4c0x1 5 Level Volume 3
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When a patient burns bridges, what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost? (Unit 2)
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Lack of multidisciplinary team investment
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Lack of support from family
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Cumbersome resources
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Cumbersome process
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About This Quiz
This quiz, titled '4c0x1 5 level Volume 3', assesses key psychological concepts and skills in interviewing, focusing on transference, counter-transference, acceptance, and self-awareness. It is designed for journeymen to enhance their understanding and application of effective interview techniques.
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- 2.
Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients? (Unit 1)
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Mental Health Privacy Act
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Mental Health Systems Act
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Behavioral Health Systems Act
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Behavioral Health Privacy Act
Correct Answer
A. Mental Health Systems ActExplanation
The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients. It aimed to improve mental health services and provide community-based care for individuals with mental illnesses. The act also focused on protecting the rights and privacy of patients, ensuring their access to appropriate treatment and support.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the common denominator in every chemically dependant family? (Unit 2)
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Guilt
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Denial
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Fear of Anger
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Relationships
Correct Answer
A. DenialExplanation
In chemically dependent families, denial is a common denominator. Denial refers to the refusal or inability to acknowledge or accept the reality of addiction and its impact on the family. It often manifests as minimizing or rationalizing the problem, making excuses for the addicted individual, or avoiding discussions about the issue altogether. Denial can prevent the family from seeking help or support, perpetuating the cycle of addiction and dysfunction within the family system.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is not an attending behavior. (Unit 1)
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Display attentive posture
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Use verbal following
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Leading Statement
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Make eye contact
Correct Answer
A. Leading StatementExplanation
A leading statement is not an attending behavior because it involves guiding or directing the conversation rather than actively listening and showing interest in the speaker. Attending behaviors focus on nonverbal cues and active listening techniques such as displaying attentive posture, using verbal following to encourage the speaker, and making eye contact to show attention and engagement. However, a leading statement involves taking control of the conversation and steering it in a particular direction, which is not considered a part of attending behaviors.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the primary basis for all successful communications in a therapeutic relationship? (Unit 1)
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Rapport
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Eye Contact
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Attentive Posture
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Verbal Following
Correct Answer
A. RapportExplanation
Rapport is the primary basis for all successful communications in a therapeutic relationship. Building rapport involves establishing a connection, trust, and mutual understanding between the therapist and the client. It creates a safe and comfortable environment where the client feels heard, understood, and supported. Rapport enhances communication by promoting openness, honesty, and collaboration, allowing the therapist to effectively address the client's needs and goals. It is a crucial element in building a strong therapeutic alliance and facilitating positive outcomes in therapy.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who is often the best historian for a patient? (Unit 1)
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Commander
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Supervisor
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Family
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Peers
Correct Answer
A. FamilyExplanation
Family members are often the best historians for a patient because they have intimate knowledge of the patient's medical history, lifestyle, and personal experiences. They can provide valuable insights into the patient's symptoms, previous illnesses, and any relevant genetic factors. Additionally, family members can offer emotional support and help fill in any gaps in the patient's memory or understanding of their medical condition.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What area of the mental status exam examines whether a patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar? (Unit 1)
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Thought Content
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Thought Process
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Intelligence
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Insight
Correct Answer
A. Thought ContentExplanation
Thought content examines the specific ideas, beliefs, and themes that a patient expresses during the mental status exam. It focuses on whether the patient's thoughts are normal or abnormal, and whether they exhibit any odd or peculiar content. This can include delusions, hallucinations, obsessions, or any other unusual thoughts that may indicate a mental health disorder.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed? (Unit 1)
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24 hours
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72 hours
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One week
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Immediately
Correct Answer
A. ImmediatelyExplanation
Acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal should be addressed immediately because delaying treatment can lead to serious health consequences or even death. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further harm and provide necessary medical attention or support to the individual experiencing acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse? (Unit 1)
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Detoxification
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Readiness to change
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Living environment
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Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
A. DetoxificationExplanation
The first dimension of assessment for substance abuse is detoxification. This refers to the process of removing toxic substances from the body, typically through medical intervention. Detoxification is an important aspect of substance abuse assessment as it helps to identify the level of substance dependence and the potential risks and complications associated with withdrawal. By assessing detoxification, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate treatment plan and support needed for individuals struggling with substance abuse.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient? (Unit 1)
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Evaluation for depression with credentialed staff and available appointments.
