Pre-test CDC 4c051 #2 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes)

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1. At what age does menopause typically occur in women?

Explanation

Menopause typically occurs in women around the age of 50. During menopause, a woman's menstrual cycle stops, and she can no longer conceive a child. This is a natural process that marks the end of a woman's reproductive years. While the age of menopause can vary, the average age is around 50.

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About This Quiz
Pre-test CDC 4c051 #2 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes) - Quiz

This comprehensive 100-question quiz, titled 'Pre-Test CDC 4C051 #2', assesses crucial clinical skills across four volumes. It evaluates competencies in interview techniques, understanding patient history, and medication impacts,... see morefocusing on skills like counter-transference, paraphrasing, and patient evaluation in mental health settings. see less

2. Which term is not one of the phases of a normal sexual cycle?

Explanation

Foreplay is not one of the phases of a normal sexual cycle. The sexual cycle typically consists of four phases: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Foreplay refers to the sexual activities that occur before intercourse, such as kissing, touching, and oral sex. While foreplay is an important part of sexual activity, it is not considered a distinct phase within the sexual cycle.

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3. The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except

Explanation

The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on several factors, including the patient's values, beliefs, and the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's personal values should not influence the decision-making process. It is important for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient's best interests and respect their autonomy, rather than imposing their own values onto the treatment plan. Therefore, provider's values are not considered when obtaining consent for treatment and making participative decisions.

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4. Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient?

Explanation

If a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient, the technician is held accountable. This implies that the technician is responsible for ensuring that the journeyman follows professional conduct and does not engage in any unethical or inappropriate behavior with patients. The technician may be responsible for supervising and monitoring the journeyman's actions, and if any misconduct occurs, they will be held accountable for not preventing or addressing the situation appropriately.

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5. Wen physically restraining a patient, who sets the rules for the takedown?

Explanation

When physically restraining a patient, the team leader is the one who sets the rules for the takedown. The team leader is responsible for coordinating and organizing the team's actions during the restraint process. They have the authority and expertise to determine the most appropriate approach and techniques to safely restrain the patient. The team leader's role is crucial in ensuring the safety of both the patient and the healthcare providers involved in the restraint.

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6. When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed?

Explanation

Acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal should be addressed immediately. This is because these conditions can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can lead to further complications and potential harm to the individual. Therefore, it is crucial to address acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms as soon as they are identified to ensure the safety and well-being of the person affected.

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7. Which subtype of Post-Traumatic Stress disorder (PTSD) persists beyond 3 months?

Explanation

Chronic PTSD is the subtype of PTSD that persists beyond 3 months. This subtype is characterized by symptoms that last for an extended period of time, typically longer than 3 months, and can significantly impair a person's daily functioning and quality of life. It is important to differentiate chronic PTSD from acute PTSD, which refers to symptoms that last for less than 3 months, and other subtypes such as initial PTSD, which refers to symptoms that occur immediately after a traumatic event, and PTSD with delayed onset, which refers to symptoms that develop at least 6 months after a traumatic event.

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8. It is well documented that treatment outcomes are based upon the patient's

Explanation

Motivation is a crucial factor in determining treatment outcomes. It refers to the patient's willingness and drive to actively participate in their treatment and make necessary changes. A motivated patient is more likely to adhere to treatment plans, engage in therapy, and follow through with lifestyle modifications. This can greatly impact the effectiveness of interventions and ultimately lead to better outcomes. Therefore, motivation plays a significant role in the success of any treatment approach.

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9. What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words?

Explanation

Paraphrase is the interview process skill that involves selectively attending to the cognitive parts of the patient's message and translating them into the interviewer's own words. This skill allows the interviewer to restate or rephrase what the patient has said in order to ensure understanding and to clarify any potential misunderstandings.

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10. When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide the overview?

Explanation

When presenting a case for staffing, the overview is provided in the format of a subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP). This format includes subjective information, such as the patient's symptoms and complaints, as well as objective data, such as test results and observations. The SOAP format is commonly used in medical and healthcare settings to organize and present patient information in a concise and structured manner. It allows for a comprehensive overview of the case, including both subjective and objective aspects, which can aid in decision-making and communication among healthcare professionals.

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11. Who is the greatest influences in our lives besides family?

Explanation

Peers are the individuals who have a significant impact on our lives besides family. They are our friends, colleagues, and acquaintances who influence our thoughts, behaviors, and decisions. Our peers shape our social interactions, provide emotional support, and contribute to our personal growth. They can influence our beliefs, values, and lifestyle choices, making them a powerful force in shaping our identity and experiences.

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12. Which of the following agencies did the AF join forces with to conform to the DOD directive to establish standardized criteria for section of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors?

Explanation

The AF joined forces with the International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and other drugs of abuse (ICRC/AODA) to establish standardized criteria for the selection of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors.

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13. What should be the very limited in the MSE?

Explanation

The very limited in the MSE should be subjectivity because MSE stands for Mean Squared Error, which is a metric used to measure the average squared difference between predicted and actual values in statistical analysis. Subjectivity refers to the inclusion of personal opinions or biases, which can introduce variability and inconsistency in the analysis. Therefore, to ensure accurate and reliable results, subjectivity should be minimized or limited in the MSE.

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14. What approach should you use when area restriction fails?

