Pre-test CDC 4c051 #2 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes)

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Enmcdowell
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 193
Questions: 100 | Attempts: 85

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient?

    • A.

      Transference

    • B.

      Self-awareness

    • C.

      Verbal following

    • D.

      Counter-transference

    Correct Answer
    D. Counter-transference
    Explanation
    Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects their own emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's unresolved issues or personal biases influence their perception and response to the patient. It is important for the interviewer to be aware of their counter-transference in order to maintain objectivity and provide effective therapy.

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  • 2. 

    What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words?

    • A.

      Clarification

    • B.

      Paraphrase

    • C.

      Reflection

    • D.

      Transition

    Correct Answer
    B. Paraphrase
    Explanation
    Paraphrase is the interview process skill that involves selectively attending to the cognitive parts of the patient's message and translating them into the interviewer's own words. This skill allows the interviewer to restate or rephrase what the patient has said in order to ensure understanding and to clarify any potential misunderstandings.

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  • 3. 

    When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint?

    • A.

      Recent or current medication usage

    • B.

      Previous psychiatric treatment

    • C.

      Information that has been removed by the patient

    • D.

      Emergency room visits

    Correct Answer
    A. Recent or current medication usage
    Explanation
    When reviewing the patient record, recent or current medication usage can contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint. This is because certain medications can cause side effects or symptoms that may be similar to the patient's complaint, making it difficult to differentiate between the actual complaint and the medication's effects. Additionally, some medications may alleviate or suppress the symptoms, masking the true nature of the complaint. Therefore, understanding the patient's medication history is crucial in accurately assessing and diagnosing their present complaint.

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  • 4. 

    A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the commander-directed individual's

    • A.

      Commander

    • B.

      Supervisor

    • C.

      Family

    • D.

      Peers

    Correct Answer
    C. Family
    Explanation
    A CDE (Commander-Directed Engagement) is a communication tool that allows individuals to contact various parties within a command structure. In this case, the correct answer is "family" because contacting the family of a commander-directed individual is not a function of a CDE. The purpose of a CDE is to facilitate communication with the commander, supervisor, and peers, but it does not extend to contacting the family members of the individual in question.

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  • 5. 

    When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the following areas are you trying to determine if the patient has developed tolerance?

    • A.

      Frequency

    • B.

      Progression

    • C.

      Substances used

    • D.

      Severity/amount used

    Correct Answer
    B. Progression
    Explanation
    In exploring a patient's substance use history, determining if the patient has developed tolerance is important. Tolerance refers to the body's decreased response to a substance after repeated exposure, leading to the need for higher doses to achieve the same effect. By assessing the progression of substance use over time, healthcare professionals can identify if the patient has developed tolerance. This information is crucial for understanding the patient's level of dependence and potential risks associated with substance use.

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  • 6. 

    What should be the very limited in the MSE?

    • A.

      Documentation

    • B.

      Subjectivity

    • C.

      Objectivity

    • D.

      Wordiness

    Correct Answer
    B. Subjectivity
    Explanation
    The very limited in the MSE should be subjectivity because MSE stands for Mean Squared Error, which is a metric used to measure the average squared difference between predicted and actual values in statistical analysis. Subjectivity refers to the inclusion of personal opinions or biases, which can introduce variability and inconsistency in the analysis. Therefore, to ensure accurate and reliable results, subjectivity should be minimized or limited in the MSE.

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  • 7. 

    Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range or emotions?.

    • A.

      Inappropriate

    • B.

      Blunted

    • C.

      Liable

    • D.

      Flat

    Correct Answer
    B. Blunted
    Explanation
    Blunted affect refers to a patient who is grossly diminished in their range of emotions. This means that they display a limited or muted emotional response, often appearing uninterested or detached. They may have difficulty expressing or experiencing a wide range of emotions, leading to a flattened or dull affect. This can be seen in conditions such as depression or schizophrenia, where individuals may have difficulty experiencing pleasure or expressing their emotions.