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Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments.
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Evaluation for security clearance with credentialed staff and available appointments.
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Evaluation of dependent spouse with credentialed staff and limited appointment availability.
Correct Answer
A. Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments.Explanation
It would be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments because it is important to have trained and qualified professionals who are able to provide appropriate care and treatment for children. Without credentialed staff, there is a risk of inadequate assessment and treatment, potentially leading to harm or ineffective outcomes for the child. Additionally, the unavailability of appointments further limits the ability to provide timely and consistent care, which is crucial for the well-being of a dependent child.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission? (Unit 1)
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Name of the physician
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Patient's name
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Bed number
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Diagnosis
Correct Answer
A. DiagnosisExplanation
A patient status board is typically used to display important information about a patient's condition and treatment. This includes the patient's name, bed number, and the name of the physician responsible for their care. However, the diagnosis is not something that would typically be displayed on a patient status board. The diagnosis is usually documented in the patient's medical records and discussed between the healthcare team members involved in the patient's care, but it is not necessary to publicly display this information on a status board.Rate this question:
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- 12.
According to the Jellinek Chart regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses? (Unit 2)
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Denial
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Projection
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Rationalization
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Conflict minimization
Correct Answer
A. DenialExplanation
Denial is considered the most primal defense mechanism according to the Jellinek Chart. Denial involves refusing to acknowledge or accept a reality or truth that causes discomfort or anxiety. It is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to protect themselves from painful emotions or thoughts by blocking them out of their awareness. Denial is often the first line of defense and can be seen as a primitive response to protect one's ego from threatening or distressing information.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's : (Unit 3)
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Validity
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Reliability
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Objectivity
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Subjectivity
Correct Answer
A. ValidityExplanation
Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. In this context, when a test does what it is designed to do, it implies that the test is valid. Validity is important because it ensures that the test accurately assesses the construct or characteristic it is supposed to measure. A valid test produces consistent and accurate results, allowing researchers or practitioners to make meaningful interpretations and decisions based on the test scores.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and providing supervision of psychological tests? (Unit 3)
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Physician
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Psychiatrist
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Psychologist
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Social Worker
Correct Answer
A. PsychologistExplanation
A psychologist is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and providing supervision of psychological tests. This is because psychologists have extensive knowledge and expertise in the field of psychology, including assessment and testing. They are trained to administer and interpret a wide range of psychological tests to assess individuals' cognitive abilities, personality traits, and mental health conditions. Other healthcare providers, such as physicians, psychiatrists, and social workers, may have some knowledge of psychological testing, but they do not have the same level of specialized training and expertise as psychologists in this area.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patients capabilities? (Unit 1)
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Social
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Substance Use
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Home Environment
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Occupational/academic
Correct Answer
A. Occupational/academicExplanation
To gain a complete understanding of a patient's capabilities, it is important to explore their occupational and academic history in depth. This involves examining their work experience, educational background, and any relevant skills or qualifications they may have. By understanding their occupational and academic history, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's abilities, strengths, and limitations in these areas, which can be crucial in providing appropriate care and support.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned into the: (Unit 1)
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Security Forces
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Members commander
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Admissions and dispositions (A&D) office
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MTF Commander
Correct Answer
A. Security ForcesExplanation
When a patient is admitted to a Medical Treatment Facility, items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the Security Forces. The Security Forces are responsible for ensuring the security and safety of the facility and its occupants. They are trained to handle and dispose of hazardous or dangerous items properly, minimizing any potential risks to the patients and staff. The Security Forces play a crucial role in maintaining a safe environment within the medical facility.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specified rights and ensuring compliance nation wide? (Unit 1)
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National Mental Health Association
