Pre-test CDC 4c051 #2 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words?

    • Clarification
    • Paraphrase
    • Reflection
    • Transition
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Pre-test CDC 4c051 #2 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes) - Quiz
About This Quiz

This comprehensive 100-question quiz, titled 'Pre-Test CDC 4C051 #2', assesses crucial clinical skills across four volumes. It evaluates competencies in interview techniques, understanding patient history, and medication impacts, focusing on skills like counter-transference, paraphrasing, and patient evaluation in mental health settings.

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  • 2. 

    What should be the very limited in the MSE?

    • Documentation

    • Subjectivity

    • Objectivity

    • Wordiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Subjectivity
    Explanation
    The very limited in the MSE should be subjectivity because MSE stands for Mean Squared Error, which is a metric used to measure the average squared difference between predicted and actual values in statistical analysis. Subjectivity refers to the inclusion of personal opinions or biases, which can introduce variability and inconsistency in the analysis. Therefore, to ensure accurate and reliable results, subjectivity should be minimized or limited in the MSE.

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  • 3. 

    Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range or emotions?.

    • Inappropriate

    • Blunted

    • Liable

    • Flat

    Correct Answer
    A. Blunted
    Explanation
    Blunted affect refers to a patient who is grossly diminished in their range of emotions. This means that they display a limited or muted emotional response, often appearing uninterested or detached. They may have difficulty expressing or experiencing a wide range of emotions, leading to a flattened or dull affect. This can be seen in conditions such as depression or schizophrenia, where individuals may have difficulty experiencing pleasure or expressing their emotions.

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  • 4. 

    When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed?

    • 24 hours

    • 72 hours

    • One week

    • Immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately
    Explanation
    Acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal should be addressed immediately. This is because these conditions can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can lead to further complications and potential harm to the individual. Therefore, it is crucial to address acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms as soon as they are identified to ensure the safety and well-being of the person affected.

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  • 5. 

    In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient?

    • Evaluation for depression with credentialed staff and available appointment

    • Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments

    • Evaluation for security clearance with credentialed staff and available appointments

    • Evaluation of dependent spouse with credentialed staff and limited appointment availability

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments
    Explanation
    It would be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient in the example of evaluating a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointments. This is because it is crucial to have qualified and trained professionals conducting evaluations and providing therapy to ensure the safety and well-being of the child. Without credentialed staff, there may be a lack of expertise and knowledge in dealing with the specific needs and issues of the child. Additionally, the unavailability of appointments suggests a lack of proper scheduling and organization, which can negatively impact the quality of care provided.

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  • 6. 

    The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except

    • Patient's values

    • Patient's beliefs

    • Provider's values

    • Provider's clinical knowledge

    Correct Answer
    A. Provider's values
    Explanation
    The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on several factors, including the patient's values, beliefs, and the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's personal values should not influence the decision-making process. It is important for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient's best interests and respect their autonomy, rather than imposing their own values onto the treatment plan. Therefore, provider's values are not considered when obtaining consent for treatment and making participative decisions.

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  • 7. 

    Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient?

    • Patient

    • Technician

    • Licensed Provider

    • Noncommissioned officer in charge

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician
    Explanation
    If a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient, the technician is held accountable. This implies that the technician is responsible for ensuring that the journeyman follows professional conduct and does not engage in any unethical or inappropriate behavior with patients. The technician may be responsible for supervising and monitoring the journeyman's actions, and if any misconduct occurs, they will be held accountable for not preventing or addressing the situation appropriately.

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  • 8. 

    What approach should you use when area restriction fails?

    • Talk to patient

    • Room restriction

    • Manual restraints

    • Mechanical restraints

    Correct Answer
    A. Room restriction
    Explanation
    When area restriction fails, the appropriate approach to use is room restriction. This means that instead of limiting the patient's movement to a specific area, they are confined to a specific room. This can be done for various reasons, such as ensuring the safety of the patient and others, preventing self-harm or harm to others, or managing disruptive behavior. Room restriction provides a more controlled environment and allows for closer monitoring of the patient's actions and well-being.

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  • 9. 

    Wen physically restraining a patient, who sets the rules for the takedown?

