4c0x1 5 Level Volume 3
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What is defined as the process in which the patient unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations related to important people in the past onto an important authority figure like the interviewer? (Unit 1)
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Transference
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Self Awareness
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Verbal Following
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Counter Transference
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About This Quiz
This quiz, titled '4c0x1 5 level Volume 3', assesses key psychological concepts and skills in interviewing, focusing on transference, counter-transference, acceptance, and self-awareness. It is designed for journeymen to enhance their understanding and application of effective interview techniques.
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- 2.
What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient? (Unit 1)
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Transference
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Self Awareness
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Verbal Following
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Counter-transference
Correct Answer
A. Counter-transferenceExplanation
Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's own unresolved feelings or personal biases influence their perception and interaction with the patient. It can hinder the therapeutic process and compromise the objectivity and effectiveness of the interview.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the second most important interviewing skill (characteristic) a journeyman must possess? (Unit 1)
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Self awareness
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Observation
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Acceptance
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Empathy
Correct Answer
A. AcceptanceExplanation
Trick question. Beware. NOT EMPATHY. 1. Self awareness, 2. acceptance, 3... ?Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is not an attending behavior. (Unit 1)
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Display attentive posture
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Use verbal following
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Leading Statement
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Make eye contact
Correct Answer
A. Leading StatementExplanation
A leading statement is not an attending behavior because it involves guiding or directing the conversation rather than actively listening and showing interest in the speaker. Attending behaviors focus on nonverbal cues and active listening techniques such as displaying attentive posture, using verbal following to encourage the speaker, and making eye contact to show attention and engagement. However, a leading statement involves taking control of the conversation and steering it in a particular direction, which is not considered a part of attending behaviors.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the most important interviewing skill (characteristic) a journeyman must possess? (Unit 1)
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Self Awareness
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Observation
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Acceptance
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Empathy
Correct Answer
A. Self AwarenessExplanation
Self-awareness is the most important interviewing skill a journeyman must possess because it allows them to understand their own strengths, weaknesses, and biases. By being self-aware, the journeyman can effectively manage their emotions and reactions during the interview process, ensuring that they remain objective and fair. Additionally, self-awareness enables the journeyman to accurately assess their own performance and make improvements for future interviews. Overall, self-awareness is crucial for creating a positive and productive interviewing experience for both the interviewer and the interviewee.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patients message that are translated in the interviewers own words? (Unit 1)
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Clarification
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Paraphrase
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Reflection
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Transition
Correct Answer
A. ParaphraseExplanation
Paraphrase is the interview process skill that involves selectively attending to the cognitive parts of the patient's message and translating them into the interviewer's own words. This skill helps the interviewer to demonstrate understanding and clarify their understanding of the patient's message. By restating the patient's words in their own words, the interviewer can ensure accurate interpretation and prevent miscommunication.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self awareness? (Unit 1)
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Silence
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Self-disclosure
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Direction and control
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Know your boundaries
Correct Answer
A. Know your boundariesExplanation
Knowing your boundaries is a skill that demonstrates competence and self-awareness in the interview process. It shows that the individual is aware of their limitations and is able to set appropriate boundaries in terms of what they can and cannot do or discuss during the interview. This skill indicates that the person understands their own strengths and weaknesses, and is able to communicate effectively and professionally within those boundaries. It also suggests that the individual is respectful of others' boundaries and is able to navigate the interview process with sensitivity and awareness.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the primary basis for all successful communications in a therapeutic relationship? (Unit 1)
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Rapport
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Eye Contact
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Attentive Posture
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Verbal Following
Correct Answer
A. RapportExplanation
Rapport is the primary basis for all successful communications in a therapeutic relationship. Building rapport involves establishing a connection, trust, and mutual understanding between the therapist and the client. It creates a safe and comfortable environment where the client feels heard, understood, and supported. Rapport enhances communication by promoting openness, honesty, and collaboration, allowing the therapist to effectively address the client's needs and goals. It is a crucial element in building a strong therapeutic alliance and facilitating positive outcomes in therapy.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is often the best historian for a patient? (Unit 1)
