Security Forces Vol 2

100 Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to
    • A. 

      Enhance our role and understanding of the model

    • B. 

      Create a better visual effect of the model

    • C. 

      Support force awareness

    • D. 

      Minimize mistakes

  • 2. 
    You attempt to convince a solicitor in the base housing area to leave, which met you verbal and physical resistance. The solicitor lunges forward and violently attempts to take you weapon shouting, “I’ll kill you.” What subject action level in the UFM is used?
    • A. 

      Complaint

    • B. 

      Resistant (passive)

    • C. 

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D. 

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm)

  • 3. 
    What are the mechanical, physical or mental resources you have to promote or gain compliance called?
    • A. 

      Tools

    • B. 

      Tactics

    • C. 

      Timing

    • D. 

      Techniques

  • 4. 
    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
    • A. 

      Recovery of nuclear weapons

    • B. 

      Keep someone from breaking into a house

    • C. 

      Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    • D. 

      Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

  • 5. 
    You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M-4 rifle at “port arms,” a round in the chamber, selector weapon on
    • A. 

      “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • B. 

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • C. 

      “SAFE,” and the finger in the trigger guard

    • D. 

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

  • 6. 
    You should respond to an actual incident with your M9 pistol where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M9 in its holder. With the flap open
    • A. 

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated backward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked and finger in the trigger guard

    • B. 

      Sentry lock engaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard

    • C. 

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer cocked, and finger in the trigger guard

    • D. 

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not in the trigger guard

  • 7. 
      What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge?
    • A. 

      Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise

    • B. 

      Leave headlights on, step out of the vehicle, and assume the prone position

    • C. 

      Turn off headlights, set parking brake, and turn on dome light

    • D. 

      Leave engine running, and place hands on dash board palms up

  • 8. 
    You prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs by
    • A. 

      Locking both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect

    • B. 

      Applying the handcuffs very tightly to restrict movement

    • C. 

      Looping the cuffs through the front of the belt below the small of the back

    • D. 

      Looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back

  • 9. 
    For quickness, when conducting a search of an individual it should be
    • A. 

      Complete and simple

    • B. 

      Systematic and simple

    • C. 

      Complete and thorough

    • D. 

      Systematic and thorough

  • 10. 
    What type of search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions?
    • A. 

      Wall

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Standing

    • D. 

      Kneeling

  • 11. 
    In which portion of the UFM phase can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART)?
    • A. 

      Resistant (passive)

    • B. 

      Resistant (active)

    • C. 

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D. 

      Assaultive (seriously bodily harm)

  • 12. 
    To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, you must quickly trap the suspect’s hand by grabbing the suspect’s arm
    • A. 

      Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • B. 

      Above the elbow, your pals down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • C. 

      Below the elbow, your palms up, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • D. 

      Above the elbow, your palms up, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

  • 13. 
    The second step in overcoming a rear grab hold is to immediately make a fist, flex your arms
    • A. 

      Out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s groin area

    • B. 

      Out slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s groin area

    • C. 

      Out slightly. Crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet

    • D. 

      In slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s feet

  • 14. 
    What are two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?
    • A. 

      Suspect’s position and attitude

    • B. 

      Your position and your attitude

    • C. 

      Assisting members’ over watch position

    • D. 

      Your position ad available cover and concealment

  • 15. 
    Where should the assisting Security Forces member stand to help from a position of advantage?
    • A. 

      To one side

    • B. 

      At a 90-degree angle

    • C. 

      Directly behind the suspect

    • D. 

      Next to the apprehending officer

  • 16. 
    What must you evaluate before apprehending a suspect?
    • A. 

      Your ability to make the apprehension alone

    • B. 

      Attitude and physical condition of suspect

    • C. 

      Whether to be domineering or belligerent

    • D. 

      Your position and member’s attitude

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Grab the back of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm up (or the suspect’s right with your left)

    • B. 

      Grab the front of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspect’s right with your left hand)

    • C. 

      Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left)

    • D. 

      Grab the side of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your right)

  • 18. 
    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect’s
    • A. 

      Elbow extended out toward the ground

    • B. 

      Arm straight and toward the ground

    • C. 

      Elbow parallel to the ground

    • D. 

      Arm parallel to the ground

  • 19. 
    The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an
    • A. 

      Emotionless and physical deterrent to aggression

    • B. 

