4c0x1 5 Level Volume 3

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1. When a patient burns bridges, what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost? (Unit 2)

Explanation

When a patient burns bridges, it means that they have severed or damaged their relationships with their family members. This lack of support from family can create a significant obstacle to their treatment. Family support plays a crucial role in a patient's recovery process, as it provides emotional, practical, and financial assistance. Without the support of their family, patients may feel isolated, unsupported, and may struggle to adhere to their treatment plan. This can negatively impact their overall well-being and hinder their progress in therapy.

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About This Quiz
4c0x1 5 Level Volume 3 - Quiz

This quiz, titled '4c0x1 5 level Volume 3', assesses key psychological concepts and skills in interviewing, focusing on transference, counter-transference, acceptance, and self-awareness. It is designed for journeymen... see moreto enhance their understanding and application of effective interview techniques. see less

2. Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients. It aimed to improve mental health services and provide community-based care for individuals with mental illnesses. The act also focused on protecting the rights and privacy of patients, ensuring their access to appropriate treatment and support.

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3. What is the common denominator in every chemically dependant family?  (Unit 2)

Explanation

In chemically dependent families, denial is a common denominator. Denial refers to the refusal or inability to acknowledge or accept the reality of addiction and its impact on the family. It often manifests as minimizing or rationalizing the problem, making excuses for the addicted individual, or avoiding discussions about the issue altogether. Denial can prevent the family from seeking help or support, perpetuating the cycle of addiction and dysfunction within the family system.

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4. Which of the following is not an attending behavior. (Unit 1)

Explanation

A leading statement is not an attending behavior because it involves guiding or directing the conversation rather than actively listening and showing interest in the speaker. Attending behaviors focus on nonverbal cues and active listening techniques such as displaying attentive posture, using verbal following to encourage the speaker, and making eye contact to show attention and engagement. However, a leading statement involves taking control of the conversation and steering it in a particular direction, which is not considered a part of attending behaviors.

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5. What is the primary basis for all successful communications in a therapeutic relationship? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Rapport is the primary basis for all successful communications in a therapeutic relationship. Building rapport involves establishing a connection, trust, and mutual understanding between the therapist and the client. It creates a safe and comfortable environment where the client feels heard, understood, and supported. Rapport enhances communication by promoting openness, honesty, and collaboration, allowing the therapist to effectively address the client's needs and goals. It is a crucial element in building a strong therapeutic alliance and facilitating positive outcomes in therapy.

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6. Who is often the best historian for a patient? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Family members are often the best historians for a patient because they have intimate knowledge of the patient's medical history, lifestyle, and personal experiences. They can provide valuable insights into the patient's symptoms, previous illnesses, and any relevant genetic factors. Additionally, family members can offer emotional support and help fill in any gaps in the patient's memory or understanding of their medical condition.

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7. What area of the mental status exam examines whether a patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Thought content examines the specific ideas, beliefs, and themes that a patient expresses during the mental status exam. It focuses on whether the patient's thoughts are normal or abnormal, and whether they exhibit any odd or peculiar content. This can include delusions, hallucinations, obsessions, or any other unusual thoughts that may indicate a mental health disorder.

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8. When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal should be addressed immediately because delaying treatment can lead to serious health consequences or even death. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further harm and provide necessary medical attention or support to the individual experiencing acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms.

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9. What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The first dimension of assessment for substance abuse is detoxification. This refers to the process of removing toxic substances from the body, typically through medical intervention. Detoxification is an important aspect of substance abuse assessment as it helps to identify the level of substance dependence and the potential risks and complications associated with withdrawal. By assessing detoxification, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate treatment plan and support needed for individuals struggling with substance abuse.

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10. In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient? (Unit 1)

Explanation

It would be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments because it is important to have trained and qualified professionals who are able to provide appropriate care and treatment for children. Without credentialed staff, there is a risk of inadequate assessment and treatment, potentially leading to harm or ineffective outcomes for the child. Additionally, the unavailability of appointments further limits the ability to provide timely and consistent care, which is crucial for the well-being of a dependent child.

