Pathopharmacology Test 1 - Chapters 5 & 7

40 Questions
Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Pathopharmacology quiz for MSN students. Credit goes to Dr. Nmezi for creating the quiz. I simply put it in this format to make studying easier. This quiz covers chapters 5 & 7 from the McCance Pathophysiology -text.

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept?
    • A. 

      Incidence

    • B. 

      Prevalence

    • C. 

      Ratio

    • D. 

      Risk

  • 2. 
    The _____ risk of developing a disease is expressed as the ratio of the disease rate among the exposed population to the disease rate in an unexposed population.
    • A. 

      Attributable

    • B. 

      Contingency

    • C. 

      Causal

    • D. 

      Relative

  • 3. 
    Empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases are based on:
    • A. 

      Chromosomal testing

    • B. 

      Direct observation

    • C. 

      Liability thresholds

    • D. 

      Relative Risk

  • 4. 
    What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
    • A. 

      A diet high in saturated fats

    • B. 

      An increased production of cholesterol by the liver

    • C. 

      A reduction in the number of LDL receptors on cell surfaces

    • D. 

      An abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood

  • 5. 
    Which risk factor for HTN is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
    • A. 

      Sodium intake

    • B. 

      Physical inactivity

    • C. 

      Psychological stress

    • D. 

      Obesity

  • 6. 
    An autosomal dominant form of breast cancer accounts for ___% of all cases.
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 7. 
    If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast CA, her risk of developing breast CA is ___ times what it would otherwise be.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      10

  • 8. 
    Cancers that cluster strongly in families include:
    • A. 

      Breast and colon

    • B. 

      Lung and ovarian

    • C. 

      Brain and lung

    • D. 

      Lung and brain

  • 9. 
    Which genes are responsible for an autosomal dominant form of breast CA?
    • A. 

      LCAT genes

    • B. 

      CHK1 and CHK2 genes

    • C. 

      BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes

    • D. 

      TP53 and TP54 genes

  • 10. 
    The BRCA and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
    • A. 

      Ovarian

    • B. 

      Lung and ovarian

    • C. 

      Uterine

    • D. 

      Pancreatic

  • 11. 
    The primary characteristic that differentiates the immune response from other protective mechanisms is that the immune response is:
    • A. 

      Similar each time it is activated

    • B. 

      Specific to the antigen that activates it

    • C. 

      A short term response to a specific pathogen

    • D. 

      An innate response, rather than acquired

  • 12. 
    B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells in the:
    • A. 

      Thymus gland

    • B. 

      Regional lymph nodes

    • C. 

      Bone marrow

    • D. 

      Spleen

  • 13. 
    What is the term for the process in which lymphoid stem cells migrate from the bone marrow to the central lymphoid organs (thymus or bone marrow) where they undergo cellular changes into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells?
    • A. 

      Generation of clonal diversity

    • B. 

      Clonal differentiation

    • C. 

      Clonal selection

    • D. 

      Clonal competence

  • 14. 
    Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
    • A. 

      Passive acquired

    • B. 

      Active acquired

    • C. 

      Passive innate

    • D. 

      Active innate

  • 15. 
    Which type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
    • A. 

      Passive acquired

    • B. 

      Active acquired

    • C. 

      Passive innate

    • D. 

      Active innate

  • 16. 
    The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called an antigenic determinant or a(n):
    • A. 

      Immunotope

    • B. 

      Paratope

    • C. 

      Epitope

    • D. 

      Antigenitope

  • 17. 
    The most important determinant of immunogenicity is the antigen's:
    • A. 

      Size

    • B. 

      Foreignness

    • C. 

      Complexity

    • D. 

      Quantity

  • 18. 
    When antigens are administered to individuals to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration used (IV, SQ, nasal)?
    • A. 

      Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with the IV route being fastest

    • B. 

      Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen

    • C. 

      Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes

    • D. 

      Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity

  • 19. 
    How are functions of the major histocompatibility molecules and CD1 molecules alike?
    • A. 

      They are both antigen-presenting (APC) molecules

    • B. 

      They both bind antigens to antibodies

    • C. 

      They both secrete interleukins during the immune process

    • D. 

      They are both capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

  • 20. 
    Antibodies are produced in:
    • A. 

      Helper T lymphocytes

    • B. 

