ACLS Practice Test

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1. What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to breaths in CPR?

Explanation

To avoid confusion, the universal ratio of chest compression to
CPR is 30:2, regardless.

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About This Quiz
ACLS Practice Test - Quiz

This pretest is designed to prepare you for the ACLS certification and re-certification exams.
After you have answered the questions and read the comments on each, you will be more than prepared to take and pass the ACLS exams.

Tell us your name to personalize your report, certificate & get on the leaderboard!
2. The recommended length of time for a Rhythm Check is <10 seconds.
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3. Hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause and increase in intrathorasic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output.
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4. In a patient with a suspected C-spine injury, the recommended technique for airway opening is the chin-lift/head-tilt

Explanation

When a c-spine injury is suspected, open the airway
with the jaw thrust maneuver

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5. Which of the following is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

Explanation

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is a tool to detect stroke
in the prehospital setting. If any one of its three components are
positive, the pt has a 72% likelihood of having an acute CVA.
If all three are positive, there is an 85% likelihood of the patient
having an acute CVA.

Remember, Face/Arm/Speech. Balance is not tested.

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6. Identify this ryhthm.

Explanation

This is Atrial Flutter.
Notice the flutter give the telltale 'sawtooth' pattern.
the rate of the flutter waves is 300 BPM, and in this example
every 3rd or every 4th flutter wave is conducted.

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7. Bystander CPR has not been shown to change outcome.

Explanation

For every minute that passes between a witnessed VF arrest
and defibrillation, the chance of survival decreased by 7-10%.
With bystander CPR, the decline is more gradual and falls by 3-4% per minute.

CPR saves lives.

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8. During a resuscitation, with an ET tube in place, chest compressions should be paused to give a breath?

Explanation

Chest compressions should not be withheld.
The respiratory rate should be approximately
one breath every 6-8 seconds.

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9. Following defibrillation, when should chest compressions resume?

Explanation

A pulse check is appropriate after about 2 minutes of
CPR following defibrillation.

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10. As per most recent BLS guidelines, what is the appropriate order of intervention in an adult victim?

Explanation

This is a HUGE change in BLS.
Since adults have approximately 5 minutes of oxygen reserve,
newer recommendations are to begin chest compressions and
restore circulation before addressing oxygenation.

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11. The oro-pharyngeal airway (OPA) does trigger the gag reflex.  Is it more appropriately using in conscious or unconscious patients.

Explanation

The OPA sits in the posterior oropharynx, excites and gag reflex,
and if used in an conscious patient will likely lead to vomiting and aspiration.

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12. Identify this ryhthm.

Explanation

This is Atrial Fibrillation.
Notice that there are no discernible P-waves and that the interval
between each QRS varies, beat-to-beat.

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13. Identify this ryhthm.

Explanation

This is SVT.
Notice that this is a narrow-complex, rapid, regular rhythm.
There are no discernible P-waves.

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14. Which of the following is not in the differential for causing this rhythm?

Explanation

The above rhythm is Sinus Tachycardia.
Of note, had the rhythm been over 150 bpm,
the P waves would have been harder to see,
merging with the preceding T wave, and
other rhythms would need to be considered,
such as SVT or Atrial flutter with 2:1 block.
The first four items on the above differential
are unlikely to cause a Sinus Tachycardia
above 150 bpm.

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15. Your patient is in the following rhythm and has no pulse.

Explanation

This is a wide complex tachycardia and is most likely Ventricular
tachycardia. While it appears monomorphic, since the patient is
pulseless, it should be defibrillated.

In synchronized cardioversion, a lower energy is used and it is
timed to the QRS. In unsynchronized defibrillation, a higher
energy is used and the shock is applied immediately, without
being timed to the QRS complex.

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16. During CPR, the rate of chest compressions should be approximately 100/minute
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17. CPR should be begun while the AED is readied for use.
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18. Identify this ryhthm.

Explanation

This is VVentricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points).
Notice the sinusoidal nature of this rhythm. This is generated
as the axis of depolarization revolves around a point.
This rhythm needs to be recognized because treatment is
Magnesium Sulfate.

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19. A patient presents within 60 minutes of an acute neurologic event.  A CT of her brain reveals an acute hemorrhagic CVA. Is the patient a candidate for tPA?

Explanation

80% of acute strokes are ischemic.
The above patient had a hemorrhagic stroke.
This is an absolute contraindication to tPA.

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20. A patient presents to an Emergency Department unable to speak or to move her right arm.  Her symptoms began approximately 6 hours ago.   This patient is an appropriate candidate for tPA.

Explanation

tPA should be given as treatment for an acute CVA when the
patient presents within 3 hours of the onset of symptoms,
and there are no contraindications. In some circumstances,
with input from neurology, the window may be pushed back
to 4.5 hours.
Outside of this 4.5 hour window, there is no literature to show
that the benefits outweigh the risks of treating a CVA with
tPA and it should not be done.

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21. Identify this ryhthm.

Explanation

This is VT.
Notice that this is a wide-complex, rapid, regular rhythm.
There are no discernible P-waves.

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22. The naso-pharyngeal airway (NPA) does not active the gag reflex so it does not cause vomiting. Is it more appropriately used in the conscious or unconscious patient?
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23. Identify this ryhthm.

Explanation

This is Ventricular Fibrillation.
Notice that this is wide-complex and irregular.
This rhythm will not generate any mechanical systoles.

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24. Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm.  What would be the next appropriate intervention?

Explanation

In an unstable patient in whom you are not sure if the Ventricular Tachycardia
is monomorphic or polymorphic, assume it is polymorphic and defibrillate.

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25. Identify this rhythm.

