4c0x1 7 Level Vol 1

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  • 1/75 Questions

    Most people base prejudices upon information

    • Obtained from research.
    • Learned from formal courses.
    • Gained from learned stereotypes.
    • Gathered from community-based training programs.
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Counseling Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The '4C0X1 7 Level Vol 1' quiz assesses understanding of societal changes needed to combat racism, the impact of prejudices in counseling, and the importance of space in therapeutic relationships. It is tailored for learners in healthcare and counseling, focusing on Westernized healthcare perspectives.


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  • 2. 

    When counselors act upon their prejudices, they

    • Become better people.

    • Overcome stereotypes.

    • Engage in discriminatory behavior.

    • Ensure equal treatment of all patients.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engage in discriminatory behavior.
    Explanation
    When counselors act upon their prejudices, they engage in discriminatory behavior. This means that they are treating individuals unfairly or unequally based on their preconceived biases or stereotypes. Instead of providing equal treatment to all patients, counselors who act on their prejudices are perpetuating discrimination, which goes against the principles of ethical counseling. It is important for counselors to recognize and challenge their own biases in order to provide unbiased and effective support to their clients.

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  • 3. 

    What is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing the alcohol consumed so the drinker will become intoxicated at lower level of consumption?

    • Reverse tolerance.

    • Residual tolerance.

    • Alcoholic hepatitis.

    • Alcoholic cirrhosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reverse tolerance.
    Explanation
    Reverse tolerance is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing alcohol, resulting in the drinker becoming intoxicated at a lower level of consumption. This means that over time, the body becomes more sensitive to the effects of alcohol, requiring less alcohol to achieve the same level of intoxication. This phenomenon can be dangerous as it increases the risk of alcohol-related harm and addiction.

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  • 4. 

    Which individual is not typically part of the TSR team?

    • Social worker.

    • 3-level mental health technician.

    • 7-level mental health technician.

    • Community readiness consultant.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3-level mental health technician.
    Explanation
    A 3-level mental health technician is not typically part of the TSR team. The other options, such as a social worker, 7-level mental health technician, and community readiness consultant, are more likely to be part of the TSR team.

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  • 5. 

    The most prescribed of all medications is

    • Opioids.

    • Sedatives.

    • Hypnotics.

    • DXM.

    Correct Answer
    A. Opioids.
    Explanation
    Opioids are the most commonly prescribed medications due to their effectiveness in managing moderate to severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other areas of the body, reducing the transmission of pain signals. Opioids include medications such as codeine, morphine, oxycodone, and hydrocodone. They are widely used in medical settings and can be prescribed for various conditions, including post-surgical pain, cancer-related pain, and chronic pain. However, it is important to note that opioids also carry a risk of addiction and misuse, making it crucial for healthcare providers to carefully assess and monitor their use.

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  • 6. 

    The effects of alcohol on the brain can cause what type of injury?

    • Memory.

    • Permanent only.

    • Temporary only.

    • Both temporary and permanent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both temporary and permanent.
    Explanation
    Alcohol can cause both temporary and permanent injuries to the brain. In the short term, alcohol impairs memory and cognitive function, leading to temporary memory loss and difficulty in forming new memories. Additionally, alcohol can cause blackouts, where a person cannot remember events that occurred while they were intoxicated. In the long term, chronic alcohol abuse can lead to permanent damage to the brain, including memory loss, cognitive decline, and even brain shrinkage. Therefore, both temporary and permanent injuries can occur as a result of alcohol's effects on the brain.

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  • 7. 

    What must society change in order to overcome the influence of racism?

    • Laws.

    • Policies.

    • Attitudes.

    • Education.

    Correct Answer
    A. Attitudes.
    Explanation
    To overcome the influence of racism, society must change its attitudes. Laws and policies can help in creating a legal framework against racism, and education can play a crucial role in promoting understanding and tolerance. However, it is ultimately the attitudes of individuals that need to change. By challenging and addressing deep-rooted prejudices and biases, society can work towards creating a more inclusive and equal environment for everyone, regardless of their race or ethnicity.

