Principles Of Management Review 7 And 8

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Principles Of Management Quizzes & Trivia

Multiple choice quiz to help me study. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following steps in the selection process is usually the most heavily weighted?

    • A.

      Testing

    • B.

      Interviewing

    • C.

      Background and reference checks

    • D.

      Screening interviews

    Correct Answer
    B. Interviewing
    Explanation
    In the selection process, interviewing is usually the most heavily weighted step. This is because interviews allow employers to directly interact with candidates and assess their skills, qualifications, and cultural fit for the organization. Through interviews, employers can ask specific questions, evaluate communication skills, and get a better understanding of the candidate's personality and potential for success in the role. Therefore, interviewing is given more importance as it provides valuable insights into the candidate's suitability for the position.

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  • 2. 

    In a(n) ________ interview, all candidates are askedthe same list of prepared questions.

    • A.

      Structured

    • B.

      Interviewing

    • C.

      Background and reference checks

    • D.

      Screening

    Correct Answer
    A. Structured
    Explanation
    A structured interview is a type of interview where all candidates are asked the same list of prepared questions. This type of interview allows for consistency and fairness in the evaluation process as each candidate is assessed based on the same criteria. It also helps to ensure that all relevant information is gathered from each candidate in a systematic manner.

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  • 3. 

    A(n) ________ interview has no preplanned questions or sequenceof topics.

    • A.

      Semistructured

    • B.

      Unstructured

    • C.

      Structured

    • D.

      Screening

    Correct Answer
    B. Unstructured
    Explanation
    An unstructured interview is a type of interview where there are no preplanned questions or a set sequence of topics. In this type of interview, the interviewer has the freedom to ask any question and explore any topic that they find relevant or interesting. This allows for a more flexible and open-ended conversation between the interviewer and the interviewee, allowing the interviewer to gather more detailed and in-depth information about the interviewee's experiences, skills, and qualifications.

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  • 4. 

    "What do you see as a major strenth you can bring to our company?" is an example of a ________ question?

    • A.

      Closed-ended

    • B.

      Open-ended

    • C.

      Hypothetical

    • D.

      Probing

    Correct Answer
    B. Open-ended
    Explanation
    The question "What do you see as a major strength you can bring to our company?" is an example of an open-ended question because it allows for a detailed and personalized response. Open-ended questions encourage the interviewee to provide their own thoughts and opinions, rather than limiting them to a specific set of options or a simple "yes" or "no" answer.

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  • 5. 

    The ________ question requires the candidate to descibe what he or she would do and say in a given situation.

    • A.

      Closed-ended

    • B.

      Probing

    • C.

      Hypothetical

    • D.

      Open-ended

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypothetical
    Explanation
    A hypothetical question requires the candidate to describe what he or she would do and say in a given situation that may not have actually happened. It is a question that presents a hypothetical scenario and asks the candidate to provide a response based on their hypothetical actions and words. This type of question is often used to assess problem-solving skills, creativity, and the ability to think on one's feet.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the first step in preparing for the interview?

    • A.

      Develop questions for all candidates

    • B.

      Develop a form

    • C.

      Review the job description and specifications

    • D.

      Plan the type of interview

    Correct Answer
    C. Review the job description and specifications
    Explanation
    Reviewing the job description and specifications is the first step in preparing for an interview because it allows the interviewer to gain a clear understanding of the requirements and expectations of the position. By reviewing this information, the interviewer can tailor their questions and assess the candidates' qualifications and fit for the role. This step helps the interviewer to effectively evaluate the candidates' skills and experience in relation to the job requirements, ensuring a more focused and successful interview process.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following would you do first when conducting an interview?

    • A.

      Open the interview

    • B.

      Introduce top candidates to coworkers

    • C.

      Ask your questions

    • D.

      Present the realistic job preview

    Correct Answer
    A. Open the interview
    Explanation
    When conducting an interview, the first step would be to open the interview. This involves greeting the candidate, making them feel comfortable, and setting a positive tone for the conversation. It is important to establish a rapport with the candidate and create a welcoming environment before diving into the interview questions. Introducing top candidates to coworkers, asking questions, and presenting the realistic job preview can be done after the interview has been opened.