Explanation

When area restriction fails, the appropriate approach to use is room restriction. This means that instead of limiting the patient's movement to a specific area, they are confined to a specific room. This can be done for various reasons, such as ensuring the safety of the patient and others, preventing self-harm or harm to others, or managing disruptive behavior. Room restriction provides a more controlled environment and allows for closer monitoring of the patient's actions and well-being.

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15. Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range or emotions?.

Explanation

Blunted affect refers to a patient who is grossly diminished in their range of emotions. This means that they display a limited or muted emotional response, often appearing uninterested or detached. They may have difficulty expressing or experiencing a wide range of emotions, leading to a flattened or dull affect. This can be seen in conditions such as depression or schizophrenia, where individuals may have difficulty experiencing pleasure or expressing their emotions.

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16. What kind of child neglect is characterized by failure to provide appropriate nourishment, shelter, and clothing?

Explanation

Deprivation of necessities refers to a type of child neglect where the caregiver fails to provide the child with appropriate nourishment, shelter, and clothing. This means that the child is not receiving the basic essential needs required for their well-being and development. It is a form of neglect that can have serious consequences on the child's physical and emotional health.

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17. Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic inspiration to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence?

Explanation

Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence. It involves a collaborative and empathetic approach where the healthcare professional guides the patient in exploring their own motivations and goals, while also addressing any ambivalence or resistance they may have towards change. This approach aims to evoke the patient's own motivations for change and help them build confidence in their ability to make positive changes in their life.

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18. Which is considered a hasty generalization?

Explanation

A hasty generalization refers to making a broad conclusion based on insufficient evidence or a small sample size. Unjustified inferences fit this description as they involve drawing conclusions without proper supporting evidence. This can lead to inaccurate or unfair generalizations about a larger group or situation. Second-hand information and out-dated information may not be reliable, but they do not necessarily involve making broad generalizations. Vividness, on the other hand, refers to the level of detail or intensity of an experience and is not directly related to hasty generalizations.

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19. In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient?

Explanation

It would be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient in the example of evaluating a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments. This is because it is crucial to have qualified and trained professionals conducting evaluations and providing therapy to ensure the safety and well-being of the child. Without credentialed staff, there may be a lack of expertise and knowledge in dealing with the specific needs and issues of the child. Additionally, the unavailability of appointments suggests a lack of proper scheduling and organization, which can negatively impact the quality of care provided.

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20. Which is not considered a disadvantage or a guided discussion?

Explanation

A guided discussion is a teaching method that encourages active participation from students. It allows students to share their thoughts, ask questions, and engage in meaningful conversations with their peers. This promotes critical thinking, collaboration, and the development of communication skills. Therefore, allowing for student participation is not considered a disadvantage of guided discussions.

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21. What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug?

Explanation

GHB is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug because it is commonly used in cases of drug-facilitated sexual assault. It is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, dizziness, and memory loss. GHB is odorless, colorless, and tasteless, making it easy to slip into someone's drink without their knowledge. It can render the victim incapacitated and unable to give consent or defend themselves, hence the association with date rape.

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22. What action must occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship?

Explanation

Creating clear boundaries is necessary to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship. By establishing clear boundaries, both the therapist and the client understand the limits of their professional relationship. This helps to maintain a professional and therapeutic environment, preventing any potential for inappropriate contact or the blurring of personal and professional boundaries. Clear boundaries also ensure that the focus remains on the client's treatment goals and needs, promoting a safe and effective therapeutic process.

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23. Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and often disclose his or her feelings regarding morality, responsibility, and accountability?

Explanation

Reality therapy is a therapeutic approach that emphasizes personal responsibility and accountability. It encourages the therapist to take a stand and disclose their feelings regarding morality, responsibility, and accountability. This approach aims to help individuals focus on the present and make choices that lead to positive change. By actively engaging with clients and providing guidance, reality therapy promotes self-awareness, personal growth, and improved decision-making skills.

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24. A constitutional tort is a violation of?

Explanation

A constitutional tort refers to a violation of a patient's civil rights by a government employee. This means that a government employee, while acting in their official capacity, has infringed upon the constitutional rights of a patient. This could include actions such as unlawful search and seizure, denial of medical treatment, or any other violation of the patient's rights as guaranteed by the Constitution. It is important to note that constitutional torts involve actions by government employees specifically, and not by individuals in other capacities such as spouses, civilian providers, or employers.

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25. What act passed by Congress in 1980 created a Mental Health Bill of Rights?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress in 1980, created a Mental Health Bill of Rights. The act aimed to improve mental health services and provide better rights and protections for individuals with mental illness. It focused on community-based care, prevention, and treatment programs, as well as ensuring the rights and privacy of individuals receiving mental health services.

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26. A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the commander-directed individual's

Explanation

A CDE (Commander-Directed Engagement) is a communication tool that allows individuals to contact various parties within a command structure. In this case, the correct answer is "family" because contacting the family of a commander-directed individual is not a function of a CDE. The purpose of a CDE is to facilitate communication with the commander, supervisor, and peers, but it does not extend to contacting the family members of the individual in question.

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27. Who chairs the Treatment Team (TT) meetings?

Explanation

The alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM) chairs the Treatment Team (TT) meetings. This individual is responsible for overseeing the program and ensuring that all aspects of treatment and prevention are being addressed. They have the authority and knowledge to lead the meetings and make decisions regarding the patient's treatment plan. The ADAPTPM is a key figure in the treatment team and plays a crucial role in coordinating and facilitating the patient's care.

