4c0x1 7 Level Vol 1

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1. What is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing the alcohol consumed so the drinker will become intoxicated at lower level of consumption?

Explanation

Reverse tolerance is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing alcohol, resulting in the drinker becoming intoxicated at a lower level of consumption. This means that over time, the body becomes more sensitive to the effects of alcohol, requiring less alcohol to achieve the same level of intoxication. This phenomenon can be dangerous as it increases the risk of alcohol-related harm and addiction.

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About This Quiz
Counseling Quizzes & Trivia

The '4C0X1 7 Level Vol 1' quiz assesses understanding of societal changes needed to combat racism, the impact of prejudices in counseling, and the importance of space in... see moretherapeutic relationships. It is tailored for learners in healthcare and counseling, focusing on Westernized healthcare perspectives. see less

2. Which individual is not typically part of the TSR team?

Explanation

A 3-level mental health technician is not typically part of the TSR team. The other options, such as a social worker, 7-level mental health technician, and community readiness consultant, are more likely to be part of the TSR team.

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3. The most prescribed of all medications is

Explanation

Opioids are the most commonly prescribed medications due to their effectiveness in managing moderate to severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other areas of the body, reducing the transmission of pain signals. Opioids include medications such as codeine, morphine, oxycodone, and hydrocodone. They are widely used in medical settings and can be prescribed for various conditions, including post-surgical pain, cancer-related pain, and chronic pain. However, it is important to note that opioids also carry a risk of addiction and misuse, making it crucial for healthcare providers to carefully assess and monitor their use.

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4. The effects of alcohol on the brain can cause what type of injury?

Explanation

Alcohol can cause both temporary and permanent injuries to the brain. In the short term, alcohol impairs memory and cognitive function, leading to temporary memory loss and difficulty in forming new memories. Additionally, alcohol can cause blackouts, where a person cannot remember events that occurred while they were intoxicated. In the long term, chronic alcohol abuse can lead to permanent damage to the brain, including memory loss, cognitive decline, and even brain shrinkage. Therefore, both temporary and permanent injuries can occur as a result of alcohol's effects on the brain.

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5. Most people base prejudices upon information

Explanation

The correct answer is "gained from learned stereotypes." Prejudices are often formed based on preconceived notions and generalizations about certain groups of people. These stereotypes are learned through various means such as media, socialization, and personal experiences. They may not necessarily be accurate or based on factual information, but they shape people's perceptions and attitudes towards others.

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6. When counselors act upon their prejudices, they

Explanation

When counselors act upon their prejudices, they engage in discriminatory behavior. This means that they are treating individuals unfairly or unequally based on their preconceived biases or stereotypes. Instead of providing equal treatment to all patients, counselors who act on their prejudices are perpetuating discrimination, which goes against the principles of ethical counseling. It is important for counselors to recognize and challenge their own biases in order to provide unbiased and effective support to their clients.

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7. Which describes a manic patient's initial behavior?

Explanation

A manic patient's initial behavior is characterized by increased productivity and increased energy. This means that they are likely to be highly active, engaged in multiple tasks, and have a heightened sense of motivation and drive. This behavior is often accompanied by a decreased need for sleep and an overall sense of restlessness.

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8. What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD?

Explanation

Acute intervention refers to providing immediate and short-term support and treatment to individuals who have experienced a traumatic event. This can help prevent long-term psychological scarring or the development of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). By addressing the trauma early on and offering appropriate interventions, such as counseling or therapy, individuals can receive the necessary support to process their experiences and reduce the risk of long-term psychological consequences.

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9. What is the general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder?

Explanation

The general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder is between 3 and 6 months. This means that it typically takes around 3 months for the disorder to fully develop, and then it can take up to 6 months for the symptoms to remit or improve.

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10. Which term describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than six months?

Explanation

The term "acute" describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than six months. This means that the symptoms have occurred recently and are of a short duration. Unlike chronic or persistent symptoms that last for a longer period of time, acute symptoms are temporary and typically resolve within a relatively short timeframe.

