrophages
- D.
Plasma cells
- E.
Helper t cells
- 71.During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur except
- A.
Neutrophils invade the surround areas releasing chemotatic substances
- B.
B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediatley
- C.
B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plamsa cells and memory cells
- D.
The first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type
- E.
Antibody levels to not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the intial exposure
- 72.Hormones of the immune system include all of the following except
- A.
Thymosins
- B.
Interleukins
- C.
Natriuretic factor
- D.
Interferons
- E.
Tumor necrosis factor
- 73.Newborns gain their immunity initially from
- A.
Early immunizations
- B.
Contact with siblings
- C.
Antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother
- D.
Contact with virus and bacteria
- E.
Breast milk
- 74.Autoantibodies
- A.
Are produced by activated T cells
- B.
Are directed against the bodys own antigens
- C.
Are the first step in immunological competence
- D.
Are produced during an allergic reaction
- E.
Are important in tissue rejection reactions
- 75.Stress can affect the immune response in all the follwing ways except by
- A.
Inhibiting glucorticoid release
- B.
Inhibiting interleukin secreation
- C.
Increasing the level of glucocorticoids
- D.
Depressing the inflammatory response
- E.
Reducing the number of phagocytes
- 76.Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following, except
- A.
Lymphoid nodules.
- B.
The spleen.
- C.
The brain.
- D.
The thymus
- E.
Lymph node organs.
- 77.Lymphocyte production involves
- A.
Bone marrow.
- B.
Peripheral lymphoid tissues.
- C.
Thymus tissue.
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and B only
- 78.Lymphatic vessels are located in almost all portions of the body, except
- A.
Groin.
- B.
Throat.
- C.
Periphery.
- D.
Renal arteries.
- E.
CNS.
- 79.Nonspecific defenses include
- A.
Inflammation.
- B.
Interferons.
- C.
Phagocytic cells.
- D.
Physical barriers.
- E.
All of the above.
- 80.Plasma contains _______ special complement proteins that form the complement system.
- A.
11
- B.
5
- C.
9
- D.
7
- E.
3
- 81.In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by
- A.
The variable segment of the heavy chain
- B.
The variable segement of the light chain
- C.
The constant segement of the heavy chain
- D.
A+B
- E.
A+C
- 82.Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentracted in the
- A.
Red marrow.
- B.
Circulation.
- C.
Yellow marrow.
- D.
Spleen.
- E.
Thymus.
- 83.Lymphoid tissue is found in the greatest quantity in
- A.
The adult tissue.
- B.
Bone marrow.
- C.
The tonsils.
- D.
The adult thymus.
- E.
Peyer patches.
- 84.Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only
- A.
In antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.
- B.
When cytotoxic T cells are inhibited.
- C.
During infections.
- D.
When NK cells are activated.
- E.
When plasma cells are releasing antibodies.
- 85.In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of
- A.
Innate immunity.
- B.
Alloimmunity.
- C.
Passive immunization.
- D.
Natural immunity.
- E.
Active immunization.
- 86.The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects _____ cells.
- A.
Plasma.
- B.
B
- C.
Suppressor T
- D.
Cytotoxic T
- E.
Helper T
- 87.Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons?
- A.
Secrete free radicals.
- B.
Secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis.
- C.
Secrete mutant proteins.
- D.
Secrete organtic solvent.
- E.
Secrete strong acid.
- 88.A sample of Johns blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John
- A.
Is running a fever.
- B.
Has a sore throat.
- C.
Has a swollen lymph nodes.
- D.
Is producing T lymphocytes.
- E.
Is feeling achy.
- 89.Figure 22-1Identify the dominant cell type in the area labled "6"
- A.
Erythrocytes
- B.
T cells
- C.
B cells
- D.
Platelets
- E.
All of the above
- 90.Identify the dominant cell type in the area labled "4"
- A.
T cells
- B.
Platelets
- C.
Erythrocytes
- D.
B cells
- E.
All of the above
- 91.Identify the structure labled "1"
- A.
Arteriole
- B.
Lymphatic nodule
- C.
Venule
- D.
Afferent lymphatic vessal
- E.
Efferent lymphatic vessal
- 92.Identify the structure labled "3"
- A.
Trabeculae
- B.
Subcapsular space
- C.
Cortex
- D.
Capsule
- E.
Outer cortex
- 93.Identify the structure labled "6"
- A.
Trabeculae
- B.
Inner cortex
- C.
Cortical sinus
- D.
Medulla
- E.
Outer cortex
- 94.Which of the following organs is not part of tghe lower respiratory system?
- A.
Bronchi
- B.
Alveoli
- C.
Trachea
- D.
Larynx
- E.
Oropharynx
- 95.Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
- A.
Upper respiratory tract.
- B.
Lower respiratory tract.
- C.
Alveoli.
- D.
Bronchioles.
- E.
Lungs.
- 96.Large airbone particles are filtered by
- A.
The soft palate.
- B.
Hairs in the nasal vestibule.
- C.
The nasal sinuses.
- D.
The nasopharynx.
- E.