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28. According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of all of the following except?

Explanation

According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of reprisal, coercion, or discrimination. "Redress" refers to seeking a remedy or resolution for a grievance, so it is not an exception to the right of requesting assistance without fear. Therefore, the correct answer is redress.

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29. How many visit for evaluation are civilian employees authorized free of charge at the base substance abuse clinic?

Explanation

Civilian employees are authorized one free visit for evaluation at the base substance abuse clinic. This means that they can have one appointment without any cost to assess their substance abuse issues.

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30. What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar?

Explanation

Thought content refers to the examination of a patient's thoughts to determine if they are considered odd or peculiar. This area of the MSE involves evaluating the specific content of the patient's thoughts, such as delusions or unusual beliefs. It helps clinicians assess the patient's mental state and identify any abnormal or irrational thinking patterns. Thought process, on the other hand, refers to the flow and organization of thoughts, while intelligence and insight are separate aspects of the mental examination.

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31. What is the most widely consumed drug in western society?

Explanation

Caffeine is the most widely consumed drug in western society because it is found in various beverages like coffee, tea, and energy drinks, as well as in some foods and medications. It is a stimulant that affects the central nervous system, providing a temporary boost in energy and alertness. Many people rely on caffeine to help them stay awake and focused throughout the day, making it a popular and widely consumed substance.

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32. Which of the 12 core functions is described as the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program?

Explanation

The correct answer is "intake." Intake is the core function that involves the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program. This includes gathering information from the client, conducting assessments, and determining the appropriate level of care. Intake is the first step in the treatment process and sets the foundation for the client's journey in the program.

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33. What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient?

Explanation

Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects their own emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's unresolved issues or personal biases influence their perception and response to the patient. It is important for the interviewer to be aware of their counter-transference in order to maintain objectivity and provide effective therapy.

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34. Which one of the following is not a common factor in violent families?

Explanation

The correct answer is socially impoverished. Socially impoverished refers to a lack of social resources, such as financial stability or access to support networks, which can contribute to family stress and conflict. However, it is not specifically identified as a common factor in violent families. On the other hand, social isolation, alcohol and drug use, and multigenerational transmission have been identified as common factors in violent families, as they can contribute to a cycle of violence and dysfunction within the family unit.

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35. When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint?

Explanation

When reviewing the patient record, recent or current medication usage can contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint. This is because certain medications can cause side effects or symptoms that may be similar to the patient's complaint, making it difficult to differentiate between the actual complaint and the medication's effects. Additionally, some medications may alleviate or suppress the symptoms, masking the true nature of the complaint. Therefore, understanding the patient's medication history is crucial in accurately assessing and diagnosing their present complaint.

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36. What drug is most often used by people who successfully complete suicide?

Explanation

Seconal is the correct answer because it is a barbiturate drug that is commonly used for suicide attempts. It is a powerful sedative-hypnotic that can cause respiratory depression and ultimately lead to death when taken in large doses. Due to its potency and availability, Seconal has been frequently used by individuals who successfully complete suicide. Amytal, nesbutal, and luminal are also barbiturate drugs but are not as commonly associated with suicide attempts as Seconal.

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37. Which disorder is characterized by the persistent ingestion of non-nutritional substances after the age of 18 months?

Explanation

Pica is a disorder characterized by the persistent ingestion of non-nutritional substances after the age of 18 months. This disorder involves the consumption of items such as dirt, hair, paper, or even paint chips. It is typically diagnosed when this behavior occurs for at least one month and is not developmentally appropriate. Pica can be caused by various factors, including nutrient deficiencies, developmental disorders, or even psychological issues. Treatment for pica may involve addressing any underlying medical or psychological conditions, as well as providing appropriate nutrition and behavioral interventions.

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38. Which term describes a period of amnesia where the patient appears to be conscious and makes rational decisions but has no memory of the period on recovery?

Explanation

A fugue is a dissociative disorder characterized by a period of amnesia where the individual appears to be conscious and makes rational decisions but has no memory of the period on recovery. During a fugue state, the person may travel or wander aimlessly, assuming a new identity and leaving behind their previous life and responsibilities. This temporary memory loss is a key characteristic of a fugue state.

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39. Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP?

Explanation

Child placement services is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP. The three primary areas of the FAP are prevention services, maltreatment intervention, and special needs identification and assignment coordination process. Child placement services, although important, is not listed as one of the primary areas.

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40. Which of the following is not an example of effective communication?

Explanation

Being sympathetic is not an example of effective communication because sympathy alone does not necessarily involve clear and effective expression of thoughts, ideas, or information. Effective communication involves actively listening, conveying messages clearly, and ensuring understanding between the sender and receiver. While sympathy can be a valuable emotional response, it does not inherently guarantee effective communication.

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41. Which ethnic group is more likely to use preventive care if it uses culturally appropriate methods, such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach?

Explanation

African-Americans are more likely to use preventive care if it is provided through culturally appropriate methods such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach. This may be because these methods are more relatable and accessible to African-Americans, as they involve individuals from their own community who understand their cultural background and can effectively communicate the importance of preventive care. By utilizing these culturally appropriate methods, African-Americans are more likely to engage with and prioritize their preventive healthcare needs.

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42. In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common?