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  • 8. 

    Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic inspiration to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence?

    • A.

      Collaboration

    • B.

      Autonomy

    • C.

      Evocation

    • D.

      Motivational interviewing

    Correct Answer
    D. Motivational interviewing
    Explanation
    Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence. It involves a collaborative and empathetic approach where the healthcare professional guides the patient in exploring their own motivations and goals, while also addressing any ambivalence or resistance they may have towards change. This approach aims to evoke the patient's own motivations for change and help them build confidence in their ability to make positive changes in their life.

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  • 9. 

    When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed?

    • A.

      24 hours

    • B.

      72 hours

    • C.

      One week

    • D.

      Immediately

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediately
    Explanation
    Acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal should be addressed immediately. This is because these conditions can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can lead to further complications and potential harm to the individual. Therefore, it is crucial to address acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms as soon as they are identified to ensure the safety and well-being of the person affected.

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  • 10. 

    In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient?

    • A.

      Evaluation for depression with credentialed staff and available appointment

    • B.

      Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments

    • C.

      Evaluation for security clearance with credentialed staff and available appointments

    • D.

      Evaluation of dependent spouse with credentialed staff and limited appointment availability

    Correct Answer
    B. Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments
    Explanation
    It would be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient in the example of evaluating a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments. This is because it is crucial to have qualified and trained professionals conducting evaluations and providing therapy to ensure the safety and well-being of the child. Without credentialed staff, there may be a lack of expertise and knowledge in dealing with the specific needs and issues of the child. Additionally, the unavailability of appointments suggests a lack of proper scheduling and organization, which can negatively impact the quality of care provided.

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  • 11. 

    In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic condition that may affect treatment?

    • A.

      Detoxification

    • B.

      Readiness to change

    • C.

      Recovery environment

    • D.

      Biomedical conditions and complications

    Correct Answer
    C. Recovery environment
    Explanation
    The recovery environment assessment dimension focuses on identifying any chronic conditions that may affect treatment. Chronic conditions can have a significant impact on a person's ability to recover from substance abuse or addiction. By assessing the recovery environment, healthcare professionals can gain insight into the various factors that may hinder or support a person's recovery, including the presence of chronic conditions. This dimension allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the individual's environment and helps in tailoring the treatment plan accordingly.

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  • 12. 

    When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned into

    • A.

      Security forces

    • B.

      Inpatient unit NCOIC

    • C.

      A & D office

    • D.

      MTF commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces
    Explanation
    When a patient is admitted to an MTF (Military Treatment Facility), items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the security forces. This is done to ensure the safety and well-being of both the patient and the staff at the facility. The security forces are responsible for maintaining a secure environment and preventing any potential harm or danger.

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  • 13. 

    The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except

    • A.

      Patient's values

    • B.

      Patient's beliefs

    • C.

      Provider's values

    • D.

      Provider's clinical knowledge

    Correct Answer
    C. Provider's values
    Explanation
    The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on several factors, including the patient's values, beliefs, and the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's personal values should not influence the decision-making process. It is important for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient's best interests and respect their autonomy, rather than imposing their own values onto the treatment plan. Therefore, provider's values are not considered when obtaining consent for treatment and making participative decisions.

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  • 14. 

    What venue is not allowed access to medical records without the patient's consent?

    • A.

      Commander-directed

    • B.

      OSI

    • C.

      Proper and legal need

    • D.

      Public interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander-directed
    Explanation
    Commander-directed venues do not have the authority to access medical records without the patient's consent. This means that even if there is a legitimate reason or a proper and legal need, these venues cannot access medical records without the patient's consent. This ensures that patient privacy and confidentiality are protected, and that access to medical records is only granted with the patient's permission.

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  • 15. 

    Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP?

    • A.

      Prevention services

    • B.

      Child placement services

    • C.

      Maltreatment intervention

    • D.

