4c0x1 5 Level Volume 3

80 Questions | Total Attempts: 50

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4c0x1 5 Level Volume 3

4c0x1 5 level Volume 3


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is defined as the process in which the patient unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations related to important people in the past onto an important authority figure like the interviewer? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Transference

    • B. 

      Self Awareness

    • C. 

      Verbal Following

    • D. 

      Counter Transference

  • 2. 
    What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Transference

    • B. 

      Self Awareness

    • C. 

      Verbal Following

    • D. 

      Counter-transference

  • 3. 
    What is the second most important interviewing skill (characteristic) a journeyman must possess? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Self awareness

    • B. 

      Observation

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Empathy

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not an attending behavior. (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Display attentive posture

    • B. 

      Use verbal following

    • C. 

      Leading Statement

    • D. 

      Make eye contact

  • 5. 
    What is the most important interviewing skill (characteristic) a journeyman must possess? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Self Awareness

    • B. 

      Observation

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Empathy

  • 6. 
    What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patients message that are translated in the interviewers own words? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Clarification

    • B. 

      Paraphrase

    • C. 

      Reflection

    • D. 

      Transition

  • 7. 
    What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self awareness? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Silence

    • B. 

      Self-disclosure

    • C. 

      Direction and control

    • D. 

      Know your boundaries

  • 8. 
    What is the primary basis for all successful communications in a therapeutic relationship? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Rapport

    • B. 

      Eye Contact

    • C. 

      Attentive Posture

    • D. 

      Verbal Following

  • 9. 
    Who is often the best historian for a patient? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Family

    • D. 

      Peers

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the Mental Status Exam? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Appearance and behavior

    • B. 

      Physiological functioning

    • C. 

      Cognitive functioning

    • D. 

      Emotions

  • 11. 
    What should be very limited in the mental status examination (MSE)? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Documentation

    • B. 

      Subjectivity

    • C. 

      Objectivity

    • D. 

      Awareness

  • 12. 
    Which is not a key area of a patients social history? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Social

    • B. 

      Substance Use

    • C. 

      Home Environment

    • D. 

      Occupational/Academic

  • 13. 
    When targeting a patients use history, in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Frequency

    • B. 

      Progression

    • C. 

      Substances used

    • D. 

      Severity/amount used

  • 14. 
    What type of hallucination involves the sense of smell? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Gustatory

    • B. 

      Olfactory

    • C. 

      Visual

    • D. 

      Tactile

  • 15. 
    A command directed evaluation allows you to contact all of the following except: (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Family

    • D. 

      Peers

  • 16. 
    What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patients capabilities? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Social

    • B. 

      Substance Use

    • C. 

      Home Environment

    • D. 

      Occupational/academic

  • 17. 
    Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range of emotions? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Inappropriate

    • B. 

      Blunted

    • C. 

      Labile

    • D. 

      Flat

  • 18. 
    Which is not one of the mental processes evaluated when we speak of cognitive functioning? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Perception

    • B. 

      Reasoning

    • C. 

      Intuition

    • D. 

      Mood

  • 19. 
    What area of the mental status exam examines whether a patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Thought Content

    • B. 

      Thought Process

    • C. 

      Intelligence

    • D. 

      Insight

  • 20. 
    What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as false sensory perceptions not associated with real stimuli? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Vision

    • B. 

      Illusion

    • C. 

      Delusion

    • D. 

      Hallucination

  • 21. 
    Which is not one of the focuses of patient centered motivational interviewing? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Interests

    • B. 

      Anxieties

    • C. 

      Concerns

    • D. 

      Perspectives

  • 22. 
    Which is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of motivational interviewing? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Evocation

    • B. 

      Autonamy

    • C. 

      Subjugation

    • D. 

      Collaboration

  • 23. 
    Which element of motivational interviewing validates ambivalence and resistance being a normal part of the human experience? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Express empathy

    • B. 

      Roll with resistance

    • C. 

      Develop discrepancy

    • D. 

      Support self-efficacy

  • 24. 
    In motivational interviewing, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the :   (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Treatment team

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Counselor

    • D. 

      Family

  • 25. 
    When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      72 hours

    • C. 

      One week

    • D. 

      Immediately

  • 26. 
    What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Detoxification

    • B. 

      Readiness to change

    • C. 

      Living environment

    • D. 

      Biomedical conditions and complications

  • 27. 
    Which dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychological factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressor, triggers, or likelihood of relapse? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Detoxification

    • B. 

      Readiness to change

    • C. 

      Living environment

    • D. 

      Biomedical conditions and complications

  • 28. 
    Which dimension of assessment would you identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Detoxification

    • B. 

      Readiness to change

    • C. 

      Living environment

    • D. 