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Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities
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JCAHO
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Information Management Resources for Hospital Accreditation
Correct Answer
A. JCAHOExplanation
JCAHO, also known as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, is an organization that focuses on tailoring specified rights and ensuring compliance nationwide. They work towards improving the quality of healthcare services by setting standards and accrediting healthcare organizations. JCAHO plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare facilities meet the necessary requirements and provide safe and effective care to patients.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How much time is allotted for each subtest on the Shipley? (Unit 3)
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10 minutes
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20 minutes
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30 minutes
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40 minutes
Correct Answer
A. 10 minutesExplanation
The Shipley test allots 10 minutes for each subtest.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except: (Unit 1)
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Patients values
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Patients beliefs
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Providers values
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Providers clinical knowledge
Correct Answer
A. Providers valuesExplanation
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on the patients' values and beliefs, as well as the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's values should not be a determining factor in the decision-making process, as it should be focused on the patient's best interests and preferences. Therefore, the correct answer is providers values.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self awareness? (Unit 1)
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Silence
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Self-disclosure
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Direction and control
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Know your boundaries
Correct Answer
A. Know your boundariesExplanation
Knowing your boundaries is a skill that demonstrates competence and self-awareness in the interview process. It shows that the individual is aware of their limitations and is able to set appropriate boundaries in terms of what they can and cannot do or discuss during the interview. This skill indicates that the person understands their own strengths and weaknesses, and is able to communicate effectively and professionally within those boundaries. It also suggests that the individual is respectful of others' boundaries and is able to navigate the interview process with sensitivity and awareness.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What should be very limited in the mental status examination (MSE)? (Unit 1)
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Documentation
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Subjectivity
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Objectivity
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Awareness
Correct Answer
A. SubjectivityExplanation
In the mental status examination (MSE), subjectivity should be very limited. This means that the examiner should strive to gather objective information rather than relying on personal opinions or biases. Subjectivity can introduce bias and inaccuracies into the assessment, making it less reliable. It is important to focus on observable and measurable aspects of the individual's mental state to ensure a more accurate evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What type of hallucination involves the sense of smell? (Unit 1)
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Gustatory
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Olfactory
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Visual
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Tactile
Correct Answer
A. OlfactoryExplanation
Olfactory hallucination involves the sense of smell. This means that a person experiencing olfactory hallucination may perceive smells that are not actually present. This type of hallucination can be caused by various factors such as neurological conditions, certain medications, or even mental health disorders. It is important to note that olfactory hallucinations can be distressing and may affect a person's daily life and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information? (Unit 1)
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MTF commander
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Mental Health Services OIC
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Outpatient Medical Records OIC
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Mental Health Services NCOIC
Correct Answer
A. MTF commanderExplanation
The MTF commander is responsible for approving all requests for release of information. As the commander of the Medical Treatment Facility, they have the authority and responsibility to oversee all operations, including the release of medical information. This ensures that proper protocols and regulations are followed to protect patient privacy and confidentiality. The MTF commander plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of medical records and information within the facility.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the: (Unit 1)
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Air Base Wing
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MAJCOM
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MTF
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AF Surgeon General
Correct Answer
A. MTFExplanation
The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the MTF, which stands for Medical Treatment Facility. This means that the mental health clinic's objectives and targets align with the overall goals and objectives of the medical treatment facility. The MTF is responsible for providing healthcare services, including mental health services, to military personnel and their families. Therefore, it makes sense that the mental health clinic's goals would be in line with the MTF's goals.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?(Unit 2)
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Stimulant
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Anesthetic
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Depressant
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Hallucinogen
Correct Answer
A. DepressantExplanation