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Commander
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Supervisor
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Family
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Peers
Correct Answer
A. FamilyExplanation
Family members are often the best historians for a patient because they have intimate knowledge of the patient's medical history, lifestyle, and personal experiences. They can provide valuable insights into the patient's symptoms, previous illnesses, and any relevant genetic factors. Additionally, family members can offer emotional support and help fill in any gaps in the patient's memory or understanding of their medical condition.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the Mental Status Exam? (Unit 1)
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Appearance and behavior
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Physiological functioning
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Cognitive functioning
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Emotions
Correct Answer
A. Physiological functioningExplanation
The Mental Status Exam is a tool used to assess an individual's mental state and functioning. It includes various primary assessment areas such as appearance and behavior, cognitive functioning, and emotions. Physiological functioning, however, is not typically considered a primary assessment area in the Mental Status Exam. This exam focuses more on the individual's mental and emotional state rather than their physical health or bodily functions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What should be very limited in the mental status examination (MSE)? (Unit 1)
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Documentation
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Subjectivity
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Objectivity
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Awareness
Correct Answer
A. SubjectivityExplanation
In the mental status examination (MSE), subjectivity should be very limited. This means that the examiner should strive to gather objective information rather than relying on personal opinions or biases. Subjectivity can introduce bias and inaccuracies into the assessment, making it less reliable. It is important to focus on observable and measurable aspects of the individual's mental state to ensure a more accurate evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which is not a key area of a patients social history? (Unit 1)
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Social
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Substance Use
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Home Environment
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Occupational/Academic
Correct Answer
A. Substance UseExplanation
keyword is 'social'. S/a has nothing to do with that.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When targeting a patients use history, in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage? (Unit 1)
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Frequency
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Progression
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Substances used
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Severity/amount used
Correct Answer
A. Severity/amount usedExplanation
study here.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What type of hallucination involves the sense of smell? (Unit 1)
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Gustatory
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Olfactory
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Visual
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Tactile
Correct Answer
A. OlfactoryExplanation
Olfactory hallucination involves the sense of smell. This means that a person experiencing olfactory hallucination may perceive smells that are not actually present. This type of hallucination can be caused by various factors such as neurological conditions, certain medications, or even mental health disorders. It is important to note that olfactory hallucinations can be distressing and may affect a person's daily life and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A command directed evaluation allows you to contact all of the following except: (Unit 1)
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Commander
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Supervisor
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Family
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Peers
Correct Answer
A. PeersExplanation
A command directed evaluation allows you to contact the commander, supervisor, and family for communication and guidance. However, it does not allow you to contact peers for evaluation purposes. Peers are typically individuals at the same level or rank as you, and they may not have the authority or expertise to evaluate your performance or provide guidance in the same way that a commander, supervisor, or family member can.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patients capabilities? (Unit 1)
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Social
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Substance Use
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Home Environment
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Occupational/academic
Correct Answer
A. Occupational/academicExplanation
To gain a complete understanding of a patient's capabilities, it is important to explore their occupational and academic history in depth. This involves examining their work experience, educational background, and any relevant skills or qualifications they may have. By understanding their occupational and academic history, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's abilities, strengths, and limitations in these areas, which can be crucial in providing appropriate care and support.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range of emotions? (Unit 1)
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Inappropriate
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Blunted
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Labile
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Flat
Correct Answer
A. BluntedExplanation
Blunted affect refers to a patient who is grossly diminished in their range of emotions. This means that their emotional expressions are significantly reduced and they may appear unresponsive or indifferent to stimuli that would typically elicit emotions in others. They may display a lack of facial expressions, reduced vocal tone, and limited body language. This can be seen in conditions such as depression, schizophrenia, or certain neurological disorders.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which is not one of the mental processes evaluated when we speak of cognitive functioning? (Unit 1)
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Perception
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Reasoning
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Intuition