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  • 8. 

    Judging a candidate on the basis of one or two favorable characteristics is known as:

    • A.

      The "halo effect"

    • B.

      "like me" syndrome

    • C.

      The "horn effect"

    • D.

      Premature selection

    Correct Answer
    A. The "halo effect"
    Explanation
    The "halo effect" refers to the tendency to judge someone based on one or two positive qualities, and assuming that they possess other positive qualities as well. This can lead to biased decision-making, as it overlooks any negative qualities or weaknesses that the candidate may have. It is important to evaluate candidates based on a comprehensive assessment of their skills, qualifications, and experience rather than relying on a single positive characteristic.

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  • 9. 

    ________ happens when selection is based solely on a candidates resume.

    • A.

      The "halo effect"

    • B.

      "like me" syndrome

    • C.

      The "horn effect"

    • D.

      Premature selection

    Correct Answer
    D. Premature selection
    Explanation
    Premature selection refers to the act of making a decision solely based on a candidate's resume without considering other important factors. This can lead to hasty and potentially incorrect judgments about a candidate's suitability for a position. It implies that the selection process is being conducted too early, without thoroughly assessing the candidate's skills, qualifications, and fit for the role. This can result in hiring the wrong person for the job and potentially negatively impacting the organization in terms of performance and productivity.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following elements should be included in an orientation program?

    • A.

      Explanation of standing plans

    • B.

      A tour

    • C.

      Introduction to coworkers

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    An orientation program should include all of these elements. Explanation of standing plans is important to provide new employees with an understanding of the organization's policies and procedures. A tour helps familiarize them with the physical layout of the workplace. Introduction to coworkers helps establish relationships and create a sense of belonging. Including all these elements in an orientation program ensures that new employees receive comprehensive information and support to successfully integrate into the organization.

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  • 11. 

    _______ is ongoing education to imporve skills for present and future jobs.

    • A.

      Vestibule training

    • B.

      Development

    • C.

      Orientation

    • D.

      Training

    Correct Answer
    B. Development
    Explanation
    Development is the ongoing education to improve skills for present and future jobs. It encompasses various activities such as training, workshops, courses, and other learning opportunities that aim to enhance an individual's knowledge, abilities, and competencies. Development is crucial in keeping up with the changing demands of the job market and ensuring continuous growth and advancement in one's career. It helps individuals stay relevant, adapt to new technologies and methodologies, and remain competitive in their field.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following training methods involves training employees to perform different jobs and develops trainees' conceptual skills?

    • A.

      Programmed learning

    • B.

      Job rotation

    • C.

      Role playing

    • D.

      Behavior modeling

    Correct Answer
    B. Job rotation
    Explanation
    Job rotation involves training employees to perform different jobs within an organization. This method helps develop trainees' conceptual skills by exposing them to various roles and responsibilities. By experiencing different job functions, employees gain a broader understanding of the organization as a whole and develop a more holistic perspective. Job rotation also allows employees to acquire new skills and knowledge, enhancing their versatility and adaptability. Overall, job rotation is an effective training method for developing conceptual skills and promoting a well-rounded workforce.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following training methods involves giving trainees special assignments, such as developing a new product or preparing a report?

    • A.

      Projects

    • B.

      Cases

    • C.

      Role playing

    • D.

      Behavior modeling

    Correct Answer
    A. Projects
    Explanation
    The correct answer is projects because this training method involves giving trainees special assignments, such as developing a new product or preparing a report. This allows trainees to gain hands-on experience and apply their skills and knowledge in a real-world context. By working on projects, trainees can enhance their problem-solving abilities, decision-making skills, and teamwork capabilities. It also provides an opportunity for trainees to showcase their creativity and innovation while learning new concepts and techniques.

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  • 14. 

    The two types of performance appraisal are _______ and ________.

    • A.

      Developmental; disciplinary

    • B.

      Developmental; evaluative

    • C.