Explanation

Alaska Native women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices because of cultural values and beliefs. In many Alaska Native communities, women are expected to prioritize the well-being of their families and may put their own health needs on the backburner. Additionally, traditional healing practices, which often involve natural remedies and spiritual rituals, are deeply rooted in Alaska Native culture and are commonly used for various health issues. This reliance on traditional healing methods may lead to a neglect of modern healthcare practices and preventive measures.

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43. Which briefing encourages leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explains the referral and treatment process?

Explanation

A key personnel briefing is likely to encourage leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explain the referral and treatment process. Key personnel briefings are typically conducted for individuals in leadership positions, who are responsible for making important decisions and taking appropriate actions. Substance abuse can have serious consequences on an individual's health and performance, as well as the overall functioning of an organization. Therefore, it is crucial for leaders to be aware of the signs of substance abuse, intervene early, and guide the individual towards the necessary treatment and support.

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44. The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in what section of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record?

Explanation

The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in section b of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record.

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45. Which legal liability is considered non-punitive?

Explanation

Administrative legal liability is considered non-punitive because it typically involves the enforcement of regulations, rules, and procedures within an organization or government agency. It focuses on ensuring compliance and correcting any violations rather than punishing individuals. This type of liability often involves fines, penalties, or corrective actions to rectify the non-compliance or misconduct, rather than seeking criminal or civil punishment.

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46. During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his or her primary problem and tentatively begin goal setting

Explanation

During the stage of in-depth exploration, the patient will delve deeper into their primary problem, seeking a better understanding and exploring various aspects related to it. This stage involves thorough examination and analysis to gain insight and clarity. It allows the patient to explore their thoughts, emotions, and experiences in a more comprehensive manner. It is during this stage that the patient may start setting goals for their treatment or therapy, as they begin to identify areas they want to work on and improve.

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47. When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned into

Explanation

When a patient is admitted to an MTF (Military Treatment Facility), items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the security forces. This is done to ensure the safety and well-being of both the patient and the staff at the facility. The security forces are responsible for maintaining a secure environment and preventing any potential harm or danger.

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48. Which V code is used when the focus of attention or treatment is on rivalry between brothers and sisters to such a degree it disrupts normal family functioning?

Explanation

The correct answer is "sibling relational problems". This V code is used when the rivalry between brothers and sisters is so intense that it disrupts normal family functioning. It indicates that the focus of attention or treatment is on addressing and resolving the issues arising from the problematic relationship between siblings.

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49. Which parasomnia was previously referred to as dream anxiety disorder?

Explanation

Nightmare disorder was previously referred to as dream anxiety disorder. This disorder is characterized by recurrent nightmares that cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning. People with nightmare disorder often experience intense fear, anxiety, or terror during their dreams, leading to difficulty falling back asleep and fear of going to sleep. This can result in disrupted sleep patterns and daytime fatigue. Therefore, nightmare disorder is the correct answer for the given question.

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50. Within how many days of assuming command do commanders and first sergeants receive family advocacy program (FAP) orientation?

Explanation

Commanders and first sergeants receive family advocacy program (FAP) orientation within 60 days of assuming command. This orientation is important to familiarize them with the program's policies, procedures, and resources available to support military families. It ensures that they are equipped to address any family-related issues that may arise within their units and provide appropriate assistance and guidance to their personnel.

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51. What is step one of the pre-exposure preparation training?

Explanation

The first step of the pre-exposure preparation training is acknowledging stress. This means recognizing and accepting the presence of stress in order to effectively address and manage it. By acknowledging stress, individuals can better understand its impact on their well-being and take appropriate steps to cope with it. This step is crucial as it lays the foundation for developing effective stress management strategies and promoting overall mental health.

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52. A disorder where individuals repeatedly pull out their hair is called

Explanation

Trichotillomania is a disorder characterized by the repetitive pulling out of one's own hair, resulting in noticeable hair loss. This behavior is often done as a way to relieve tension or stress, and individuals with trichotillomania may experience a sense of pleasure or gratification from pulling out their hair. Intermittent explosive disorder refers to recurrent episodes of impulsive and aggressive behavior, while impulse-control disorder is a general term for disorders involving difficulty controlling one's impulses. Kleptomania, on the other hand, is a disorder characterized by the inability to resist the urge to steal items.

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53. What is defined as a feeling of strong apprehension or uneasiness, while the source is large unknown or unrecognized by the individual?

Explanation

Anxiety is defined as a feeling of strong apprehension or uneasiness. It is characterized by a sense of worry or fear, often without a clear or identifiable source. This feeling can be overwhelming and can cause physical symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. It is different from mania, depression, and abnormal behavior as these terms refer to different mental health conditions or behaviors.

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54. Substance dependence is defined as a cluster of criteria occurring any time in what period of time?

Explanation

Substance dependence is defined as a cluster of criteria occurring any time in a 12-month period. This means that for a diagnosis of substance dependence, an individual must experience a set of symptoms related to substance use disorder within a continuous 12-month period. These symptoms may include tolerance, withdrawal, unsuccessful attempts to quit, and continued use despite negative consequences. The 12-month timeframe allows for a comprehensive assessment of the individual's substance use patterns and the impact it has on their daily life.