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Mood
Correct Answer
A. MoodExplanation
Mood is not one of the mental processes evaluated when we speak of cognitive functioning. Cognitive functioning refers to the mental processes involved in acquiring, processing, and using information. Perception involves the interpretation of sensory information, reasoning involves logical thinking and problem-solving, and intuition involves instinctive or unconscious knowledge. However, mood refers to a person's emotional state and is not directly related to cognitive functioning.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What area of the mental status exam examines whether a patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar? (Unit 1)
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Thought Content
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Thought Process
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Intelligence
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Insight
Correct Answer
A. Thought ContentExplanation
Thought content examines the specific ideas, beliefs, and themes that a patient expresses during the mental status exam. It focuses on whether the patient's thoughts are normal or abnormal, and whether they exhibit any odd or peculiar content. This can include delusions, hallucinations, obsessions, or any other unusual thoughts that may indicate a mental health disorder.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as false sensory perceptions not associated with real stimuli? (Unit 1)
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Vision
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Illusion
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Delusion
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Hallucination
Correct Answer
A. HallucinationExplanation
Hallucination is a common perceptual disturbance that is categorized as false sensory perceptions not associated with real stimuli. Hallucinations can occur in any sensory modality, including vision, hearing, taste, smell, and touch. They are often experienced as vivid and real, but they are not based on actual external stimuli. Hallucinations can be caused by various factors, such as mental health disorders, substance abuse, medication side effects, or neurological conditions. They can be distressing and have a significant impact on an individual's perception of reality.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which is not one of the focuses of patient centered motivational interviewing? (Unit 1)
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Interests
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Anxieties
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Concerns
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Perspectives
Correct Answer
A. AnxietiesExplanation
Patient-centered motivational interviewing focuses on understanding and addressing the patient's interests, concerns, and perspectives. Anxieties, on the other hand, are not specifically mentioned as one of the focuses. While anxieties may be addressed indirectly as part of concerns or perspectives, they are not explicitly listed as a separate focus in patient-centered motivational interviewing.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of motivational interviewing? (Unit 1)
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Evocation
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Autonamy
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Subjugation
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Collaboration
Correct Answer
A. SubjugationExplanation
The correct answer is "Subjugation." Subjugation is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of motivational interviewing. Motivational interviewing is based on principles such as evocation, autonomy, and collaboration. Subjugation, which refers to the act of bringing someone under control or domination, goes against the principles of motivational interviewing, which aim to empower individuals and promote their autonomy and collaboration in the change process.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which element of motivational interviewing validates ambivalence and resistance being a normal part of the human experience? (Unit 1)
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Express empathy
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Roll with resistance
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Develop discrepancy
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Support self-efficacy
Correct Answer
A. Express empathyExplanation
Expressing Empathy relates that you understand what they are going through, therefore the situation, or emotions and difficulties, are not unique or uncommon.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In motivational interviewing, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the : (Unit 1)
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Treatment team
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Commander
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Counselor
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Family
Correct Answer
A. CounselorExplanation
In motivational interviewing, resistance is not seen as a problem for the patient, but rather as a skill issue for the counselor. This means that the counselor needs to develop the skills to effectively address and work with resistance from the patient. It is not the patient's fault for being resistant, but rather the counselor's responsibility to adapt their approach and techniques to help the patient overcome their resistance and engage in the therapeutic process.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed? (Unit 1)
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24 hours
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72 hours
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One week
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Immediately
Correct Answer
A. ImmediatelyExplanation
Acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal should be addressed immediately because delaying treatment can lead to serious health consequences or even death. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further harm and provide necessary medical attention or support to the individual experiencing acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse? (Unit 1)
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Detoxification
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Readiness to change
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Living environment
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Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
A. DetoxificationExplanation
The first dimension of assessment for substance abuse is detoxification. This refers to the process of removing toxic substances from the body, typically through medical intervention. Detoxification is an important aspect of substance abuse assessment as it helps to identify the level of substance dependence and the potential risks and complications associated with withdrawal. By assessing detoxification, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate treatment plan and support needed for individuals struggling with substance abuse.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychological factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressor, triggers, or likelihood of relapse? (Unit 1)
