Scok 3d051 EOC Practice Test

150 Questions

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Internet Quizzes & Trivia

VOL 1 & VOL 2 CDC practice.test plus additional questions for practice. Over 100+ questons all together. 100 chosen at random for different test each time. Good Luck


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What type of records relate solely to an individual's private affairs, including papers the individual created before entering government service?
    • A. 

      Out of Service records

    • B. 

      Private records

    • C. 

      Personal records

    • D. 

      Individual records

  • 2. 
    Who is authorized to serve as the point of contact for, provide coordination on, certify, and/or approve official Air Force publications and forms?
    • A. 

      Any civilian employee

    • B. 

      Any contractor employee

    • C. 

      Any Foreign national employee

    • D. 

      Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force

  • 3. 
    In the context of cognitive hierarchy, what describes data that has been filtered, fused, formatted, organized, collated, correlated, plotted, translated, categorized, and/or arranged?
    • A. 

      Knowledge

    • B. 

      Data

    • C. 

      Understanding

    • D. 

      Information

  • 4. 
    Top Secret material should never be sent
    • A. 

      Between appropriately cleared and designated persons

    • B. 

      Through the base information transfer system

    • C. 

      Over a cryptographic system

    • D. 

      By defense courier

  • 5. 
    Who should know and implement the records maintenance, use, and disposition policies and procedures for records maintained?
    • A. 

      Records custodian (RC)

    • B. 

      Base records manager (BRM)

    • C. 

      Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager (FARM)

  • 6. 
    Knowledge combined with judgement and experience describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy?
    • A. 

      Knowledge

    • B. 

      Data

    • C. 

      Understanding

    • D. 

      Information

  • 7. 
    Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Receiver

    • D. 

      Sender

  • 8. 
    Another data structure name for a network that is similar to a tree structure is called a 
    • A. 

      Plex

    • B. 

      View

    • C. 

      Model

    • D. 

      Schema

  • 9. 
    The publication's Approving Official is responsible  for all the following except:
    • A. 

      Enforce procedures and guidance contained in publications within their functional areas

    • B. 

      Approve as the Air Force original classification authority all security classification guidance contained in the publication

    • C. 

      Certifying the need for the publication, to include currency of the information and applicability to the Air Force

    • D. 

      Determine the need to delegate approval authority and functional coordination for revisions

  • 10. 
    On average, about what percentage of communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effectively?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      75

  • 11. 
    What term is a structured description of records used to describe database objets representations, and the relationships among them?
    • A. 

      Model

    • B. 

      Pointer

    • C. 

      Schema

    • D. 

      Structure

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is not a merit of using a database?
    • A. 

      Reduce Data redundancy

    • B. 

      Increase Flexibility

    • C. 

      Reduce Fragmentation

    • D. 

      Reduce costs

  • 13. 
    What type of classification decision involves information that is paraphrased or restated?
    • A. 

      Original

    • B. 

      Compiled

    • C. 

      Derivative

    • D. 

      Consolidated

  • 14. 
    What information does not appear on a subdivision label?
    • A. 

      Title

    • B. 

      Cutoff

    • C. 

      Item Number

    • D. 

      Office of Record

  • 15. 
    The DOD's policy on providing information on its activities in an open manner to the general public is to provide
    • A. 

      All information concerning its activities

    • B. 

      Only unclassified information concerning its activities

    • C. 

      Accurate and timely information on a need-to-know basis

    • D. 

      A maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities

  • 16. 
    Who finds and provides the requested records and helps to determine whether to release the records?
    • A. 

      Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

    • B. 

      Disclosure authority

    • C. 

      Freedom of information Act (FOIA) manager

    • D. 

      Director, communication and information

  • 17. 
    Which is not a knowledge management phase?
    • A. 

      Knowledge creation

    • B. 

      Knowledge capture and transfer

    • C. 

      Knowledge delivery

    • D. 

      Knowledge disposition

  • 18. 
    An official system of records must be 
    • A. 

      Authorized by law or executive order

    • B. 

      Used to retrieve information on individuals

    • C. 

      Controlled by a Department of Defensive directive

    • D. 

      Organized in accordance with the Federal Register

  • 19. 
    When storing data structures a group of ordered data items or elements defines what type of list?
    • A. 

      Hierarchical

    • B. 

      Sequential

    • C. 

      Linked

    • D. 