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55. Patients with disorder symptoms lasting at least 1 month, but less than 6 months, have most likely been diagnosed with

Explanation

Patients with disorder symptoms lasting at least 1 month, but less than 6 months, are most likely diagnosed with schizophreniform. Schizophreniform is a psychiatric disorder characterized by symptoms similar to schizophrenia, such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and impaired functioning. However, the duration of symptoms is shorter than the required 6 months for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Schizoaffective disorder involves a combination of mood disorder symptoms and psychotic symptoms, while schizophrenia is diagnosed when symptoms persist for at least 6 months. Delusional disorder is characterized by non-bizarre delusions without other prominent psychotic symptoms.

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56. Which disaster period is sometimes called the recoil period?

Explanation

The immediate reaction period is sometimes called the recoil period because it refers to the time immediately following a disaster when individuals and communities experience a "recoil" or emotional and psychological impact from the event. During this period, people may feel shock, confusion, and a sense of disbelief as they try to process what has just happened. It is a crucial time for emergency response and recovery efforts to provide support and assistance to those affected by the disaster.

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57. Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients?

Explanation

The correct answer is the mental health systems act. This act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients. It aims to provide comprehensive and community-based mental health services, promote prevention and early intervention, and protect the rights and privacy of individuals receiving mental health treatment.

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58. According to the "Jullinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, in which type of projection does the user attribute unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others?

Explanation

In the "Jullinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, the user attributes unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others through the process of disowning. Disowning involves denying or rejecting certain aspects of oneself and projecting them onto others. This defense mechanism allows individuals to distance themselves from these unwanted traits or feelings by attributing them to someone else.

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59. A patient born in 1962 is considered a part of which generational group?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, a patient born in 1962 would be considered a part of the generational group known as "generation x-ers".

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60. The entire budget process for the medical treatment facility (MTF) is complied by the?

Explanation

The correct answer is Resource management office (RMO). The RMO is responsible for compiling the entire budget process for the medical treatment facility (MTF). They oversee the allocation and management of resources within the facility, including financial resources. They work closely with the cost center managers and MTF administrator to ensure that the budget is properly planned and executed. The RMO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the MTF has the necessary funds to provide quality healthcare services to its patients.

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61. According to the cannot say (?) validity scale, how many omissions in the MMPI- II will make the inventory highly suspect or even invalid?

Explanation

An MMPI- II inventory with over 30 omissions is considered highly suspect or even invalid according to the cannot say (?) validity scale. This suggests that a large number of unanswered questions may indicate that the respondent did not fully engage with the inventory or intentionally skipped items, which can compromise the accuracy and reliability of the results. Therefore, having over 30 omissions raises concerns about the validity of the inventory.

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62. Patient's responses on the BDI-II should reflect what period of time?

Explanation

The BDI-II is a widely used assessment tool for measuring the severity of depression in individuals. It asks patients to rate their experiences over a specific period of time. In this case, the correct answer is "past two weeks." This means that the patient's responses on the BDI-II should reflect their experiences and feelings over the course of the previous two weeks. This time frame allows for a more comprehensive assessment of the individual's depressive symptoms and provides a snapshot of their mental state during that period.

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63. The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all the following except

Explanation

Amphetamines are commonly used for the treatment of obesity, narcolepsy, and ADHD due to their stimulant effects on the central nervous system. However, they are not typically prescribed for depression. Depression is often treated with other medications such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or therapy. Therefore, the legal medical purpose for amphetamines does not include depression.

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64. Which organization must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF)?

Explanation

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF). The EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants to protect public health and the environment. They establish guidelines and standards for disinfectant products, including their efficacy against various pathogens. By approving disinfectants, the EPA ensures that the products used in MTFs meet the necessary requirements for effective disinfection and do not pose any harm to patients, healthcare workers, or the environment.

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65. Which type of crisis is often predicted?

Explanation

Developmental crises are often predicted because they are part of the normal life cycle and occur at predictable stages of development. These crises are expected and can be anticipated, allowing individuals to prepare and cope with the challenges that come with each stage. Situational crises, on the other hand, occur unexpectedly due to external events, transitional crises involve significant life changes, and disorganized crises are chaotic and unpredictable. Therefore, the correct answer is developmental.

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66. What group permits patients to join and finish at different times?

Explanation

Open-ended groups allow patients to join and finish at different times. Unlike close-ended groups, which have a fixed duration and require all members to start and end together, open-ended groups offer flexibility in terms of entry and exit. This allows individuals to join the group at any point and leave when they feel ready, without disrupting the group dynamics or progress. Open-ended groups are often beneficial for individuals who require ongoing support or those who may not be able to commit to a specific time frame.

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67. Which one of the 12 core functions is described as relating with in-house staff or outside professionals to assure comprehensive, quality care for the patient?

Explanation

Consultation is the correct answer because it involves the process of seeking advice or guidance from in-house staff or outside professionals to ensure comprehensive and quality care for the patient. This function helps in gathering different perspectives and expertise to make informed decisions and provide the best possible care for the patient.

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68. Understanding which of the following greatly impacts the quality of work or product which you will be evaluated by?

Explanation

The job description greatly impacts the quality of work or product that an individual will be evaluated by. It outlines the specific tasks, responsibilities, and expectations of the job, providing a clear understanding of what is required. By aligning their work with the job description, individuals can ensure that they meet the necessary criteria and deliver high-quality results. Additionally, the job description serves as a reference point for evaluations, allowing supervisors to assess performance based on the established standards and requirements.

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69. The Certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse Counselor's (CADAC) competency assessment must be performed how many times per month and documented in their training record?