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11. What is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission? (Unit 1)

Explanation

A patient status board is typically used to display important information about a patient's condition and treatment. This includes the patient's name, bed number, and the name of the physician responsible for their care. However, the diagnosis is not something that would typically be displayed on a patient status board. The diagnosis is usually documented in the patient's medical records and discussed between the healthcare team members involved in the patient's care, but it is not necessary to publicly display this information on a status board.

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12. According to the Jellinek Chart regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Denial is considered the most primal defense mechanism according to the Jellinek Chart. Denial involves refusing to acknowledge or accept a reality or truth that causes discomfort or anxiety. It is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to protect themselves from painful emotions or thoughts by blocking them out of their awareness. Denial is often the first line of defense and can be seen as a primitive response to protect one's ego from threatening or distressing information.

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13. When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's : (Unit 3)

Explanation

Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. In this context, when a test does what it is designed to do, it implies that the test is valid. Validity is important because it ensures that the test accurately assesses the construct or characteristic it is supposed to measure. A valid test produces consistent and accurate results, allowing researchers or practitioners to make meaningful interpretations and decisions based on the test scores.

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14. Who is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and providing supervision of psychological tests? (Unit 3)

Explanation

A psychologist is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and providing supervision of psychological tests. This is because psychologists have extensive knowledge and expertise in the field of psychology, including assessment and testing. They are trained to administer and interpret a wide range of psychological tests to assess individuals' cognitive abilities, personality traits, and mental health conditions. Other healthcare providers, such as physicians, psychiatrists, and social workers, may have some knowledge of psychological testing, but they do not have the same level of specialized training and expertise as psychologists in this area.

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15. What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patients capabilities? (Unit 1)

Explanation

To gain a complete understanding of a patient's capabilities, it is important to explore their occupational and academic history in depth. This involves examining their work experience, educational background, and any relevant skills or qualifications they may have. By understanding their occupational and academic history, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's abilities, strengths, and limitations in these areas, which can be crucial in providing appropriate care and support.

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16. When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned into the:  (Unit 1)

Explanation

When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the Security Forces. The Security Forces are responsible for ensuring the security and safety of the facility and its occupants. They are trained to handle and dispose of hazardous or dangerous items properly, minimizing any potential risks to the patients and staff. The Security Forces play a crucial role in maintaining a safe environment within the medical facility.

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17. What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specified rights and ensuring compliance nation wide? (Unit 1)

Explanation

JCAHO, also known as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, is an organization that focuses on tailoring specified rights and ensuring compliance nationwide. They work towards improving the quality of healthcare services by setting standards and accrediting healthcare organizations. JCAHO plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare facilities meet the necessary requirements and provide safe and effective care to patients.

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18. How much time is allotted for each subtest on the Shipley? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The Shipley test allots 10 minutes for each subtest.

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19. The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except: (Unit 1)

Explanation

The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on the patients' values and beliefs, as well as the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's values should not be a determining factor in the decision-making process, as it should be focused on the patient's best interests and preferences. Therefore, the correct answer is providers values.

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20. What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self awareness? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Knowing your boundaries is a skill that demonstrates competence and self-awareness in the interview process. It shows that the individual is aware of their limitations and is able to set appropriate boundaries in terms of what they can and cannot do or discuss during the interview. This skill indicates that the person understands their own strengths and weaknesses, and is able to communicate effectively and professionally within those boundaries. It also suggests that the individual is respectful of others' boundaries and is able to navigate the interview process with sensitivity and awareness.

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21. What should be very limited in the mental status examination (MSE)? (Unit 1)

Explanation

In the mental status examination (MSE), subjectivity should be very limited. This means that the examiner should strive to gather objective information rather than relying on personal opinions or biases. Subjectivity can introduce bias and inaccuracies into the assessment, making it less reliable. It is important to focus on observable and measurable aspects of the individual's mental state to ensure a more accurate evaluation.