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  • 8. 

    Which culture values empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment?

    • Asian/ Pacific Islanders.

    • Westernized healthcare providers.

    • Native Americans.

    • Hispanics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Westernized healthcare providers.
    Explanation
    Westernized healthcare providers value empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment. This means that they prioritize using evidence-based practices and relying on scientific research to inform their decisions. They place importance on using diagnostic tools and treatment methods that have been proven to be effective through rigorous testing and research. This approach is in contrast to other cultures, such as Asian/Pacific Islanders, Native Americans, and Hispanics, who may have different perspectives on healthcare and may value other factors in their diagnostic and treatment approaches.

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  • 9. 

    Which aging theory states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan?

    • Activity Theory of Aging.

    • Continuity Theory of Aging.

    • Subculture Theory of Aging.

    • Disengagement Theory of Aging.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuity Theory of Aging.
    Explanation
    The Continuity Theory of Aging states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan. This theory suggests that individuals tend to maintain their established patterns of behavior, preferences, and lifestyles as they age. It emphasizes the importance of continuity in maintaining a sense of identity and well-being as individuals grow older. According to this theory, individuals adapt to the changes that come with aging by maintaining their established roles, relationships, and activities, rather than seeking new ones. This theory contrasts with the Disengagement Theory of Aging, which suggests that individuals withdraw from society and disengage from their previous roles and activities as they age.

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  • 10. 

    How is alcoholism detected among elderly patients?

    • Through routine, thorough screening measures.

    • As a result of physical consequences of alcohol abuse.

    • Through histories obtained by family members of the elderly patient.

    • By responses from surveys used during prevention and outreach activities.

    Correct Answer
    A. As a result of physical consequences of alcohol abuse.
    Explanation
    Alcoholism among elderly patients is detected through the physical consequences of alcohol abuse. This means that healthcare professionals look for signs and symptoms such as liver damage, cognitive impairment, malnutrition, and other health issues that are commonly associated with long-term alcohol abuse. Detecting alcoholism in elderly patients can be challenging as they may not exhibit typical signs or may attribute their symptoms to other age-related conditions. Therefore, identifying physical consequences is an important method to diagnose and address alcoholism in this population.

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  • 11. 

    Which term describes the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days?

    • Speedball.

    • Tweaking.

    • Speed run.

    • Crash.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tweaking.
    Explanation
    The term "tweaking" refers to the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days. During this period, the individual may exhibit symptoms such as restlessness, anxiety, paranoia, aggression, and hallucinations. "Speedball" refers to the combination of cocaine and heroin, "speed run" is not a term associated with methamphetamine use, and "crash" typically refers to the period of exhaustion and depression that follows a drug high.

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  • 12. 

    Which describes a manic patient's initial behavior?

    • Increased productivity, but decreased energy.

    • Increased productivity and increased energy.

    • Decreased productivity and decreased energy.

    • Decreased productivity, but increased energy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased productivity and increased energy.
    Explanation
    A manic patient's initial behavior is characterized by increased productivity and increased energy. This means that they are likely to be highly active, engaged in multiple tasks, and have a heightened sense of motivation and drive. This behavior is often accompanied by a decreased need for sleep and an overall sense of restlessness.

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  • 13. 

    What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD?

    • Acute intervention.

    • Desensitization exposure.

    • Psychopharmacological intervention

    • Allowing the patient to spend time alone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute intervention.
    Explanation
    Acute intervention refers to providing immediate and short-term support and treatment to individuals who have experienced a traumatic event. This can help prevent long-term psychological scarring or the development of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). By addressing the trauma early on and offering appropriate interventions, such as counseling or therapy, individuals can receive the necessary support to process their experiences and reduce the risk of long-term psychological consequences.

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  • 14. 

    What is the general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder?

    • 2 and 5 months, respectively.

    • 3 and 6 months, respectively.

    • 4 and 7 months, respectively.