      Evaluative; disciplinary

    • D.

      Evaluative; preliminary

    Correct Answer
    B. Developmental; evaluative
    Explanation
    The correct answer is developmental; evaluative. Developmental performance appraisal focuses on identifying an employee's strengths and areas for improvement in order to provide feedback and support their professional growth. Evaluative performance appraisal, on the other hand, assesses an employee's performance against predetermined criteria to determine their level of achievement and make decisions regarding promotions, rewards, or disciplinary actions.

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  • 15. 

    A(n) ________ is used to make administrative decisions about such issues as pay raises, transfers and promotions, and demotions and terminations.

    • A.

      Developmental performance appraisal

    • B.

      Evaluative performance appraisal

    • C.

      Performance appraisal

    • D.

      Critical incidents file

    Correct Answer
    B. Evaluative performance appraisal
    Explanation
    An evaluative performance appraisal is used to make administrative decisions about issues such as pay raises, transfers and promotions, and demotions and terminations. This type of appraisal involves assessing an employee's performance against predetermined criteria and providing feedback on their strengths and areas for improvement. It is a systematic process that helps organizations make informed decisions about employee development and rewards.

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  • 16. 

    The first step in the performance appraisal plrocess is:

    • A.

      Develop standards and measurement methods

    • B.

      Prepare for and conduct the formal performance appraisal

    • C.

      Informal performance appraisal--- coaching and discipline

    • D.

      Job analysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Job analysis
    Explanation
    The first step in the performance appraisal process is job analysis. This involves evaluating and determining the specific tasks, responsibilities, and qualifications required for a particular job. It helps in setting clear performance standards and expectations for employees. By conducting a job analysis, organizations can identify the key performance indicators and measurement methods that will be used to evaluate employee performance. This step is crucial as it lays the foundation for an effective and fair performance appraisal system.

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  • 17. 

    The _______ approach to pay determination uses job evaluation.

    • A.

      Internal

    • B.

      External

    • C.

      Comparable worth

    • D.

      Benefits

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal
    Explanation
    The internal approach to pay determination uses job evaluation, which means that the organization assesses the value of different jobs within the company based on factors such as skills, responsibilities, and qualifications required. This approach focuses on the internal equity of pay, ensuring that employees are fairly compensated based on their contributions to the organization. It does not consider external market factors or comparable worth, which may be used in other approaches to pay determination.

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  • 18. 

    According to the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, employers must:

    • A.

      Meet OSHA safety standards

    • B.

      Maintain records of injuries and deaths due to workplace accidents

    • C.

      Submit to on-site inspections

    • D.

      Do all of these

    Correct Answer
    D. Do all of these
    Explanation
    According to the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, employers are required to meet OSHA safety standards to ensure a safe working environment for their employees. They must also maintain records of injuries and deaths that occur due to workplace accidents, as this helps in identifying hazards and implementing preventive measures. Additionally, employers must submit to on-site inspections conducted by OSHA to ensure compliance with safety regulations. Therefore, the correct answer is that employers must do all of these actions to comply with the Occupational Safety and Health Act.

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  • 19. 

    The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) oversees labor relations in the United States by doing all the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Issuing injunctions against offending employers

    • B.

      Conducting unionization elections

    • C.

      Hearing unfair labor practice complaints

    • D.

      Providing mediators for collective bargaining negotiations

    Correct Answer
    D. Providing mediators for collective bargaining negotiations
    Explanation
    The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) oversees labor relations in the United States by issuing injunctions against offending employers, conducting unionization elections, and hearing unfair labor practice complaints. However, it does not provide mediators for collective bargaining negotiations. This means that the NLRB does not play a role in facilitating negotiations between employers and labor unions.

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  • 20. 

    Personality is a combination of all of the following traits EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Physical

    • B.

      Emotional

    • C.

      Behavioral

    • D.

      Mental

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical
    Explanation
    Personality is a combination of various traits that define an individual's character and behavior. These traits include emotional, behavioral, and mental aspects. However, physical traits, such as appearance or physical attributes, are not considered as part of one's personality. While physical appearance can influence initial impressions, it does not directly contribute to the overall personality of an individual. Therefore, physical traits are excluded from the list of traits that make up personality.