    • Highest ranking

    • Team leader

    • Provider

    • Nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. Team leader
    Explanation
    When physically restraining a patient, the team leader is the one who sets the rules for the takedown. The team leader is responsible for coordinating and organizing the team's actions during the restraint process. They have the authority and expertise to determine the most appropriate approach and techniques to safely restrain the patient. The team leader's role is crucial in ensuring the safety of both the patient and the healthcare providers involved in the restraint.

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  • 10. 

    Which is considered a hasty generalization?

    • Second-hand information

    • Out-dated information

    • Unjustified inferences

    • Vividness

    Correct Answer
    A. Unjustified inferences
    Explanation
    A hasty generalization refers to making a broad conclusion based on insufficient evidence or a small sample size. Unjustified inferences fit this description as they involve drawing conclusions without proper supporting evidence. This can lead to inaccurate or unfair generalizations about a larger group or situation. Second-hand information and out-dated information may not be reliable, but they do not necessarily involve making broad generalizations. Vividness, on the other hand, refers to the level of detail or intensity of an experience and is not directly related to hasty generalizations.

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  • 11. 

    Which subtype of Post-Traumatic Stress disorder (PTSD) persists beyond 3 months?

    • Acute

    • Initial

    • Chronic

    • With delayed onset

    Correct Answer
    A. Chronic
    Explanation
    Chronic PTSD is the subtype of PTSD that persists beyond 3 months. This subtype is characterized by symptoms that last for an extended period of time, typically longer than 3 months, and can significantly impair a person's daily functioning and quality of life. It is important to differentiate chronic PTSD from acute PTSD, which refers to symptoms that last for less than 3 months, and other subtypes such as initial PTSD, which refers to symptoms that occur immediately after a traumatic event, and PTSD with delayed onset, which refers to symptoms that develop at least 6 months after a traumatic event.

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  • 12. 

    It is well documented that treatment outcomes are based upon the patient's

    • Motivation

    • Judgement

    • Support

    • Insight

    Correct Answer
    A. Motivation
    Explanation
    Motivation is a crucial factor in determining treatment outcomes. It refers to the patient's willingness and drive to actively participate in their treatment and make necessary changes. A motivated patient is more likely to adhere to treatment plans, engage in therapy, and follow through with lifestyle modifications. This can greatly impact the effectiveness of interventions and ultimately lead to better outcomes. Therefore, motivation plays a significant role in the success of any treatment approach.

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  • 13. 

    When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide the overview?

    • Bullet

    • Narrative

    • Subjective

    • Subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP)
    Explanation
    When presenting a case for staffing, the overview is provided in the format of a subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP). This format includes subjective information, such as the patient's symptoms and complaints, as well as objective data, such as test results and observations. The SOAP format is commonly used in medical and healthcare settings to organize and present patient information in a concise and structured manner. It allows for a comprehensive overview of the case, including both subjective and objective aspects, which can aid in decision-making and communication among healthcare professionals.

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  • 14. 

    Who is the greatest influences in our lives besides family?

    • Peers

    • Clergy

    • Supervisors

    • Commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Peers
    Explanation
    Peers are the individuals who have a significant impact on our lives besides family. They are our friends, colleagues, and acquaintances who influence our thoughts, behaviors, and decisions. Our peers shape our social interactions, provide emotional support, and contribute to our personal growth. They can influence our beliefs, values, and lifestyle choices, making them a powerful force in shaping our identity and experiences.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following agencies did the AF join forces with to conform to the DOD directive to establish standardized criteria for section of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors?

    • International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and other drugs of abuse (ICRC/AODA)

    • Air Force Substance Abuse Counselor Certification Board (AF SACCB)

    • Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT)

    • Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)

    Correct Answer
    A. International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and other drugs of abuse (ICRC/AODA)
    Explanation
    The AF joined forces with the International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and other drugs of abuse (ICRC/AODA) to establish standardized criteria for the selection of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors.

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  • 16. 

    At what age does menopause typically occur in women?

    • 40

    • 50

    • 60

    • 65

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Menopause typically occurs in women around the age of 50. During menopause, a woman's menstrual cycle stops, and she can no longer conceive a child. This is a natural process that marks the end of a woman's reproductive years. While the age of menopause can vary, the average age is around 50.

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  • 17. 

    Which term is not one of the phases of a normal sexual cycle?