    • 5 and 8 months, respectively.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 and 6 months, respectively.
    Explanation
    The general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder is between 3 and 6 months. This means that it typically takes around 3 months for the disorder to fully develop, and then it can take up to 6 months for the symptoms to remit or improve.

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  • 15. 

    Which term describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than six months?

    • Acute.

    • Chronic.

    • Persistent.

    • Short-term.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute.
    Explanation
    The term "acute" describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than six months. This means that the symptoms have occurred recently and are of a short duration. Unlike chronic or persistent symptoms that last for a longer period of time, acute symptoms are temporary and typically resolve within a relatively short timeframe.

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  • 16. 

    In  order to work with the mental health patients, a counselor must believe every

    • Counselor can help patients change.

    • Patient has the capacity to change.

    • Counselor can help patients.

    • Patient can be changed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient has the capacity to change.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "patient has the capacity to change." This means that in order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe that every patient has the ability to change. This belief is important because it forms the foundation for the counselor's approach and interventions, as they will be working towards helping the patient make positive changes in their mental health and well-being. By believing in the patient's capacity to change, the counselor can provide the necessary support, guidance, and encouragement to facilitate the patient's growth and progress.

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  • 17. 

    How many times should the TSR team conduct a group informational briefing after a particular incident?

    • One time only.

    • As many times as it proves useful.

    • Three, with the last session led by a trained chaplain.

    • Three, with the last session led by a trained licensed mental health provider.

    Correct Answer
    A. As many times as it proves useful.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As many times as it proves useful." This answer suggests that the TSR team should conduct a group informational briefing multiple times after a particular incident, but the exact number of times will depend on the effectiveness and usefulness of each session. This approach allows for flexibility and adaptability based on the needs and progress of the individuals involved.

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  • 18. 

    What is a primary component of glue and plastic cement?

    • Buttane.

    • Propane.

    • Toluene.

    • Solvent gum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Toluene.
    Explanation
    Toluene is a correct answer because it is a primary component of glue and plastic cement. Toluene is a colorless liquid hydrocarbon that is commonly used as a solvent in various industrial applications, including adhesive and cement manufacturing. It has excellent solvent properties, making it effective in dissolving and bonding different materials together. Therefore, toluene is a key ingredient in glue and plastic cement formulations.

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  • 19. 

    What is the initial physiological response to nicotine?

    • Decreased blood pressure and heart rate.

    • Increased blood pressure and heart rate.

    • Dry mouth.

    • Nausea.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased blood pressure and heart rate.
    Explanation
    Nicotine is a stimulant drug that activates the sympathetic nervous system. When nicotine enters the body, it binds to nicotinic receptors in the brain and other parts of the body, triggering the release of adrenaline and other stress hormones. This leads to an increase in heart rate and blood pressure as the body prepares for a "fight or flight" response. Therefore, the initial physiological response to nicotine is increased blood pressure and heart rate.

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  • 20. 

    What is the most common side effect of chronic opioid usage?

    • Insomnia.

    • Dyskinsea.

    • Depression.

    • Constipation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Constipation.
    Explanation
    Chronic opioid usage commonly leads to constipation as a side effect. Opioids slow down the movement of the digestive system, resulting in the hardening of stools and difficulty in passing them. This occurs because opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the muscular contractions that propel waste through the intestines. As a result, constipation becomes a frequent and bothersome issue for individuals on long-term opioid therapy. Insomnia, dyskinesia, and depression are potential side effects of opioid usage, but they are not as commonly associated with chronic opioid use as constipation.

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  • 21. 

    Which is an example of a strategy a counselor might use to become more culturally competent?

    • Attends a conference for advances in the treatment of depression.

    • A white counselor tells his black client to relax because he sees no color.

    • Asks a client to refrain from using slang terminology to ease the language barrier.

    • A Hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee.

    Correct Answer
    A. A Hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee.
    Explanation
    A counselor becoming more culturally competent involves actively seeking opportunities to learn about and engage with different cultures. Attending a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee demonstrates a commitment to understanding and appreciating the experiences and perspectives of the Black community. This strategy allows the counselor to gain firsthand knowledge, engage in dialogue, and build relationships with individuals from a different cultural background. By actively participating in such events, the counselor can expand their cultural awareness and sensitivity, ultimately enhancing their ability to provide effective counseling services to clients from diverse backgrounds.

