4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 3

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Anthrax is an example of which biohazardous agent?

    • A.

      Fungi.

    • B.

      Prions.

    • C.

      Bacteria.

    • D.

      Arboviruses.

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacteria.
    Explanation
    Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, making it an example of a biohazardous agent that is classified as bacteria.

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  • 2. 

    A period that can last for days, weeks, or months, when a biological threat can be transmitted from person to person is known as

    • A.

      Resistance.

    • B.

      Contagiousness.

    • C.

      Incubation period.

    • D.

      Communicability period.

    Correct Answer
    D. Communicability period.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is communicability period. This refers to a specific time frame during which a biological threat, such as a contagious disease, can be transmitted from one person to another. This period can last for days, weeks, or even months, depending on the specific threat. It is important to understand the communicability period in order to implement appropriate measures to prevent the spread of the threat during this time.

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  • 3. 

     Which microorganism is totally dependent on its hosts for replication?

    • A.

      Virus.

    • B.

      Bacteria.

    • C.

      Eukaryotes.

    • D.

      Prokaryotes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus.
    Explanation
    Viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they cannot replicate or carry out metabolic functions without a host cell. They depend on the host's cellular machinery to replicate their genetic material and produce new virus particles. Unlike bacteria, eukaryotes, and prokaryotes, viruses lack the necessary cellular components to carry out replication independently. Therefore, viruses are entirely reliant on their hosts for replication.

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  • 4. 

     Which is an inefficient delivery system for biological warfare agents?

    • A.

      Boats.

    • B.

      Aircraft.

    • C.

      Truck equipped with sprayers.

    • D.

      Conventional explosive munitions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conventional explosive munitions.
    Explanation
    Conventional explosive munitions are an inefficient delivery system for biological warfare agents because they lack the precision and control required to effectively disperse the agents. These munitions are designed for explosive impact rather than dispersal, making them less suitable for delivering biological agents in a targeted and controlled manner. Boats, aircraft, and trucks equipped with sprayers are all more efficient delivery systems as they allow for better dispersion and control of the agents.

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  • 5. 

    Which type of control typically attacks the chain of infection at the means of transmission or susceptible host?

    • A.

      Engineering.

    • B.

      Administrative.

    • C.

      Shelter in place.

    • D.

      Collective protection.

    Correct Answer
    B. Administrative.
    Explanation
    Administrative controls typically focus on reducing or eliminating the risk of infection by implementing policies, procedures, and protocols. These controls aim to modify behavior and practices to prevent the transmission of pathogens. By implementing administrative controls, such as proper hand hygiene protocols, isolation procedures, and training on infection prevention, the chain of infection can be disrupted at the means of transmission or susceptible host. These controls are often used in healthcare settings and other high-risk environments to minimize the risk of infection.

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  • 6. 

     In a biologically contaminated environment, which biological health threat control would enable personnel to work or gain rest and relief without wearing individual protective equipment?

    • A.

      Administrative.

    • B.

      Shelter-in-place.

    • C.

      Collective protective system.

    • D.

      Ventilated biological cabinets.

    Correct Answer
    C. Collective protective system.
    Explanation
    A collective protective system is designed to create a safe and controlled environment in a biologically contaminated area. It includes measures such as air filtration, pressurization, and decontamination systems to ensure that the space is free from biological hazards. With a collective protective system in place, personnel can work or take breaks without the need for individual protective equipment, as the system provides a barrier against the biological health threats.

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  • 7. 

    What is the goal of biological control measures?

    • A.

      Change personnel behaviors.

    • B.

      Break the chain of infection.

    • C.

      Eliminate the chain of infection.

    • D.

      Implement the use of personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. Break the chain of infection.
    Explanation
    The goal of biological control measures is to break the chain of infection. This means that the measures aim to interrupt the transmission of infectious diseases by targeting the various links in the chain, such as the infectious agent, reservoir, mode of transmission, and susceptible host. By breaking the chain of infection, the spread of the disease can be prevented or minimized. This can be achieved through various strategies, such as vaccination, quarantine, vector control, and hygiene practices.

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  • 8. 