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  • 21. 

    _______ is a trait based on the belief that the ends can justify the means and power should be used to reach desired ends.

    • A.

      Optimism

    • B.

      Machiavellianism

    • C.

      Locus of control

    • D.

      Risk propensity

    Correct Answer
    B. Machiavellianism
    Explanation
    Machiavellianism is a trait based on the belief that the ends can justify the means and power should be used to reach desired ends. This trait is often associated with individuals who are manipulative, cunning, and willing to deceive others in order to achieve their goals. People with high levels of Machiavellianism may prioritize their own interests and be willing to exploit or manipulate others to get what they want.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is NOT on of the big five personality dimensions?

    • A.

      Extroversion

    • B.

      Perception

    • C.

      Conscientiousness

    • D.

      Agreeableness

    Correct Answer
    B. Perception
    Explanation
    The question asks for the option that is NOT one of the big five personality dimensions. The big five personality dimensions are extroversion, conscientiousness, agreeableness, neuroticism, and openness to experience. Perception is not one of the big five personality dimensions, so it is the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    ______ lies on a continuum between cooperative and competitive.

    • A.

      Conscientiousness

    • B.

      Emotionalism

    • C.

      Agreeableness

    • D.

      Openness to experience

    Correct Answer
    C. Agreeableness
    Explanation
    Agreeableness is the correct answer because it refers to a personality trait that reflects an individual's tendency to be friendly, cooperative, and considerate towards others. It lies on a continuum between cooperative and competitive, as individuals with high agreeableness are more likely to prioritize harmony and collaboration, while those with low agreeableness may be more competitive and focused on their own interests. This trait is often associated with empathy, kindness, and a willingness to compromise, making it a suitable option for the given statement.

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  • 24. 

    ________ is the belief in your own capability to perform in a specific situation.

    • A.

      Attribution

    • B.

      Perception

    • C.

      Self-esteem

    • D.

      Self-efficacy

    Correct Answer
    D. Self-efficacy
    Explanation
    Self-efficacy refers to the belief in one's own capability to perform in a specific situation. It is the confidence and belief in one's ability to successfully accomplish tasks and goals. Self-efficacy plays a crucial role in determining motivation, effort, and perseverance in the face of challenges. It is different from self-esteem, which is a general evaluation of self-worth, and perception, which refers to the way individuals interpret and make sense of their experiences. Attribution, on the other hand, relates to the explanations individuals provide for their own or others' behavior.

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  • 25. 

    ________ is a bias that refers to peoples tendency to screen information in favor of the desired outcome.

    • A.

      Selectivity

    • B.

      Frame of reference

    • C.

      Stereotyping

    • D.

      Expectation

    Correct Answer
    A. Selectivity
    Explanation
    Selectivity is the correct answer because it refers to the bias of screening information in favor of the desired outcome. This bias occurs when individuals selectively pay attention to information that supports their preexisting beliefs or desires while ignoring or discounting information that contradicts them. This bias can affect decision-making, perception, and interpretation of information, leading to a skewed understanding of reality.

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  • 26. 

    ________ is often referred to as confirmation bias.

    • A.

      Selectivity

    • B.

      Frame of reference

    • C.

      Stereotyping

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Selectivity
    Explanation
    Confirmation bias refers to the tendency of individuals to selectively interpret and remember information in a way that confirms their preexisting beliefs or hypotheses. This bias can lead to the exclusion or disregard of information that contradicts their beliefs. The term "selectivity" accurately captures this concept, as it implies the act of choosing or favoring certain information while ignoring others. Therefore, selectivity is often referred to as confirmation bias. Frame of reference and stereotyping are not synonymous with confirmation bias, and "none of these" does not accurately describe the phenomenon.

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  • 27. 

    ________  is a bias that refers to seeing things from your own point of view.

    • A.

      Selectivity

    • B.