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22. What type of hallucination involves the sense of smell? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Olfactory hallucination involves the sense of smell. This means that a person experiencing olfactory hallucination may perceive smells that are not actually present. This type of hallucination can be caused by various factors such as neurological conditions, certain medications, or even mental health disorders. It is important to note that olfactory hallucinations can be distressing and may affect a person's daily life and well-being.

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23. Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The MTF commander is responsible for approving all requests for release of information. As the commander of the Medical Treatment Facility, they have the authority and responsibility to oversee all operations, including the release of medical information. This ensures that proper protocols and regulations are followed to protect patient privacy and confidentiality. The MTF commander plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of medical records and information within the facility.

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24. The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the: (Unit 1)

Explanation

The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the MTF, which stands for Medical Treatment Facility. This means that the mental health clinic's objectives and targets align with the overall goals and objectives of the medical treatment facility. The MTF is responsible for providing healthcare services, including mental health services, to military personnel and their families. Therefore, it makes sense that the mental health clinic's goals would be in line with the MTF's goals.

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25. What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?(Unit 2)

Explanation

Inhalants have a depressant effect on the central nervous system (CNS). This means that they slow down the activity of the brain and spinal cord, resulting in a decrease in overall brain function. Inhalants can cause drowsiness, relaxation, and a general slowing of cognitive and physical processes. They can also impair coordination, judgment, and decision-making abilities. Therefore, the correct answer is "Depressant."

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26. What is the most common form of alchool-induced liver disease (ALD)?  (Unit 2)

Explanation

Fatty liver is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease (ALD). It occurs when there is an accumulation of fat in the liver cells. Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to the development of fatty liver, as alcohol is metabolized in the liver and can cause an imbalance in fat metabolism. If left untreated, fatty liver can progress to more severe forms of ALD such as alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis. However, in terms of prevalence, fatty liver is the most commonly observed form of ALD.

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27. What is defined as the process in which the patient unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations related to important people in the past onto an important authority figure like the interviewer? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Transference is the process in which a patient unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations related to important people in the past onto an important authority figure like the interviewer. This can involve transferring feelings and reactions from childhood experiences onto the therapist or interviewer, which can influence the dynamics of the therapeutic relationship. It is an important concept in psychoanalysis and other forms of therapy, as it provides insight into the patient's internal world and can help uncover unresolved issues and patterns of relating to others.

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28. What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patients message that are translated in the interviewers own words? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Paraphrase is the interview process skill that involves selectively attending to the cognitive parts of the patient's message and translating them into the interviewer's own words. This skill helps the interviewer to demonstrate understanding and clarify their understanding of the patient's message. By restating the patient's words in their own words, the interviewer can ensure accurate interpretation and prevent miscommunication.

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29. Who owns the outpatient medical record? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The correct answer is US Air Force because in a military treatment facility (MTF), the outpatient medical records are owned by the US Air Force. As the MTF Commander is responsible for overseeing the operations of the facility, it is the US Air Force that ultimately owns and maintains the medical records of the patients receiving outpatient care. The patient and guardian may have access to their own medical records, but the ownership lies with the US Air Force.

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30. What is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB) is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug. GHB is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, drowsiness, and memory loss. It is often used to incapacitate individuals and facilitate sexual assault. GHB is colorless, odorless, and tasteless, making it easy to slip into someone's drink without their knowledge. It has gained notoriety for its association with drug-facilitated sexual assault cases, where individuals are unable to give consent or defend themselves due to the effects of the drug.

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31. What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's own unresolved feelings or personal biases influence their perception and interaction with the patient. It can hinder the therapeutic process and compromise the objectivity and effectiveness of the interview.

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32. Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range of emotions? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Blunted affect refers to a patient who is grossly diminished in their range of emotions. This means that their emotional expressions are significantly reduced and they may appear unresponsive or indifferent to stimuli that would typically elicit emotions in others. They may display a lack of facial expressions, reduced vocal tone, and limited body language. This can be seen in conditions such as depression, schizophrenia, or certain neurological disorders.