Inhalants have a depressant effect on the central nervous system (CNS). This means that they slow down the activity of the brain and spinal cord, resulting in a decrease in overall brain function. Inhalants can cause drowsiness, relaxation, and a general slowing of cognitive and physical processes. They can also impair coordination, judgment, and decision-making abilities. Therefore, the correct answer is "Depressant."Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the most common form of alchool-induced liver disease (ALD)? (Unit 2)
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Cirrhosis
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Fatty Liver
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Inflamed Liver
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Alcoholic hepatitis
Correct Answer
A. Fatty LiverExplanation
Fatty liver is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease (ALD). It occurs when there is an accumulation of fat in the liver cells. Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to the development of fatty liver, as alcohol is metabolized in the liver and can cause an imbalance in fat metabolism. If left untreated, fatty liver can progress to more severe forms of ALD such as alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis. However, in terms of prevalence, fatty liver is the most commonly observed form of ALD.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is defined as the process in which the patient unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations related to important people in the past onto an important authority figure like the interviewer? (Unit 1)
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Transference
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Self Awareness
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Verbal Following
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Counter Transference
Correct Answer
A. TransferenceExplanation
Transference is the process in which a patient unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations related to important people in the past onto an important authority figure like the interviewer. This can involve transferring feelings and reactions from childhood experiences onto the therapist or interviewer, which can influence the dynamics of the therapeutic relationship. It is an important concept in psychoanalysis and other forms of therapy, as it provides insight into the patient's internal world and can help uncover unresolved issues and patterns of relating to others.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patients message that are translated in the interviewers own words? (Unit 1)
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Clarification
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Paraphrase
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Reflection
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Transition
Correct Answer
A. ParaphraseExplanation
Paraphrase is the interview process skill that involves selectively attending to the cognitive parts of the patient's message and translating them into the interviewer's own words. This skill helps the interviewer to demonstrate understanding and clarify their understanding of the patient's message. By restating the patient's words in their own words, the interviewer can ensure accurate interpretation and prevent miscommunication.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who owns the outpatient medical record? (Unit 1)
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Patient
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Guardian
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US Air Force
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MTF Commander
Correct Answer
A. US Air ForceExplanation
The correct answer is US Air Force because in a military treatment facility (MTF), the outpatient medical records are owned by the US Air Force. As the MTF Commander is responsible for overseeing the operations of the facility, it is the US Air Force that ultimately owns and maintains the medical records of the patients receiving outpatient care. The patient and guardian may have access to their own medical records, but the ownership lies with the US Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug? (Unit 2)
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MDMA
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Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB)
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Dextromethorphan (DXM)
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Ketamine
Correct Answer
A. Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB)Explanation
Gamma Hydrooxybutyric Acid (GHB) is sometimes referred to as the date rape drug. GHB is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, drowsiness, and memory loss. It is often used to incapacitate individuals and facilitate sexual assault. GHB is colorless, odorless, and tasteless, making it easy to slip into someone's drink without their knowledge. It has gained notoriety for its association with drug-facilitated sexual assault cases, where individuals are unable to give consent or defend themselves due to the effects of the drug.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient? (Unit 1)
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Transference
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Self Awareness
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Verbal Following
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Counter-transference
Correct Answer
A. Counter-transferenceExplanation
Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's own unresolved feelings or personal biases influence their perception and interaction with the patient. It can hinder the therapeutic process and compromise the objectivity and effectiveness of the interview.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range of emotions? (Unit 1)
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Inappropriate
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Blunted
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Labile
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Flat
Correct Answer
A. BluntedExplanation
Blunted affect refers to a patient who is grossly diminished in their range of emotions. This means that their emotional expressions are significantly reduced and they may appear unresponsive or indifferent to stimuli that would typically elicit emotions in others. They may display a lack of facial expressions, reduced vocal tone, and limited body language. This can be seen in conditions such as depression, schizophrenia, or certain neurological disorders.Rate this question:
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- 33.