      Stack

  • 20. 
    What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of Execution Order 12958 that is not a security violation?
    • A. 

      Sanction

    • B. 

      Infraction

    • C. 

      Violation

    • D. 

      Compromise

  • 21. 
    What is disposition based when dealing with Air Force records?
    • A. 

      Time period or event

    • B. 

      Specific action or disposition

    • C. 

      Disposal method or time period

    • D. 

      Retention period or specific action

  • 22. 
    The database maintenance responsibility that addresses disk fragmentation is
    • A. 

      The DBMS

    • B. 

      Data activity

    • C. 

      A data repositary.

    • D. 

      The database structure

  • 23. 
    What describes an area of the Air Force Portal that will contain up to six stories at a glance, or many stories displayed on tabs?
    • A. 

      Landing Page

    • B. 

      Header

    • C. 

      Feature portlet

    • D. 

      Block area

  • 24. 
    What goal is not one of Knowledge Based Operations?
    • A. 

      Manage all data, information, and knowledge as an Air Force enterprise-level asset

    • B. 

      Implement automated life-cycle management mechanisms for information

    • C. 

      Minimize the effort required by personnel and application to conduct information management activites.

    • D. 

      Increase the creation of official Air Force information assets on paper

  • 25. 
    Knowledge information implementation lead to all following except
    • A. 

      A capability to harvest existing knowledge

    • B. 

      Restricting that knowledge across your organization

    • C. 

      Leverage the knowledge by providing search mechanisms to locate relevant knowledge

    • D. 

      Create new knowledge by extending what has been shared and reused

  • 26. 
    "Technologies and processes enable effecient and targeted workflows, dynamic subscription, proactive push, smart pull, and cross-mission collaboration," describes which phase of knowledge management?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 27. 
    A link class is a
    • A. 

      Valid group of updated links

    • B. 

      Logical grouping of similar or related links.

    • C. 

      Page element to allow a user to be directed to a web element

    • D. 

      Web element which allows user to be directed to another location

  • 28. 
    Who has full control over the sharepoint site when establishing a collaborative site?
    • A. 

      Approvers

    • B. 

      Members

    • C. 

      Owners

    • D. 

      Designer

  • 29. 
    What SharePoint feartures are activated by default for all information stored in  the central administration level of SharePoint?
    • A. 

      Indexing and search

    • B. 

      Indexing and filing

    • C. 

      Searching and filing

    • D. 

      Search and authenticate

  • 30. 
    In the context of the cognitive hierarchy, what is knowledge that has been synthesized and judgement applied to it in a specific situation to comprehend the situation's inner relationships?
    • A. 

      Data

    • B. 

      Information

    • C. 

      Knowledge

    • D. 

      Understanding

  • 31. 
    How many elements compromise the Air Force services oriented architecture environment?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      11

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is not an advantage that views have over tables?
    • A. 

      It can join and simplify muiltiple tables into a single virtual table

    • B. 

      It can be a subset of a data contained in a table with extra storage overhead

    • C. 

      It hides the complexity of data by transparently partitioning the underlying table

    • D. 

      It can provide extra security

  • 33. 
    One method to provide protection of critical data against tampering is to control the physical access to the automated information system itself by
    • A. 

      Managing data activities

    • B. 

      Installing keyboard locks

    • C. 

      Performing periodical audits

    • D. 

      Using the least privilege concept

  • 34. 
    What term best describes the process of organizing data into tables that result in the database being unambiguous as intended?
    • A. 

      Normalization

    • B. 

      Semantic modeling

    • C. 

      Data denormalization

    • D. 

      Entity-Relationship modeling

  • 35. 
    The database maintenance responsibility that maintains a collection of metadata, DBMS, software, code libraries, and editing tools is managing
    • A. 

      The DBMS

    • B. 

      Data activity

    • C. 

      A data repository

    • D. 

      The database structure

  • 36. 
    Who ensures the links in your web site are maintaned and in working order?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM content manager

    • B. 

      Advance content manager

    • C. 

      Content manager

    • D. 

      Content publisher

  • 37. 
    What environment does Air Force users see when they sign on to the Air Force Portal?
    • A. 

      Publishing center portal

    • B. 

      Content preview portal

    • C. 

      Air Force Portal production

    • D. 

      Web browser production

  • 38. 
    What must you do as a Content Publisher for a user to use images from the Air Force Portal directory?
    • A. 

      The images must have been uploaded the local server prior to creating the document

    • B. 