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Detoxification
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Readiness to change
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Living environment
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Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
A. Living environmentExplanation
The living environment dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychological factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressors, triggers, or the likelihood of relapse. This dimension focuses on the individual's surroundings, including their home, work, and social environment, and evaluates how these factors may contribute to their mental health. By assessing the living environment, professionals can identify potential risk factors and develop appropriate interventions to address them.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which dimension of assessment would you identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment? (Unit 1)
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Detoxification
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Readiness to change
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Living environment
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Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
A. Biomedical conditions and complicationsExplanation
The dimension of assessment that would identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment is biomedical conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on evaluating the physical health of the individual and identifying any medical conditions or complications that may impact their treatment. By assessing biomedical conditions and complications, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and address any potential health concerns that may arise during the course of treatment.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What priority group does the active duty service member beneficiary type fall into? (Unit 1)
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1
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2
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3
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4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The word beneficiary is there to throw you off. It refers to active duty member.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What type of care is provided to augment care provided by the military treatment facility? (Unit 1)
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Supplemental
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Secondary
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Tertiary
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Primary
Correct Answer
A. SupplementalExplanation
Supplemental care is provided to enhance or add to the care provided by the military treatment facility. This additional care may include services such as specialized treatments, therapies, or consultations that are not available within the military facility. It is meant to complement the primary care provided by the military and ensure that all necessary healthcare needs are met. Secondary, tertiary, and primary care are not specifically mentioned in the question and therefore not relevant to the explanation.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient? (Unit 1)
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Evaluation for depression with credentialed staff and available appointments.
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Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments.
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Evaluation for security clearance with credentialed staff and available appointments.
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Evaluation of dependent spouse with credentialed staff and limited appointment availability.
Correct Answer
A. Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments.Explanation
It would be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments because it is important to have trained and qualified professionals who are able to provide appropriate care and treatment for children. Without credentialed staff, there is a risk of inadequate assessment and treatment, potentially leading to harm or ineffective outcomes for the child. Additionally, the unavailability of appointments further limits the ability to provide timely and consistent care, which is crucial for the well-being of a dependent child.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What should you consider when making a referral to an off base provider? (Unit 1)
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Timeliness
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Cleanliness
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Effectiveness
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Appropriateness
Correct Answer
A. AppropriatenessExplanation
When making a referral to an off base provider, it is important to consider the appropriateness of the provider for the specific needs of the patient. This means ensuring that the off base provider has the necessary expertise and resources to address the patient's medical condition or concern. It also involves considering factors such as the provider's location, availability, and any potential barriers that may affect the patient's ability to access the care they need. By considering appropriateness, the referral can be made in a way that maximizes the chances of the patient receiving effective and timely care.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission? (Unit 1)
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Name of the physician
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Patient's name
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Bed number
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Diagnosis
Correct Answer
A. DiagnosisExplanation
A patient status board is typically used to display important information about a patient's condition and treatment. This includes the patient's name, bed number, and the name of the physician responsible for their care. However, the diagnosis is not something that would typically be displayed on a patient status board. The diagnosis is usually documented in the patient's medical records and discussed between the healthcare team members involved in the patient's care, but it is not necessary to publicly display this information on a status board.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned into the: (Unit 1)
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Security Forces
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Members commander
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Admissions and dispositions (A&D) office
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MTF Commander