In motivational interviewing, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the : (Unit 1)
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Treatment team
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Commander
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Counselor
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Family
Correct Answer
A. CounselorExplanation
In motivational interviewing, resistance is not seen as a problem for the patient, but rather as a skill issue for the counselor. This means that the counselor needs to develop the skills to effectively address and work with resistance from the patient. It is not the patient's fault for being resistant, but rather the counselor's responsibility to adapt their approach and techniques to help the patient overcome their resistance and engage in the therapeutic process.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which is not one of the three primary areas of FAP? (Unit 1)
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Prevention services
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Child Placement services
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Maltreatment intervention
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Special needs identification and assignment coordination process
Correct Answer
A. Child Placement servicesExplanation
Child Placement services is not one of the three primary areas of FAP. The three primary areas of FAP include Prevention services, Maltreatment intervention, and Special needs identification and assignment coordination process. Child Placement services, on the other hand, refers to the process of finding suitable homes for children who are in need of foster care or adoption. While it is an important aspect of child welfare, it is not considered one of the three primary areas of FAP.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which is the most potent of any known psychoactive drug? (Unit 2)
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Methamphetamine
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PCP
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LSD
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MDMA
Correct Answer
A. LSDExplanation
LSD is considered the most potent of any known psychoactive drug. It is a hallucinogenic drug that alters a person's perception, thoughts, and feelings. Even in small doses, LSD can produce intense hallucinations and sensory distortions. Its potency lies in its ability to produce profound and long-lasting effects on the mind, often leading to intense psychological experiences and altered states of consciousness.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which dimension of assessment would you identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment? (Unit 1)
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Detoxification
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Readiness to change
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Living environment
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Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
A. Biomedical conditions and complicationsExplanation
The dimension of assessment that would identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment is biomedical conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on evaluating the physical health of the individual and identifying any medical conditions or complications that may impact their treatment. By assessing biomedical conditions and complications, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and address any potential health concerns that may arise during the course of treatment.Rate this question:
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- 37.
It is considered unethical or illegal for Mental Health Journeymen to provide counseling for all the following except: (Unit 2)
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Financial
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Parental
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Spiritual
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Legal
Correct Answer
A. ParentalExplanation
Mental Health Journeymen are not qualified or authorized to provide counseling in legal matters, financial matters, or spiritual matters. However, they are able to provide counseling and support for parental issues. This is because parental issues are within the scope of mental health and can be addressed by professionals in this field.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which is not a key area of a patients social history? (Unit 1)
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Social
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Substance Use
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Home Environment
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Occupational/Academic
Correct Answer
A. Substance UseExplanation
keyword is 'social'. S/a has nothing to do with that.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of motivational interviewing? (Unit 1)
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Evocation
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Autonamy
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Subjugation
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Collaboration
Correct Answer
A. SubjugationExplanation
The correct answer is "Subjugation." Subjugation is not one of the components of the underlying philosophy of motivational interviewing. Motivational interviewing is based on principles such as evocation, autonomy, and collaboration. Subjugation, which refers to the act of bringing someone under control or domination, goes against the principles of motivational interviewing, which aim to empower individuals and promote their autonomy and collaboration in the change process.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What priority group does the active duty service member beneficiary type fall into? (Unit 1)
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1
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2
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3
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4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The word beneficiary is there to throw you off. It refers to active duty member.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What area of biopsychosocial essential features focuses on identifying genetically based explanations for a patients alcohol diagnosis?(Unit 2)
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Psychological
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Sociocultural
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Biological
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Spiritual
Correct Answer
A. BiologicalExplanation
The correct answer is Biological. The area of biopsychosocial essential features that focuses on identifying genetically based explanations for a patient's alcohol diagnosis is the biological aspect. This includes studying the genetic factors that may contribute to an individual's susceptibility to alcohol addiction or alcohol-related disorders. By understanding the biological underpinnings of alcoholism, healthcare professionals can develop more targeted and effective treatments for patients.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What area of the biopsycholosocial essential features explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance abuse/use? (Unit 2)