    • Excitement

    • Resolution

    • Foreplay

    • Orgasm

    Correct Answer
    A. Foreplay
    Explanation
    Foreplay is not one of the phases of a normal sexual cycle. The sexual cycle typically consists of four phases: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Foreplay refers to the sexual activities that occur before intercourse, such as kissing, touching, and oral sex. While foreplay is an important part of sexual activity, it is not considered a distinct phase within the sexual cycle.

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  • 18. 

    What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient?

    • Transference

    • Self-awareness

    • Verbal following

    • Counter-transference

    Correct Answer
    A. Counter-transference
    Explanation
    Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects their own emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's unresolved issues or personal biases influence their perception and response to the patient. It is important for the interviewer to be aware of their counter-transference in order to maintain objectivity and provide effective therapy.

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  • 19. 

    A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the commander-directed individual's

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • Family

    • Peers

    Correct Answer
    A. Family
    Explanation
    A CDE (Commander-Directed Engagement) is a communication tool that allows individuals to contact various parties within a command structure. In this case, the correct answer is "family" because contacting the family of a commander-directed individual is not a function of a CDE. The purpose of a CDE is to facilitate communication with the commander, supervisor, and peers, but it does not extend to contacting the family members of the individual in question.

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  • 20. 

    Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic inspiration to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence?

    • Collaboration

    • Autonomy

    • Evocation

    • Motivational interviewing

    Correct Answer
    A. Motivational interviewing
    Explanation
    Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence. It involves a collaborative and empathetic approach where the healthcare professional guides the patient in exploring their own motivations and goals, while also addressing any ambivalence or resistance they may have towards change. This approach aims to evoke the patient's own motivations for change and help them build confidence in their ability to make positive changes in their life.

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  • 21. 

    What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug?

    • MDMA

    • GHB

    • DXM

    • Ketamine

    Correct Answer
    A. GHB
    Explanation
    GHB is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug because it is commonly used in cases of drug-facilitated sexual assault. It is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, dizziness, and memory loss. GHB is odorless, colorless, and tasteless, making it easy to slip into someone's drink without their knowledge. It can render the victim incapacitated and unable to give consent or defend themselves, hence the association with date rape.

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  • 22. 

    What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar?

    • Thought content

    • Thought process

    • Intelligence

    • Insight

    Correct Answer
    A. Thought content
    Explanation
    Thought content refers to the examination of a patient's thoughts to determine if they are considered odd or peculiar. This area of the MSE involves evaluating the specific content of the patient's thoughts, such as delusions or unusual beliefs. It helps clinicians assess the patient's mental state and identify any abnormal or irrational thinking patterns. Thought process, on the other hand, refers to the flow and organization of thoughts, while intelligence and insight are separate aspects of the mental examination.

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  • 23. 

    A constitutional tort is a violation of?

    • A spouse's civil rights by her husband

    • A patient's civil rights by a civilian provider

    • An employee's civil rights by his or her employer

    • A patient's civil rights by a government employee

    Correct Answer
    A. A patient's civil rights by a government employee
    Explanation
    A constitutional tort refers to a violation of a patient's civil rights by a government employee. This means that a government employee, while acting in their official capacity, has infringed upon the constitutional rights of a patient. This could include actions such as unlawful search and seizure, denial of medical treatment, or any other violation of the patient's rights as guaranteed by the Constitution. It is important to note that constitutional torts involve actions by government employees specifically, and not by individuals in other capacities such as spouses, civilian providers, or employers.

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  • 24. 

    What act passed by Congress in 1980 created a Mental Health Bill of Rights?

    • Mental Health Systems Act

    • Mental Health Privacy Act

    • Mental Health Services Act

    • Mental Health Confidentiality Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental Health Systems Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress in 1980, created a Mental Health Bill of Rights. The act aimed to improve mental health services and provide better rights and protections for individuals with mental illness. It focused on community-based care, prevention, and treatment programs, as well as ensuring the rights and privacy of individuals receiving mental health services.

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  • 25. 

    According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of all of the following except?

    • Redress

    • Reprisal

    • Coercion

    • Discrimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Redress
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of reprisal, coercion, or discrimination. "Redress" refers to seeking a remedy or resolution for a grievance, so it is not an exception to the right of requesting assistance without fear. Therefore, the correct answer is redress.