      Special needs identification and assignment coordination process

    Correct Answer
    B. Child placement services
    Explanation
    Child placement services is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP. The three primary areas of the FAP are prevention services, maltreatment intervention, and special needs identification and assignment coordination process. Child placement services, although important, is not listed as one of the primary areas.

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  • 16. 

    Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients?

    • A.

      Behavioral health systems act

    • B.

      Behavioral health privacy act

    • C.

      Mental health privacy act

    • D.

      Mental health systems act

    Correct Answer
    D. Mental health systems act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the mental health systems act. This act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients. It aims to provide comprehensive and community-based mental health services, promote prevention and early intervention, and protect the rights and privacy of individuals receiving mental health treatment.

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  • 17. 

    According to the "Jullinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, in which type of projection does the user attribute unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others?

    • A.

      Disowning

    • B.

      Assimilation

    • C.

      Rationalization

    • D.

      Obsessional focusing

    Correct Answer
    A. Disowning
    Explanation
    In the "Jullinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, the user attributes unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others through the process of disowning. Disowning involves denying or rejecting certain aspects of oneself and projecting them onto others. This defense mechanism allows individuals to distance themselves from these unwanted traits or feelings by attributing them to someone else.

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  • 18. 

    It is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeyman to provide counseling for all of the following except

    • A.

      Financial

    • B.

      Parental

    • C.

      Spiritual

    • D.

      Legal

    Correct Answer
    B. Parental
    Explanation
    Mental health journeyman are not prohibited from providing counseling for parental issues. This is because parental problems are a common area of concern for individuals seeking mental health support. However, it is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeyman to provide counseling for financial, spiritual, and legal issues. These areas require specialized knowledge and expertise that mental health journeyman may not possess.

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  • 19. 

    When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's

    • A.

      Validity

    • B.

      Reliability

    • C.

      Objectivity

    • D.

      Subjectivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Validity
    Explanation
    Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. In this context, when a test does what it is designed to do, it indicates that the test is valid. Validity is an important characteristic of a test as it ensures that the test accurately measures the construct it is supposed to assess. Reliability, on the other hand, refers to the consistency of the test results, while objectivity and subjectivity pertain to the degree of bias or personal interpretation involved in the test scoring process.

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  • 20. 

    What format for reporting a psychological test session is the least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores?

    • A.

      Temporal

    • B.

      Topical

    • C.

      Frontal

    • D.

      Coronal

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporal
    Explanation
    The format for reporting a psychological test session that is least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores is temporal. This is because the temporal format focuses on the sequence and timing of events, rather than the content or specific details. In a psychological test session, the provider needs to have access to all relevant information and details in order to accurately interpret the test scores. The temporal format may not provide enough specific information, making it less convenient for the provider.

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  • 21. 

    Patient's responses on the BDI-II should reflect what period of time?

    • A.

      Past one day

    • B.

      Past two days

    • C.

      Past week

    • D.

      Past two weeks

    Correct Answer
    D. Past two weeks
    Explanation
    The BDI-II is a widely used assessment tool for measuring the severity of depression in individuals. It asks patients to rate their experiences over a specific period of time. In this case, the correct answer is "past two weeks." This means that the patient's responses on the BDI-II should reflect their experiences and feelings over the course of the previous two weeks. This time frame allows for a more comprehensive assessment of the individual's depressive symptoms and provides a snapshot of their mental state during that period.

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  • 22. 

    The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all the following except

    • A.

      Obesity

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Narcolepsy

    • D.

      ADHD

    Correct Answer
    B. Depression
    Explanation
    Amphetamines are commonly used for the treatment of obesity, narcolepsy, and ADHD due to their stimulant effects on the central nervous system. However, they are not typically prescribed for depression. Depression is often treated with other medications such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or therapy. Therefore, the legal medical purpose for amphetamines does not include depression.

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  • 23. 

    What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug?

    • A.

      MDMA

    • B.

      GHB

    • C.

      DXM

    • D.

