Pathopharmacology Quiz 2 - Stress, Neurologic/cognitive, Cerebral Hemodynamics, Motor Function, Neuromuscular Junction
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Again, Dr. Nmezi gets full credit for creating the quiz. My only intent is to offer others a user-friendly, high-tech medium with which to utilize the Study Guide he created. This quiz covers chapters 10, 14, 16 & 17 in the McCance Pathophysiology E-text.
- 1.Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
- A.
Decreased blood flow to the brain and skin
- B.
Peripheral vasoconstriction
- C.
Increased glycogen synthesis in the liver
- D.
Decreased muscle contraction as a result of an energy depletion
- 2.Stress-induced cortisol released from the adrenal cortex results in:
- A.
Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
- B.
Increased lipolysis
- C.
Stimulation of glycogenolysis
- D.
Increased peripheral uptake and use of glucose
- 3.What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone?
- A.
Hyperglycemia
- B.
HTN
- C.
Bronchodilation
- D.
Pupil dilation
- 4.Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Norepinephrine
- C.
Cortisol
- D.
Growth hormone
- 5.Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
- A.
B cells and eosinophils
- B.
Cytokines and neutrophils
- C.
Cytotoxic T cells and NK cells
- D.
Helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells
- 6.The ___ gland regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity
- A.
Anterior pituitary
- B.
Adrenal
- C.
Basal ganglia
- D.
Pineal
- 7.Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
- A.
IL-1 and IL-6
- B.
IL-2 and TNF-
- C.
IFN and IL-12
- D.
TNF-B and IL-4
- 8.The release of which cytokines is triggered by bacterial or viral infections, cancer, and tissue injury that in turn initiate a stress response?
- A.
IL-1 and IL-2
- B.
IL-12, TNF-, and colony-stimulating factor
- C.
IFN, TNF-B, and IL-6
- D.
IL-4 and IL-24
- 9.The ___ is a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential in maintaining wakefulness
- A.
Midbrain
- B.
Reticular Activating System
- C.
Medulla oblongata
- D.
Pons
- 10.Elaboration of thought and goal oriented behavior are functions of the ___ area of the brain
- A.
Thalamic
- B.
Limbic System
- C.
Prefrontal
- D.
Occipital lobe
- 11.Where is the region responsible for motor aspects of speech?
- A.
Wernicke area in the temporal area
- B.
Broca area in the frontal lobe
- C.
Wronka area in the parietal lobe
- D.
Barlow area in the occipital lobe
- 12.Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in the:
- A.
Thalamus
- B.
Medulla oblongata
- C.
Cerebellum
- D.
Basal ganglia
- 13.The ___ has 2 main functions: maintenance of constant internal environment and implementation of behavioral patterns.
- A.
Thalamus
- B.
Epithalamus
- C.
Subthalamus
- D.
Hypothalamus
- 14.The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of the ___ colliculi.
- A.
Inferior
- B.
Superior
- C.
Mid
- D.
Posterior
- 15.What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
- A.
Hypothalamus and subthalamus
- B.
Parietal and frontal lobes
- C.
Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
- D.
Basal ganglia
- 16.The ___ controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing.
- A.
Pons
- B.
Midbrain
- C.
Cerebellum
- D.
Medulla oblongata
- 17.From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
- A.
Midbrain
- B.
Pons
- C.
Medulla oblongata
- D.
Lateral colliculi
- 18.From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX through XII emerge?
- A.
Midbrain
- B.
Pons
- C.
Medulla oblongata
- D.
Lateral colliculi
- 19.The ___ is responsible for conscious and unconscious synergy and maintaining balance and posture.
- A.
Cerebrum
- B.
Cerebellum
- C.
Diencephalon
- D.
Brainstem
- 20.Which are clinical manifestations caused by damage to the lower pons?
- A.
Abnormal flexion with or without extensor response of the lower extremities
- B.
Abnormal extension response of the upper and lower extremities
- C.
Abnormal extension to the upper extremities and flexion of the lower extremities
- D.