Explanation

This is Second Degree Heart Block, Type 1 (Wenckebach).
Notice the PR interval lengthens with each subsequent beat
until a P wave is not followed by a QRS. After this dropped beat,
the PR interval shortens again.

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26. Your patient has stable vitals and is in the following rhythm.

Explanation

This pt is stable, in SVT. Treatment with vagal maneuvers, as well
as adenosine are appropriate interventions.

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27. Identify this rhythm.

Explanation

This is first degree heart block.
Conduction has been slowed through the AV node so the
PR interval>0.2 seconds (one large box).

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28. An advanced airways is imperative, as per most recent ACLS guidelines.

Explanation

An advanced airway, i.e. and ET tube, is NOT necessary, as per ACLS
guidelines. As long as the patient is being ventilated adequately, any method
is acceptable.

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29. In post cardiac arrest care, the oxygen saturation should be kept at 100%.

Explanation

An oxygen saturation of 100% is unnecessary and potentially harmful. Supplemental oxygen should be given until the oxygen saturation is approximately 94%.

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30. Identify this rhythm.

Explanation

This is Third Degree Heart Block.
Notice the complete dissociation between the
P-waves and the QRS complexes.
If you measure the distance between each
P-wave it will be fixed.
If you measure the distance between each QRS
complex it will be fixed.
Since there is no relationship between the P-Wave and
the QRS complex, the PR interval will be entirely varied.

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31. Which of the following does not appear in the algorithm for ventricular fibrillation?
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32. A patient arrests near a pool and is partially submerged in water, the AED may be safely and effectively discharged with moving the patient.

Explanation

If a patient is in a puddle or in the snow, he does not need to
be moved. If he is submerged, he should be moved to drier ground.

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33. In defibrillating VT/VF, in a biphasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be between 120 J and 200 J, each subsequent shock at the same or greater energy. In an monophasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be ______.
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34. In which rhythm is escalating doses of epinephrine (1 mg, followed by 3 mg, followed but 5 mg q 5 minutes) indicated?

Explanation

There is no indication of escalating or high dose epinephrine.

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35. In a patient who presents with new neurologic symptoms, which would not be an absolute contraindication to tPA?

Explanation

Treatment with tPA comes with a real risk of bleeding and
it should only be given where appropriate.
If the patient presents with a seizure, it is not possible to
differentiate between an Acute CVA and a Todd's Paralysis.
If the patient awakened with symptoms, the time of onset
cannot be established.
If the symptoms are minor and quickly resolving, the risks of
tPA will exceed its benefits.

A distant history of GI is not a contraindication.

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36. In a potential stroke patient, what is the NINDS recommendation for the length of time from ED presentation to performing a CT?
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37. Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm.  What would be the next appropriate intervention?

Explanation

This patient is in an SVT.
Because his vital are unstable,
he needs to be returned to sinus
rhythm immediately. Either Adenosine or
Electrical Synchronized cardioversion would
be appropriate.

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38. Identify this rhythm.

Explanation

This is Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2.
Notice that the PR interval is fixed, and that many
P waves are not conducted so they are not followed
by a QRS complex. In this example, every third P-wave
is conducted

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39. Which of the following is most likely the result of an untreated arrhythmia?

Explanation

The patient with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk
of an embolic stroke unless they are appropriately
anticoagulated.

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40. Your patient is in the following rhythm but has no pulse. Which are possible causes for this Pulseless Electrical Activity?

Explanation

These are the H's and T's of PEA.
Know them.

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41. During CPR, chest compressions should NOT be interrupted for _____.
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42. Your patient is very lightheaded.  Her Blood pressure = 62/40 mmHg.  HR=38 BPM Her rhythm is below: While awaiting cardiology to place a pacemaker, appropriate interventions include

Explanation

Atropine does not have a role in complete heart block.

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What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to breaths in CPR?
The recommended length of time for a Rhythm Check is <10 seconds.
Hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause and increase in...
In a patient with a suspected C-spine injury, the recommended...
Which of the following is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital...
Identify this ryhthm.
Bystander CPR has not been shown to change outcome.
During a resuscitation, with an ET tube in place, chest...
Following defibrillation, when should chest compressions resume?
As per most recent BLS guidelines, what is the appropriate order of...
The oro-pharyngeal airway (OPA) does trigger the gag reflex.  Is...
Identify this ryhthm.
Identify this ryhthm.
Which of the following is not in the differential for causing this...
Your patient is in the following rhythm and has no pulse.
During CPR, the rate of chest compressions should be approximately...
CPR should be begun while the AED is readied for use.
Identify this ryhthm.
A patient presents within 60 minutes of an acute neurologic event....
A patient presents to an Emergency Department unable to speak or to...
Identify this ryhthm.
The naso-pharyngeal airway (NPA) does not active the gag reflex so it...
Identify this ryhthm.
Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm....
Identify this rhythm.
Your patient has stable vitals and is in the following rhythm.
Identify this rhythm.
An advanced airways is imperative, as per most recent ACLS guidelines.
In post cardiac arrest care, the oxygen saturation should be kept at...
Identify this rhythm.
Which of the following does not appear in the algorithm for...
A patient arrests near a pool and is partially submerged in water, the...
In defibrillating VT/VF, in a biphasic defibrillator, the initial...
In which rhythm is escalating doses of epinephrine (1 mg, followed by...
In a patient who presents with new neurologic symptoms, which would...
In a potential stroke patient, what is the NINDS recommendation for...
Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm....
Identify this rhythm.
Which of the following is most likely the result of an untreated...
Your patient is in the following rhythm but has no pulse....
During CPR, chest compressions should NOT be interrupted for _____.
Your patient is very lightheaded.  Her Blood pressure = 62/40...
Alert!

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