      Frame of reference

    • C.

      Stereotyping

    • D.

      Expectation

    Correct Answer
    B. Frame of reference
    Explanation
    Frame of reference is a bias that refers to seeing things from your own point of view. It means that individuals tend to interpret and understand information based on their own beliefs, experiences, and perspectives. This bias can limit their ability to consider alternative viewpoints and can lead to a narrow or biased understanding of a situation.

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  • 28. 

    The theory that managers' attitudes toward and expectations and treatment of employees largely determine their performance is known as:

    • A.

      Organizational behavior

    • B.

      Citizenship behavior

    • C.

      The self-fulfilling prophecy

    • D.

      The Pygmalion effect

    Correct Answer
    D. The Pygmalion effect
    Explanation
    The Pygmalion effect refers to the theory that managers' attitudes, expectations, and treatment of employees have a significant impact on their performance. This effect suggests that when managers have high expectations of their employees and treat them positively, the employees are more likely to perform better and achieve those expectations. On the other hand, if managers have low expectations and treat employees negatively, their performance is likely to be lower. The Pygmalion effect highlights the importance of managers' beliefs and behaviors in influencing employee performance.

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  • 29. 

    Job satisfaction is based on _______ and ________.

    • A.

      Personality; perception

    • B.

      Attitudes; perception

    • C.

      Personality; behavior

    • D.

      Attitudes; behavior

    Correct Answer
    A. Personality; perception
    Explanation
    Job satisfaction is influenced by both personality and perception. Personality traits such as extraversion, agreeableness, and conscientiousness can impact how individuals perceive and respond to their work environment. Additionally, perception plays a crucial role in shaping job satisfaction as individuals interpret and make sense of their experiences at work. Therefore, both personality and perception contribute to an individual's overall job satisfaction.

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  • 30. 

    _______ power is derived from followers, based on an individuals behavior.

    • A.

      Position

    • B.

      Personal

    • C.

      Organizational

    • D.

      Earned

    Correct Answer
    B. Personal
    Explanation
    Personal power is derived from followers based on an individual's behavior. This means that an individual has personal power when they exhibit certain behaviors that influence and inspire others to follow them. Personal power is not based on a formal position or authority within an organization, but rather on the personal qualities and actions of the individual. It is earned through the trust, respect, and admiration of others, making it a more influential and effective form of power.

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  • 31. 

    ______ power is a form of personal power.

    • A.

      Reward

    • B.

      Legitimate

    • C.

      Referent

    • D.

      Coercive

    Correct Answer
    C. Referent
    Explanation
    Referent power is a form of personal power because it is based on an individual's personal qualities, characteristics, and charisma. This type of power comes from others' admiration, respect, and desire to be like the person who possesses it. It is not derived from a position of authority or control, but rather from the influence and inspiration that the person exerts over others. Referent power is often associated with leaders who are seen as role models and who have the ability to inspire and motivate others to follow their lead.

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  • 32. 

    _______ power is based on others' need for data.

    • A.

      Legitimate

    • B.

      Referent

    • C.

      Information

    • D.

      Connection

    Correct Answer
    C. Information
    Explanation
    Information power is based on others' need for data. This means that individuals who possess information that others require have power over them. This power is derived from the control and access to valuable information that others need to make decisions or perform their tasks effectively. By withholding or providing information selectively, individuals can influence and manipulate the actions and decisions of others, thus exerting power and control over them.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding politics?

    • A.

      It is always to be avoided

    • B.

      It is a reality of organizational life

    • C.

      It becomes less important as the level of management increases

    • D.

      It is always used negatively

    Correct Answer
    B. It is a reality of organizational life
    Explanation
    Politics is a reality of organizational life because it is inevitable in any group or organization where individuals have different interests, goals, and perspectives. Politics involves the use of power, influence, and negotiation to achieve personal or group objectives. It can be both positive and negative, depending on how it is used. While some may view politics negatively, it is an inherent part of human interaction and decision-making within organizations. As such, it cannot be avoided but rather needs to be understood and managed effectively to ensure the smooth functioning of the organization.