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  • 22. 

    Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing

    • Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use.

    • Blackouts, hangovers, and compulsive use.

    • Blackouts, hangovers, and withdrawal.

    • Tolerance, withdrawal, and hangovers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use.
    Explanation
    Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use. Tolerance refers to the need for increased amounts of the substance to achieve the desired effect, withdrawal refers to the physical and psychological symptoms that occur when the substance is discontinued, and compulsive use refers to the inability to control or stop using the substance despite negative consequences. By evaluating these factors, counselors can determine whether an individual is engaging in substance abuse or if they have developed a dependence on the substance.

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  • 23. 

    What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?

    • Intense fear of an identifiable stressor.

    • Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor.

    • Moderate fear of an identifiable stressor.

    • Moderate fear of an unidentifiable stressor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor.
    Explanation
    A panic attack is characterized by intense fear or discomfort that arises suddenly and reaches its peak within minutes. It is often accompanied by physical symptoms such as a racing heart, shortness of breath, and sweating. The primary characteristic of a panic attack is the intense fear, but it is specifically focused on an unidentifiable stressor, meaning that the person experiencing the panic attack may not be able to pinpoint a specific cause for their fear.

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  • 24. 

    Which is an essential feature of PTSD?

    • Tearfulness.

    • Dissociation.

    • Hallucination.

    • Sleeplessness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissociation.
    Explanation
    PTSD, or Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, is a mental health condition that can occur after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Dissociation is an essential feature of PTSD, where individuals may feel detached from their surroundings, have a sense of unreality, or experience a disconnect from their emotions. This can manifest as feeling numb, spacing out, or having gaps in memory related to the traumatic event. Tearfulness, hallucinations, and sleeplessness can be associated with PTSD, but dissociation is considered a core symptom.

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  • 25. 

    Which disorder is commonly diagnosed for people who suffer from anorexia nervosa?

    • Mania.

    • Depression.

    • Substance abuse.

    • Impulsive purging.

    Correct Answer
    A. Depression.
    Explanation
    Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. People with anorexia often have low self-esteem and a negative perception of themselves, which can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and worthlessness. Depression is commonly diagnosed in individuals with anorexia nervosa due to the emotional and psychological toll that the disorder takes on their mental health.

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  • 26. 

    A patient assessed as constantly seeking attention and having difficulty understanding boundary issues should be diagnosed with having a

    • Borderline Personality Disorder.

    • Histrionic Personality Disorder.

    • Antisocial Personality Disorder.

    • Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Histrionic Personality Disorder.
    Explanation
    A patient who constantly seeks attention and has difficulty understanding boundary issues is likely to be diagnosed with Histrionic Personality Disorder. This disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior, dramatic and exaggerated emotions, and a strong desire to be the center of attention. Individuals with Histrionic Personality Disorder often have difficulty maintaining healthy relationships due to their attention-seeking behaviors and may have a tendency to manipulate others to gain attention. This diagnosis is more fitting than Borderline Personality Disorder, Antisocial Personality Disorder, or Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder, as these disorders have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

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  • 27. 

    What does motivational interviewing seek to resolve?

    • Ambivalence.

    • Resistance.

    • Conflict.

    • Issues.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ambivalence.
    Explanation
    Motivational interviewing seeks to resolve ambivalence. Ambivalence refers to having mixed feelings or uncertainty about change. In motivational interviewing, the therapist aims to help individuals explore and resolve their ambivalence towards making positive changes in their lives. By addressing ambivalence, motivational interviewing can help individuals overcome barriers and increase their motivation to change. This approach is often used in therapy for addiction, behavior change, and other areas where individuals may have conflicting feelings about making changes.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following forms the basis of treatment recommendations for the substance using patient?

    • Information obtained in at least five ASAM dimensions.

    • Information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions.