      Ketamine

    Correct Answer
    B. GHB
    Explanation
    GHB is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug because it is commonly used in cases of drug-facilitated sexual assault. It is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, dizziness, and memory loss. GHB is odorless, colorless, and tasteless, making it easy to slip into someone's drink without their knowledge. It can render the victim incapacitated and unable to give consent or defend themselves, hence the association with date rape.

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  • 24. 

    According to the cannot say (?) validity scale, how many omissions in the MMPI- II will make the inventory highly suspect or even invalid?

    • A.

      Over 20

    • B.

      Over 30

    • C.

      Over 40

    • D.

      Over 50

    Correct Answer
    B. Over 30
    Explanation
    An MMPI- II inventory with over 30 omissions is considered highly suspect or even invalid according to the cannot say (?) validity scale. This suggests that a large number of unanswered questions may indicate that the respondent did not fully engage with the inventory or intentionally skipped items, which can compromise the accuracy and reliability of the results. Therefore, having over 30 omissions raises concerns about the validity of the inventory.

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  • 25. 

    What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar?

    • A.

      Thought content

    • B.

      Thought process

    • C.

      Intelligence

    • D.

      Insight

    Correct Answer
    A. Thought content
    Explanation
    Thought content refers to the examination of a patient's thoughts to determine if they are considered odd or peculiar. This area of the MSE involves evaluating the specific content of the patient's thoughts, such as delusions or unusual beliefs. It helps clinicians assess the patient's mental state and identify any abnormal or irrational thinking patterns. Thought process, on the other hand, refers to the flow and organization of thoughts, while intelligence and insight are separate aspects of the mental examination.

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  • 26. 

    Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patient's dignity?

    • A.

      Professional relationships

    • B.

      Individual care

    • C.

      Role Modeling

    • D.

      Competence

    Correct Answer
    B. Individual care
    Explanation
    Respecting the patient's dignity is closely related to individual care. Individual care focuses on providing personalized and compassionate care to each patient, taking into consideration their unique needs, preferences, and values. Respecting a patient's dignity means treating them with respect, maintaining their privacy and confidentiality, involving them in decision-making, and honoring their autonomy. By providing individual care, healthcare professionals can uphold the patient's dignity and ensure that they feel valued and respected throughout their healthcare journey.

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  • 27. 

    Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient?

    • A.

      Patient

    • B.

      Technician

    • C.

      Licensed Provider

    • D.

      Noncommissioned officer in charge

    Correct Answer
    B. Technician
    Explanation
    If a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient, the technician is held accountable. This implies that the technician is responsible for ensuring that the journeyman follows professional conduct and does not engage in any unethical or inappropriate behavior with patients. The technician may be responsible for supervising and monitoring the journeyman's actions, and if any misconduct occurs, they will be held accountable for not preventing or addressing the situation appropriately.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not an example of effective communication?

    • A.

      Being conscious of nonverbal signs

    • B.

      Looking people in their eyes

    • C.

      Being sympathetic

    • D.

      Being empathetic

    Correct Answer
    C. Being sympathetic
    Explanation
    Being sympathetic is not an example of effective communication because sympathy alone does not necessarily involve clear and effective expression of thoughts, ideas, or information. Effective communication involves actively listening, conveying messages clearly, and ensuring understanding between the sender and receiver. While sympathy can be a valuable emotional response, it does not inherently guarantee effective communication.

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  • 29. 

    Which legal liability is considered non-punitive?

    • A.

      Administrative

    • B.

      Criminal

    • C.

      Civil tort

    • D.

      General

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative
    Explanation
    Administrative legal liability is considered non-punitive because it typically involves the enforcement of regulations, rules, and procedures within an organization or government agency. It focuses on ensuring compliance and correcting any violations rather than punishing individuals. This type of liability often involves fines, penalties, or corrective actions to rectify the non-compliance or misconduct, rather than seeking criminal or civil punishment.

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  • 30. 

    A constitutional tort is a violation of?

    • A.

