Pathopharmacology Quiz 2 - Stress, Neurologic/Cognitive, Cerebral Hemodynamics, Motor Function, Neuromuscular Junction
Again, Dr. Nmezi gets full credit for creating the quiz. My only intent is to offer others a user-friendly, high-tech medium with which to utilize the Study Guide he created. This quiz covers chapters 10, 14, 16 & 17 in the McCance Pathophysiology E-text.
- 1.Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
- A.
Decreased blood flow to the brain and skin
- B.
Peripheral vasoconstriction
- C.
Increased glycogen synthesis in the liver
- D.
Decreased muscle contraction as a result of an energy depletion
- 2.Stress-induced cortisol released from the adrenal cortex results in:
- A.
Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
- B.
Increased lipolysis
- C.
Stimulation of glycogenolysis
- D.
Increased peripheral uptake and use of glucose
- 3.What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone?
- A.
Hyperglycemia
- B.
HTN
- C.
Bronchodilation
- D.
Pupil dilation
- 4.Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Norepinephrine
- C.
Cortisol
- D.
Growth hormone
- 5.Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
- A.
B cells and eosinophils
- B.
Cytokines and neutrophils
- C.
Cytotoxic T cells and NK cells
- D.
Helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells
- 6.The ___ gland regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity
- A.
Anterior pituitary
- B.
Adrenal
- C.
Basal ganglia
- D.
Pineal
- 7.Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
- A.
IL-1 and IL-6
- B.
IL-2 and TNF-
- C.
IFN and IL-12
- D.
TNF-B and IL-4
- 8.The release of which cytokines is triggered by bacterial or viral infections, cancer, and tissue injury that in turn initiate a stress response?
- A.
IL-1 and IL-2
- B.
IL-12, TNF-, and colony-stimulating factor
- C.
IFN, TNF-B, and IL-6
- D.
IL-4 and IL-24
- 9.The ___ is a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential in maintaining wakefulness
- A.
Midbrain
- B.
Reticular Activating System
- C.
Medulla oblongata
- D.
Pons
- 10.Elaboration of thought and goal oriented behavior are functions of the ___ area of the brain
- A.
Thalamic
- B.
Limbic System
- C.
Prefrontal
- D.
Occipital lobe
- 11.Where is the region responsible for motor aspects of speech?
- A.
Wernicke area in the temporal area
- B.
Broca area in the frontal lobe
- C.
Wronka area in the parietal lobe
- D.
Barlow area in the occipital lobe
- 12.Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in the:
- A.
Thalamus
- B.
Medulla oblongata
- C.
Cerebellum
- D.
Basal ganglia
- 13.The ___ has 2 main functions: maintenance of constant internal environment and implementation of behavioral patterns.
- A.
Thalamus
- B.
Epithalamus
- C.
Subthalamus
- D.
Hypothalamus
- 14.The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of the ___ colliculi.
- A.
Inferior
- B.
Superior
- C.
Mid
- D.
Posterior
- 15.What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
- A.
Hypothalamus and subthalamus
- B.
Parietal and frontal lobes
- C.
Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
- D.
Basal ganglia
- 16.The ___ controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing.
- A.
Pons
- B.
Midbrain
- C.
Cerebellum
- D.
Medulla oblongata
- 17.From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
- A.
Midbrain
- B.
Pons
- C.
Medulla oblongata
- D.
Lateral colliculi
- 18.From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX through XII emerge?
- A.
Midbrain
- B.
Pons
- C.
Medulla oblongata
- D.
Lateral colliculi
- 19.The ___ is responsible for conscious and unconscious synergy and maintaining balance and posture.
- A.
Cerebrum
- B.
Cerebellum
- C.
Diencephalon
- D.
Brainstem
- 20.Which are clinical manifestations caused by damage to the lower pons?
- A.
Abnormal flexion with or without extensor response of the lower extremities
- B.
Abnormal extension response of the upper and lower extremities
- C.
Abnormal extension to the upper extremities and flexion of the lower extremities
- D.
Abnormal flaccid response of the upper and lower extremities
- 21.What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?
- A.
GCS
- B.
Glasgow Outcome Score
- C.
Etiology of injury and time since onset of coma
- D.
Pupillary reaction and reflective eye movements
- 22.A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:
- A.
Reflex
- B.
Seizure
- C.
Epilepsy
- D.
Convulsion
- 23.Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?
- A.
Alternative tonic and clonic movements
- B.
Consciousness is impaired as well as the ability to respond to exogenous stimuli
- C.
Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness
- D.
One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute
- 24.Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the:
- A.
Loss of consciousness
- B.
Development of cerebral hypoxia
- C.
Possibility of a head injury during the seizures
- D.
Decrease in brain metabolism
- 25.The most critical aspect in diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing cause is:
- A.
CT scan
- B.
CSF fluid analysis
- C.
Skull x-ray films
- D.
Health Hx
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