    • Past history of treatment outcomes.

    • Discovery of dual diagnosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions.
    Explanation
    The basis of treatment recommendations for a substance using patient is formed by gathering information in all six ASAM dimensions. These dimensions include the patient's acute intoxication and withdrawal potential, biomedical conditions and complications, emotional and behavioral conditions or complications, treatment acceptance and resistance, relapse potential, and recovery environment. By obtaining information in all six dimensions, healthcare professionals can have a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and tailor the treatment plan accordingly.

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  • 29. 

    Glue-sniffing has resulted in sudden death of its users due to what physiological event?

    • Seizure.

    • Syncope.

    • Arrhythmia.

    • Hyperthermia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Arrhythmia.
    Explanation
    Glue-sniffing can lead to sudden death due to arrhythmia, which is an abnormal heart rhythm. Inhaling glue fumes can cause chemical changes in the body, including affecting the electrical signals in the heart. This disruption can result in irregular heartbeats, leading to arrhythmia. If left untreated, arrhythmia can be life-threatening and can cause sudden cardiac arrest.

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  • 30. 

    What is the most popular 'club drug'?

    • MDMA.

    • GHB.

    • DXM.

    • Ketamin.

    Correct Answer
    A. MDMA.
    Explanation
    MDMA, also known as ecstasy or Molly, is considered the most popular "club drug" due to its euphoric and empathogenic effects. It is commonly used at parties, raves, and nightclubs for its ability to enhance social interactions and increase energy levels. MDMA stimulates the release of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine in the brain, leading to feelings of euphoria, heightened sensory perception, and increased empathy. GHB, DXM, and Ketamine are also commonly used as recreational drugs, but MDMA is generally more popular in club settings.

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  • 31. 

    In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur?

    • Personal.

    • Intimate.

    • Social.

    • Public.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal.
    Explanation
    Most therapeutic relationships occur in the personal space zone. This is because therapeutic relationships involve a level of trust and intimacy that is typically found in personal relationships. In this zone, individuals feel comfortable sharing personal information and emotions with their therapist, which is essential for the therapeutic process. The intimate space zone is typically reserved for close relationships, while the social and public space zones are more appropriate for casual or formal interactions.

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  • 32. 

    Which aging theory states that the elderly possess their own norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors?

    • Activity Theory of Aging.

    • Continuity Theory of Aging.

    • Subculture Theory of Aging.

    • Disengagement Theory of Aging.

    Correct Answer
    A. Subculture Theory of Aging.
    Explanation
    The Subculture Theory of Aging states that the elderly develop their own unique norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors, which differentiate them from younger generations. This theory suggests that as individuals age, they form their own subculture within society, with distinct values and practices. This subculture allows older adults to maintain a sense of identity and belonging, while also providing a framework for understanding and navigating the aging process.

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  • 33. 

    Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the perpetrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model?

    • There has been no noticeable effect.

    • Lack of appropriate screening measures in identifying male victims.

    • Females receive more and more services each year because of their victimization.

    • Lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence.
    Explanation
    The effect of the traditional model of domestic violence presenting males as perpetrators and females as victims has been a lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence. This stereotypic model has perpetuated the belief that only women can be victims, leading to a lack of resources and support for male victims. As a result, men who experience domestic violence may face difficulties in accessing the help they need, further exacerbating their situation.

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  • 34. 

    An NCO attending the NCO Academy reports to his instructor that he feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech. Which type of panic attack might the NCO be experiencing?

    • Expected.

    • Unexpected.

    • Situationally bound.

    • Situationally predisposed

    Correct Answer
    A. Situationally bound.
    Explanation
    The NCO is experiencing a panic attack that is situationally bound. This means that the panic attack is triggered by a specific situation, in this case, the thought of giving a speech. The NCO feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech, suggesting that the panic attack is directly related to this specific situation.

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  • 35. 

    What is the primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

    • Refusal to maintain control over diet.

    • Need to confront poor eating habits.

    • Intense pain related to eating certain foods.