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  • 26. 

    Which is not considered a disadvantage or a guided discussion?

    • It is time-consuming

    • It is limited by class size

    • It allows for student participation

    • It is limited to class knowledge and experience

    Correct Answer
    A. It allows for student participation
    Explanation
    A guided discussion is a teaching method that encourages active participation from students. It allows students to share their thoughts, ask questions, and engage in meaningful conversations with their peers. This promotes critical thinking, collaboration, and the development of communication skills. Therefore, allowing for student participation is not considered a disadvantage of guided discussions.

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  • 27. 

    What action must occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship?

    • Create clear boundaries

    • Improve social functioning

    • Implement adaptive defenses

    • Recognize failure to terminate treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Create clear boundaries
    Explanation
    Creating clear boundaries is necessary to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship. By establishing clear boundaries, both the therapist and the client understand the limits of their professional relationship. This helps to maintain a professional and therapeutic environment, preventing any potential for inappropriate contact or the blurring of personal and professional boundaries. Clear boundaries also ensure that the focus remains on the client's treatment goals and needs, promoting a safe and effective therapeutic process.

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  • 28. 

    Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and often disclose his or her feelings regarding morality, responsibility, and accountability?

    • Reality therapy

    • Gestalt therapy

    • Behavior therapy

    • Transactional analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Reality therapy
    Explanation
    Reality therapy is a therapeutic approach that emphasizes personal responsibility and accountability. It encourages the therapist to take a stand and disclose their feelings regarding morality, responsibility, and accountability. This approach aims to help individuals focus on the present and make choices that lead to positive change. By actively engaging with clients and providing guidance, reality therapy promotes self-awareness, personal growth, and improved decision-making skills.

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  • 29. 

    Who chairs the Treatment Team (TT) meetings?

    • Alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM)

    • Certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC)

    • Patient's commander

    • Flight surgeon

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM)
    Explanation
    The alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM) chairs the Treatment Team (TT) meetings. This individual is responsible for overseeing the program and ensuring that all aspects of treatment and prevention are being addressed. They have the authority and knowledge to lead the meetings and make decisions regarding the patient's treatment plan. The ADAPTPM is a key figure in the treatment team and plays a crucial role in coordinating and facilitating the patient's care.

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  • 30. 

    How many visit for evaluation are civilian employees authorized free of charge at the base substance abuse clinic?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    Civilian employees are authorized one free visit for evaluation at the base substance abuse clinic. This means that they can have one appointment without any cost to assess their substance abuse issues.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the 12 core functions is described as the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program?

    • Screening

    • Intake

    • Orientation

    • Reports and record keeping

    Correct Answer
    A. Intake
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "intake." Intake is the core function that involves the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program. This includes gathering information from the client, conducting assessments, and determining the appropriate level of care. Intake is the first step in the treatment process and sets the foundation for the client's journey in the program.

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  • 32. 

    What is the most widely consumed drug in western society?

    • Caffeine

    • Nicotine

    • Alcohol

    • Opioids

    Correct Answer
    A. Caffeine
    Explanation
    Caffeine is the most widely consumed drug in western society because it is found in various beverages like coffee, tea, and energy drinks, as well as in some foods and medications. It is a stimulant that affects the central nervous system, providing a temporary boost in energy and alertness. Many people rely on caffeine to help them stay awake and focused throughout the day, making it a popular and widely consumed substance.

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  • 33. 

    What kind of child neglect is characterized by failure to provide appropriate nourishment, shelter, and clothing?

    • Deprivation of necessities

    • Lack of supervision

    • Medical neglect

    • Abandonment

    Correct Answer
    A. Deprivation of necessities
    Explanation
    Deprivation of necessities refers to a type of child neglect where the caregiver fails to provide the child with appropriate nourishment, shelter, and clothing. This means that the child is not receiving the basic essential needs required for their well-being and development. It is a form of neglect that can have serious consequences on the child's physical and emotional health.

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  • 34. 

    Which one of the following is not a common factor in violent families?