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33. In motivational interviewing, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the :   (Unit 1)

Explanation

In motivational interviewing, resistance is not seen as a problem for the patient, but rather as a skill issue for the counselor. This means that the counselor needs to develop the skills to effectively address and work with resistance from the patient. It is not the patient's fault for being resistant, but rather the counselor's responsibility to adapt their approach and techniques to help the patient overcome their resistance and engage in the therapeutic process.

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34. Which is not one of the three primary areas of FAP? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Child Placement services is not one of the three primary areas of FAP. The three primary areas of FAP include Prevention services, Maltreatment intervention, and Special needs identification and assignment coordination process. Child Placement services, on the other hand, refers to the process of finding suitable homes for children who are in need of foster care or adoption. While it is an important aspect of child welfare, it is not considered one of the three primary areas of FAP.

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35. Which is the most potent of any known psychoactive drug? (Unit 2)

Explanation

LSD is considered the most potent of any known psychoactive drug. It is a hallucinogenic drug that alters a person's perception, thoughts, and feelings. Even in small doses, LSD can produce intense hallucinations and sensory distortions. Its potency lies in its ability to produce profound and long-lasting effects on the mind, often leading to intense psychological experiences and altered states of consciousness.

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36. Which dimension of assessment would you identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The dimension of assessment that would identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment is biomedical conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on evaluating the physical health of the individual and identifying any medical conditions or complications that may impact their treatment. By assessing biomedical conditions and complications, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and address any potential health concerns that may arise during the course of treatment.

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37. It is considered unethical or illegal for Mental Health Journeymen to provide counseling for all the following except: (Unit 2)

Explanation

Mental Health Journeymen are not qualified or authorized to provide counseling in legal matters, financial matters, or spiritual matters. However, they are able to provide counseling and support for parental issues. This is because parental issues are within the scope of mental health and can be addressed by professionals in this field.

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38. Which is not a key area of a patients social history? (Unit 1)

Explanation

keyword is 'social'. S/a has nothing to do with that.

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39. Which is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of motivational interviewing? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Subjugation." Subjugation is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of motivational interviewing. Motivational interviewing is based on principles such as evocation, autonomy, and collaboration. Subjugation, which refers to the act of bringing someone under control or domination, goes against the principles of motivational interviewing, which aim to empower individuals and promote their autonomy and collaboration in the change process.

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40. What priority group does the active duty service member beneficiary type fall into? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The word beneficiary is there to throw you off. It refers to active duty member.

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41. What area of biopsychosocial essential features focuses on identifying genetically based explanations for a patients alcohol diagnosis?(Unit 2)

Explanation

The correct answer is Biological. The area of biopsychosocial essential features that focuses on identifying genetically based explanations for a patient's alcohol diagnosis is the biological aspect. This includes studying the genetic factors that may contribute to an individual's susceptibility to alcohol addiction or alcohol-related disorders. By understanding the biological underpinnings of alcoholism, healthcare professionals can develop more targeted and effective treatments for patients.

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42. What area of the biopsycholosocial essential features explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance abuse/use? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The area of the biopsychosocial essential features that explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance abuse/use is the psychological aspect. This includes examining the individual's thoughts, beliefs, attitudes, and emotions that may contribute to their substance abuse. It involves understanding how cognitive processes such as decision-making, self-control, and coping mechanisms play a role in substance abuse.

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43. What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as false sensory perceptions not associated with real stimuli? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Hallucination is a common perceptual disturbance that is categorized as false sensory perceptions not associated with real stimuli. Hallucinations can occur in any sensory modality, including vision, hearing, taste, smell, and touch. They are often experienced as vivid and real, but they are not based on actual external stimuli. Hallucinations can be caused by various factors, such as mental health disorders, substance abuse, medication side effects, or neurological conditions. They can be distressing and have a significant impact on an individual's perception of reality.

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44. What should you consider when making a referral to an off base provider? (Unit 1)

Explanation

When making a referral to an off base provider, it is important to consider the appropriateness of the provider for the specific needs of the patient. This means ensuring that the off base provider has the necessary expertise and resources to address the patient's medical condition or concern. It also involves considering factors such as the provider's location, availability, and any potential barriers that may affect the patient's ability to access the care they need. By considering appropriateness, the referral can be made in a way that maximizes the chances of the patient receiving effective and timely care.