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11. In  order to work with the mental health patients, a counselor must believe every

Explanation

The correct answer is "patient has the capacity to change." This means that in order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe that every patient has the ability to change. This belief is important because it forms the foundation for the counselor's approach and interventions, as they will be working towards helping the patient make positive changes in their mental health and well-being. By believing in the patient's capacity to change, the counselor can provide the necessary support, guidance, and encouragement to facilitate the patient's growth and progress.

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12. How many times should the TSR team conduct a group informational briefing after a particular incident?

Explanation

The correct answer is "As many times as it proves useful." This answer suggests that the TSR team should conduct a group informational briefing multiple times after a particular incident, but the exact number of times will depend on the effectiveness and usefulness of each session. This approach allows for flexibility and adaptability based on the needs and progress of the individuals involved.

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13. What is a primary component of glue and plastic cement?

Explanation

Toluene is a correct answer because it is a primary component of glue and plastic cement. Toluene is a colorless liquid hydrocarbon that is commonly used as a solvent in various industrial applications, including adhesive and cement manufacturing. It has excellent solvent properties, making it effective in dissolving and bonding different materials together. Therefore, toluene is a key ingredient in glue and plastic cement formulations.

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14. What is the initial physiological response to nicotine?

Explanation

Nicotine is a stimulant drug that activates the sympathetic nervous system. When nicotine enters the body, it binds to nicotinic receptors in the brain and other parts of the body, triggering the release of adrenaline and other stress hormones. This leads to an increase in heart rate and blood pressure as the body prepares for a "fight or flight" response. Therefore, the initial physiological response to nicotine is increased blood pressure and heart rate.

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15. What is the most common side effect of chronic opioid usage?

Explanation

Chronic opioid usage commonly leads to constipation as a side effect. Opioids slow down the movement of the digestive system, resulting in the hardening of stools and difficulty in passing them. This occurs because opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the muscular contractions that propel waste through the intestines. As a result, constipation becomes a frequent and bothersome issue for individuals on long-term opioid therapy. Insomnia, dyskinesia, and depression are potential side effects of opioid usage, but they are not as commonly associated with chronic opioid use as constipation.

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16. What must society change in order to overcome the influence of racism?

Explanation

To overcome the influence of racism, society must change its attitudes. Laws and policies can help in creating a legal framework against racism, and education can play a crucial role in promoting understanding and tolerance. However, it is ultimately the attitudes of individuals that need to change. By challenging and addressing deep-rooted prejudices and biases, society can work towards creating a more inclusive and equal environment for everyone, regardless of their race or ethnicity.

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17. Which culture values empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment?

Explanation

Westernized healthcare providers value empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment. This means that they prioritize using evidence-based practices and relying on scientific research to inform their decisions. They place importance on using diagnostic tools and treatment methods that have been proven to be effective through rigorous testing and research. This approach is in contrast to other cultures, such as Asian/Pacific Islanders, Native Americans, and Hispanics, who may have different perspectives on healthcare and may value other factors in their diagnostic and treatment approaches.

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18. Which aging theory states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan?

Explanation

The Continuity Theory of Aging states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan. This theory suggests that individuals tend to maintain their established patterns of behavior, preferences, and lifestyles as they age. It emphasizes the importance of continuity in maintaining a sense of identity and well-being as individuals grow older. According to this theory, individuals adapt to the changes that come with aging by maintaining their established roles, relationships, and activities, rather than seeking new ones. This theory contrasts with the Disengagement Theory of Aging, which suggests that individuals withdraw from society and disengage from their previous roles and activities as they age.

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19. How is alcoholism detected among elderly patients?

Explanation

Alcoholism among elderly patients is detected through the physical consequences of alcohol abuse. This means that healthcare professionals look for signs and symptoms such as liver damage, cognitive impairment, malnutrition, and other health issues that are commonly associated with long-term alcohol abuse. Detecting alcoholism in elderly patients can be challenging as they may not exhibit typical signs or may attribute their symptoms to other age-related conditions. Therefore, identifying physical consequences is an important method to diagnose and address alcoholism in this population.

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20. Which term describes the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days?