    Which is an example of an engineering control?

    • A.

      Chemoprophylaxis.

    • B.

      Isolation/quarantine.

    • C.

      Use of standard precautions.

    • D.

      Disinfection of drinking water.

    Correct Answer
    D. Disinfection of drinking water.
    Explanation
    Disinfection of drinking water is an example of an engineering control because it involves the physical modification of the environment to prevent or control the spread of disease. By treating the water with disinfectants, such as chlorine, harmful microorganisms are killed or inactivated, reducing the risk of waterborne illnesses. This control measure is implemented at the source of the hazard, in this case, the water supply, to ensure safe and clean drinking water for the population.

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  • 9. 

    What is the gaseous form of a substance that is a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure?

    • A.

      Fume.

    • B.

      Vapor.

    • C.

      Aerosol.

    • D.

      Pure gas.

    Correct Answer
    B. Vapor.
    Explanation
    Vapor is the correct answer because it refers to the gaseous form of a substance that is typically a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure. When a substance is heated or undergoes a phase change, it can transition into a vapor state. This term is commonly used to describe the gas phase of substances such as water vapor, steam, or gasoline vapor. Fume, aerosol, and pure gas do not specifically refer to substances that are in a gaseous form due to being a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure.

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  • 10. 

    All are reasons why solubility is important in understanding the potential hazard of a solvent except that it affects the

    • A.

      Absorption of the substance into the body.

    • B.

      Storage of the substance in various tissues.

    • C.

      Target organs and the rate at which they are damaged.

    • D.

      Distribution of the substance throughout the body.

    Correct Answer
    C. Target organs and the rate at which they are damaged.
    Explanation
    Solubility is important in understanding the potential hazard of a solvent because it affects the absorption of the substance into the body, the storage of the substance in various tissues, and the distribution of the substance throughout the body. However, it does not directly affect the target organs and the rate at which they are damaged.

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  • 11. 

    If you wanted to know the signs and symptoms of exposure to a chemical product, what part of the material safety data sheet (MSDS) would you review?

    • A.

      Hazards Identification.

    • B.

      Physical and Chemical Properties.

    • C.

      Composition/Information on Ingredients.

    • D.

      Exposure Controls and Personal Protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hazards Identification.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Hazards Identification. This section of the material safety data sheet (MSDS) provides information about the potential hazards associated with the chemical product. It includes details about the signs and symptoms of exposure, such as irritation, respiratory problems, or skin reactions. Reviewing this section can help to identify the possible health effects of the chemical and ensure appropriate safety measures are taken.

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  • 12. 

    If a material safety data sheet (MSDS) is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material, who must request it?

    • A.

      Public Health.

    • B.

      Ground Safety.

    • C.

      Workplace using the product.

    • D.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    Correct Answer
    C. Workplace using the product.
    Explanation
    The workplace using the product must request the material safety data sheet (MSDS) if it is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material. The MSDS contains important information about the hazards, handling, and emergency procedures related to the material, ensuring that the workplace can safely use and handle the product. It is the responsibility of the workplace to request the MSDS to ensure compliance with safety regulations and protect the health and safety of employees.

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  • 13. 

    What document would specifically address actions that must be taken for regulated chemicals considered very hazardous?

    • A.

      Substance specific standard.

    • B.

      Hazard Communication standard.

    • C.

      Workplace hazardous chemical inventory.

    • D.

      Hazardous material vulnerability assessment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Substance specific standard.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Substance specific standard." This document specifically addresses actions that must be taken for regulated chemicals considered very hazardous. It provides detailed guidelines and requirements for handling, storing, and disposing of these substances to ensure the safety of workers and the environment. The Substance specific standard is designed to provide specific information and protocols for dealing with these highly hazardous chemicals, ensuring that proper precautions are taken to prevent accidents and minimize risks.

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  • 14. 

    In which publication will you find a majority of substance specific standards that you will deal with?

    • A.

      AFOSH Standard 91-68, Chemical Safety.

    • B.

      29 CFR 1910.1200, Hazard Communication.

    • C.

      OSHA’s Construction Standard (1926 series).

    • D.