      A spouse's civil rights by her husband

    • B.

      A patient's civil rights by a civilian provider

    • C.

      An employee's civil rights by his or her employer

    • D.

      A patient's civil rights by a government employee

    Correct Answer
    D. A patient's civil rights by a government employee
    Explanation
    A constitutional tort refers to a violation of a patient's civil rights by a government employee. This means that a government employee, while acting in their official capacity, has infringed upon the constitutional rights of a patient. This could include actions such as unlawful search and seizure, denial of medical treatment, or any other violation of the patient's rights as guaranteed by the Constitution. It is important to note that constitutional torts involve actions by government employees specifically, and not by individuals in other capacities such as spouses, civilian providers, or employers.

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  • 31. 

    What act passed by Congress in 1980 created a Mental Health Bill of Rights?

    • A.

      Mental Health Systems Act

    • B.

      Mental Health Privacy Act

    • C.

      Mental Health Services Act

    • D.

      Mental Health Confidentiality Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental Health Systems Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress in 1980, created a Mental Health Bill of Rights. The act aimed to improve mental health services and provide better rights and protections for individuals with mental illness. It focused on community-based care, prevention, and treatment programs, as well as ensuring the rights and privacy of individuals receiving mental health services.

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  • 32. 

    Which Centers for Disease Control (CDC) germ-spreading preventative measure is used universally throughout the Air Force?

    • A.

      Universal precautions

    • B.

      Standard precautions

    • C.

      Body substance isolation

    • D.

      General substance isolation

    Correct Answer
    B. Standard precautions
    Explanation
    Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices that are used to prevent the spread of germs and diseases in healthcare settings. These precautions are used universally throughout the Air Force to protect both healthcare providers and patients from potential infections. Standard precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials. By following these precautions, the Air Force can effectively minimize the risk of germ spreading and ensure the safety of all individuals involved in healthcare activities.

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  • 33. 

    Which organization must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF)?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

    • B.

      American Psychological Association (APA)

    • C.

      Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

    • D.

      Joint Commission

    Correct Answer
    C. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
    Explanation
    The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF). The EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants to protect public health and the environment. They establish guidelines and standards for disinfectant products, including their efficacy against various pathogens. By approving disinfectants, the EPA ensures that the products used in MTFs meet the necessary requirements for effective disinfection and do not pose any harm to patients, healthcare workers, or the environment.

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  • 34. 

    According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of all of the following except?

    • A.

      Redress

    • B.

      Reprisal

    • C.

      Coercion

    • D.

      Discrimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Redress
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of reprisal, coercion, or discrimination. "Redress" refers to seeking a remedy or resolution for a grievance, so it is not an exception to the right of requesting assistance without fear. Therefore, the correct answer is redress.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not an element of combustion?

    • A.

      Fuel

    • B.

      Heat

    • C.

      Oxygen

    • D.

      Ignition

    Correct Answer
    D. Ignition
    Explanation
    Ignition is not an element of combustion because it is the process or event that initiates the combustion reaction. It is the act of starting or igniting the fuel, which then reacts with oxygen in the presence of heat to sustain the combustion process. While ignition is necessary for combustion to occur, it is not an actual component or element of the combustion reaction itself.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of crisis is often predicted?

    • A.

      Situational

    • B.

      Transitional

    • C.

      Disorganized

    • D.

      Developmental

    Correct Answer
    D. Developmental
    Explanation
    Developmental crises are often predicted because they are part of the normal life cycle and occur at predictable stages of development. These crises are expected and can be anticipated, allowing individuals to prepare and cope with the challenges that come with each stage. Situational crises, on the other hand, occur unexpectedly due to external events, transitional crises involve significant life changes, and disorganized crises are chaotic and unpredictable. Therefore, the correct answer is developmental.

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  • 37. 

    What approach should you use when area restriction fails?

    • A.

      Talk to patient

    • B.

      Room restriction

    • C.

      Manual restraints

    • D.