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  • 34. 

    _______ involves the mutual exchange of favors and privileges to accomplish objectives.

    • A.

      Politics

    • B.

      Reciprocity

    • C.

      Networking

    • D.

      Coalition building

    Correct Answer
    B. Reciprocity
    Explanation
    Reciprocity involves the mutual exchange of favors and privileges to accomplish objectives. In this context, individuals or groups engage in a reciprocal relationship where they provide benefits or assistance to each other in order to achieve their goals. This can involve giving and receiving support, resources, or cooperation. Reciprocity is a fundamental aspect of social interactions and can be seen in various contexts, including personal relationships, business partnerships, and political alliances. It is a key strategy for building trust and maintaining mutually beneficial relationships.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is also referred to as social exchange theory?

    • A.

      Networking

    • B.

      Coalition building

    • C.

      Politics

    • D.

      Reciprocity

    Correct Answer
    D. Reciprocity
    Explanation
    Reciprocity is referred to as social exchange theory because it is based on the idea that individuals engage in social interactions with the expectation of receiving something in return. This theory suggests that people are more likely to help or cooperate with others if they believe that their actions will be reciprocated in the future. Reciprocity plays a crucial role in maintaining social relationships and promoting cooperation among individuals.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is NOT a guideline for developing political skills?

    • A.

      Learn the organizational culture

    • B.

      Learn the power players

    • C.

      Tune out the grapevine

    • D.

      Be a team player

    Correct Answer
    C. Tune out the grapevine
    Explanation
    Tuning out the grapevine is not a guideline for developing political skills because the grapevine refers to the informal network of communication within an organization. Being aware of and actively participating in the grapevine can help individuals gain valuable information and insights about the organization and its dynamics. Therefore, it is important to stay connected to the grapevine in order to develop political skills.

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  • 37. 

    The user of a(n) ________ conflict style attempts to passively ignore conflict rather than resolve it.

    • A.

      Avoiding

    • B.

      Forcing

    • C.

      Negotiating

    • D.

      Collaborating

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoiding
    Explanation
    The user of an avoiding conflict style tends to ignore or avoid conflict rather than actively resolving it. This individual may choose to withdraw from the situation or pretend that the conflict does not exist. Rather than engaging in open communication or seeking a resolution, they may opt to simply avoid any confrontation or discussion about the conflict at hand.

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  • 38. 

    The user of a(n) ________ conflict style attempts to resolve conflicts by passively giving in to the opposing side.

    • A.

      Avoiding

    • B.

      Accommodating

    • C.

      Negotiating

    • D.

      Collaborating

    Correct Answer
    B. Accommodating
    Explanation
    An accommodating conflict style involves resolving conflicts by passively giving in to the opposing side. This means that the person using this style is more concerned with maintaining harmony and avoiding confrontation than asserting their own needs or opinions. They may prioritize the relationship with the other party over their own interests, leading them to compromise or yield to the opposing side's demands.

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  • 39. 

    The forcing conflict style is appropriate to use when:

    • A.

      Unpopular action must be taken on important issues

    • B.

      Your stake in the issue is not high

    • C.

      The changes agreed to are not important to you but are to the other person

    • D.

      The conflict is between peers

    Correct Answer
    A. Unpopular action must be taken on important issues
    Explanation
    The forcing conflict style is appropriate to use when an unpopular action must be taken on important issues. This style involves asserting one's own needs and concerns without considering the needs of the other person. It is effective in situations where the stakes are high and the importance of the issue outweighs the relationship with the other person. By using the forcing style, one can make tough decisions and take necessary actions, even if they are not popular or well-received by others.

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  • 40. 

    1. The user of the _______ conflict style attempts to resolve conflicts through assertive give and take concessions.a

    • A.

      Avoiding

    • B.

      Accommodating

    • C.

      Negotiating

    • D.