Explanation

The term "tweaking" refers to the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days. During this period, the individual may exhibit symptoms such as restlessness, anxiety, paranoia, aggression, and hallucinations. "Speedball" refers to the combination of cocaine and heroin, "speed run" is not a term associated with methamphetamine use, and "crash" typically refers to the period of exhaustion and depression that follows a drug high.

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21. What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?

Explanation

A panic attack is characterized by intense fear or discomfort that arises suddenly and reaches its peak within minutes. It is often accompanied by physical symptoms such as a racing heart, shortness of breath, and sweating. The primary characteristic of a panic attack is the intense fear, but it is specifically focused on an unidentifiable stressor, meaning that the person experiencing the panic attack may not be able to pinpoint a specific cause for their fear.

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22. Which is an essential feature of PTSD?

Explanation

PTSD, or Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, is a mental health condition that can occur after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Dissociation is an essential feature of PTSD, where individuals may feel detached from their surroundings, have a sense of unreality, or experience a disconnect from their emotions. This can manifest as feeling numb, spacing out, or having gaps in memory related to the traumatic event. Tearfulness, hallucinations, and sleeplessness can be associated with PTSD, but dissociation is considered a core symptom.

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23. Which disorder is commonly diagnosed for people who suffer from anorexia nervosa?

Explanation

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. People with anorexia often have low self-esteem and a negative perception of themselves, which can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and worthlessness. Depression is commonly diagnosed in individuals with anorexia nervosa due to the emotional and psychological toll that the disorder takes on their mental health.

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24. A patient assessed as constantly seeking attention and having difficulty understanding boundary issues should be diagnosed with having a

Explanation

A patient who constantly seeks attention and has difficulty understanding boundary issues is likely to be diagnosed with Histrionic Personality Disorder. This disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior, dramatic and exaggerated emotions, and a strong desire to be the center of attention. Individuals with Histrionic Personality Disorder often have difficulty maintaining healthy relationships due to their attention-seeking behaviors and may have a tendency to manipulate others to gain attention. This diagnosis is more fitting than Borderline Personality Disorder, Antisocial Personality Disorder, or Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder, as these disorders have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

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25. What does motivational interviewing seek to resolve?

Explanation

Motivational interviewing seeks to resolve ambivalence. Ambivalence refers to having mixed feelings or uncertainty about change. In motivational interviewing, the therapist aims to help individuals explore and resolve their ambivalence towards making positive changes in their lives. By addressing ambivalence, motivational interviewing can help individuals overcome barriers and increase their motivation to change. This approach is often used in therapy for addiction, behavior change, and other areas where individuals may have conflicting feelings about making changes.

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26. Which of the following forms the basis of treatment recommendations for the substance using patient?

Explanation

The basis of treatment recommendations for a substance using patient is formed by gathering information in all six ASAM dimensions. These dimensions include the patient's acute intoxication and withdrawal potential, biomedical conditions and complications, emotional and behavioral conditions or complications, treatment acceptance and resistance, relapse potential, and recovery environment. By obtaining information in all six dimensions, healthcare professionals can have a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and tailor the treatment plan accordingly.

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27. Glue-sniffing has resulted in sudden death of its users due to what physiological event?

Explanation

Glue-sniffing can lead to sudden death due to arrhythmia, which is an abnormal heart rhythm. Inhaling glue fumes can cause chemical changes in the body, including affecting the electrical signals in the heart. This disruption can result in irregular heartbeats, leading to arrhythmia. If left untreated, arrhythmia can be life-threatening and can cause sudden cardiac arrest.

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28. What is the most popular 'club drug'?

Explanation

MDMA, also known as ecstasy or Molly, is considered the most popular "club drug" due to its euphoric and empathogenic effects. It is commonly used at parties, raves, and nightclubs for its ability to enhance social interactions and increase energy levels. MDMA stimulates the release of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine in the brain, leading to feelings of euphoria, heightened sensory perception, and increased empathy. GHB, DXM, and Ketamine are also commonly used as recreational drugs, but MDMA is generally more popular in club settings.

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29. Which is an example of a strategy a counselor might use to become more culturally competent?