      Emotional and physiological deterrent to aggression

    • C. 

      Emotional and physical deterrent to aggression

    • D. 

      Emotional and psychological deterrent to aggression

  • 20. 
    During which portion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use the baton?
    • A. 

      Resistant (passive)

    • B. 

      Resistant (active)

    • C. 

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D. 

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

  • 21. 
    The three principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms,
    • A. 

      Head, and knees

    • B. 

      Legs, and knees

    • C. 

      Knees, and ankles

    • D. 

      Head, and legs

  • 22. 
    What type of weapon is the baton primarily used as?
    • A. 

      Non-physical

    • B. 

      Psychological

    • C. 

      Impact

    • D. 

      Lethal

  • 23. 
    Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered
    • A. 

      Lethal

    • B. 

      Non-lethal

    • C. 

      Deadly force

    • D. 

      Resistant (passive)

  • 24. 
    What portion, of the Use of Force Model that a subject’s actions are located within, can you expect to use approved electronic control devices?
    • A. 

      Resistant (active)

    • B. 

      Resistant (passive)

    • C. 

      Compliant (active)

    • D. 

      Compliant (resistant)

  • 25. 
    Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide the grid square into
    • A. 

      Fifths

    • B. 

      Tenths

    • C. 

      Fifteenths

    • D. 

      Twentieths

  • 26. 
    After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility?
    • A. 

      Nearest military installation

    • B. 

      Disaster control group team

    • C. 

      Nuclear accident recovery team

    • D. 

      Home installation of the resource

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident?
    • A. 

      On-scene fire chief

    • B. 

      On-scene commander

    • C. 

      Disaster control group

    • D. 

      Initial base response force

  • 28. 
    What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?
    • A. 

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind

    • B. 

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind

    • C. 

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

    • D. 

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

  • 29. 
    What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident?
    • A. 

      Do not answer and then detain them

    • B. 

      Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel

    • C. 

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the public affairs personnel

    • D. 

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the installation commander

  • 30. 
    What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?
    • A. 

      Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film

    • B. 

      Use physical force to retrieve the film

    • C. 

      Physically detain the photographer

    • D. 

      Seize the film

  • 31. 
    One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to
    • A. 

      Let other federal agencies take charge of the situation

    • B. 

      Prevent or minimize loss of life and property

    • C. 

      Neutralize perpetrators using deadly force

    • D. 

      Not yield to civilian authorities

  • 32. 
    What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations?
    • A. 

      Trained negotiators

    • B. 

      Swat teams

    • C. 

      Special operations

    • D. 

      Assault weapons

  • 33. 
    Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Security forces personnel

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Unit commander

  • 34. 
    Who is allowed inside the inner perimeter you established at a high-risk scene?
    • A. 

      Medical emergency services personnel

    • B. 

      Base fire department personnel

    • C. 

      Negotiation teams

    • D. 

      Base chaplain

  • 35. 
    A base entry point check is
    • A. 

      An examination

    • B. 

      A warrant search

    • C. 

      A consent search

    • D. 

      A probable cause search

  • 36. 
    At least how many security forces member should be present when conducting entry point checks?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 37. 
    What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check?  
    • A. 

      Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual

    • B. 

      Seize the contraband and refuse entry to the installation

    • C. 

      Continue searching the vehicle for more contraband

    • D. 

      Impound the vehicle immediately

  • 38. 
    What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?
    • A. 

      Operator’s attitude

    • B. 

      Patrolman’s attitude

    • C. 

      Object size

    • D. 

      Location

  • 39. 
    How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?
    • A. 

      Completely and simply

    • B. 

      Systematically and simply

    • C. 

      Thoroughly and completely

    • D. 

      Thoroughly and systematically

  • 40. 
    Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas?
    • A. 

      Concentric circle

    • B. 

      Item-to-item

    • C. 

      Zone or sector

    • D. 

      Strip and grid

  • 41. 
    While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?
    • A. 

      Enter to prevent injury or damage

    • B. 

      Enter only to identify suspects

    • C. 

      Do not enter until the flight chief arrives

    • D. 

      Do not enter until you witness an assault

  • 42. 
    When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to
    • A. 

      Treat all injured persons

    • B. 

      Make sure you take appropriate notes

    • C. 

      Collect and mark visible items of evidence

    • D. 

      Keep the scene in its original state

  • 43. 
    When should you begin taking crime scene notes?
    • A. 