      Mechanical restraints

    Correct Answer
    B. Room restriction
    Explanation
    When area restriction fails, the appropriate approach to use is room restriction. This means that instead of limiting the patient's movement to a specific area, they are confined to a specific room. This can be done for various reasons, such as ensuring the safety of the patient and others, preventing self-harm or harm to others, or managing disruptive behavior. Room restriction provides a more controlled environment and allows for closer monitoring of the patient's actions and well-being.

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  • 38. 

    The patient is most likely to assault someone during which phase of the active phases?

    • A.

      Crisis

    • B.

      Trigger

    • C.

      Escalation

    • D.

      Recovery

    Correct Answer
    B. Trigger
    Explanation
    During the trigger phase of the active phases, the patient is most likely to assault someone. This suggests that there is a specific event or circumstance that serves as a trigger for the patient's aggressive behavior. It could be something that provokes anger, frustration, or a feeling of being threatened, leading to the potential for violence. Understanding and identifying these triggers can help healthcare professionals in managing and preventing aggressive incidents.

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  • 39. 

    Wen physically restraining a patient, who sets the rules for the takedown?

    • A.

      Highest ranking

    • B.

      Team leader

    • C.

      Provider

    • D.

      Nurse

    Correct Answer
    B. Team leader
    Explanation
    When physically restraining a patient, the team leader is the one who sets the rules for the takedown. The team leader is responsible for coordinating and organizing the team's actions during the restraint process. They have the authority and expertise to determine the most appropriate approach and techniques to safely restrain the patient. The team leader's role is crucial in ensuring the safety of both the patient and the healthcare providers involved in the restraint.

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  • 40. 

    Which is considered a hasty generalization?

    • A.

      Second-hand information

    • B.

      Out-dated information

    • C.

      Unjustified inferences

    • D.

      Vividness

    Correct Answer
    C. Unjustified inferences
    Explanation
    A hasty generalization refers to making a broad conclusion based on insufficient evidence or a small sample size. Unjustified inferences fit this description as they involve drawing conclusions without proper supporting evidence. This can lead to inaccurate or unfair generalizations about a larger group or situation. Second-hand information and out-dated information may not be reliable, but they do not necessarily involve making broad generalizations. Vividness, on the other hand, refers to the level of detail or intensity of an experience and is not directly related to hasty generalizations.

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  • 41. 

    Which ethnic group is more likely to use preventive care if it uses culturally appropriate methods, such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach?

    • A.

      Puerto Rican

    • B.

      Cuban American

    • C.

      African-American

    • D.

      Mexican-American

    Correct Answer
    C. African-American
    Explanation
    African-Americans are more likely to use preventive care if it is provided through culturally appropriate methods such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach. This may be because these methods are more relatable and accessible to African-Americans, as they involve individuals from their own community who understand their cultural background and can effectively communicate the importance of preventive care. By utilizing these culturally appropriate methods, African-Americans are more likely to engage with and prioritize their preventive healthcare needs.

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  • 42. 

    A patient born in 1962 is considered a part of which generational group?

    • A.

      Veterans

    • B.

      Baby boomers

    • C.

      Generation x-ers

    • D.

      Generation nexters

    Correct Answer
    C. Generation x-ers
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, a patient born in 1962 would be considered a part of the generational group known as "generation x-ers".

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  • 43. 

    In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common?

    • A.

      American Samoan

    • B.

      Cuban American

    • C.

      American Indian

    • D.

      Alaska Native

    Correct Answer
    D. Alaska Native
    Explanation
    Alaska Native women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices because of cultural values and beliefs. In many Alaska Native communities, women are expected to prioritize the well-being of their families and may put their own health needs on the backburner. Additionally, traditional healing practices, which often involve natural remedies and spiritual rituals, are deeply rooted in Alaska Native culture and are commonly used for various health issues. This reliance on traditional healing methods may lead to a neglect of modern healthcare practices and preventive measures.

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  • 44. 