Explanation

A counselor becoming more culturally competent involves actively seeking opportunities to learn about and engage with different cultures. Attending a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee demonstrates a commitment to understanding and appreciating the experiences and perspectives of the Black community. This strategy allows the counselor to gain firsthand knowledge, engage in dialogue, and build relationships with individuals from a different cultural background. By actively participating in such events, the counselor can expand their cultural awareness and sensitivity, ultimately enhancing their ability to provide effective counseling services to clients from diverse backgrounds.

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30. Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing

Explanation

Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use. Tolerance refers to the need for increased amounts of the substance to achieve the desired effect, withdrawal refers to the physical and psychological symptoms that occur when the substance is discontinued, and compulsive use refers to the inability to control or stop using the substance despite negative consequences. By evaluating these factors, counselors can determine whether an individual is engaging in substance abuse or if they have developed a dependence on the substance.

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31. An NCO attending the NCO Academy reports to his instructor that he feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech. Which type of panic attack might the NCO be experiencing?

Explanation

The NCO is experiencing a panic attack that is situationally bound. This means that the panic attack is triggered by a specific situation, in this case, the thought of giving a speech. The NCO feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech, suggesting that the panic attack is directly related to this specific situation.

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32. What is the primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

Explanation

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a refusal to maintain a healthy body weight. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often have a distorted body image and engage in extreme measures to control their weight, such as severe calorie restriction, excessive exercise, and purging behaviors. This primary characteristic sets anorexia nervosa apart from other eating disorders and is a key diagnostic criteria for the disorder.

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33. Many eating disorders go undetected because

Explanation

Many eating disorders go undetected because of poor screening measures. This means that there may not be effective methods in place to identify individuals with eating disorders. Without proper screening, it becomes difficult for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of these disorders, resulting in many cases going unnoticed. This lack of detection can prolong the suffering of individuals with eating disorders and delay their access to necessary treatment and support.

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34. Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she withholds judgment of a patient?

Explanation

When a counselor withholds judgment of a patient, they are demonstrating acceptance. Acceptance is the ability to acknowledge and respect the patient's thoughts, feelings, and experiences without imposing personal biases or opinions. By practicing acceptance, the counselor creates a safe and non-judgmental space for the patient to explore their emotions and concerns openly. This allows for a deeper level of trust and understanding between the counselor and patient, facilitating the therapeutic process.

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35. A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome is a past history of

Explanation

A past history of withdrawal syndrome increases the probability that the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome again. This is because the body and brain have already gone through the process of withdrawal before, making it more likely to happen again in the future.

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36. Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty Air Force installation with a MTF?

Explanation

The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the establishment of at least one TSR (Traumatic Stress Response) team at each active duty Air Force installation with a Medical Treatment Facility (MTF). This means that the installation commander has the authority and duty to ensure that the necessary resources and personnel are in place to form and maintain the TSR teams. The highest ranking enlisted mental health technician, highest ranking privileged life skills provider, and TSR team chief may play important roles within the TSR team, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the installation commander.

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37. During which phase of the group informational briefings would you provide acredible information to assist in managing destructive rumor control, decrease anxiety of the unknown, and allow the victims to regain a sense of self control?

Explanation

In the Fact Revelation phase of group informational briefings, credible information is provided to assist in managing destructive rumor control, decrease anxiety of the unknown, and allow the victims to regain a sense of self-control. This phase focuses on revealing accurate facts and dispelling any false information or rumors that may be causing distress or confusion among the victims. By providing credible information, it helps to establish a sense of trust and reassurance, reducing anxiety and allowing the victims to regain a sense of control over the situation.

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38. Marijuana has been linked to the treatment of all of the following except

Explanation

Marijuana has been linked to the treatment of Crohn's Disease, multiple sclerosis, and arthritis, but not insomnia. While marijuana is known for its potential to help with sleep-related issues, it is not typically associated with treating insomnia specifically. Other medications or therapies may be more commonly used for managing insomnia.

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39. After ingesting MDMA, how many hours does the effect last?