      The thymus gland

    • C. 

      Plasma cells

    • D. 

      The bone marrow

  • 21. 
    Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgE

    • C. 

      IgG

    • D. 

      IgM

  • 22. 
    Which antibody indicates a typical primary immune response?
    • A. 

      IgG

    • B. 

      IgM

    • C. 

      IgA

    • D. 

      IgE

  • 23. 
    If a person had very low levels of Ig__, that individual is more susceptible to infections of the mucous membranes.
    • A. 

      G

    • B. 

      M

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      E

  • 24. 
    B-cell receptor (BCR) complex function differs from the function of circulating antibodies because the BCR complex:
    • A. 

      Communicates information about the antigen to the helper T cell

    • B. 

      Secretes chemical signals to communicate between cells

    • C. 

      Recognizes the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

    • D. 

      Communicates information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

  • 25. 
    During which phase of life does the generation of clonal diversity occur?
    • A. 

      Fetus

    • B. 

      Neonate

    • C. 

      Infant

    • D. 

      Ovum

  • 26. 
    What are characteristics of the generation of clonal diversity?
    • A. 

      The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors

    • B. 

      The process allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-screening plasma cells or mature T cells

    • C. 

      The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e. thymus and bone marrow)

    • D. 

      The process causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

  • 27. 
    Which are characteristics of clonal selection?
    • A. 

      The process is driven by hormones and does not require foreign antigens

    • B. 

      The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors

    • C. 

      The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e. thymus and bone marrow)

    • D. 

      The process generates immature but immunocompetent T and B cells with receptors

  • 28. 
    What is an example of an endogenous antigen?
    • A. 

      Yeast

    • B. 

      Cancer cells

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Fungus

  • 29. 
    Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell?
    • A. 

      IL-1

    • B. 

      IL-2

    • C. 

      IL-4

    • D. 

      IL-12

  • 30. 
    Th2 cells produce IL-4 that suppresses:
    • A. 

      B lymphocytes

    • B. 

      Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Th1

    • D. 

      Memory T lymphocytes

  • 31. 
    What are the characteristics of Th1 cells?
    • A. 

      They are induced by antigens derived from allergens

    • B. 

      They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells

    • C. 

      They produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6 and IL-13

    • D. 

      They assist in the development of humoral immunity

  • 32. 
    What are the characteristics of Th2 cells?
    • A. 

      They are induced by antigens derived from allergens

    • B. 

      They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells

    • C. 

      They produce IL-2, TNF-B and IFN-

    • D. 

      They assist in the development in cell-mediated immunity

  • 33. 
    When a person is exposed to most antigens, how long does it take before an antibody can be detected in the circulation?
    • A. 

      12 hours

    • B. 

      24 hours

    • C. 

      3 days

    • D. 

      6 days

  • 34. 
    Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
    • A. 

      Strong response of IgM

    • B. 

      Level of protection provided by IgG

    • C. 

      Memory cells for IgE

    • D. 

      Rapid response from IgA

  • 35. 
    Some viruses, such as measles and herpes, are inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection because they:
    • A. 

      Do not circulate in the blood

    • B. 

      Do not have antibody receptors

    • C. 

      Resist agglutination

    • D. 

      Are soluble antigens

  • 36. 
    Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated, but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person?
    • A. 

      Poliomyelitis

    • B. 

      Measles

    • C. 

      Tetanus

    • D. 

      Gonorrhea

  • 37. 
    Antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins by:
    • A. 

      Lysing the cell membrane of the toxins

    • B. 

      Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects

    • C. 

      Inhibiting synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth

    • D. 

      Interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication

  • 38. 
    Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against an autoimmune response?
    • A. 

      Cytotoxic T cells

    • B. 

      Th1 cells

    • C. 

      Th2 cells

    • D. 

      Regulatory T (Treg) cells

  • 39. 
    At birth, samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels, if any, are near adult levels?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      IgG

    • C. 

      IgM

    • D. 

      IgE

  • 40. 
    Increased age may cause which of these changes in lymphocyte function?
    • A. 

      Increased production of antibodies against self antigens

    • B. 

      Decreased number of circulating T cells

    • C. 

      Decreased production of autoantibodies

    • D. 

      Increased production of helper T cells