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45. The MCMI II is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The MCMI II is suitable for individuals who are 18 years old or older. This assessment tool is designed to measure personality traits and psychopathology in adults, making it appropriate for individuals in this age group.

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46. Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the : (Unit 3)

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information System Agency (DISA). This is because the SUAT is transmitted via the internet, and DISA is responsible for managing and providing information technology and communications support to the Department of Defense. They ensure the secure and efficient transmission of information within the military. The other options, AFIA, AFMSA, and AFMOA, are not specifically involved in managing information systems or transmitting data via the internet.

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47. What is the foundation for establishing a baseline of criteria for dual diagnosis? (Unit 2)

Explanation

A thorough assessment is the foundation for establishing a baseline of criteria for dual diagnosis. This is because a thorough assessment involves gathering comprehensive information about the individual's mental health, substance use, medical history, and social context. It helps in identifying any co-occurring mental health disorders and substance use disorders, as well as understanding the severity and impact of these conditions on the individual's functioning. The assessment provides the necessary information to develop an accurate diagnosis and determine appropriate treatment interventions for the individual with a dual diagnosis.

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48. Who developed the AUDIT? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The World Health Organization (WHO) developed the AUDIT.

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49. Which dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychological factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressor, triggers, or likelihood of relapse? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The living environment dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychological factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressors, triggers, or the likelihood of relapse. This dimension focuses on the individual's surroundings, including their home, work, and social environment, and evaluates how these factors may contribute to their mental health. By assessing the living environment, professionals can identify potential risk factors and develop appropriate interventions to address them.

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50. Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the Mental Status Exam? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The Mental Status Exam is a tool used to assess an individual's mental state and functioning. It includes various primary assessment areas such as appearance and behavior, cognitive functioning, and emotions. Physiological functioning, however, is not typically considered a primary assessment area in the Mental Status Exam. This exam focuses more on the individual's mental and emotional state rather than their physical health or bodily functions.

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51. The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all the following except : (Unit 2)

Explanation

Amphetamines are commonly used for the treatment of obesity, narcolepsy, and ADHD. However, they are not used for the treatment of diabetes. Amphetamines can help suppress appetite and increase metabolism, making them effective in managing weight loss. They can also help improve wakefulness and attention in individuals with narcolepsy and ADHD. However, diabetes is a metabolic disorder that affects blood sugar control, and amphetamines do not play a role in its treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is diabetes.

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52. What is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test session? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Temporal" because it is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test session. The temporal format involves reporting the test session in a chronological order, describing the events and observations as they occurred during the session. This format allows for a clear and organized presentation of the information gathered during the test session.

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53. When targeting a patients use history, in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage? (Unit 1)

Explanation

study here.

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54. What is the most important interviewing skill (characteristic) a journeyman must possess? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Self-awareness is the most important interviewing skill a journeyman must possess because it allows them to understand their own strengths, weaknesses, and biases. By being self-aware, the journeyman can effectively manage their emotions and reactions during the interview process, ensuring that they remain objective and fair. Additionally, self-awareness enables the journeyman to accurately assess their own performance and make improvements for future interviews. Overall, self-awareness is crucial for creating a positive and productive interviewing experience for both the interviewer and the interviewee.

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55. Which is not one of the focuses of patient centered motivational interviewing? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Patient-centered motivational interviewing focuses on understanding and addressing the patient's interests, concerns, and perspectives. Anxieties, on the other hand, are not specifically mentioned as one of the focuses. While anxieties may be addressed indirectly as part of concerns or perspectives, they are not explicitly listed as a separate focus in patient-centered motivational interviewing.

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56. Patient responses on the Beck Scale for Suicide should reflect what period of time? (Unit 3)

Explanation

Patient responses on the Beck Scale for Suicide should reflect the past week. This scale is used to assess the severity of suicidal ideation and is designed to capture the patient's thoughts and feelings over a specific period of time. By focusing on the past week, it allows for a more accurate assessment of the patient's current state and helps in determining the appropriate level of intervention or support needed.