      As soon as dispatched

    • B. 

      When a checklist item has been completed

    • C. 

      You have completed collecting all evidence

    • D. 

      An investigator relieves you from the scene

  • 44. 
    What should you do if you move evidence prematurely form its original position when securing the scene?
    • A. 

      Disregard it completely

    • B. 

      Just wipe you prints off

    • C. 

      Inform the shift supervisor

    • D. 

      Record its original position in your notes

  • 45. 
    What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?
    • A. 

      Time is not important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence

    • B. 

      Do not try to keep extraneous articles out of the photographs

    • C. 

      Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched

    • D. 

      Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence

  • 46. 
    What type of evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?
    • A. 

      Real

    • B. 

      Direct

    • C. 

      Documentary

    • D. 

      Circumstantial

  • 47. 
    What document establishes the rules of evidence?
    • A. 

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • B. 

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

    • C. 

      US Constitution

    • D. 

      Military law

  • 48. 
    What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements?
    • A. 

      Posse Comitatus Act of 1878

    • B. 

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • C. 

      US Constitution

    • D. 

      Jencks Act

  • 49. 
    An item of evidence is considered fragile if
    • A. 

      The item contains bodily fluids

    • B. 

      You drop the item of evidence it would break

    • C. 

      You have small trace evidence on an item of evidence

    • D. 

      Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value

  • 50. 
    How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?
    • A. 

      Physical injury only

    • B. 

      Emotional disturbance

    • C. 

      Psychological battery

    • D. 

      Physical injury or emotional disturbance

  • 51. 
    Which type of child abuse is the most difficult to identify?
    • A. 

      Emotional maltreatment

    • B. 

      Psychological abuse

    • C. 

      Sexual maltreatment

    • D. 

      Physical abuse

  • 52. 
    Between how many seconds, before knocking, should you stop and listen at the door of a domestic violence situation before knocking?
    • A. 

      5 to 10

    • B. 

      10 to 15

    • C. 

      15 to 20

    • D. 

      20 to 25

  • 53. 
    What is the first action you take in a domestic violence situation if no one answers the door after you knock and it appears quiet?
    • A. 

      Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address

    • B. 

      Contact a neighbor and ask questions concerning the incident

    • C. 

      Knock a second time and announce your presence

    • D. 

      Assume the fighting stopped and depart the area

  • 54. 
    Who must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse?
    • A. 

      Unit commander

    • B. 

      First sergeant

    • C. 

      Family advocacy

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations

  • 55. 
    You responded to a dispute and determined it was verbal because
    • A. 

      A physical assault has not occurred

    • B. 

      An individual is not easy to reason with

    • C. 

      There are no nearby objects or weapons

    • D. 

      The disputants are intoxicated

  • 56. 
    Integrated defense (ID) forces vary depending on the theater and may include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Joint services

    • B. 

      Coalition partners

    • C. 

      Host nations

    • D. 

      Friendly forces

  • 57. 
    Capabilities-based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for all
    • A. 

      Installation commanders

    • B. 

      Deployed personnel

    • C. 

      Security forces

    • D. 

      Airmen

  • 58. 
    Which system affords the highest level of protection nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Security

    • B. 

      Protection level

    • C. 

      Priority resource

    • D. 

      Security forces alerting

  • 59. 
    Which is an example of a weapons systems protection level 1 (PL1) resource?
    • A. 

      Non-nuclear alert force

    • B. 

      Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions

    • C. 

      Fuels and liquid oxygen storage areas

    • D. 

      Selected command, control, and communications (C3) facilities, systems, and equipment

  • 60. 
    What is the function of the nuclear weapon augmentation force if a weapon has been taken?
    • A. 

      To protect the remaining nuclear weapons that has not been taken

    • B. 

      Let the response force and back-up force handle the situation

    • C. 

      To setup base defense positions around the perimeter

    • D. 

      To assist in recapture and recovery operations

  • 61. 
    You will apply specific security principles to a close-in security area that contains
    • A. 

      Nuclear weapons

    • B. 

      Top secret material

    • C. 

      One of a kind aircraft

    • D. 

      Very sensitive material

  • 62. 
    What type of demarcation do fences serve when they are used to secure area boundaries?
    • A. 

      Legal and physical

    • B. 

      Legal and warning

    • C. 

      Warning and deterrent

    • D. 