Explanation

The CADAC competency assessment must be performed 2 times per month and documented in their training record. This ensures that the counselor's skills and knowledge in alcohol and drug abuse counseling are regularly evaluated and updated. By conducting the assessment twice a month, the counselor's progress and areas for improvement can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, leading to better quality care for their clients.

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70. Which somatoform  disorder is preoccupied with some imagined defect in physical appearance?

Explanation

Body dysmorphic disorder is a somatoform disorder characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in physical appearance. Individuals with this disorder are excessively concerned about their appearance and believe that they have a defect that makes them ugly or deformed, even if there is little or no evidence to support this belief. This preoccupation causes significant distress and can lead to impaired functioning in various areas of life.

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71. Which paraphilia involves the sexual fantasy or arousal by touching or rubbing against an unsuspecting or non-consenting victim?

Explanation

Frotteurism involves the sexual fantasy or arousal by touching or rubbing against an unsuspecting or non-consenting victim. This paraphilia is characterized by the individual's desire for physical contact with others without their consent, often in crowded places where they can easily brush against others. It is important to note that frotteurism is a non-consensual act and is considered a form of sexual assault.

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72. Which of the following drugs is often given to patients who are withdrawing from alcohol?

Explanation

Librium is often given to patients who are withdrawing from alcohol because it is a benzodiazepine medication that helps to alleviate the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. It works by calming the central nervous system and reducing anxiety, tremors, and seizures that can occur during alcohol withdrawal. Librium is commonly used in detoxification programs and is considered effective in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Tranxene, Valium, and Xanax are also benzodiazepines that can be used for alcohol withdrawal, but Librium is specifically known for its use in this context.

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73. Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patient's dignity?

Explanation

Respecting the patient's dignity is closely related to individual care. Individual care focuses on providing personalized and compassionate care to each patient, taking into consideration their unique needs, preferences, and values. Respecting a patient's dignity means treating them with respect, maintaining their privacy and confidentiality, involving them in decision-making, and honoring their autonomy. By providing individual care, healthcare professionals can uphold the patient's dignity and ensure that they feel valued and respected throughout their healthcare journey.

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74. It is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeyman to provide counseling for all of the following except

Explanation

Mental health journeyman are not prohibited from providing counseling for parental issues. This is because parental problems are a common area of concern for individuals seeking mental health support. However, it is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeyman to provide counseling for financial, spiritual, and legal issues. These areas require specialized knowledge and expertise that mental health journeyman may not possess.

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75. When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's

Explanation

Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. In this context, when a test does what it is designed to do, it indicates that the test is valid. Validity is an important characteristic of a test as it ensures that the test accurately measures the construct it is supposed to assess. Reliability, on the other hand, refers to the consistency of the test results, while objectivity and subjectivity pertain to the degree of bias or personal interpretation involved in the test scoring process.

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76. Studies have shown that women are typically over diagnosed with all of the following disorders except?

Explanation

Research has consistently shown that women are more likely to be diagnosed with certain mental health disorders such as anxiety, dependent personality, and borderline personality. However, studies have not found a significant gender difference in the diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Therefore, women are not typically over diagnosed with bipolar disorder compared to men.

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77. Which is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is "relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships in their lives." This is because the question is asking for the area that should not be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between the therapist and the patient. The other options, clear and informed decision-making knowledge and skill, ability to cope with adversity, both personal and environmental, and personal barriers, are all areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship.

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78. What is considered the very basic of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

Explanation

Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a theory that categorizes human needs into a hierarchical structure. At the very basic level of this hierarchy are physiological needs, which include the fundamental requirements for survival such as food, water, shelter, and sleep. These needs must be satisfied before an individual can move on to fulfilling higher-level needs. Therefore, physiological needs are considered the foundation of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

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79. In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient walked through the least anxiety-provoking events to gradually increasing levels of events through imagery?

Explanation

Desensitization proper is the stage of behavior therapy where the patient is gradually exposed to increasingly anxiety-provoking events through imagery. This technique helps the patient to confront and overcome their fears or anxieties in a controlled and systematic manner. By starting with the least anxiety-provoking events and gradually progressing to more challenging ones, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety and develop coping mechanisms. This process allows them to become desensitized to the feared stimuli and ultimately reduce their anxiety response.

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80. Which of the following is not an element of combustion?

Explanation

Ignition is not an element of combustion because it is the process or event that initiates the combustion reaction. It is the act of starting or igniting the fuel, which then reacts with oxygen in the presence of heat to sustain the combustion process. While ignition is necessary for combustion to occur, it is not an actual component or element of the combustion reaction itself.

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81. What venue is not allowed access to medical records without the patient's consent?

Explanation

Commander-directed venues do not have the authority to access medical records without the patient's consent. This means that even if there is a legitimate reason or a proper and legal need, these venues cannot access medical records without the patient's consent. This ensures that patient privacy and confidentiality are protected, and that access to medical records is only granted with the patient's permission.

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82. What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is often difficult for substance abuse/dependent individuals, or individuals with severe mental disorders?

Explanation

Individuals with substance abuse/dependence or severe mental disorders often struggle with the need for affiliation. This is because their conditions can isolate them from social connections and make it difficult for them to form and maintain relationships. They may feel stigmatized or misunderstood, leading to a sense of isolation and alienation. As a result, fulfilling their need for affiliation becomes challenging, hindering their overall well-being and recovery process.