Explanation

After ingesting MDMA, the effects typically last for 4-6 hours. MDMA is a psychoactive drug that produces feelings of euphoria, increased energy, and enhanced sensory perception. These effects usually peak within a few hours of ingestion and gradually taper off. The duration of the effects can vary depending on factors such as the dosage, individual metabolism, and the presence of other substances in the body. However, on average, the effects of MDMA are expected to last for approximately 4-6 hours.

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40. Which role is also known as the "fixer" in the chemically dependent family?

Explanation

The role of the "fixer" in the chemically dependent family is also known as the caretaker. This role is typically taken on by a family member who tries to maintain stability and harmony within the family by taking care of others and solving problems. The caretaker often sacrifices their own needs and desires in order to keep the family functioning, and may enable the addictive behavior of the chemically dependent individual.

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41. This role in the chemically dependent family is often deemed the "troublemaker".

Explanation

In a chemically dependent family, the scapegoat is the role that is often seen as the "troublemaker." This individual is blamed for the family's problems and is often the target of criticism and punishment. They may act out or rebel in response to the dysfunction within the family system. The scapegoat role serves as a distraction from the real issues and allows other family members to avoid taking responsibility for their own actions.

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42. In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur?

Explanation

Most therapeutic relationships occur in the personal space zone. This is because therapeutic relationships involve a level of trust and intimacy that is typically found in personal relationships. In this zone, individuals feel comfortable sharing personal information and emotions with their therapist, which is essential for the therapeutic process. The intimate space zone is typically reserved for close relationships, while the social and public space zones are more appropriate for casual or formal interactions.

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43. Which aging theory states that the elderly possess their own norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors?

Explanation

The Subculture Theory of Aging states that the elderly develop their own unique norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors, which differentiate them from younger generations. This theory suggests that as individuals age, they form their own subculture within society, with distinct values and practices. This subculture allows older adults to maintain a sense of identity and belonging, while also providing a framework for understanding and navigating the aging process.

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44. Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the perpetrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model?

Explanation

The effect of the traditional model of domestic violence presenting males as perpetrators and females as victims has been a lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence. This stereotypic model has perpetuated the belief that only women can be victims, leading to a lack of resources and support for male victims. As a result, men who experience domestic violence may face difficulties in accessing the help they need, further exacerbating their situation.

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45. What is the time frame of binge behavior?

Explanation

The time frame of binge behavior is less than two hours. This suggests that binge behavior refers to engaging in a particular activity excessively and compulsively for a relatively short period of time. It implies that individuals who engage in binge behavior tend to do so for a duration of less than two hours, indicating a pattern of intense and excessive behavior within a limited time frame.

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46. In alcohol treatment, when a patient has alcoholism or substance abuse along with medical, legal, or social issues, this is called

Explanation

The term "coexisting conditions" refers to the situation where a patient undergoing alcohol treatment has both alcoholism or substance abuse and additional medical, legal, or social issues. This implies that the patient is dealing with multiple conditions at the same time, which may complicate their treatment and require a comprehensive approach to address all the issues effectively.

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47. What term describes the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient?

Explanation

Rapport refers to the mutual respect and trust that is established between the interviewer and the patient. It involves creating a positive and comfortable atmosphere, where both parties feel understood and valued. Building rapport is essential in establishing a therapeutic alliance, as it allows for effective communication and collaboration in the healthcare setting. Acceptance and empathy are important components of rapport, but they alone do not encompass the entirety of the concept.

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48. The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is

Explanation

The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is 3, Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on assessing and treating any emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions that may be present alongside substance use disorders. It recognizes that mental health issues often coexist with addiction and emphasizes the importance of addressing both aspects in order to achieve successful recovery.

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49. According to the Air Force's Traumatic Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when which symptom lasts for over a month, and/or impacts work or social functioning.

Explanation

According to the Air Force's Traumatic Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when flashbacks last for over a month and/or impacts work or social functioning. Flashbacks are intrusive memories or re-experiencing of a traumatic event, and if they persist for an extended period or significantly affect an individual's daily life, it is crucial to seek help. This can indicate the presence of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and professional assistance may be necessary for coping and recovery.

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50. A family genogram will assist you in which feature of the biopsychosocial model?