      Physical and deterrent

  • 63. 
    How close to firm ground must the fence fabric extend in a restricted area?
    • A. 

      Ground level

    • B. 

      One inch

    • C. 

      Two inches

    • D. 

      Three inches

  • 64. 
    What type effect does restricted area lighting have in deterring intruders?
    • A. 

      Psychological

    • B. 

      Physiological

    • C. 

      Sociological

    • D. 

      Visual

  • 65. 
    Which type of lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas?
    • A. 

      Area lighting

    • B. 

      Boundary lighting

    • C. 

      Special purpose lighting

    • D. 

      Very near infrared

  • 66. 
    How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 67. 
    In the stages of alarm protection, motion detection is also called
    • A. 

      Volumetric or space

    • B. 

      Mobile or stationary

    • C. 

      Point or spot

    • D. 

      Area or zone

  • 68. 
    Which detection stage of alarm protection provides response forces with the least amount of warning?
    • A. 

      Penetration

    • B. 

      Motion

    • C. 

      Point

    • D. 

      Area

  • 69. 
    What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
    • A. 

      A zero tolerance approach to handling crime

    • B. 

      Random calls to solve community problems

    • C. 

      Involvement with local youth programs

    • D. 

      Greater community voice in setting police priorities

  • 70. 
    The success of any community policing program depends on
    • A. 

      Whether or not the Chief, Security Forces is involved

    • B. 

      The extent to which the program meets the community’s needs

    • C. 

      Whether or not all the needs of a community were identified on a survey

    • D. 

      The degree security forces personnel let the community handle their own problems

  • 71. 
    What purpose does physical protection surveys in preventing crime?
    • A. 

      Determine which program meets the community’s needs

    • B. 

      Whether or not all of the needs of the installation were identified

    • C. 

      To establish rapport between police personnel and the community

    • D. 

      Educate personnel about the steps they can take to protect themselves and their property

  • 72. 
    What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement?
    • A. 

      Enforce the traffic code

    • B. 

      Reduce traffic accidents

    • C. 

      Cite people for speeding

    • D. 

      Control the flow of traffic

  • 73. 
    During a traffic stop, how far form the violator’s vehicle do you position your vehicle?
    • A. 

      10 to 12 feet to the rear and three to the left

    • B. 

      10 – 12 feet to the rear and two feet to the left

    • C. 

      12 – 15 feet to the rear and three feet to the right

    • D. 

      12 – 15 feet to the rear and two feet to the right

  • 74. 
    How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?
    • A. 

      As close as you can get to the accident scene

    • B. 

      So that it doesn’t interfere with the traffic flow around the accident

    • C. 

      Away from the scene and prevent damage by debris

    • D. 

      To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard

  • 75. 
    When directing traffic on a one-way street, it is best for you to stand
    • A. 

      Next to your vehicle

    • B. 

      In the center of the road

    • C. 

      Off to the side of the road

    • D. 

      In the center of the intersection

  • 76. 
    Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic for all of the following reasons except
    • A. 

      Motorist will start shouting back

    • B. 

      Hand and arm signals are sufficient

    • C. 

      Shouting orders antagonizes motorists

    • D. 

      They are sometimes difficult to understand

  • 77. 
    Terminate a walk and turn field sobriety test when a suspect
    • A. 

      Steps off the line four or more times

    • B. 

      Steps off the line three or more times

    • C. 

      Puts his or her foot down one or more times

    • D. 

      Puts his or her foot down three or more times

  • 78. 
    What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the one-leg stand field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Eight

  • 79. 
    You may administer a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test on a suspect. HGN is when your eyes
    • A. 

      Are not jerking

    • B. 

      Appear dilated

    • C. 

      Involuntarily jerk

    • D. 

      Start and stop jerking

  • 80. 
    What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Eight

  • 81. 
    It is important that you receive official certification of our qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible
    • A. 

      In a military court

    • B. 

      In a civilian court

    • C. 

      In a civilian and military court

    • D. 

      To the Chief, Security Forces

  • 82. 
    Results of chemical testing for alcohol or drug content are only valid if it is administered
    • A. 

      Voluntarily

    • B. 

      With a lawyer present

    • C. 

      Twice

    • D. 

      By qualified personnel

  • 83. 
    What is the first step when writing a report once the incident is over?
    • A. 

      Gather the facts

    • B. 

      Write the report

    • C. 

      Organize the facts

    • D. 