      The images must have been downloaded to the local server prior to creating the document.

    • C. 

      The images must have been uploaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the document.

    • D. 

      The images must have been downloaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the document.

  • 39. 
    When may For Official Use Only material be placed on an internet website?
    • A. 

      Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience

    • B. 

      Only if the information is encypted or password protected

    • C. 

      Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is encrypted or password protected.

    • D. 

      Never

  • 40. 
    What is the vision of Enterprise Information Management?
    • A. 

      Provide tools to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • B. 

      Approve programs to empower users to exploit informatin in an enterprise-wide environment

    • C. 

      Provide the right information to the right individuals to support combat and mission operations, with the ultimate goal to provide decision-quality infomation.

    • D. 

      Provide the right information to combat commanders to support combat and mission operations, with the ulitmate goal to provide decision-quality information.

  • 41. 
    What must you do when you mail materials of different classifications in one package?
    • A. 

      Seperate each classification with a receipt

    • B. 

      Place all material in a single inner container

    • C. 

      Place each calssification in a seperate inner container

    • D. 

      Do not mail different classifications of materials in one package

  • 42. 
    What is the primary purpose of managing Air Force information?
    • A. 

      Document past actions of historical value

    • B. 

      Provide effetive control of Privacy Act (PA) material

    • C. 

      Comply with Air Force horizon vision documents

    • D. 

      Effectively and effieciently enhance the Air Force mission

  • 43. 
    Which plain language elemnent emphasizes the need to put your main message up front?
    • A. 

      Active voice

    • B. 

      Short sentences

    • C. 

      Common words

    • D. 

      Logical organization

  • 44. 
    When should you use certified mail?
    • A. 

      When using consolidated mail

    • B. 

      When required by law or Department of Defense (DoD) or Air Force directives

    • C. 

      When the contents are valuable and a receipt is needed

    • D. 

      When you need to trace communications sent between Air Force activites

  • 45. 
    Which of the following are ways we manage infomation in support of infromation resources?
    • A. 

      Storage and privacy

    • B. 

      Staging and privacy

    • C. 

      Disposition and privacy

    • D. 

      Security and privacy

  • 46. 
    Which of the following record summary information fields is mandatory?
    • A. 

      Author

    • B. 

      Manager

    • C. 

      Company`

    • D. 

      Hyperlink base

  • 47. 
    Which category of information may be included on a file plan series title?
    • A. 

      Sensitive information

    • B. 

      Unclassified information

    • C. 

      For Official Use Only

    • D. 

      Privacy Act information

  • 48. 
    When using additional copies of a record for cross-referncing, how is the cross-reference location identifed?
    • A. 

      Attach a cross-reference sheet to each copy of the record

    • B. 

      Write "cross-referenced" across the top of each copy of the record

    • C. 

      Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed

    • D. 

      Annotate each copy with a list of each location where the record is filed and a justificatin for the additional copies

  • 49. 
    When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are
    • A. 

      Sent to records staging area for the rest of their retention period

    • B. 

      Cut off the day before the effective date and kept as seperate entity

    • C. 

      Cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual

    • D. 

      Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occured

  • 50. 
    To recycle Privacy Act (PA) material, what must recycling contracts include?
    • A. 

      Specific contract clause on safegaurding privacy material until its destruction

    • B. 

      Specific contract employees authorized to handle for official use only (FOUO) materials

    • C. 

      Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination

    • D. 

      Fees schedule for protecting and processing FOUO materials

  • 51. 
    What is official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agenicies and organizations, and other presidential documents?
    • A. 

      The Federal Register

    • B. 

      The Federal Requirements

    • C. 

      Thr Product Announcement

    • D. 

      The Information Collection Report

  • 52. 
    What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities?
    • A. 

      Airmen

    • B. 

      Commanders

    • C. 

      Supervisors

    • D. 

      Records

  • 53. 
    Who appoints a records custodian ?
    • A. 

      Base Records Managaer (BRM)

    • B. 

      Command records manager (CRM)

    • C. 

      Cheif of the Office of Record (COR)

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager (FARM)

  • 54. 
    How does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?
    • A. 

      Using a standard format for all Air Force file plans

    • B. 

      Centralizing all records management functions Air Force-wide

    • C. 

      Controlling the life cycle of all records series used throughout the Air Force

    • D. 