Choanae.
- 97.The conchae
- A.
Provide a surface for the sense of smell.
- B.
Divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.
- C.
Provide an opneing inot the pharynx.
- D.
Create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.
- E.
Provide an opneing to paranasal sinuses.
- 98.The opening to the nostrils are the
- A.
Nasal apertures.
- B.
External nares.
- C.
Vestibules.
- D.
Internal nares
- E.
Conchae.
- 99.The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and foods is the
- A.
Aeropharynx.
- B.
Oropharynx.
- C.
Laryngopharynx.
- D.
Nasopharynx.
- E.
Internal pharynx.
- 100.The auditory tubes open into the
- A.
Nasopharynx.
- B.
Larynx.
- C.
Laryngopharynx.
- D.
Nasl cavity.
- E.
Oropharynx.
- 101.The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the
- A.
Larynogopharynx
- B.
Nasal cavity
- C.
Larynx
- D.
Oropharynx
- E.
Nasopharynx
- 102.The larynx contains____cartilages.
- A.
Three
- B.
Six
- C.
A total of nine.
- D.
A,B,and C
- E.
A varible number of
- 103.The glottis is
- A.
the opening to the pharynx.
- B.
Part of the hard palate.
- C.
A flap of elastic cartilage.
- D.
The soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft plalate.
- E.
The opening to the larynx.
- 104.The vocal folds are located within the
- A.
Nasopharynx.
- B.
Trachea.
- C.
Oropharynx.
- D.
Larynx.
- E.
Bronchi.
- 105.The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
- A.
Thyroid cartilage.
- B.
Corniculate cartilage.
- C.
Cricoid cartilage.
- D.
Cuneiform cartilage.
- E.
Epiglottis.
- 106.The ring-shaped cartialge just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the _____cartilage.
- A.
Cuneiform.
- B.
Epiglottis.
- C.
Arytenoid.
- D.
Cricoid.
- E.
Corniculate.
- 107.A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the____cartilage.
- A.
Epiglottic
- B.
Cuneiform
- C.
Vestibular
- D.
Thyroid
- E.
Corniculate
- 108.The placement of a tube directly into the trachea to bypass the larynx is termed a(n)
- A.
Tracheostomy
- B.
Intubation
- C.
Cathetrization
- D.
Tunnelization
- E.
Trachectomy
- 109.The nasal cavity is separarted from the oral cavity by the
- A.
Pharyngeal septum.
- B.
Hard palate.
- C.
Soft palate.
- D.
Cribriform plate.
- E.
Interanl nares.
- 110.The airway that connects the larynx to the brochial tree is the
- A.
Alveolar duct.
- B.
Bronchus.
- C.
Bronchiole.
- D.
Laryngopharynx.
- E.
Trachea.
- 111.Secondary bronchi supply air to the
- A.
Alveolar duct.
- B.
Alveolar.
- C.
Lobules of the lungs.
- D.
Lobes of the lungs.
- E.
Lungs.
- 112.They branch from te traches at the carina.
- A.
Terminal bronchioles.
- B.
Primary bronchi.
- C.
Secondary bronchi.
- D.
Tertiary bronchi.
- E.
Alveolar ducts.
- 113.The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
- A.
Terminal bronchioles.
- B.
Alveoli.
- C.
Pleural spaces.
- D.
Bronchioloes.
- E.
Interlobular septa.
- 114.Boyles law states that gas volume is
- A.
Directly proportional to pressure
- B.
Inversely proportional to pressure.
- C.
Inversely proportional to temp.
- D.
Directly proportional to temp.
- E.
Both A and B
- 115.Which of the following muscles might be recruited ti increase inspired volume?
- A.
Sternocleidomastoid
- B.
Serratus anterior
- C.
Scalenes
- D.
Pectoralis minor
- E.
All of the above
- 116.Pulmonary ventilation refers to the
- A.
Movemnet of dissolved gases from the interstitial
- B.
Movement of dissovled gases from the blood
- C.
Utilization of oxygen.
- D.
Movemnet of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
- E.
Movemnet of air into and out the lungs.
- 117.Alveolar ventilation refers to the
- A.
Movemnet of air into and out the alveoli.
- B.
Movemnet of dissolved gases from the blood.
- C.
Movemnet of dissolved gases from the alveoli.
- D.
Movemnet of air into and out the lungs.
- E.
Utilization of oxygen
- 118.At a PO2 of 70mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is______percent.
- A.
75
- B.
50
- C.
10
- D.
25
- E.
More than 90
- 119.Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
- A.
Carbaminonohemoglobin.
- B.
Solute dissovled in the cytoplasm of the red blood cells.
- C.
Bicarbonate ions.
- D.
Solute dissolved in plasma.
- E.
Carbonic acid.
- 120.The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
- A.
Oxygen
- B.
Carbon dioxide.
- C.
Bicarbonate ion.
- D.
Hemoglobin.
- E.
Sodium ion.
- 121.The term hypercapnia refers to
- A.
The cessation of breathing.
- B.
Elevated P02
- C.
Labored breathing.
- D.