Explanation

A family genogram is a visual representation of a person's family tree that includes information about the biological relationships and health history of family members. It helps to identify patterns of genetic inheritance and understand the biological factors that may contribute to an individual's health and well-being. Therefore, a family genogram is most closely related to the biological aspect of the biopsychosocial model, which considers the interaction between biological, psychological, and social factors in understanding and addressing health issues.

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51. What is the drug that is most notable for its unpredictable and erratic high?

Explanation

PCP, also known as phencyclidine, is a drug that is notorious for its unpredictable and erratic high. It is a hallucinogenic drug that can cause severe mood swings, delusions, and violent behavior. The effects of PCP can vary greatly from person to person and even from one use to another, making it highly unpredictable. This unpredictability and erratic nature of the high is what makes PCP stand out among the other drugs listed as options.

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52. As the dosage of PCP increases, an individual's breathing, blood pressure, and pulse will begin to

Explanation

The correct answer is "decrescendo" because PCP, also known as phencyclidine, is a dissociative drug that acts as a depressant on the central nervous system. As the dosage of PCP increases, it causes a decrease in breathing, blood pressure, and pulse. Therefore, these vital signs will decrease or decrescendo with higher doses of PCP.

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53. Which schizophrenic symptom either exaggerates or grossly distorts the patient's normal level of functioning?

Explanation

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia refer to symptoms that are added to a person's normal level of functioning. These symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and disorganized behavior. They are called positive symptoms because they represent an excess or exaggeration of normal functioning. In contrast, negative symptoms refer to a reduction or absence of normal functioning, such as lack of motivation, social withdrawal, and flattened affect. Perceptual symptoms, on the other hand, are not specific to schizophrenia and can occur in other mental health conditions as well. Therefore, the correct answer is positive.

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54. A patient has spent $5,000 on shoes in the last three weeks. Which symptom of mania is this behavior evidence of?

Explanation

The behavior of spending $5,000 on shoes in the last three weeks is evidence of indiscretion. Indiscretion refers to a lack of judgment or restraint in one's actions, often leading to impulsive and excessive behavior. In this case, the patient's excessive spending on shoes demonstrates a lack of judgment and restraint, indicating a symptom of mania.

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55. The average adult can oxidize approximately how many drinks in 180 minutes?

Explanation

The question asks about the number of drinks that an average adult can oxidize in 180 minutes. Oxidation refers to the process by which alcohol is broken down and eliminated from the body. The correct answer is 3 because it suggests that an average adult can metabolize or oxidize three drinks within a span of 180 minutes.

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56. What is the final phase of a group informational briefing?

Explanation

The final phase of a group informational briefing is Self aid and Buddy care. This phase focuses on teaching individuals how to take care of themselves and their peers in emergency situations. It involves providing training on basic first aid techniques, such as stopping bleeding, treating minor injuries, and providing support until professional help arrives. This phase aims to empower individuals to be self-sufficient and capable of assisting others in times of need.

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57. Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to which cluster of personality disorders?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to Cluster A of personality disorders. Cluster A includes disorders such as paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder. These disorders are characterized by unusual or eccentric behavior, social withdrawal, and difficulty forming close relationships. People with Cluster A personality disorders often have peculiar beliefs or thoughts and may exhibit odd or eccentric mannerisms.

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58. Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she conveys an understanding of a patient's situation or feeling?

Explanation

Empathy is the skill that a counselor utilizes when conveying an understanding of a patient's situation or feeling. Empathy involves being able to understand and share the feelings of another person, showing genuine concern and compassion. By demonstrating empathy, the counselor creates a safe and supportive environment for the patient to express their emotions and experiences, ultimately fostering a stronger therapeutic relationship. This skill allows the counselor to connect with the patient on a deeper level and helps in providing effective guidance and support.

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59. Which progressive stage of alcoholism is typically the easiest to treat?

Explanation

The progressive stage of alcoholism that is typically the easiest to treat is the crucial stage. This stage refers to the early phase of alcoholism where the individual may still have some control over their drinking habits and may not have experienced severe physical or psychological consequences. At this stage, intervention and treatment interventions can be more effective in helping the individual address their alcohol use and make positive changes in their behavior and lifestyle.