    • Social isolation

    • Socially impoverished

    • Alcohol and drug use

    • Multigenerational transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Socially impoverished
    Explanation
    The correct answer is socially impoverished. Socially impoverished refers to a lack of social resources, such as financial stability or access to support networks, which can contribute to family stress and conflict. However, it is not specifically identified as a common factor in violent families. On the other hand, social isolation, alcohol and drug use, and multigenerational transmission have been identified as common factors in violent families, as they can contribute to a cycle of violence and dysfunction within the family unit.

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  • 35. 

    When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint?

    • Recent or current medication usage

    • Previous psychiatric treatment

    • Information that has been removed by the patient

    • Emergency room visits

    Correct Answer
    A. Recent or current medication usage
    Explanation
    When reviewing the patient record, recent or current medication usage can contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint. This is because certain medications can cause side effects or symptoms that may be similar to the patient's complaint, making it difficult to differentiate between the actual complaint and the medication's effects. Additionally, some medications may alleviate or suppress the symptoms, masking the true nature of the complaint. Therefore, understanding the patient's medication history is crucial in accurately assessing and diagnosing their present complaint.

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  • 36. 

    Which disorder is characterized by the persistent ingestion of non-nutritional substances after the age of 18 months?

    • Rumination

    • Encorpresis

    • Enuresis

    • Pica

    Correct Answer
    A. Pica
    Explanation
    Pica is a disorder characterized by the persistent ingestion of non-nutritional substances after the age of 18 months. This disorder involves the consumption of items such as dirt, hair, paper, or even paint chips. It is typically diagnosed when this behavior occurs for at least one month and is not developmentally appropriate. Pica can be caused by various factors, including nutrient deficiencies, developmental disorders, or even psychological issues. Treatment for pica may involve addressing any underlying medical or psychological conditions, as well as providing appropriate nutrition and behavioral interventions.

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  • 37. 

    Which term describes a period of amnesia where the patient appears to be conscious and makes rational decisions but has no memory of the period on recovery?

    • Ego-dystoric

    • Dissociative

    • Fugue

    • Ictus

    Correct Answer
    A. Fugue
    Explanation
    A fugue is a dissociative disorder characterized by a period of amnesia where the individual appears to be conscious and makes rational decisions but has no memory of the period on recovery. During a fugue state, the person may travel or wander aimlessly, assuming a new identity and leaving behind their previous life and responsibilities. This temporary memory loss is a key characteristic of a fugue state.

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  • 38. 

    What drug is most often used by people who successfully complete suicide?

    • Seconal

    • Amytal

    • Nesbutal

    • Luminal

    Correct Answer
    A. Seconal
    Explanation
    Seconal is the correct answer because it is a barbiturate drug that is commonly used for suicide attempts. It is a powerful sedative-hypnotic that can cause respiratory depression and ultimately lead to death when taken in large doses. Due to its potency and availability, Seconal has been frequently used by individuals who successfully complete suicide. Amytal, nesbutal, and luminal are also barbiturate drugs but are not as commonly associated with suicide attempts as Seconal.

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  • 39. 

    When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned into

    • Security forces

    • Inpatient unit NCOIC

    • A & D office

    • MTF commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces
    Explanation
    When a patient is admitted to an MTF (Military Treatment Facility), items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the security forces. This is done to ensure the safety and well-being of both the patient and the staff at the facility. The security forces are responsible for maintaining a secure environment and preventing any potential harm or danger.

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  • 40. 

    Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP?

    • Prevention services

    • Child placement services

    • Maltreatment intervention

    • Special needs identification and assignment coordination process

    Correct Answer
    A. Child placement services
    Explanation
    Child placement services is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP. The three primary areas of the FAP are prevention services, maltreatment intervention, and special needs identification and assignment coordination process. Child placement services, although important, is not listed as one of the primary areas.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is not an example of effective communication?

    • Being conscious of nonverbal signs

    • Looking people in their eyes

    • Being sympathetic

    • Being empathetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Being sympathetic
    Explanation
    Being sympathetic is not an example of effective communication because sympathy alone does not necessarily involve clear and effective expression of thoughts, ideas, or information. Effective communication involves actively listening, conveying messages clearly, and ensuring understanding between the sender and receiver. While sympathy can be a valuable emotional response, it does not inherently guarantee effective communication.

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  • 42. 

    Which legal liability is considered non-punitive?