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Psychological
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Sociocultural
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Biological
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Spiritual
Correct Answer
A. PsychologicalExplanation
The area of the biopsychosocial essential features that explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance abuse/use is the psychological aspect. This includes examining the individual's thoughts, beliefs, attitudes, and emotions that may contribute to their substance abuse. It involves understanding how cognitive processes such as decision-making, self-control, and coping mechanisms play a role in substance abuse.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as false sensory perceptions not associated with real stimuli? (Unit 1)
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Vision
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Illusion
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Delusion
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Hallucination
Correct Answer
A. HallucinationExplanation
Hallucination is a common perceptual disturbance that is categorized as false sensory perceptions not associated with real stimuli. Hallucinations can occur in any sensory modality, including vision, hearing, taste, smell, and touch. They are often experienced as vivid and real, but they are not based on actual external stimuli. Hallucinations can be caused by various factors, such as mental health disorders, substance abuse, medication side effects, or neurological conditions. They can be distressing and have a significant impact on an individual's perception of reality.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What should you consider when making a referral to an off base provider? (Unit 1)
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Timeliness
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Cleanliness
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Effectiveness
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Appropriateness
Correct Answer
A. AppropriatenessExplanation
When making a referral to an off base provider, it is important to consider the appropriateness of the provider for the specific needs of the patient. This means ensuring that the off base provider has the necessary expertise and resources to address the patient's medical condition or concern. It also involves considering factors such as the provider's location, availability, and any potential barriers that may affect the patient's ability to access the care they need. By considering appropriateness, the referral can be made in a way that maximizes the chances of the patient receiving effective and timely care.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The MCMI II is suitable for what age group? (Unit 3)
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10 +
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13 +
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15 +
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18 +
Correct Answer
A. 18 +Explanation
The MCMI II is suitable for individuals who are 18 years old or older. This assessment tool is designed to measure personality traits and psychopathology in adults, making it appropriate for individuals in this age group.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the : (Unit 3)
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Air Force Inspection Agency (AFIA)
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Defense Information System Agency (DISA)
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Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)
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Air Force Medical Operations Agency (AFMOA)
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information System Agency (DISA)Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information System Agency (DISA). This is because the SUAT is transmitted via the internet, and DISA is responsible for managing and providing information technology and communications support to the Department of Defense. They ensure the secure and efficient transmission of information within the military. The other options, AFIA, AFMSA, and AFMOA, are not specifically involved in managing information systems or transmitting data via the internet.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the foundation for establishing a baseline of criteria for dual diagnosis? (Unit 2)
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Reason for referral
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Thorough assessment
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Thorough treatment plan
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Psychometric examinations
Correct Answer
A. Thorough assessmentExplanation
A thorough assessment is the foundation for establishing a baseline of criteria for dual diagnosis. This is because a thorough assessment involves gathering comprehensive information about the individual's mental health, substance use, medical history, and social context. It helps in identifying any co-occurring mental health disorders and substance use disorders, as well as understanding the severity and impact of these conditions on the individual's functioning. The assessment provides the necessary information to develop an accurate diagnosis and determine appropriate treatment interventions for the individual with a dual diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who developed the AUDIT? (Unit 3)
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World Health Organization
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Centers for Disease Control
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International Certification Reciprocity Consortium
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JCAHO
Correct Answer
A. World Health OrganizationExplanation
The World Health Organization (WHO) developed the AUDIT.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychological factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressor, triggers, or likelihood of relapse? (Unit 1)
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Detoxification
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Readiness to change
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Living environment
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Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
A. Living environmentExplanation
The living environment dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychological factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressors, triggers, or the likelihood of relapse. This dimension focuses on the individual's surroundings, including their home, work, and social environment, and evaluates how these factors may contribute to their mental health. By assessing the living environment, professionals can identify potential risk factors and develop appropriate interventions to address them.Rate this question:
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 13, 2010Quiz Created by
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