      Ensuring offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records

  • 55. 
    How many disposition authorities (Table and Rule) are allowed per series?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 56. 
    What kind of file should be used to capture the category of the records/contents of an electronic records directory and their respective disposition instructions?
    • A. 

      Disposition Control Label File & A .doc file in Microsoft Word

    • B. 

      A .doc file in Microsoft Word & A .HTML file in Microsoft Notpad

    • C. 

      A .txt file in Microsoft Notepad & A .PPT file in Microsoft Powerpoint

    • D. 

      A .txt file in Microsoft Notepad & A .doc file in Microsoft Word

  • 57. 
    What is "Disposition", when dealing with Air Force Records?
    • A. 

      Destruction of active records

    • B. 

      Actions taken with inactive records

    • C. 

      Time when you stop filing in the active records

    • D. 

      Eradication process used for the records stagin area

  • 58. 
    Who is authorized to approve the permanent rentention of records
    • A. 

      Air Force records manager

    • B. 

      Archivist of the United States

    • C. 

      United States records manager

    • D. 

      National archives and records administration

  • 59. 
    Atleast how many years remaining must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 60. 
    What is one of the duties of the Air Force Federal Register Liason Office (AFFRLO)?
    • A. 

      Act as the multiple point of contact with all offices of the federal registrar

    • B. 

      Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices

    • C. 

      Describe procedures by which to conduct business with the public

    • D. 

      Maintain copies of certificates of determination

  • 61. 
    Who establishes and manages a training program for newly appointed BRM's?
    • A. 

      Knowledge Operations Management element Chief

    • B. 

      Command records manager

    • C. 

      Base records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records and easier to retrieve

  • 62. 
    What term is used to describe an inspection of a records manager, functional area records manager, or records custodian?
    • A. 

      Staff assistance visit (SAV)

    • B. 

      Self assessment visit (SAV)

    • C. 

      System analysis visit (SAV)

    • D. 

      Unit effectiveness inspection (UEI)

  • 63. 
    Where are labels placed on the file folders?
    • A. 

      On the left

    • B. 

      On the right

    • C. 

      In the center

    • D. 

      Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent

  • 64. 
    What should you remove from a document prior to filing?
    • A. 

      Envelopes

    • B. 

      Attachments

    • C. 

      Staples and fasteners

    • D. 

      Destruction certificate

  • 65. 
    Who is the focal point in the functional area for general Privacy Act (PA) questions?
    • A. 

      PA officer

    • B. 

      PA monitor

    • C. 

      System manager

    • D. 

      Air Force Employees

  • 66. 
    Knowledge owners can maintain interest in a Community of Practice (COP) by doing all of the following except
    • A. 

      Push content to COP members

    • B. 

      Make all content available and do not delete old content

    • C. 

      Encourage COP members to utilize the Alert feature

    • D. 

      E-mail a link to a document that may interest a specific COP memeber or group

  • 67. 
    Sharepoint Central adminstrators will set-up workflows, but are not capable of
    • A. 

      Changing workflows settings

    • B. 

      Deploying/enabling workflows

    • C. 

      Reassigning task for users

    • D. 

      Reassigning approvers

  • 68. 
    Which Windows server special group contains only members who have logged on using an ordinary user-account?
    • A. 

      Non-authenticated

    • B. 

      Anonymous

    • C. 

      Authenticated

    • D. 

      Everyone

  • 69. 
    In the context of cognitive hierarchy what information is analyzed to provide meaning and value, or evaluated as to implications for the operation?
    • A. 

      Data

    • B. 

      Information

    • C. 

      Knowledge

    • D. 

      Understandfing

  • 70. 
    What provides a means of achieving IT agility and fleixibility to support rapidly evolving mission processes and changning goals and objectives?
    • A. 

      Cognitive Hierarchy

    • B. 

      Services Oriented Architecture

    • C. 

      Standard Information Structure

    • D. 

      Services Oriented Enterprise

  • 71. 
    What term do you use to address the data item instead of addressing the entire size of the data item?
    • A. 

      Model

    • B. 

      Pointer

    • C. 

      Schema

    • D. 

      Structure

  • 72. 
    Who must test and certify user-developed software before installing it on an automated information system?
    • A. 

      Database Administrator

    • B. 

      Local Security Officials

    • C. 

      Base IAA Security Officials

    • D. 

      Functional Database Administrator

  • 73. 
    What database normailzation form has a type of entity dependency called transitive dependency?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 74. 
    Who overseas the orginization's implementation of the Air Force Portal program?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM content manager

    • B. 