    • Refusal to maintain appropriate body weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Refusal to maintain appropriate body weight.
    Explanation
    Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a refusal to maintain a healthy body weight. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often have a distorted body image and engage in extreme measures to control their weight, such as severe calorie restriction, excessive exercise, and purging behaviors. This primary characteristic sets anorexia nervosa apart from other eating disorders and is a key diagnostic criteria for the disorder.

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  • 36. 

    Many eating disorders go undetected because

    • Of poor screening measures.

    • Patients are adept at hiding their behavior.

    • Other mental illnesses mask eating disorders.

    • Counselors are not skilled at assessing for eating disorders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Of poor screening measures.
    Explanation
    Many eating disorders go undetected because of poor screening measures. This means that there may not be effective methods in place to identify individuals with eating disorders. Without proper screening, it becomes difficult for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of these disorders, resulting in many cases going unnoticed. This lack of detection can prolong the suffering of individuals with eating disorders and delay their access to necessary treatment and support.

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  • 37. 

    Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she withholds judgment of a patient?

    • Self-awareness.

    • Acceptance.

    • Observation.

    • Empathy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance.
    Explanation
    When a counselor withholds judgment of a patient, they are demonstrating acceptance. Acceptance is the ability to acknowledge and respect the patient's thoughts, feelings, and experiences without imposing personal biases or opinions. By practicing acceptance, the counselor creates a safe and non-judgmental space for the patient to explore their emotions and concerns openly. This allows for a deeper level of trust and understanding between the counselor and patient, facilitating the therapeutic process.

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  • 38. 

    A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome is a past history of

    • Other mental illness.

    • Polysubstance abuse.

    • Withdrawal syndrome.

    • Substance intoxication

    Correct Answer
    A. Withdrawal syndrome.
    Explanation
    A past history of withdrawal syndrome increases the probability that the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome again. This is because the body and brain have already gone through the process of withdrawal before, making it more likely to happen again in the future.

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  • 39. 

    Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty Air Force installation with a MTF?

    • Highest ranking enlisted mental health technician.

    • Highest ranking privileged life skills provider.

    • Installation commander.

    • TSR team Chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the establishment of at least one TSR (Traumatic Stress Response) team at each active duty Air Force installation with a Medical Treatment Facility (MTF). This means that the installation commander has the authority and duty to ensure that the necessary resources and personnel are in place to form and maintain the TSR teams. The highest ranking enlisted mental health technician, highest ranking privileged life skills provider, and TSR team chief may play important roles within the TSR team, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the installation commander.

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  • 40. 

    During which phase of the group informational briefings would you provide acredible information to assist in managing destructive rumor control, decrease anxiety of the unknown, and allow the victims to regain a sense of self control?

    • Fact Revelation phase.

    • Common Cause phase.

    • Reduce Symptoms phase.

    • Sense of Normalcy phase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fact Revelation phase.
    Explanation
    In the Fact Revelation phase of group informational briefings, credible information is provided to assist in managing destructive rumor control, decrease anxiety of the unknown, and allow the victims to regain a sense of self-control. This phase focuses on revealing accurate facts and dispelling any false information or rumors that may be causing distress or confusion among the victims. By providing credible information, it helps to establish a sense of trust and reassurance, reducing anxiety and allowing the victims to regain a sense of control over the situation.

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  • 41. 

    Marijuana has been linked to the treatment of all of the following except

    • Crohn's Disease.

    • Multiple sclerosis.

    • Insomnia.

    • Arthritis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Insomnia.
    Explanation
    Marijuana has been linked to the treatment of Crohn's Disease, multiple sclerosis, and arthritis, but not insomnia. While marijuana is known for its potential to help with sleep-related issues, it is not typically associated with treating insomnia specifically. Other medications or therapies may be more commonly used for managing insomnia.

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  • 42. 

    After ingesting MDMA, how many hours does the effect last?

    • 2-4.

    • 4-6.

    • 6-8.