      Biomedical conditions and complications

  • 29. 
    What priority group does the active duty service member beneficiary type fall into? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 30. 
    What type of care is provided to augment care provided by the military treatment facility? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Supplemental

    • B. 

      Secondary

    • C. 

      Tertiary

    • D. 

      Primary

  • 31. 
    In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Evaluation for depression with credentialed staff and available appointments.

    • B. 

      Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments.

    • C. 

      Evaluation for security clearance with credentialed staff and available appointments.

    • D. 

      Evaluation of dependent spouse with credentialed staff and limited appointment availability.

  • 32. 
    What should you consider when making a referral to an off base provider? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Timeliness

    • B. 

      Cleanliness

    • C. 

      Effectiveness

    • D. 

      Appropriateness

  • 33. 
    What is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Name of the physician

    • B. 

      Patient's name

    • C. 

      Bed number

    • D. 

      Diagnosis

  • 34. 
    When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned into the:  (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Security Forces

    • B. 

      Members commander

    • C. 

      Admissions and dispositions (A&D) office

    • D. 

      MTF Commander

  • 35. 
    The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except: (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Patients values

    • B. 

      Patients beliefs

    • C. 

      Providers values

    • D. 

      Providers clinical knowledge

  • 36. 
    What is the most important evidence of the quality of care rendered? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Health Records

    • B. 

      Treatment outcomes

    • C. 

      Readiness to Change

    • D. 

      Willingness to Change

  • 37. 
    Who owns the outpatient medical record? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Patient

    • B. 

      Guardian

    • C. 

      US Air Force

    • D. 

      MTF Commander

  • 38. 
    What venue is not allowed access to medical records without patient's consent? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      OSI

    • B. 

      Proper and Legal Need

    • C. 

      Commander-directed

    • D. 

      Public Interest

  • 39. 
    Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      MTF commander

    • B. 

      Mental Health Services OIC

    • C. 

      Outpatient Medical Records OIC

    • D. 

      Mental Health Services NCOIC

  • 40. 
    Which is not one of the three primary areas of FAP? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Prevention services

    • B. 

      Child Placement services

    • C. 

      Maltreatment intervention

    • D. 

      Special needs identification and assignment coordination process

  • 41. 
    Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Mental Health Privacy Act

    • B. 

      Mental Health Systems Act

    • C. 

      Behavioral Health Systems Act

    • D. 

      Behavioral Health Privacy Act

  • 42. 
    The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the: (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      Air Base Wing

    • B. 

      MAJCOM

    • C. 

      MTF

    • D. 

      AF Surgeon General

  • 43. 
    What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specified rights and ensuring compliance nation wide? (Unit 1)
    • A. 

      National Mental Health Association

    • B. 

      Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities

    • C. 

      JCAHO

    • D. 

      Information Management Resources for Hospital Accreditation

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Primary

    • B. 

      Chronic

    • C. 

      Crucial

    • D. 

      Fatal

  • 45. 
    What is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      MDMA

    • B. 

      Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB)

    • C. 

      Dextromethorphan (DXM)

    • D. 

      Ketamine

  • 46. 
    According to the Jellinek Chart regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Denial

    • B. 

      Projection

    • C. 

      Rationalization

    • D. 

      Conflict minimization

  • 47. 
    During what stage of alcoholism is the involuntary loss of control over drinking a hallmark? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Symptomatic

    • B. 

      Prodromal

    • C. 

      Chronic

    • D. 

      Crucial

  • 48. 
    When a patient burns bridges, what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Lack of multidisciplinary team investment

    • B. 

      Lack of support from family

    • C. 

      Cumbersome resources

    • D. 

      Cumbersome process

  • 49. 
    The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all the following except : (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Obesity

    • B. 

      Diabetes

    • C. 

      Narcolepsy

    • D. 

      ADHD

  • 50. 
    It is considered unethical or illegal for Mental Health Journeymen to provide counseling for all the following except: (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Financial

    • B. 

      Parental

    • C. 

      Spiritual

    • D. 

      Legal

  • 51. 
    Which is the most potent of any known psychoactive drug? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Methamphetamine

    • B. 

      PCP

    • C. 

      LSD

    • D. 

      MDMA

  • 52. 
    What area of biopsychosocial essential features focuses on identifying genetically based explanations for a patients alcohol diagnosis?(Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Psychological

    • B. 

      Sociocultural

    • C. 

      Biological

    • D. 

      Spiritual

  • 53. 
    What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?(Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Stimulant

    • B. 

      Anesthetic

    • C. 

      Depressant

    • D. 

      Hallucinogen

  • 54. 
    What is the most common form of alchool-induced liver disease (ALD)?  (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Cirrhosis

    • B. 

      Fatty Liver

    • C. 

      Inflamed Liver

    • D. 