Correct Answer
A. Security ForcesExplanation
When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the Security Forces. The Security Forces are responsible for ensuring the security and safety of the facility and its occupants. They are trained to handle and dispose of hazardous or dangerous items properly, minimizing any potential risks to the patients and staff. The Security Forces play a crucial role in maintaining a safe environment within the medical facility.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except: (Unit 1)
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Patients values
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Patients beliefs
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Providers values
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Providers clinical knowledge
Correct Answer
A. Providers valuesExplanation
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on the patients' values and beliefs, as well as the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's values should not be a determining factor in the decision-making process, as it should be focused on the patient's best interests and preferences. Therefore, the correct answer is providers values.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is the most important evidence of the quality of care rendered? (Unit 1)
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Health Records
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Treatment outcomes
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Readiness to Change
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Willingness to Change
Correct Answer
A. Health RecordsExplanation
Health records are the most important evidence of the quality of care rendered because they provide a comprehensive and detailed account of a patient's medical history, including diagnoses, treatments, medications, and outcomes. Health records allow healthcare providers to track and evaluate the effectiveness of their interventions, identify any potential errors or gaps in care, and make informed decisions about future treatments. They also serve as a communication tool between healthcare professionals, ensuring continuity of care and promoting patient safety. Overall, health records provide objective and reliable evidence of the quality of care provided to patients.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Who owns the outpatient medical record? (Unit 1)
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Patient
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Guardian
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US Air Force
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MTF Commander
Correct Answer
A. US Air ForceExplanation
The correct answer is US Air Force because in a military treatment facility (MTF), the outpatient medical records are owned by the US Air Force. As the MTF Commander is responsible for overseeing the operations of the facility, it is the US Air Force that ultimately owns and maintains the medical records of the patients receiving outpatient care. The patient and guardian may have access to their own medical records, but the ownership lies with the US Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What venue is not allowed access to medical records without patient's consent? (Unit 1)
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OSI
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Proper and Legal Need
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Commander-directed
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Public Interest
Correct Answer
A. Commander-directedExplanation
In this question, the correct answer is "Commander-directed". This means that a venue or organization does not have the authority to access medical records without the patient's consent unless it is specifically directed by the commander. This implies that the commander has the power to authorize access to medical records in certain circumstances. The other options, OSI, Proper and Legal Need, and Public Interest, do not have the same level of authority as commander-directed access.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information? (Unit 1)
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MTF commander
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Mental Health Services OIC
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Outpatient Medical Records OIC
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Mental Health Services NCOIC
Correct Answer
A. MTF commanderExplanation
The MTF commander is responsible for approving all requests for release of information. As the commander of the Medical Treatment Facility, they have the authority and responsibility to oversee all operations, including the release of medical information. This ensures that proper protocols and regulations are followed to protect patient privacy and confidentiality. The MTF commander plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of medical records and information within the facility.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which is not one of the three primary areas of FAP? (Unit 1)
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Prevention services
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Child Placement services
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Maltreatment intervention
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Special needs identification and assignment coordination process
Correct Answer
A. Child Placement servicesExplanation
Child Placement services is not one of the three primary areas of FAP. The three primary areas of FAP include Prevention services, Maltreatment intervention, and Special needs identification and assignment coordination process. Child Placement services, on the other hand, refers to the process of finding suitable homes for children who are in need of foster care or adoption. While it is an important aspect of child welfare, it is not considered one of the three primary areas of FAP.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients? (Unit 1)
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Mental Health Privacy Act
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Mental Health Systems Act
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Behavioral Health Systems Act
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Behavioral Health Privacy Act
Correct Answer
A. Mental Health Systems ActExplanation
The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients. It aimed to improve mental health services and provide community-based care for individuals with mental illnesses. The act also focused on protecting the rights and privacy of patients, ensuring their access to appropriate treatment and support.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the: (Unit 1)
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Air Base Wing
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MAJCOM
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MTF
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AF Surgeon General
Correct Answer