Abnormal flaccid response of the upper and lower extremities
- 21.What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?
- A.
GCS
- B.
Glasgow Outcome Score
- C.
Etiology of injury and time since onset of coma
- D.
Pupillary reaction and reflective eye movements
- 22.A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:
- A.
Reflex
- B.
Seizure
- C.
Epilepsy
- D.
Convulsion
- 23.Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?
- A.
Alternative tonic and clonic movements
- B.
Consciousness is impaired as well as the ability to respond to exogenous stimuli
- C.
Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness
- D.
One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute
- 24.Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the:
- A.
Loss of consciousness
- B.
Development of cerebral hypoxia
- C.
Possibility of a head injury during the seizures
- D.
Decrease in brain metabolism
- 25.The most critical aspect in diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing cause is:
- A.
CT scan
- B.
CSF fluid analysis
- C.
Skull x-ray films
- D.
Health Hx
- 26.
- A.
Simple partial
- B.
Focal
- C.
Psychomotor
- D.
Aversive
- 27.What area of the brain mediates several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?
- A.
Limbic
- B.
Prefrontal
- C.
Parietal
- D.
Occipital
- 28.___ is the loss of speech or the loss of comprehension of spoken or written language.
- A.
Agnosia
- B.
Aphasia
- C.
Akinesia
- D.
Dysphasia
- 29.With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to:
- A.
Respond in writing but not in speech
- B.
Speak back, but not comprehend speech
- C.
Comprehend speech, but not respond verbally
- D.
Respond verbally, but not comprehend speech
- 30.Normal intracranial pressure is ___mmHg.
- A.
5 to 15
- B.
7 to 20
- C.
12 to 14
- D.
80 to 120
- 31.Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the:
- A.
Ventricles
- B.
Brain tissue
- C.
Neurons
- D.
Meninges
- 32.A herniation of which disk would likely result in motor and sensory changes of the lateral lower legs and soles of the feet?
- A.
L2-L3
- B.
L3-L5
- C.
L5-S1
- D.
S2-S3
- 33.Of the following people, who is at highest risk for a CVA?
- A.
White females >65
- B.
Black females >70
- C.
Black males >65
- D.
White males >70
- 34.A right hemisphere embolic CVA has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg. The vessel most likely affected by the emboli is the right ___ artery.
- A.
Middle cerebral
- B.
Vertebral
- C.
Posterior cerebral
- D.
Anterior cerebral
- 35.Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?
- A.
Hemorrhagic
- B.
Thrombotic
- C.
Embolic
- D.
Lacunar
- 36.Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type of stroke?
- A.
Embolic
- B.
Hemorrhagic
- C.
Lacunar
- D.
Thrombotic
- 37.Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels?
- A.
Cavernous angioma
- B.
Capillary telangiectasia
- C.
Arteriovenous angioma
- D.
Arteriovenous malformation
- 38.Which clinical finding is considered a diagnostic indicator for an AVM?
- A.
Systolic bruit over the carotid artery
- B.
Decreased LOC
- C.
HTN with bradycardia
- D.
Diastolic bruit over the temporal artery
- 39.Which cerebral vascular disorder causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs?
- A.
Intracranial hemorrhage
- B.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- C.
Epidural hemorrhage
- D.
Subdural hemorrhage
- 40.Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of cluster headache?
- A.
Aura before the HA with photophobia and N/V
- B.
Severe unilateral tearing, burning, or temporal pain
- C.
Gradual onset of bilateral pain with sensation of a tight band around the head
- D.
Throbbing HA with intermittent burning sensation
- 41.In adults most intracranial tumors are located:
- A.
Above the tentorium cerebelli (supratentorially)
- B.
Below the tentorium cerebelli (infratentorially)
- C.
Laterally
- D.
Posterolaterally
- 42.In children most intracranial tumors are located:
- A.
Above the tentorium cerebelli (supratentorially)
- B.
Below the tentorium cerebelli (infratentorially)
- C.
Laterally
- D.
Posterolaterally
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