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83. What format for reporting a psychological test session is the least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores?

Explanation

The format for reporting a psychological test session that is least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores is temporal. This is because the temporal format focuses on the sequence and timing of events, rather than the content or specific details. In a psychological test session, the provider needs to have access to all relevant information and details in order to accurately interpret the test scores. The temporal format may not provide enough specific information, making it less convenient for the provider.

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84. Which group usually is structured in nature and time-limited for a specific number of sessions, and typically has a closed membership?

Explanation

An educational group is usually structured in nature and time-limited for a specific number of sessions. It is designed to provide specific knowledge or skills to its members. Additionally, educational groups typically have a closed membership, meaning that only a certain number of individuals are allowed to participate.

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85. In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient encouraged to take control of his or her internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses?

Explanation

In relaxation training, the patient is encouraged to take control of their internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses. This stage of behavior therapy focuses on teaching the patient various relaxation techniques such as deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, and visualization, which can help them manage and reduce their anxiety symptoms. By learning and practicing these techniques, the patient gains the ability to regulate their physiological responses and achieve a state of relaxation, thereby reducing anxiety.

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86. Who is credited as being the first to work using behavioristic approach?

Explanation

Ivan Pavlov is credited as being the first to work using the behavioristic approach. His famous experiment with dogs demonstrated classical conditioning, where he conditioned the dogs to associate the sound of a bell with the arrival of food, causing them to salivate at the sound of the bell alone. This experiment laid the foundation for the behavioristic approach, which focuses on observable behavior and the effects of environmental stimuli on behavior.

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87. Which axis will not have more than one diagnosis?

Explanation

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88. When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the following areas are you trying to determine if the patient has developed tolerance?

Explanation

In exploring a patient's substance use history, determining if the patient has developed tolerance is important. Tolerance refers to the body's decreased response to a substance after repeated exposure, leading to the need for higher doses to achieve the same effect. By assessing the progression of substance use over time, healthcare professionals can identify if the patient has developed tolerance. This information is crucial for understanding the patient's level of dependence and potential risks associated with substance use.

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89. Which term is not a subtype for bipolar disorder?

Explanation

Dysthymic is not a subtype for bipolar disorder because it is actually a subtype of depression. Bipolar disorder involves episodes of both mania and depression, while dysthymic disorder is a chronic, milder form of depression that lasts for at least two years. Therefore, dysthymic is not a subtype of bipolar disorder.

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90. What common problems tend to occur the longer group continues?

Explanation

As a group continues over time, it is common for drop-outs to occur. This means that some members may choose to leave the group for various reasons. This can be due to personal conflicts, lack of interest or commitment, or other external factors. Drop-outs can disrupt the dynamics of the group and may require the remaining members to adjust and adapt to the changes.

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91. Who is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered based upon documentation in the health record?

Explanation

The Health Records committee is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered based upon documentation in the health record. This committee reviews the documentation in the health record to assess the quality of care provided by the healthcare providers. They ensure that the documentation is accurate, complete, and meets the standards set by the organization. The committee may also identify areas for improvement and provide recommendations to enhance the quality of care.

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92. What is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?

Explanation

Employing sound insight and judgement is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity. This means that the patient needs to have a clear understanding of the situation, gather relevant information, and make rational decisions based on their knowledge and experience. By using their insight and judgement, the patient can evaluate different options and choose the most suitable course of action to overcome the adversity they are facing. This requires critical thinking and the ability to analyze the situation objectively, considering all possible alternatives before making a decision.

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93. Which cognitive distortion in beat defined as extreme contradictory qualities (everything is either all good or all bad)?

Explanation

Dichotomous thinking refers to the cognitive distortion of seeing things as either all good or all bad, with no middle ground or shades of gray. This type of thinking involves extreme and contradictory qualities, where there is no room for nuance or complexity. It can lead to rigid and black-and-white thinking, which may hinder problem-solving and decision-making abilities.

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94. What must you use to measure treatment progress?

Explanation

To measure treatment progress, it is important to use exit outcomes. Exit outcomes refer to the specific goals or outcomes that a person should achieve at the end of a treatment program. These outcomes act as a benchmark to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and determine whether the desired results have been achieved. By evaluating the exit outcomes, one can determine if the treatment has been successful and make any necessary adjustments or modifications to improve the overall progress.

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95. Which Centers for Disease Control (CDC) germ-spreading preventative measure is used universally throughout the Air Force?

Explanation

Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices that are used to prevent the spread of germs and diseases in healthcare settings. These precautions are used universally throughout the Air Force to protect both healthcare providers and patients from potential infections. Standard precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials. By following these precautions, the Air Force can effectively minimize the risk of germ spreading and ensure the safety of all individuals involved in healthcare activities.

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96. During which stage of the group process should you establish the basic ground rules for participation in group?

Explanation

Establishing the basic ground rules for participation in a group should be done at the beginning stage of the group process. This is because setting clear expectations and guidelines from the start helps to create a positive and productive group dynamic. By establishing ground rules at the beginning, it ensures that all members are aware of the expectations for participation, communication, and behavior within the group. This helps to prevent misunderstandings, conflicts, and promotes a collaborative and effective group environment.

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97. Which personality disorder is characterized by frequent suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, jealousy, envy, and an excessive sense of self-importance?