      Collaborating

    Correct Answer
    C. Negotiating
    Explanation
    The user of the negotiating conflict style attempts to resolve conflicts through assertive give and take concessions. This means that they are willing to engage in a process of negotiation and compromise in order to find a mutually beneficial solution. They are assertive in advocating for their own interests, but also willing to make concessions in order to reach an agreement. This style is often seen as a balanced and effective approach to conflict resolution.

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  • 41. 

    The negotiating conflict style is appropriate to use when:

    • A.

      Unpopular action must be taken on important issues

    • B.

      Time is short

    • C.

      The conflict is between peers

    • D.

      You enjoy being a follower

    Correct Answer
    B. Time is short
    Explanation
    The negotiating conflict style is appropriate to use when time is short because this style focuses on finding a quick resolution to the conflict. When time is limited, it is important to efficiently address the issues at hand and reach an agreement in a timely manner. This style allows for a more expedited negotiation process, ensuring that decisions can be made swiftly and effectively.

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  • 42. 

    The user of a(n) ________ conflict style assertively attempts to resolve conflict by working together with the other person to find an acceptable solution.

    • A.

      Avoiding

    • B.

      Accommodating

    • C.

      Negotiating

    • D.

      Collaborating

    Correct Answer
    D. Collaborating
    Explanation
    A person who uses a collaborating conflict style assertively tries to resolve conflict by working together with the other person to find an acceptable solution. This means that they are willing to openly communicate and share their perspectives and ideas, while also actively listening to the other person's viewpoints. The goal is to find a solution that satisfies both parties' needs and interests, rather than focusing on one person's desires or avoiding the conflict altogether. This approach promotes cooperation, understanding, and mutual respect in resolving conflicts.

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  • 43. 

    The advantage of the collaborating conflict style is that:

    • A.

      Working relationships are maintained

    • B.

      Conflict is resolved quickly

    • C.

      It tends to lead to the best solution to the conflict using assertive behavior

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. It tends to lead to the best solution to the conflict using assertive behavior
    Explanation
    The collaborating conflict style is advantageous because it tends to lead to the best solution to the conflict using assertive behavior. By actively involving all parties and encouraging open communication, this style promotes cooperation and understanding. It allows for the exploration of different perspectives and ideas, leading to a more comprehensive and effective resolution. Additionally, by addressing the conflict directly and assertively, the collaborating style helps maintain working relationships while also ensuring that conflict is resolved quickly.

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  • 44. 

    A(n) _________ is a neutral third party who resolves a conflict by making a binding decision.

    • A.

      Mediator

    • B.

      Arbitrator

    • C.

      Negotiator

    • D.

      Conflict resolution consultant

    Correct Answer
    D. Conflict resolution consultant
    Explanation
    An arbitrator is a neutral third party who resolves a conflict by making a binding decision. They are typically appointed by both parties involved in the conflict to listen to their arguments and evidence, and then make a final decision that both parties must abide by. Unlike a mediator or negotiator who facilitate communication and help parties reach a mutually agreeable solution, an arbitrator has the authority to impose a decision that is legally binding. Therefore, a conflict resolution consultant, although involved in resolving conflicts, does not have the power to make binding decisions like an arbitrator does.

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  • 45. 

    The type A personality is characterized as all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Hard-driving

    • B.

      Time-conscious

    • C.

      Patient

    • D.

      Competitive

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient
    Explanation
    The type A personality is characterized by being hard-driving, time-conscious, and competitive. However, being patient is not typically associated with this personality type. Type A individuals are often known for their impatience and a sense of urgency in completing tasks or achieving goals. Therefore, the correct answer is patient.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is NOT an example of anaerobic exercise?

    • A.

      Swimming

    • B.

      Weightlifting

    • C.

      Sprinting

    • D.

      Jumping

    Correct Answer
    A. Swimming
    Explanation
    Swimming is not an example of anaerobic exercise because it is primarily an aerobic activity that requires sustained oxygen intake. Anaerobic exercises are high-intensity, short-duration activities that do not rely on oxygen for energy production. Weightlifting, sprinting, and jumping are all examples of anaerobic exercises as they involve short bursts of intense effort without relying on oxygen for energy.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 12, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    MSalmons
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