    • Administrative

    • Criminal

    • Civil tort

    • General

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative
    Explanation
    Administrative legal liability is considered non-punitive because it typically involves the enforcement of regulations, rules, and procedures within an organization or government agency. It focuses on ensuring compliance and correcting any violations rather than punishing individuals. This type of liability often involves fines, penalties, or corrective actions to rectify the non-compliance or misconduct, rather than seeking criminal or civil punishment.

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  • 43. 

    Which ethnic group is more likely to use preventive care if it uses culturally appropriate methods, such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach?

    • Puerto Rican

    • Cuban American

    • African-American

    • Mexican-American

    Correct Answer
    A. African-American
    Explanation
    African-Americans are more likely to use preventive care if it is provided through culturally appropriate methods such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach. This may be because these methods are more relatable and accessible to African-Americans, as they involve individuals from their own community who understand their cultural background and can effectively communicate the importance of preventive care. By utilizing these culturally appropriate methods, African-Americans are more likely to engage with and prioritize their preventive healthcare needs.

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  • 44. 

    In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common?

    • American Samoan

    • Cuban American

    • American Indian

    • Alaska Native

    Correct Answer
    A. Alaska Native
    Explanation
    Alaska Native women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices because of cultural values and beliefs. In many Alaska Native communities, women are expected to prioritize the well-being of their families and may put their own health needs on the backburner. Additionally, traditional healing practices, which often involve natural remedies and spiritual rituals, are deeply rooted in Alaska Native culture and are commonly used for various health issues. This reliance on traditional healing methods may lead to a neglect of modern healthcare practices and preventive measures.

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  • 45. 

    Which briefing encourages leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explains the referral and treatment process?

    • Stress management

    • Key personnel briefing

    • Newcomers orientation

    • Substance abuse awareness seminar

    Correct Answer
    A. Key personnel briefing
    Explanation
    A key personnel briefing is likely to encourage leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explain the referral and treatment process. Key personnel briefings are typically conducted for individuals in leadership positions, who are responsible for making important decisions and taking appropriate actions. Substance abuse can have serious consequences on an individual's health and performance, as well as the overall functioning of an organization. Therefore, it is crucial for leaders to be aware of the signs of substance abuse, intervene early, and guide the individual towards the necessary treatment and support.

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  • 46. 

    The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in what section of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record?

    • Section a

    • Section b

    • Section d

    • Section f

    Correct Answer
    A. Section b
    Explanation
    The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in section b of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record.

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  • 47. 

    During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his or her primary problem and tentatively begin goal setting

    • Initial disclosure

    • Termination of care

    • In-depth exploration

    • Commitment to action

    Correct Answer
    A. In-depth exploration
    Explanation
    During the stage of in-depth exploration, the patient will delve deeper into their primary problem, seeking a better understanding and exploring various aspects related to it. This stage involves thorough examination and analysis to gain insight and clarity. It allows the patient to explore their thoughts, emotions, and experiences in a more comprehensive manner. It is during this stage that the patient may start setting goals for their treatment or therapy, as they begin to identify areas they want to work on and improve.

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  • 48. 

    What is defined as a feeling of strong apprehension or uneasiness, while the source is large unknown or unrecognized by the individual?

    • Mania

    • Anxiety

    • Depression

    • Abnormal behavior

    Correct Answer
    A. Anxiety
    Explanation
    Anxiety is defined as a feeling of strong apprehension or uneasiness. It is characterized by a sense of worry or fear, often without a clear or identifiable source. This feeling can be overwhelming and can cause physical symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. It is different from mania, depression, and abnormal behavior as these terms refer to different mental health conditions or behaviors.

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  • 49. 

    Substance dependence is defined as a cluster of criteria occurring any time in what period of time?

    • 3 months

    • 6 months

    • 9 months

    • 12 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 months
    Explanation
    Substance dependence is defined as a cluster of criteria occurring any time in a 12-month period. This means that for a diagnosis of substance dependence, an individual must experience a set of symptoms related to substance use disorder within a continuous 12-month period. These symptoms may include tolerance, withdrawal, unsuccessful attempts to quit, and continued use despite negative consequences. The 12-month timeframe allows for a comprehensive assessment of the individual's substance use patterns and the impact it has on their daily life.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 14, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 20, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Enmcdowell
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