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57. What format for reporting a psychological test session is  the least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The format for reporting a psychological test session that is the least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores is temporal. This format focuses on the sequence of events and the passage of time, rather than the content or organization of the information. This can make it difficult for the provider to understand and interpret the test scores accurately, as they may struggle to identify patterns or themes in the data.

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58. Which WAIS III subtest is not a verbal scale? (Unit 3)

Explanation

Digit-symbol coding is not a verbal scale in the WAIS III subtest. This subtest assesses an individual's ability to quickly and accurately match symbols to numbers within a given time limit. It measures perceptual organization and processing speed rather than verbal abilities. The other three subtests, Digit span, Similarities, and Information, all involve verbal skills such as memory, verbal reasoning, and general knowledge.

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59. Which chemically dependent family member's role is to maintain appropriate appearances to the outside world? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The correct answer is Caretaker. In a chemically dependent family, the caretaker is responsible for maintaining appropriate appearances to the outside world. They often try to cover up or hide the addiction issues within the family, and may take on extra responsibilities to compensate for the dysfunction caused by the addiction. The caretaker may also enable the addicted family member by making excuses for their behavior or trying to protect them from the consequences of their actions.

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60. What venue is not allowed access to medical records without patient's consent? (Unit 1)

Explanation

In this question, the correct answer is "Commander-directed". This means that a venue or organization does not have the authority to access medical records without the patient's consent unless it is specifically directed by the commander. This implies that the commander has the power to authorize access to medical records in certain circumstances. The other options, OSI, Proper and Legal Need, and Public Interest, do not have the same level of authority as commander-directed access.

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61. Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The term "crucial" does not describe an identifier for a disease model. Identifiers are typically used to classify or describe different aspects of a disease, such as its primary characteristics, chronic nature, or fatal outcomes. "Crucial" refers to something that is of great importance or significance, but it does not specifically relate to a disease model. Therefore, it is not an identifier for the disease model.

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62. A command directed evaluation allows you to contact all of the following except: (Unit 1)

Explanation

A command directed evaluation allows you to contact the commander, supervisor, and family for communication and guidance. However, it does not allow you to contact peers for evaluation purposes. Peers are typically individuals at the same level or rank as you, and they may not have the authority or expertise to evaluate your performance or provide guidance in the same way that a commander, supervisor, or family member can.

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63. Which is not one of the mental processes evaluated when we speak of cognitive functioning? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Mood is not one of the mental processes evaluated when we speak of cognitive functioning. Cognitive functioning refers to the mental processes involved in acquiring, processing, and using information. Perception involves the interpretation of sensory information, reasoning involves logical thinking and problem-solving, and intuition involves instinctive or unconscious knowledge. However, mood refers to a person's emotional state and is not directly related to cognitive functioning.

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64. Patient responses to the BDI II should reflect what period of time? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The BDI II is a self-report questionnaire used to assess the severity of depressive symptoms in patients. It asks individuals to rate the presence and intensity of various symptoms over a specific period of time. In this case, the correct answer is "Past two weeks." This means that patients should consider their experiences and symptoms over the past two weeks when responding to the questionnaire. This time frame allows for a more comprehensive assessment of depressive symptoms and provides a more accurate picture of the patient's mental health status.

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65. How long is the administration time for the BAI? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The administration time for the BAI is 5-10 minutes. This means that it should take between 5 and 10 minutes to complete the BAI assessment.

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66. Which MMPI 2 scale may indicate a high level of mental activity, egotism, and irritability? (Unit 3)

Explanation

Hypomania is a MMPI 2 scale that may indicate a high level of mental activity, egotism, and irritability. Hypomania is characterized by an elevated mood, increased energy, and inflated self-esteem. Individuals with hypomania may experience racing thoughts, talkativeness, and a decreased need for sleep. They may also exhibit irritability and a sense of grandiosity. This scale is used to assess for manic or hypomanic symptoms, which are often associated with bipolar disorder.