    • 8-10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4-6.
    Explanation
    After ingesting MDMA, the effects typically last for 4-6 hours. MDMA is a psychoactive drug that produces feelings of euphoria, increased energy, and enhanced sensory perception. These effects usually peak within a few hours of ingestion and gradually taper off. The duration of the effects can vary depending on factors such as the dosage, individual metabolism, and the presence of other substances in the body. However, on average, the effects of MDMA are expected to last for approximately 4-6 hours.

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  • 43. 

    Which role is also known as the "fixer" in the chemically dependent family?

    • Lost child.

    • Caretaker.

    • Mascot.

    • Hero.

    Correct Answer
    A. Caretaker.
    Explanation
    The role of the "fixer" in the chemically dependent family is also known as the caretaker. This role is typically taken on by a family member who tries to maintain stability and harmony within the family by taking care of others and solving problems. The caretaker often sacrifices their own needs and desires in order to keep the family functioning, and may enable the addictive behavior of the chemically dependent individual.

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  • 44. 

    This role in the chemically dependent family is often deemed the "troublemaker".

    • Caretaker.

    • Lost child.

    • Scapegoat.

    • Joker/mascot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Scapegoat.
    Explanation
    In a chemically dependent family, the scapegoat is the role that is often seen as the "troublemaker." This individual is blamed for the family's problems and is often the target of criticism and punishment. They may act out or rebel in response to the dysfunction within the family system. The scapegoat role serves as a distraction from the real issues and allows other family members to avoid taking responsibility for their own actions.

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  • 45. 

    What is the time frame of binge behavior?

    • More than two hours.

    • Less than two hours.

    • More than three hours.

    • Less than three hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than two hours.
    Explanation
    The time frame of binge behavior is less than two hours. This suggests that binge behavior refers to engaging in a particular activity excessively and compulsively for a relatively short period of time. It implies that individuals who engage in binge behavior tend to do so for a duration of less than two hours, indicating a pattern of intense and excessive behavior within a limited time frame.

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  • 46. 

    In alcohol treatment, when a patient has alcoholism or substance abuse along with medical, legal, or social issues, this is called

    • Dual diagnosis.

    • Polysubstance abuse.

    • Coexisting conditions.

    • Polysubstance dependence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coexisting conditions.
    Explanation
    The term "coexisting conditions" refers to the situation where a patient undergoing alcohol treatment has both alcoholism or substance abuse and additional medical, legal, or social issues. This implies that the patient is dealing with multiple conditions at the same time, which may complicate their treatment and require a comprehensive approach to address all the issues effectively.

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  • 47. 

    What term describes the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient?

    • Therapeutic alliance.

    • Acceptance.

    • Empathy.

    • Rapport.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapport.
    Explanation
    Rapport refers to the mutual respect and trust that is established between the interviewer and the patient. It involves creating a positive and comfortable atmosphere, where both parties feel understood and valued. Building rapport is essential in establishing a therapeutic alliance, as it allows for effective communication and collaboration in the healthcare setting. Acceptance and empathy are important components of rapport, but they alone do not encompass the entirety of the concept.

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  • 48. 

    The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is

    • 2, Biomedical conditions and complications.

    • 3, Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications.

    • 4, Readiness to change.

    • 5, Relapse, continued use or continued problem potential.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3, Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications.
    Explanation
    The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is 3, Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on assessing and treating any emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions that may be present alongside substance use disorders. It recognizes that mental health issues often coexist with addiction and emphasizes the importance of addressing both aspects in order to achieve successful recovery.

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  • 49. 

    According to the Air Force's Traumatic Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when which symptom lasts for over a month, and/or impacts work or social functioning.

    • Flashbacks.

    • Suicidal ideation.

    • Homicidal ideation.

    • Alcohol or drug abuse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flashbacks.
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force's Traumatic Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when flashbacks last for over a month and/or impacts work or social functioning. Flashbacks are intrusive memories or re-experiencing of a traumatic event, and if they persist for an extended period or significantly affect an individual's daily life, it is crucial to seek help. This can indicate the presence of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and professional assistance may be necessary for coping and recovery.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 13, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Bama2003
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