All of the above.
- E.
A and B only.
- 122.Which of the following systems is (are) responsible for elimination of CO2 as waste?
- A.
Respiratory
- B.
Urinary
- C.
Digestive
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and B only.
- 123.Tuberculosis results from an infection by bacterium
- A.
Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus.
- B.
Clostridium difficile.
- C.
Straphyloccus aureus.
- D.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- E.
Both A and C.
- 124.______is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.
- A.
Cystic fibrosis.
- B.
MRSA.
- C.
Myasthenia ravis.
- D.
Parkinsons disease.
- E.
Congestive heart failure.
- 125.Each of the following is a component of the digestive tract, except the
- A.
Colon.
- B.
Stomach.
- C.
Pharyxn.
- D.
Esophagus.
- E.
Bladder.
- 126.Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
- A.
Appendix.
- B.
Spleen.
- C.
Colon.
- D.
Esophagus.
- E.
Pancreas.
- 127.Digestion refers to the
- A.
Chemical breakdown of food.
- B.
Progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
- C.
Mechanical breakdown of food.
- D.
B and C only.
- E.
A.B.and C.
- 128.The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the
- A.
Serosa.
- B.
Submucosa.
- C.
Mucosa.
- D.
Muscularis mucosa.
- E.
Adevntitia.
- 129.The _____are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and arry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.
- A.
Adventitia.
- B.
Mesenteries
- C.
Fibrosa
- D.
Serosa
- E.
Lamina propria
- 130.The layer of losse cinncetive tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the
- A.
Lamina propria.
- B.
Myentric plexua.
- C.
Submucosal plexus.
- D.
Muscularis mucosae.
- E.
Submucosa.
- 131.A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following, except in the
- A.
Esohagus.
- B.
Oropharynx.
- C.
Anal canal.
- D.
Stomach.
- E.
Oral cavity.
- 132.Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents if the digestive tract are called
- A.
Peristalsis.
- B.
Pendular movenets.
- C.
Mastication.
- D.
Segmentation.
- E.
Churning movements.
- 133.The funtsions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except
- A.
Analysis of material
- B.
Digestion of carbonhydrates
- C.
Absorption of monosaccharides
- D.
Mechanical processing of foos
- E.
Lubrication
- 134._______pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.
- A.
Six to ten
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
- E.
One
- 135.A structure that helps prevent food from entering thet pharynx prematurely is the
- A.
Uvula
- B.
Epiglottis
- C.
Palatoglossal
- D.
Palatopharyngeal
- E.
Pharyngeal arch
- 136.The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized martix similar to that of bone called
- A.
Enamel.
- B.
Pulp.
- C.
Cementum.
- D.
Dentin.
- E.
Periodontium.
- 137.The crown of the tooth is covered by
- A.
Pulp
- B.
Dentin
- C.
Periodontium
- D.
Cementum
- E.
Enamel
- 138.The root of the tooth is covered by
- A.
Cementum
- B.
Pulp
- C.
Debtin
- D.
The root canal
- E.
Enamel
- 139.The roof of the oral cavity if formed by the
- A.
Vestibule.
- B.
Hard palate.
- C.
Soft palate.
- D.
A,B,and C
- E.
B and C only
- 140._____are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping.
- A.
Canines
- B.
Cuspids
- C.
Molars
- D.
Bicuspids
- E.
Incisors
- 141.____are pointed teeth taht are adapted for tearing and slashing.
- A.
Molars
- B.
Bicuspids
- C.
Premolars
- D.
Cuspids
- E.
Incisors
- 142.____are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.
- A.
Dentins.
- B.
Canines.
- C.
Molars.
- D.
Eye teeth.
- E.
Cuspids.
- 143.Which region of the stomach does the esophagus connet to?
- A.
Antrum
- B.
Body
- C.
Pylorus
- D.
Cardia
- E.
Fundus
- 144.The portion of the stomach that is superior to the junction between the stomach and the esophagus is the
- A.
Fundus
- B.
Pulorus
- C.
Antrum
- D.
Body
- E.
Cardia
- 145.The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the
- A.
Body
- B.
Cardia
- C.
Pylorus
- D.
Antrum
- E.
Fundus
- 146.The enzyme pepsin digests
- A.
Vitamins.
- B.
Carbohydrates.
- C.
Nucleic acids.
- D.
Proteins.
- E.
Lipids.
- 147.The villi are most developed in the
- A.
Jejunum.
- B.
Duodenum.
- C.
Gall bladder.
- D.
Cecum.
- E.
Stomach.
- 148.The pylorus empties into the
- A.
Jejunum.
- B.
Cecum.
- C.
Duodenum.
- D.
Colon.
- E.
Ileum.
- 149.The middle segment of the samll intestine is the
- A.
Duodenum.
- B.
Jejunum.
- C.
Ileum.
- D.
Pylorus.
- E.
Cecum.
- 150.The portion of the samll intestine that attaches to the cecum is the
- A.
Haustrum.
- B.
Duodenum.
- C.
Jejunum.
- D.
Appendix.
- E.
Ileum.
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