      Evaluate the report

  • 84. 
    Which sentence is an example of using active voice in a report?
    • A. 

      Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones

    • B. 

      Amn Jones was apprehended by Sgt Smith

    • C. 

      The report was written by Amn Smith

    • D. 

      The suspects were surrounded by security forces personnel

  • 85. 
    What rule applies, in the Summary Reporting System, under number of premises entered, if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to police?
    • A. 

      Motel

    • B. 

      Hotel

    • C. 

      Temporary lodging facility

    • D. 

      Storage

  • 86. 
    Which of the following is not allowable type of apprehension/detention code on the AF Form 3545, Incident Report?
    • A. 

      Taken into custody

    • B. 

      On-view arrest

    • C. 

      Summons

    • D. 

      Detained

  • 87. 
    One use of the narrative page of AF Form3545, Incident Report, is designed for
    • A. 

      Documenting offense data

    • B. 

      Listing the victim’s information

    • C. 

      Documenting multiple incidents

    • D. 

      Continuing any section of the form

  • 88. 
    If you use the question and answer technique with a suspect on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complaint, have
    • A. 

      A witness to the statement initial all questions and answers

    • B. 

      The person giving the statement initial after each question and answer

    • C. 

      This technique only authorized on a statement used by security force members

    • D. 

      The person giving the statement sign a written agreement to use this technique

  • 89. 
    The chain-of-custody for an item of evidence on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the
    • A. 

      Person who obtained or collected the property

    • B. 

      First person who noticed the property

    • C. 

      Property custodian

    • D. 

      Chief investigator

  • 90. 
    How many calendar days is a completed AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log maintained?    
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 91. 
    DD Form 1408, Armed Forces  Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who
    • A. 

      Causes an accident on-base and is a military member

    • B. 

      Causes an accident on-base and is a non-military member

    • C. 

      Has been involved and is at fault in a vehicle accident

    • D. 

      Commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense

  • 92. 
    Who can authorize a search of people and property for evidence of a crime?
    • A. 

      Commander having control over the area of person or property to be searched

    • B. 

      Chief, Security Forces having control over the area or person to be searched

    • C. 

      Installation Chief Security Forces and Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      Installation Commander and Staff Judge Advocate

  • 93. 
    What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?
    • A. 

      Stop the search immediately

    • B. 

      Stop the search immediately and get authorization from the Chief of Security Forces

    • C. 

      Keep searching because the suspect signed the AF Form 1364, Consent to Search and Seizure

    • D. 

      Keep searching because the 5th Amendment does not allow the suspect to withdraw consent

  • 94. 
    Which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, do you annotate the behind the wheel screening?
    • A. 

      Section I, Suspect’s Data

    • B. 

      Section II, Initial Contact

    • C. 

      Section III, Standardized Field Sobriety Testing

    • D. 

      Section IV, Synopsis

  • 95. 
    Where would you annotate, on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, the results of a suspect’s blood alcohol chemical test?
    • A. 

      Section I, Suspect’s Data

    • B. 

      Section II, Initial Contact

    • C. 

      Section III, Standardized Field Sobriety Testing

    • D. 

      SecSection IV, Synopsistion IV, Synopsis

  • 96. 
    How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person, should you prepare and where are the copies kept?
    • A. 

      One; in the member’s unit

    • B. 

      Two; the case file and the person receiving custody

    • C. 

      Three; in the member’s unit, the case file, and security forces

    • D. 

      Four; the member, the case file, security forces and person receiving custody

  • 97. 
    What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle/ Pass, once you have completed it?
    • A. 

      Disposed of because it is not required

    • B. 

      Maintained at the entry control point

    • C. 

      Filed at pass and registration

    • D. 

      Given to the individual

  • 98. 
    Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice?
    • A. 

      Office of Special Investigations (OSI) personnel

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Flight (MPF) chief

    • C. 

      Chief, Security Forces (CSF)

    • D. 

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

  • 99. 
    Who is responsible to ensure personnel are SFMIS trained?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), training

    • B. 

      Chief, Security Forces

    • C. 

      Unit Training Manager

    • D. 

      Staff Judge Advocate

  • 100. 
    In addition to analyzing law enforcement statistics, the Security Forces Management Information Systems (SFMIS) also analyzes threat
    • A. 

      Fusion

    • B. 

      Conditions

    • C. 

      Capabilities

    • D. 

      Assessments