Pathopharmacology Quiz 2 - Stress, Neurologic/Cognitive, Cerebral Hemodynamics, Motor Function, Neuromuscular Junction

42 Questions | By Msnstudent | Updated: Mar 19, 2022 | Attempts: 227

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Pathopharmacology Quiz 2 - Stress, Neurologic/Cognitive, Cerebral Hemodynamics, Motor Function, Neuromuscular Junction - Quiz

Again, Dr. Nmezi gets full credit for creating the quiz. My only intent is to offer others a user-friendly, high-tech medium with which to utilize the Study Guide he created. This quiz covers chapters 10, 14, 16 & 17 in the McCance Pathophysiology E-text.

Questions and Answers

1.

Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
- A.
  
  Decreased blood flow to the brain and skin
- B.
  
  Peripheral vasoconstriction
- C.
  
  Increased glycogen synthesis in the liver
- D.
  
  Decreased muscle contraction as a result of an energy depletion
2.

Stress-induced cortisol released from the adrenal cortex results in:
- A.
  
  Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
- B.
  
  Increased lipolysis
- C.
  
  Stimulation of glycogenolysis
- D.
  
  Increased peripheral uptake and use of glucose
3.

What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone?
- A.
  
  Hyperglycemia
- B.
  
  HTN
- C.
  
  Bronchodilation
- D.
  
  Pupil dilation
4.

Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?
- A.
  
  Epinephrine
- B.
  
  Norepinephrine
- C.
  
  Cortisol
- D.
  
  Growth hormone
5.

Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
- A.
  
  B cells and eosinophils
- B.
  
  Cytokines and neutrophils
- C.
  
  Cytotoxic T cells and NK cells
- D.
  
  Helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells
6.

The ___ gland regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity
- A.
  
  Anterior pituitary
- B.
  
  Adrenal
- C.
  
  Basal ganglia
- D.
  
  Pineal
7.

Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
- A.
  
  IL-1 and IL-6
- B.
  
  IL-2 and TNF-
- C.
  
  IFN and IL-12
- D.
  
  TNF-B and IL-4
8.

The release of which cytokines is triggered by bacterial or viral infections, cancer, and tissue injury that in turn initiate a stress response?
- A.
  
  IL-1 and IL-2
- B.
  
  IL-12, TNF-, and colony-stimulating factor
- C.
  
  IFN, TNF-B, and IL-6
- D.
  
  IL-4 and IL-24
9.

The ___ is a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential in maintaining wakefulness
- A.
  
  Midbrain
- B.
  
  Reticular Activating System
- C.
  
  Medulla oblongata
- D.
  
  Pons
10.

Elaboration of thought and goal oriented behavior are functions of the ___ area of the brain
- A.
  
  Thalamic
- B.
  
  Limbic System
- C.
  
  Prefrontal
- D.
  
  Occipital lobe
11.

Where is the region responsible for motor aspects of speech?
- A.
  
  Wernicke area in the temporal area
- B.
  
  Broca area in the frontal lobe
- C.
  
  Wronka area in the parietal lobe
- D.
  
  Barlow area in the occipital lobe
12.

Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in the:
- A.
  
  Thalamus
- B.
  
  Medulla oblongata
- C.
  
  Cerebellum
- D.
  
  Basal ganglia
13.

The ___ has 2 main functions: maintenance of constant internal environment and implementation of behavioral patterns.
- A.
  
  Thalamus
- B.
  
  Epithalamus
- C.
  
  Subthalamus
- D.
  
  Hypothalamus
14.

The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of the ___ colliculi.
- A.
  
  Inferior
- B.
  
  Superior
- C.
  
  Mid
- D.
  
  Posterior
15.

What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
- A.
  
  Hypothalamus and subthalamus
- B.
  
  Parietal and frontal lobes
- C.
  
  Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
- D.
  
  Basal ganglia
16.

The ___ controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing.
- A.
  
  Pons
- B.
  
  Midbrain
- C.
  
  Cerebellum
- D.
  
  Medulla oblongata
17.

From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
- A.
  
  Midbrain
- B.
  
  Pons
- C.
  
  Medulla oblongata
- D.
  
  Lateral colliculi
18.

From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX through XII emerge?
- A.
  
  Midbrain
- B.
  
  Pons
- C.
  
  Medulla oblongata
- D.
  
  Lateral colliculi
19.

The ___ is responsible for conscious and unconscious synergy and maintaining balance and posture.
- A.
  
  Cerebrum
- B.
  
  Cerebellum
- C.
  
  Diencephalon
- D.
  
  Brainstem
20.

Which are clinical manifestations caused by damage to the lower pons?
- A.
  
  Abnormal flexion with or without extensor response of the lower extremities
- B.
  
  Abnormal extension response of the upper and lower extremities
- C.
  
  Abnormal extension to the upper extremities and flexion of the lower extremities
- D.
  
  Abnormal flaccid response of the upper and lower extremities
21.

What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?
- A.
  
  GCS
- B.
  
  Glasgow Outcome Score
- C.
  
  Etiology of injury and time since onset of coma
- D.
  
  Pupillary reaction and reflective eye movements
22.

A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:
- A.
  
  Reflex
- B.
  
  Seizure
- C.
  
  Epilepsy
- D.
  
  Convulsion
23.

Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?
- A.
  
  Alternative tonic and clonic movements
- B.
  
  Consciousness is impaired as well as the ability to respond to exogenous stimuli
- C.
  
  Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness
- D.
  
  One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute
24.

Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the:
- A.
  
  Loss of consciousness
- B.
  
  Development of cerebral hypoxia
- C.
  
  Possibility of a head injury during the seizures
- D.
  
  Decrease in brain metabolism
25.

The most critical aspect in diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing cause is:
- A.
  
  CT scan
- B.
  
  CSF fluid analysis
- C.
  
  Skull x-ray films
- D.
  
  Health Hx