      Alcoholic hepatitis

  • 55. 
    Which chemically dependant family member's role is to raise the esteem of the family? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Hero

    • B. 

      Caretaker

    • C. 

      Scapegoat

    • D. 

      Joker/Mascot

  • 56. 
    What area of the biopsycholosocial essential features explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance abuse/use? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Psychological

    • B. 

      Sociocultural

    • C. 

      Biological

    • D. 

      Spiritual

  • 57. 
    What is the common denominator in every chemically dependant family?  (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Guilt

    • B. 

      Denial

    • C. 

      Fear of Anger

    • D. 

      Relationships

  • 58. 
    What is the foundation for establishing a baseline of criteria for dual diagnosis? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Reason for referral

    • B. 

      Thorough assessment

    • C. 

      Thorough treatment plan

    • D. 

      Psychometric examinations

  • 59. 
    What happens when a patient complains of symptoms not viewed as the primary reason for his or her referral to the clinic? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Discounted

    • B. 

      Considered the primary diagnosis

    • C. 

      Set aside for another initial interview

    • D. 

      Reffered back to the reffering provider

  • 60. 
    Which model is considered the most effective in treating dual diagnosis? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Parallel

    • B. 

      Horizontal

    • C. 

      Sequential

    • D. 

      Integrated

  • 61. 
    Which chemically dependent family member's role is to maintain appropriate appearances to the outside world? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Hero

    • B. 

      Caretaker

    • C. 

      Scapegoat

    • D. 

      Joker/Mascot

  • 62. 
    What is the single greatest indicator of treatment failure? (Unit 2)
    • A. 

      Lack of adherence to treatment recommendations

    • B. 

      Lack of investment from treatment team

    • C. 

      Lack of support from family

    • D. 

      Lack of patient motivation

  • 63. 
    When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's : (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Validity

    • B. 

      Reliability

    • C. 

      Objectivity

    • D. 

      Subjectivity

  • 64. 
    Who is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and providing supervision of psychological tests? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Physician

    • B. 

      Psychiatrist

    • C. 

      Psychologist

    • D. 

      Social Worker

  • 65. 
    What is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test session? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Temporal

    • B. 

      Topical

    • C. 

      Frontal

    • D. 

      Coronal

  • 66. 
    What format for reporting a psychological test session is  the least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Temporal

    • B. 

      Topical

    • C. 

      Frontal

    • D. 

      Coronal

  • 67. 
    How long is the administration time for the BAI? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      1-5 Minutes

    • B. 

      5-10 Minutes

    • C. 

      10-15 Minutes

    • D. 

      15-20 Minutes

  • 68. 
    Patient responses to the BDI II should reflect what period of time? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Past one day

    • B. 

      Past two days

    • C. 

      Past week

    • D. 

      Past two weeks

  • 69. 
    The Beck Scale for Suicide is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      10 +

    • B. 

      13 +

    • C. 

      15 +

    • D. 

      17 +

  • 70. 
    Patient responses on the Beck Scale for Suicide should reflect what period of time? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Past one day

    • B. 

      Past two days

    • C. 

      Past week

    • D. 

      Past two weeks

  • 71. 
    The MCMI II is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      10 +

    • B. 

      13 +

    • C. 

      15 +

    • D. 

      18 +

  • 72. 
    What score on the validity index causes probable concern to question the validity of the measurement? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 73. 
    Which MMPI 2 scale may indicate a high level of mental activity, egotism, and irritability? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Paranoia

    • B. 

      Hypomania

    • C. 

      Psychasthenia

    • D. 

      Schizophrenia

  • 74. 
    How much time is allotted for each subtest on the Shipley? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      10 minutes

    • B. 

      20 minutes

    • C. 

      30 minutes

    • D. 

      40 minutes

  • 75. 
    The WAIS III is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      10 +

    • B. 

      13 +

    • C. 

      16 +

    • D. 

      18 +

  • 76. 
    Which WAIS III subtest is not a verbal scale? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Digit span

    • B. 

      Similarities

    • C. 

      Information

    • D. 

      Digit-symbol coding

  • 77. 
    Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the : (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Air Force Inspection Agency (AFIA)

    • B. 

      Defense Information System Agency (DISA)

    • C. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)

    • D. 

      Air Force Medical Operations Agency (AFMOA)

  • 78. 
    Who manages the SUAT information? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      Air Force Inspection Agency (AFIA)

    • B. 

      Defense Information System Agency (DISA)

    • C. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)

    • D. 

      Air Force Medical Operations Agency (AFMOA)

  • 79. 
    Who developed the AUDIT? (Unit 3)
    • A. 

      World Health Organization

    • B. 

      Centers for Disease Control

    • C. 

      International Certification Reciprocity Consortium

    • D. 

      JCAHO

  • 80. 
    How man items make up the AUDIT? (Unit 3 
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25