A. MTFExplanation
The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the MTF, which stands for Medical Treatment Facility. This means that the mental health clinic's objectives and targets align with the overall goals and objectives of the medical treatment facility. The MTF is responsible for providing healthcare services, including mental health services, to military personnel and their families. Therefore, it makes sense that the mental health clinic's goals would be in line with the MTF's goals.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specified rights and ensuring compliance nation wide? (Unit 1)
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National Mental Health Association
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Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities
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JCAHO
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Information Management Resources for Hospital Accreditation
Correct Answer
A. JCAHOExplanation
JCAHO, also known as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, is an organization that focuses on tailoring specified rights and ensuring compliance nationwide. They work towards improving the quality of healthcare services by setting standards and accrediting healthcare organizations. JCAHO plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare facilities meet the necessary requirements and provide safe and effective care to patients.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model? (Unit 2)
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Primary
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Chronic
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Crucial
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Fatal
Correct Answer
A. CrucialExplanation
The term "crucial" does not describe an identifier for a disease model. Identifiers are typically used to classify or describe different aspects of a disease, such as its primary characteristics, chronic nature, or fatal outcomes. "Crucial" refers to something that is of great importance or significance, but it does not specifically relate to a disease model. Therefore, it is not an identifier for the disease model.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug? (Unit 2)
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MDMA
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Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB)
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Dextromethorphan (DXM)
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Ketamine
Correct Answer
A. Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB)Explanation
Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB) is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug. GHB is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, drowsiness, and memory loss. It is often used to incapacitate individuals and facilitate sexual assault. GHB is colorless, odorless, and tasteless, making it easy to slip into someone's drink without their knowledge. It has gained notoriety for its association with drug-facilitated sexual assault cases, where individuals are unable to give consent or defend themselves due to the effects of the drug.Rate this question:
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- 46.
According to the Jellinek Chart regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses? (Unit 2)
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Denial
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Projection
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Rationalization
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Conflict minimization
Correct Answer
A. DenialExplanation
Denial is considered the most primal defense mechanism according to the Jellinek Chart. Denial involves refusing to acknowledge or accept a reality or truth that causes discomfort or anxiety. It is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to protect themselves from painful emotions or thoughts by blocking them out of their awareness. Denial is often the first line of defense and can be seen as a primitive response to protect one's ego from threatening or distressing information.Rate this question:
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- 47.
During what stage of alcoholism is the involuntary loss of control over drinking a hallmark? (Unit 2)
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Symptomatic
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Prodromal
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Chronic
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Crucial
Correct Answer
A. CrucialExplanation
The term "crucial" refers to a stage in alcoholism where the individual experiences an involuntary loss of control over their drinking. This means that they are unable to stop or limit their alcohol consumption, despite negative consequences. This stage is characterized by a compulsive need to drink and a lack of control over one's drinking behavior.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When a patient burns bridges, what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost? (Unit 2)
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Lack of multidisciplinary team investment
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Lack of support from family
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Cumbersome resources
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Cumbersome process
Correct Answer
A. Lack of support from familyExplanation
When a patient burns bridges, it means that they have severed or damaged their relationships with their family members. This lack of support from family can create a significant obstacle to their treatment. Family support plays a crucial role in a patient's recovery process, as it provides emotional, practical, and financial assistance. Without the support of their family, patients may feel isolated, unsupported, and may struggle to adhere to their treatment plan. This can negatively impact their overall well-being and hinder their progress in therapy.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all the following except : (Unit 2)
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Obesity
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Diabetes
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Narcolepsy
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ADHD
Correct Answer
A. DiabetesExplanation
Amphetamines are commonly used for the treatment of obesity, narcolepsy, and ADHD. However, they are not used for the treatment of diabetes. Amphetamines can help suppress appetite and increase metabolism, making them effective in managing weight loss. They can also help improve wakefulness and attention in individuals with narcolepsy and ADHD. However, diabetes is a metabolic disorder that affects blood sugar control, and amphetamines do not play a role in its treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is diabetes.Rate this question:
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 13, 2010Quiz Created by
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