      Advance content manager

    • C. 

      Content manager

    • D. 

      Content publisher

  • 75. 
    a data dictionary contains all of the following information except:
    • A. 

      Specific database structure

    • B. 

      Precise definition of data elements

    • C. 

      Usernames, roles/privileges and integrity constraints

    • D. 

      Stored procedures, trigger, and space allocations

  • 76. 
    What environment do you use to enter or edit content in-line publishing forms?
    • A. 

      Publishing center portal

    • B. 

      Content preview portal

    • C. 

      Air Force Portal production

    • D. 

      Web browser production

  • 77. 
    When you click the "insert" button to import graphics the
    • A. 

      Close button closes.

    • B. 

      Save button appears

    • C. 

      Deploy button appears

    • D. 

      Insert/edit image widget closes

  • 78. 
    What does the Privacy Advisory on public web sites inform users about?
    • A. 

      How your information will be used on the internet.

    • B. 

      Why the information is solicited and how it will be used

    • C. 

      Why the information is stored and how it will be used

    • D. 

      How you information is stored and why it is publicly solicited.

  • 79. 
    What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
    • A. 

      Brief

    • B. 

      Official

    • C. 

      Explanatory

    • D. 

      Seperate page

  • 80. 
    Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, foward items of interest, or summarize problems are
    • A. 

      Briefings

    • B. 

      Position papers

    • C. 

      Bullet background papers

    • D. 

      Memorandum for record

  • 81. 
    What level of damage to national securtiy could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Secret information occured?
    • A. 

      Grave

    • B. 

      Serious

    • C. 

      Extremely Serious

    • D. 

      Exceptionally Grave

  • 82. 
    Which plain language element reinforces the message that document is intended for the reader?
    • A. 

      Pronouns

    • B. 

      Active Voice

    • C. 

      Short Sentences

    • D. 

      Common Words

  • 83. 
    What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on to the receiver?
    • A. 

      DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt; and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

    • B. 

      AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request; and DD Form 2825, internal Receipt

    • C. 

      Container numbers and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

    • D. 

      Container numbers and DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt

  • 84. 
    Which form is used to cross reference a document from another location?
    • A. 

      SF 135

    • B. 

      DD 2825

    • C. 

      DD 2861

    • D. 

      AF IMT 525

  • 85. 
    What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
    • A. 

      Period of time the record is needed

    • B. 

      Number of copies the individual will make

    • C. 

      Frequency of reference to the requested material

    • D. 

      Cross-reference are detailed and very descriptive

  • 86. 
    How are long-term paper records 10 years or older handled?
    • A. 

      Kept in the active file until destroyed

    • B. 

      Placed in the inactive file until destroyed

    • C. 

      Retired to authorized federal records centers

    • D. 

      Disposed through the functional area records manager

  • 87. 
    What type of records does the staging area store?
    • A. 

      Perpetual and temporary

    • B. 

      Perpetual and transitory

    • C. 

      Permanent and temporary

    • D. 

      Permanent and transitory

  • 88. 
    Who does the office of primary responsibility (OPR) submit an AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation, to?
    • A. 

      Records Manager (RM)

    • B. 

      Records Custodian (RC)

    • C. 

      Command records Manager(CRM)

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager (FARM)

  • 89. 
    The emergency disposal of records, without regard to tabels and rules, is applied when the records
    • A. 

      Destruction by hostile or potentially hostile action is an ever-present danger

    • B. 

      Do not protect the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force

    • C. 

      Are considered valuable enought to warrent preservation

    • D. 

      Are a menace to health, life, or property

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      People, processes, assets

    • B. 

      People, processes, and tools

    • C. 

      People, programs, and tools

    • D. 

      Programs, processes and tools

  • 91. 
    "To use and exploit tacit information, the objective is not to explicity capture knowledge for the purpose of managing it, but to provide capabilities which allow airmen to reach knowledge experts or centers of professional expertise," describes which phase of knowledge management?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 92. 
    Data analyzed describes what level of the cognitive heirarchy?
    • A. 

      Data

    • B. 

      Information

    • C. 

      Knowledge

    • D. 

      Understanding

  • 93. 
    What information is required for all top-level private Web pages?
    • A. 

      Commander's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail

    • B. 

      Information provider's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail

    • C. 