Explanation

Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by frequent suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, jealousy, envy, and an excessive sense of self-importance. Individuals with this disorder often have a deep mistrust of others and may interpret innocent actions as malicious or threatening. They may also hold grudges and be reluctant to confide in others due to fear of betrayal. These traits contribute to their overall paranoid behavior and difficulty in forming and maintaining relationships.

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98. In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic condition that may affect treatment?

Explanation

The recovery environment assessment dimension focuses on identifying any chronic conditions that may affect treatment. Chronic conditions can have a significant impact on a person's ability to recover from substance abuse or addiction. By assessing the recovery environment, healthcare professionals can gain insight into the various factors that may hinder or support a person's recovery, including the presence of chronic conditions. This dimension allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the individual's environment and helps in tailoring the treatment plan accordingly.

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99. During which of Sullivan's personality developmental stages do adolescents begin to experience sexual urges?

Explanation

During early adolescence, individuals typically experience the onset of puberty, which includes the development of sexual characteristics and the emergence of sexual urges. This stage is marked by hormonal changes and the maturation of reproductive organs, leading to an increased awareness and curiosity about sexuality. It is during this time that adolescents begin to explore their own sexuality and develop a better understanding of their sexual desires and attractions.

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100. The patient is most likely to assault someone during which phase of the active phases?

Explanation

During the trigger phase of the active phases, the patient is most likely to assault someone. This suggests that there is a specific event or circumstance that serves as a trigger for the patient's aggressive behavior. It could be something that provokes anger, frustration, or a feeling of being threatened, leading to the potential for violence. Understanding and identifying these triggers can help healthcare professionals in managing and preventing aggressive incidents.

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At what age does menopause typically occur in women?
Which term is not one of the phases of a normal sexual cycle?
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based...
Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate...
Wen physically restraining a patient, who sets the rules for the...
When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be...
Which subtype of Post-Traumatic Stress disorder (PTSD) persists beyond...
It is well documented that treatment outcomes are based upon the...
What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the...
When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide...
Who is the greatest influences in our lives besides family?
Which of the following agencies did the AF join forces with to conform...
What should be the very limited in the MSE?
What approach should you use when area restriction fails?
Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly...
What kind of child neglect is characterized by failure to provide...
Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic...
Which is considered a hasty generalization?
In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic...
Which is not considered a disadvantage or a guided discussion?
What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug?
What action must occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic...
Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and...
A constitutional tort is a violation of?
What act passed by Congress in 1980 created a Mental Health Bill of...
A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the...
Who chairs the Treatment Team (TT) meetings?
According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health...
How many visit for evaluation are civilian employees authorized free...
What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are...
What is the most widely consumed drug in western society?
Which of the 12 core functions is described as the administrative and...
What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions,...
Which one of the following is not a common factor in violent families?
When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask...
What drug is most often used by people who successfully complete...
Which disorder is characterized by the persistent ingestion of...
Which term describes a period of amnesia where the patient appears to...
Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP?
Which of the following is not an example of effective communication?
Which ethnic group is more likely to use preventive care if it uses...
In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in...
Which briefing encourages leadership to seek early intervention of...
The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in what...
Which legal liability is considered non-punitive?
During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his or her...
When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace...
Which V code is used when the focus of attention or treatment is on...
Which parasomnia was previously referred to as dream anxiety disorder?
Within how many days of assuming command do commanders and first...
What is step one of the pre-exposure preparation training?
A disorder where individuals repeatedly pull out their hair is called
What is defined as a feeling of strong apprehension or uneasiness,...
Substance dependence is defined as a cluster of criteria occurring any...
Patients with disorder symptoms lasting at least 1 month, but less...
Which disaster period is sometimes called the recoil period?
Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health...
According to the "Jullinek Chart" regarding progressive...
A patient born in 1962 is considered a part of which generational...
The entire budget process for the medical treatment facility (MTF) is...
According to the cannot say (?) validity scale, how many omissions in...
Patient's responses on the BDI-II should reflect what period of...
The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all...
Which organization must approve all disinfectants used in the medical...
Which type of crisis is often predicted?
What group permits patients to join and finish at different times?
Which one of the 12 core functions is described as relating with...
Understanding which of the following greatly impacts the quality of...
The Certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse Counselor's (CADAC)...
Which somatoform  disorder is preoccupied with some imagined...
Which paraphilia involves the sexual fantasy or arousal by touching or...
Which of the following drugs is often given to patients who are...
Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the...
It is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeyman to...
When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the...
Studies have shown that women are typically over diagnosed with all of...
Which is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed...
What is considered the very basic of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient walked through the...
Which of the following is not an element of combustion?
What venue is not allowed access to medical records without the...
What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is often difficult for...
What format for reporting a psychological test session is the least...
Which group usually is structured in nature and time-limited for a...
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient encouraged to take...
Who is credited as being the first to work using behavioristic...
Which axis will not have more than one diagnosis?
When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the...
Which term is not a subtype for bipolar disorder?
What common problems tend to occur the longer group continues?
Who is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered...
What is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and...
Which cognitive distortion in beat defined as extreme contradictory...
What must you use to measure treatment progress?
Which Centers for Disease Control (CDC) germ-spreading preventative...
During which stage of the group process should you establish the basic...
Which personality disorder is characterized by frequent...
In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic condition...
During which of Sullivan's personality developmental stages do...
The patient is most likely to assault someone during which phase of...
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