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67. Which model is considered the most effective in treating dual diagnosis? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The most effective model in treating dual diagnosis is the integrated model. This model combines both mental health and substance abuse treatment into one comprehensive approach. It recognizes that individuals with dual diagnosis require simultaneous treatment for both conditions in order to achieve successful outcomes. By integrating these services, individuals receive coordinated and cohesive care that addresses the complex interplay between mental health and substance abuse issues. This model promotes collaboration between mental health and substance abuse professionals, leading to improved treatment outcomes and overall well-being for individuals with dual diagnosis.

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68. What score on the validity index causes probable concern to question the validity of the measurement? (Unit 3)

Explanation

A score of 2 on the validity index causes probable concern to question the validity of the measurement. This suggests that there may be issues with the accuracy and reliability of the measurement, and further investigation is needed to determine its validity.

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69. Who manages the SUAT information? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA) manages the SUAT information.

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70. How man items make up the AUDIT? (Unit 3 

Explanation

The AUDIT is a screening tool used to assess alcohol consumption and alcohol-related problems. It consists of 10 questions that measure the frequency and quantity of alcohol consumption, as well as the negative consequences associated with alcohol use. Therefore, the correct answer is 10, as there are 10 items that make up the AUDIT.

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71. Which chemically dependant family member's role is to raise the esteem of the family? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The correct answer is Hero. In a chemically dependent family, the Hero plays the role of raising the esteem of the family. They often excel academically or professionally and try to compensate for the dysfunction within the family by presenting a positive image to the outside world. They may take on responsibilities and strive for perfection in order to maintain a sense of control and stability within the family. They are seen as the successful and responsible one, but this role can also come with a lot of pressure and stress.

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72. What type of care is provided to augment care provided by the military treatment facility? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Supplemental care is provided to enhance or add to the care provided by the military treatment facility. This additional care may include services such as specialized treatments, therapies, or consultations that are not available within the military facility. It is meant to complement the primary care provided by the military and ensure that all necessary healthcare needs are met. Secondary, tertiary, and primary care are not specifically mentioned in the question and therefore not relevant to the explanation.

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73. What is the single greatest indicator of treatment failure? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The single greatest indicator of treatment failure is the lack of adherence to treatment recommendations. This means that when a patient does not follow the prescribed treatment plan, it significantly increases the chances of treatment failure. Adherence to treatment recommendations is crucial for the effectiveness of any medical intervention, as it ensures that the patient receives the necessary care and follows the prescribed steps towards recovery. Without adherence, the treatment may not have the desired effect and the patient's condition may worsen or not improve as expected.

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74. The WAIS III is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The WAIS III is suitable for individuals who are 16 years old and above. This assessment is specifically designed for adults and older adolescents, as it measures cognitive abilities such as verbal comprehension, perceptual organization, working memory, and processing speed. The test is not intended for younger individuals, as their cognitive abilities and development may not align with the assessment's requirements.

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75. Which element of motivational interviewing validates ambivalence and resistance being a normal part of the human experience? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Expressing Empathy relates that you understand what they are going through, therefore the situation, or emotions and difficulties, are not unique or uncommon.

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76. The Beck Scale for Suicide is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)

Explanation

The Beck Scale for Suicide is suitable for individuals aged 17 and above. This scale is specifically designed to assess the severity of suicidal ideation and behaviors in adults. It is not appropriate for individuals below the age of 17, as it may not accurately capture their unique experiences and risk factors for suicide.

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77. What is the second most important interviewing skill (characteristic) a journeyman must possess? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Trick question. Beware. NOT EMPATHY. 1. Self awareness, 2. acceptance, 3... ?

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78. What happens when a patient complains of symptoms not viewed as the primary reason for his or her referral to the clinic? (Unit 2)

Explanation

When a patient complains of symptoms that are not viewed as the primary reason for their referral to the clinic, these symptoms are discounted. This means that they are not given as much importance or consideration compared to the primary diagnosis. The healthcare provider may choose to focus on the primary reason for the referral and may not give significant attention to the other symptoms.