      Web page maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail

    • D. 

      Emergency contact information to include commercial, DSN, home telephone numbers

  • 94. 
    Which is not a Form Memorandum
    • A. 

      Fill-in

    • B. 

      Fill-out

    • C. 

      Prewritten

    • D. 

      Optional statement

  • 95. 
    What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?
    • A. 

      Place in an opaque container and have the highest-ranking individual take it home

    • B. 

      Inspect to determine classification of contents and then return to sender

    • C. 

      Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding

    • D. 

      Store in a classified storage container

  • 96. 
    Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?
    • A. 

      Priority

    • B. 

      First class

    • C. 

      Periodicals

    • D. 

      Standard mail

  • 97. 
    Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number?
    • A. 

      2014-SCOO-085

    • B. 

      98-014-SCOK

    • C. 

      SCOO-2014-67

    • D. 

      SCOK-14-014

  • 98. 
    The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled envioronment is to mail them
    • A. 

      Insured

    • B. 

      Express

    • C. 

      Certified

    • D. 

      Registered

  • 99. 
    What is not a factor in releasing classified information?
    • A. 

      Rank

    • B. 

      Need to know

    • C. 

      Security clearance

    • D. 

      Nondisclosure agreement

  • 100. 
    Who determines whether the receipt has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?
    • A. 

      Possessor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Security manager

    • D. 

      Original classifier

  • 101. 
    When is an outer container not required for the transfer of classified information?
    • A. 

      Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system

    • B. 

      Confidential material being sent to or from Army Post Office (APO) addressees

    • C. 

      Transmitting to Department of Defense (DOD) contractors or Non-DOD agencies

    • D. 

      Secret material sent overseas by the US Postal Service

  • 102. 
    When you mail classified material, address containers to the
    • A. 

      Unit Top Secret control officer

    • B. 

      Office that is to take action on it

    • C. 

      Base information security program manager

    • D. 

      Specific person identified as the point of contact

  • 103. 
    Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within
    • A. 

      1 month

    • B. 

      3 months

    • C. 

      4 months

    • D. 

      6 months

  • 104. 
    The Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) generates a file disposition control label for
    • A. 

      Each item listed on the file plan

    • B. 

      Each subdivision identified on the file plan

    • C. 

      Only the local record series on the file plan

    • D. 

      Only the permanent record series on the file plan

  • 105. 
    Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
    • A. 

      The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01

    • B. 

      To help retrieve filed documents efficiently

    • C. 

      It's the table of contents for the filing system

    • D. 

      The filing system doesn't identify the file plan

  • 106. 
    What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
    • A. 

      File folders

    • B. 

      Subdivision labels

    • C. 

      Locator guide cards

    • D. 

      Disposition guide cards

  • 107. 
    What is reviewed when files expand to more than one drawer or files are filed in other locations to determine the inclusive series numbers to be placed on the drawer label?
    • A. 

      File plan

    • B. 

      Decision logic table

    • C. 

      Disposition control label

    • D. 

      Records disposition schedule (RDS)

  • 108. 
    What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?
    • A. 

      Records for transfer to another organization only

    • B. 

      Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only

    • C. 

      Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only

    • D. 

      Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization

  • 109. 
    Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8-year retention records in the current files area?
    • A. 

      Base records manager (BRM)

    • B. 

      And recorsd manager (CRM)

    • C. 

      Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager (FARM)

  • 110. 
    Which of the following is an objective for determining retention?
    • A. 

      Whether the retention period can be increased

    • B. 

      How much Air Force documentation is really essential

    • C. 

      How many records designated as "temporary" are of real enduring value

    • D. 

      Whether the records efficiently document individual activities and transactions

  • 111. 
    Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records?
    • A. 

      Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager

    • B. 

      Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

    • C. 

      Information security program manager

    • D. 

      Disclosure authority

  • 112. 
    Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Acct (FOIA) requestor?
    • A. 

      Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

    • B. 

      Initial denial authority

    • C. 

      Disclosure authority

    • D. 

      Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager

  • 113. 
    Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests categorized as simple involve records that are
    • A. 

      Priveleged

    • B. 

      Easy to read

    • C. 

      Small in volume

    • D. 

      Highly accessible

  • 114. 
    Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site?
    • A. 

      FOIA manager

    • B. 

      System manager

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      Director, communication and information

  • 115. 
    Who does a requester submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?
    • A. 

      Privacy Act (PA) officer

    • B. 