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60. What physiological effect of GHB is considered the most dangerous?

Explanation

Respiratory duress is considered the most dangerous physiological effect of GHB. GHB is a central nervous system depressant that can significantly suppress breathing and lead to respiratory failure. This can be life-threatening as it deprives the body of oxygen and can result in severe complications or even death. Nausea, tachycardia, and hyperthermia are also potential side effects of GHB, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory duress.

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61. What is the role of the counselor in supporting self-efficacy?

Explanation

The role of the counselor in supporting self-efficacy is to share a belief with the patient that they are capable of making change. This involves instilling confidence in the patient's abilities and encouraging them to believe in their own potential for change. By expressing this belief, the counselor helps to empower the patient and increase their self-confidence, which in turn enhances their motivation to make positive changes in their life. This approach promotes a collaborative and supportive relationship between the counselor and the patient, fostering a sense of trust and optimism.

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62. All of the following can be seen as treatment obstacles in the disease model except

Explanation

The question is asking for the treatment obstacles in the disease model that are not seen. The options provided include cumbersome process/resources, lack of treatment program funding, lack of support from family/supervisor, and lack of multidisciplinary team members. Out of these options, the only obstacle that is not typically seen in the disease model is lack of treatment program funding. The other options are commonly recognized as obstacles in the disease model, such as the availability of resources, support from family/supervisor, and the involvement of a multidisciplinary team.

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63. Which group is more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications?

Explanation

Generation Xers are more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications because they are typically more proactive and assertive when it comes to their healthcare. This generation, born between the early 1960s and early 1980s, is known for being independent and self-reliant, and they are more likely to take charge of their health and seek out specific treatments or medications that they believe will benefit them. Veterans, Baby Boomers, and Generation Nexters may also approach providers with specific requests, but Generation Xers are generally considered to be the group that is most likely to do so.

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64. Which substance will an amphetamine user typically use to manage the agitation experienced during a crash?

Explanation

Amphetamine users often experience a crash, which is characterized by feelings of agitation. To manage this agitation, they may turn to substances that can help them calm down. Alcohol and heroin are both depressants that can produce sedative effects, making them potential choices for managing the agitation experienced during an amphetamine crash.

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65. What is an improtant consideration in using self-disclosure?

Explanation

Understanding the reason for disclosing is an important consideration in using self-disclosure because it allows individuals to evaluate their motivations and intentions behind sharing personal information. By understanding the reason for disclosing, individuals can ensure that their self-disclosure is purposeful and relevant to the situation at hand. This consideration helps to avoid unnecessary or inappropriate self-disclosure, and promotes effective communication and relationship building.

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66. A common mistake in the assessment when the diagnosis is substance abuse is failure to assess

Explanation

When assessing a patient with a diagnosis of substance abuse, it is important to assess for the need for detoxification. Detoxification is the process of removing toxic substances from the body, and it is often necessary for individuals who are dependent on drugs or alcohol. Failure to assess for the need for detoxification can lead to complications during the treatment process and hinder the patient's recovery. Therefore, it is crucial to evaluate if detoxification is required as part of the overall treatment plan for substance abuse.

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67. In which personal space do formal interactions occur?

Explanation

Formal interactions typically occur in public personal space. This is a space where individuals engage in social interactions that are more formal and less intimate. It is a setting where people can interact with acquaintances, colleagues, or strangers in a professional manner. Public personal space may include places like offices, conference rooms, or public events where formal conversations and interactions take place.

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68. The best benefit the patient receives from the therapeutic alliance is

Explanation

The therapeutic alliance refers to the relationship between a patient and a counselor or therapist. It is a collaborative partnership where the patient actively participates in their own treatment. By taking more responsibility for their life, the patient becomes empowered to make decisions and take actions that promote their well-being. This benefit allows the patient to have a sense of control over their own life and fosters personal growth and self-improvement. It also helps to build trust and rapport between the patient and the counselor, leading to better therapeutic outcomes.

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69. Which personality disorder is dominated by a person feeling very uncomfortable in a close personal relationship and is often described as odd or eccentric?