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79. What is the most important evidence of the quality of care rendered? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Health records are the most important evidence of the quality of care rendered because they provide a comprehensive and detailed account of a patient's medical history, including diagnoses, treatments, medications, and outcomes. Health records allow healthcare providers to track and evaluate the effectiveness of their interventions, identify any potential errors or gaps in care, and make informed decisions about future treatments. They also serve as a communication tool between healthcare professionals, ensuring continuity of care and promoting patient safety. Overall, health records provide objective and reliable evidence of the quality of care provided to patients.

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80. During what stage of alcoholism is the involuntary loss of control over drinking a hallmark? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The term "crucial" refers to a stage in alcoholism where the individual experiences an involuntary loss of control over their drinking. This means that they are unable to stop or limit their alcohol consumption, despite negative consequences. This stage is characterized by a compulsive need to drink and a lack of control over one's drinking behavior.

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When a patient burns bridges, what obstacle to treatment have they...
Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health...
What is the common denominator in every chemically dependant...
Which of the following is not an attending behavior. (Unit 1)
What is the primary basis for all successful communications in a...
Who is often the best historian for a patient? (Unit 1)
What area of the mental status exam examines whether a patient's...
When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be...
What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse? (Unit...
In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic...
What is not something you would place on a patient status board after...
According to the Jellinek Chart regarding progressive defenses, what...
When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the...
Who is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in...
What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a...
When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items...
What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specified rights...
How much time is allotted for each subtest on the Shipley? (Unit 3)
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based...
What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence...
What should be very limited in the mental status examination (MSE)?...
What type of hallucination involves the sense of smell? (Unit 1)
Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of...
The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the: (Unit...
What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?(Unit 2)
What is the most common form of alchool-induced liver disease...
What is defined as the process in which the patient unconsciously...
What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the...
Who owns the outpatient medical record? (Unit 1)
What is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug? (Unit 2)
What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions,...
Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly...
In motivational interviewing, resistance is not viewed as a problem...
Which is not one of the three primary areas of FAP? (Unit 1)
Which is the most potent of any known psychoactive drug? (Unit 2)
Which dimension of assessment would you identify any chronic...
It is considered unethical or illegal for Mental Health Journeymen to...
Which is not a key area of a patients social history? (Unit 1)
Which is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of...
What priority group does the active duty service member beneficiary...
What area of biopsychosocial essential features focuses on identifying...
What area of the biopsycholosocial essential features explores the...
What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as false sensory...
What should you consider when making a referral to an off base...
The MCMI II is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)
Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the : (Unit 3)
What is the foundation for establishing a baseline of criteria for...
Who developed the AUDIT? (Unit 3)
Which dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous...
Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the Mental...
The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all...
What is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test...
When targeting a patients use history, in which area do you identify...
What is the most important interviewing skill (characteristic) a...
Which is not one of the focuses of patient centered motivational...
Patient responses on the Beck Scale for Suicide should reflect what...
What format for reporting a psychological test session is  the...
Which WAIS III subtest is not a verbal scale? (Unit 3)
Which chemically dependent family member's role is to maintain...
What venue is not allowed access to medical records without patient's...
Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model?...
A command directed evaluation allows you to contact all of the...
Which is not one of the mental processes evaluated when we speak of...
Patient responses to the BDI II should reflect what period of time?...
How long is the administration time for the BAI? (Unit 3)
Which MMPI 2 scale may indicate a high level of mental activity,...
Which model is considered the most effective in treating dual...
What score on the validity index causes probable concern to question...
Who manages the SUAT information? (Unit 3)
How man items make up the AUDIT? (Unit 3 
Which chemically dependant family member's role is to raise the esteem...
What type of care is provided to augment care provided by the military...
What is the single greatest indicator of treatment failure? (Unit 2)
The WAIS III is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)
Which element of motivational interviewing validates ambivalence and...
The Beck Scale for Suicide is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)
What is the second most important interviewing skill (characteristic)...
What happens when a patient complains of symptoms not viewed as the...
What is the most important evidence of the quality of care rendered?...
During what stage of alcoholism is the involuntary loss of control...
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