      Defense privacy office

    • C. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • D. 

      Director, communications and information

  • 116. 
    What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act (PA) records?
    • A. 

      Official

    • B. 

      Directed

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Informational

  • 117. 
    To avoid conflicts or discrepencies, the best possible source for collecting personal data is
    • A. 

      Personnel roster

    • B. 

      The subject of the record

    • C. 

      Close friends of the member

    • D. 

      Other data systems holding the information

  • 118. 
    When working with Privacy Act (PA) information, if more protection is needed for a system of records, be sure to balance the
    • A. 

      Acceptable losses with the system expenses

    • B. 

      Additional protection measures against the risk and cost

    • C. 

      Quantity of information stored against the security measures required

    • D. 

      Organizational mission with the time restraints imposed by security policies

  • 119. 
    What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act (PA) records?
    • A. 

      For Official Use Only (FOUO) register

    • B. 

      Squadron policy

    • C. 

      Records retention schedule

    • D. 

      Privacy Act (PA) disposition list

  • 120. 
    What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?
    • A. 

      Reports control symbol

    • B. 

      Unit reporting document

    • C. 

      Information collection and reports

    • D. 

      Records information management system

  • 121. 
     To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs
    • A. 

      Goal

    • B. 

      Mission

    • C. 

      Purpose

    • D. 

      Objective

  • 122. 
    Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter
    • A. 

      Content only

    • B. 

      Authority only

    • C. 

      Purpose only

    • D. 

      Content, authority, purpose, and application

  • 123. 
    A special review of a publication or form is conducted when the
    • A. 

      Point of contact (POC) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review

    • B. 

      POC decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review

    • C. 

      Office of primary responsibility (OPR) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review

    • D. 

      OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review

  • 124. 
    What type of material is never entered into AFRIMS?
    • A. 

      Sensitive only

    • B. 

      Classified only

    • C. 

      PA Material only

    • D. 

      Sensitive, Classified, and PA material

  • 125. 
    What is the first item in a file plan?
    • A. 

      File Plan

    • B. 

      Subdivision Labels

    • C. 

      Records Plan

    • D. 

      Disposition guide card

  • 126. 
    Why are records kept?
    • A. 

      Because they contain needed information

    • B. 

      To efficiently and effectively enhance the air force mission

    • C. 

      So information can be retrieved promptly and efficiently

    • D. 

      For mission related purposes

  • 127. 
    All of the following are Labels printed by AFRIMS except:
    • A. 

      Subdivision

    • B. 

      File Disposition Control

    • C. 

      File Folder Labels

    • D. 

      File Drawer Labels

  • 128. 
    Where is the AF form 614 filed?
    • A. 

      In place of the removed record

    • B. 

      In front of the file plan

    • C. 

      Behind the subdivision label

    • D. 

      Behind the file disposition control label

  • 129. 
    What are the two categorized areas of disposition?
    • A. 

      Transfer and storage

    • B. 

      Destruction and recycling

    • C. 

      Transfer and destruction

    • D. 

      Storage and recycling

  • 130. 
    What does enduring value mean?
    • A. 

      The documentation will remain in existence indefinitely

    • B. 

      The documentation is reaching the end of its retention period

    • C. 

      The documentation is being transfered as permanent to temporary

    • D. 

      The documentation will be terminated when no longer needed

  • 131. 
    What are the two traditional types of vital records?
    • A. 

      Emergency-operating records

    • B. 

      Records to protect rights

    • C. 

      Emergency -operating records and records to protect rights

    • D. 

      Disaster plans and records to protect rights

  • 132. 
    How is the cutoff identified when it does not contain a month or year?
    • A. 

      N/A

    • B. 

      None

    • C. 

      Neither

    • D. 

      Destroy Immediatily

  • 133. 
    Choose one of the Following that best describes the decision logic table?
    • A. 

      The decision logic tables are a read-only database which allows users to view and print series RDS information, tables, rules, disposition instructions, and notes.

    • B. 

      The decision logic tables are a read-write database which allows users to view and print series RDS information, tables, rules, disposition instructions, and notes.

    • C. 

      The decision logic tables are a read-only database which allows users to edit and print series RDS information, tables, rules, disposition instructions, and notes.

    • D. 

      The decision logic tables are a read-write database which allows users to edit and print series RDS information, tables, rules, disposition instructions, and notes.

  • 134. 
    What type of records are not kept at the records staging area?
    • A. 