Explanation

Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by a person feeling extremely uncomfortable in close personal relationships and exhibiting odd or eccentric behavior. They may have unusual beliefs or perceptual experiences and struggle with social interactions. This disorder is often associated with eccentric thinking and behavior, such as magical thinking or peculiar speech patterns. Unlike other personality disorders listed, such as dependent or paranoid, schizotypal personality disorder specifically highlights the odd or eccentric nature of the individual's behavior and discomfort in close relationships.

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70. What phase is dominated by the involuntary loss of control over drinking?

Explanation

The phase dominated by the involuntary loss of control over drinking is crucial. During this phase, individuals experience a strong compulsion to drink and are unable to control or stop their drinking behavior. This loss of control is a key characteristic of alcohol use disorder and is a crucial stage in the progression of the disorder.

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71. Which Diagnosis is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month?

Explanation

Delusional disorder is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month. Unlike schizophrenia, which involves a range of symptoms such as hallucinations and disorganized thinking, delusional disorder primarily focuses on the presence of delusions. Schizoaffective disorder involves a combination of symptoms of both schizophrenia and mood disorders, while schizophreniform disorder is characterized by symptoms similar to schizophrenia but lasting for a shorter duration (between one and six months). Therefore, the correct answer is Delusional disorder.

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72. Under which feature of the  biopsychosocial model should you identify the catalyst internally that facilitated a client's first drug use?

Explanation

In the context of the biopsychosocial model, the psychological feature focuses on understanding the individual's thoughts, emotions, and behaviors. Identifying the catalyst internally that facilitated a client's first drug use falls under the psychological aspect as it involves examining the client's personal experiences, motivations, and psychological factors that may have influenced their decision to use drugs. This includes factors such as stress, peer pressure, coping mechanisms, and psychological vulnerabilities that may have played a role in their initial drug use.

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73. What is fatty liver disease accompanied by inflammation?

Explanation

Fatty liver disease accompanied by inflammation is known as steatohepatitis. This condition occurs when there is an accumulation of fat in the liver, which leads to inflammation and damage to the liver cells. Steatohepatitis can be caused by excessive alcohol consumption or non-alcoholic factors such as obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol. If left untreated, steatohepatitis can progress to more severe liver conditions like cirrhosis. Jaundice, on the other hand, refers to a yellowing of the skin and eyes due to liver dysfunction, and alcohol hepatitis specifically refers to liver inflammation caused by excessive alcohol intake.

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74. What class of drugs is PCP?

Explanation

PCP, also known as phencyclidine, is classified as a dissociative anesthetic. It acts by blocking the NMDA receptors in the brain, leading to a dissociative state where the user may feel detached from their surroundings. This classification is based on the drug's mechanism of action and its effects on the central nervous system. Therefore, the correct answer is dissociative anesthetic.

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75. Essential in the treatment of the alcoholic is

Explanation

In the treatment of alcoholics, continuity refers to the consistent and ongoing support provided by counselors throughout the recovery process. This is important because it helps to establish trust and build a therapeutic relationship. Clear outcomes refer to the specific goals and objectives that are set for the individual's treatment. Having clear outcomes helps to provide direction and focus, allowing both the counselor and the alcoholic to work towards specific targets. Therefore, continuity and clear outcomes are essential in the treatment of alcoholics as they contribute to effective and successful recovery.

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Many eating disorders go undetected because
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A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience...
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During which phase of the group informational briefings would you...
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The average adult can oxidize approximately how many drinks in 180...
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Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to which cluster of...
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What is the role of the counselor in supporting self-efficacy?
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What is an improtant consideration in using self-disclosure?
A common mistake in the assessment when the diagnosis is substance...
In which personal space do formal interactions occur?
The best benefit the patient receives from the therapeutic alliance is
Which personality disorder is dominated by a person feeling very...
What phase is dominated by the involuntary loss of control over...
Which Diagnosis is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have...
Under which feature of the  biopsychosocial model should you...
What is fatty liver disease accompanied by inflammation?
What class of drugs is PCP?
Essential in the treatment of the alcoholic is
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