    Studies have shown that women are typically over diagnosed with all of the following disorders except?

    • A.

      Anxiety

    • B.

      Bipolar

    • C.

      Dependent personality

    • D.

      Borderline personality

    Correct Answer
    B. Bipolar
    Explanation
    Research has consistently shown that women are more likely to be diagnosed with certain mental health disorders such as anxiety, dependent personality, and borderline personality. However, studies have not found a significant gender difference in the diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Therefore, women are not typically over diagnosed with bipolar disorder compared to men.

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  • 45. 

    Which is not considered a disadvantage or a guided discussion?

    • A.

      It is time-consuming

    • B.

      It is limited by class size

    • C.

      It allows for student participation

    • D.

      It is limited to class knowledge and experience

    Correct Answer
    C. It allows for student participation
    Explanation
    A guided discussion is a teaching method that encourages active participation from students. It allows students to share their thoughts, ask questions, and engage in meaningful conversations with their peers. This promotes critical thinking, collaboration, and the development of communication skills. Therefore, allowing for student participation is not considered a disadvantage of guided discussions.

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  • 46. 

    Which briefing encourages leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explains the referral and treatment process?

    • A.

      Stress management

    • B.

      Key personnel briefing

    • C.

      Newcomers orientation

    • D.

      Substance abuse awareness seminar

    Correct Answer
    B. Key personnel briefing
    Explanation
    A key personnel briefing is likely to encourage leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explain the referral and treatment process. Key personnel briefings are typically conducted for individuals in leadership positions, who are responsible for making important decisions and taking appropriate actions. Substance abuse can have serious consequences on an individual's health and performance, as well as the overall functioning of an organization. Therefore, it is crucial for leaders to be aware of the signs of substance abuse, intervene early, and guide the individual towards the necessary treatment and support.

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  • 47. 

    Who is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered based upon documentation in the health record?

    • A.

      Provider

    • B.

      Health Records committee

    • C.

      Director of Patient Administration

    • D.

      Medical Treatment Facility (MTF) Commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Health Records committee
    Explanation
    The Health Records committee is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered based upon documentation in the health record. This committee reviews the documentation in the health record to assess the quality of care provided by the healthcare providers. They ensure that the documentation is accurate, complete, and meets the standards set by the organization. The committee may also identify areas for improvement and provide recommendations to enhance the quality of care.

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  • 48. 

    The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in what section of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record?

    • A.

      Section a

    • B.

      Section b

    • C.

      Section d

    • D.

      Section f

    Correct Answer
    B. Section b
    Explanation
    The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in section b of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record.

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  • 49. 

    The entire budget process for the medical treatment facility (MTF) is complied by the?

    • A.

      Resource management office (RMO)

    • B.

      Cost center managers (CCM)

    • C.

      MTF administrator

    • D.

      MTF commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource management office (RMO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Resource management office (RMO). The RMO is responsible for compiling the entire budget process for the medical treatment facility (MTF). They oversee the allocation and management of resources within the facility, including financial resources. They work closely with the cost center managers and MTF administrator to ensure that the budget is properly planned and executed. The RMO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the MTF has the necessary funds to provide quality healthcare services to its patients.

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  • 50. 

    Which subtype of Post-Traumatic Stress disorder (PTSD) persists beyond 3 months?

    • A.

      Acute

    • B.

      Initial

    • C.

      Chronic

    • D.

      With delayed onset

    Correct Answer
    C. Chronic
    Explanation
    Chronic PTSD is the subtype of PTSD that persists beyond 3 months. This subtype is characterized by symptoms that last for an extended period of time, typically longer than 3 months, and can significantly impair a person's daily functioning and quality of life. It is important to differentiate chronic PTSD from acute PTSD, which refers to symptoms that last for less than 3 months, and other subtypes such as initial PTSD, which refers to symptoms that occur immediately after a traumatic event, and PTSD with delayed onset, which refers to symptoms that develop at least 6 months after a traumatic event.

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