      Permanent records

    • B. 

      Temporary records

    • C. 

      Inactive records

    • D. 

      Active records

  • 135. 
    What is the minnimum length of time an AF form 525 stays in suspense with the records manager if a disposition cannot be determined?
    • A. 

      3 months

    • B. 

      6 months

    • C. 

      5 months

    • D. 

      2 months

  • 136. 
    Content delivery services deliver information assets to end users. These services can be two types, what are they??
    • A. 

      Core data services and aggregation services

    • B. 

      Aggregation services and reusable services

    • C. 

      Core data services and messaging services

    • D. 

      Reusable services and messaging services

  • 137. 
    Which of the following best describes Draft records?
    • A. 

      Those that cannot be altered and have not been signed or officially released

    • B. 

      Those that have been signed, Officially released and cannot be altered

    • C. 

      Those that can be altered and have not been signed or officially released

    • D. 

      None of the Above

  • 138. 
    • A. 

      Basic function in a data table

    • B. 

      Something that is measurable or repeatable

    • C. 

      The first element in data element structure

    • D. 

      The common denominator in a database

  • 139. 
    Which of the following best describes Final records?
    • A. 

      Those that have not been signed, officially released and cannot be altered.

    • B. 

      Those that have been signed, officially released and can be altered.

    • C. 

      Those that can be altered and have not been signed or officially released

    • D. 

      Those that have been signed, officially released and cannot be altered.

  • 140. 
    Who ensures RC's attend records management training?
    • A. 

      BRM

    • B. 

      CRM

    • C. 

      FARM

    • D. 

      COR

  • 141. 
    Who serves as the POC for and mointors the records management programs of their unit or functional area and serves as liason with the BRM?
    • A. 

      CRM

    • B. 

      RC

    • C. 

      FARM

    • D. 

      COR

  • 142. 
    Who ensures offices of record promptly retire eligible records and maintain accountablility of such records?
    • A. 

      RC

    • B. 

      FARM

    • C. 

      BRM

    • D. 

      COR

  • 143. 
    • A. 

      Infraction

    • B. 

      Violation

    • C. 

      Sanction

    • D. 

      Compromise

  • 144. 
    The last item you need before releasing information is a signed Standard Form ______, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement.
    • A. 

      SF 213

    • B. 

      SF 132

    • C. 

      SF 312

    • D. 

      SF 321

  • 145. 
    Whch of the following is the act of incorporating, paraphrasing, restating, or generating in new form information that is already classified and marking the newly developed material consisten with the markings of the source information?
    • A. 

      Original classification

    • B. 

      Ordinary classification

    • C. 

      Deligated classification

    • D. 

      Derivative classification

  • 146. 
    Whch of the following is the initial decision that an item of information could be expected to cause damage to the national security if it is subjected to unauthorized disclosure and that the interests of the national security are best served by applying the safegaurds of the information security program to protect it?
    • A. 

      Ordinary classification

    • B. 

      Derivative classificaton

    • C. 

      Original classification

    • D. 

      Delegated classificaion

  • 147. 
    What method is used by a database adminstrator to manage the uploading of information on an enterprise's computer system?
    • A. 

      Data activity

    • B. 

      Data Repository

    • C. 

      System documentation

    • D. 

      Configuration Control

  • 148. 
    If you do not have a graphic or image uploaded to a SharePoint picture library and you want to load one, what is the next step?
    • A. 

      On the create page, select picture library

    • B. 

      On the site actions menu, select edit page from the drop-down menu

    • C. 

      On the site page, click the site actions menu, and then click the create link.

    • D. 

      In the Web part properties panel, specify the URL to the graphic, then set the alignment and display properties.

  • 149. 
    • A. 

      Keep and dispose of records with a retention period of less than nine years to eliminate the expense of transporting records to the FRCs

    • B. 

      Keep and dispose of records with a retention period of less than eight years to eliminate the expense of transporting records to the FRCs

    • C. 

      Keep and dispose of records with a retention period of less than seven years to eliminate the expense of transporting records to the FRCs

    • D. 

      Keep and dispose of records with a retention period of less than three years to eliminate the expense of transporting records to the FRCs

  • 150. 
    What is the first part of the plan when developing a Vital records plan
    • A. 

      Identify the records

    • B. 

      Specific measures for storing copies

    • C. 

      Determine the most critical function

    • D. 

      Description of the records