      OSHA General Industry Standard (1910 series).

    Correct Answer
    D. OSHA General Industry Standard (1910 series).
    Explanation
    The OSHA General Industry Standard (1910 series) is the correct answer because it contains a majority of substance specific standards that one will deal with. This publication specifically addresses standards for general industry, including regulations related to hazardous substances and chemicals. It provides guidelines and requirements for the safe handling, storage, and use of substances in various industries. Therefore, it is the most relevant publication for finding substance specific standards.

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  • 15. 

    What did Congress enact in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storage and handling of toxic chemicals?

    • A.

      State Emergency Response Commission.

    • B.

      Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act.

    • C.

      Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act.

    • D.

      Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act.

    Correct Answer
    C. Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act.
    Explanation
    The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act was enacted by Congress in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storage and handling of toxic chemicals. This act aimed to improve chemical safety and emergency preparedness by requiring companies to report information about the hazardous chemicals they use and store, establishing state emergency response commissions, and providing communities with the right to access information about chemical hazards in their area.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following characteristics make toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials attractive improvised weapons except which one?

    • A.

      Very large quantities.

    • B.

      Modes of transportation.

    • C.

      Inability to safeguard against.

    • D.

      Potential to cause illness/injury.

    Correct Answer
    C. Inability to safeguard against.
    Explanation
    Toxic industrial chemicals and materials are attractive improvised weapons due to their potential to cause illness or injury, their modes of transportation, and the fact that they can be obtained in very large quantities. However, the inability to safeguard against them does not make them attractive weapons. This suggests that there are measures or precautions that can be taken to protect against their harmful effects, making them less desirable as weapons.

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  • 17. 

    If a toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials vulnerability assessment final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific US military site, it must receive what classification?

    • A.

      TOP SECRET.

    • B.

      CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET.

    • C.

      FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY.

    • D.

      UNCLASSIFIED.

    Correct Answer
    B. CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET.
    Explanation
    If a toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials vulnerability assessment final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific US military site, it must receive a classification of CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET. This is because the information regarding the vulnerability of the military site is sensitive and could potentially be used by adversaries to exploit or attack the site.

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  • 18. 

    When identifying toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials in the vicinity of an installation, you should evaluate facilities within

    • A.

      5 miles of the installation.

    • B.

      10 miles of the installation.

    • C.

      15 miles of the installation.

    • D.

      20 miles of the installation.

    Correct Answer
    D. 20 miles of the installation.
    Explanation
    When identifying toxic industrial chemicals and materials in the vicinity of an installation, it is recommended to evaluate facilities within a larger radius of 20 miles. This wider range allows for a more comprehensive assessment of potential hazards and ensures that all nearby facilities that may pose a risk are considered. Evaluating facilities within a smaller radius may result in overlooking potentially dangerous sources of toxic substances.

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  • 19. 

    What method of dermal monitoring can include collecting and analyzing the clothing worn by the worker?

    • A.

      Direct.

    • B.

      Indirect.

    • C.

      Chemical.

    • D.

      Screening.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct.
    Explanation
    Direct dermal monitoring refers to the method of collecting and analyzing samples directly from the skin of the worker. In this case, it can also include collecting and analyzing the clothing worn by the worker, as the clothing may have absorbed substances from the skin. This method allows for a more accurate assessment of potential exposure to chemicals or other substances.

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  • 20. 

    Chlorine has a vapor density of 2.47. When identifying inhalation hazards, you would use this vapor density to infer that high concentrations of chlorine would

    • A.

      Evaporate slowly.

    • B.

      Evaporate quickly.

    • C.

      Rise into the air.

    • D.

      Sink to the ground.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sink to the ground.
    Explanation
    Chlorine has a vapor density of 2.47, which means that it is heavier than air. Substances with higher vapor density tend to sink or settle towards the ground rather than rise into the air. Therefore, based on its vapor density, high concentrations of chlorine would be more likely to sink to the ground rather than evaporate quickly or rise into the air.

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  • 21. 

    Which control removes the hazard from the work area?

    • A.

      Substitution.

    • B.

      Administrative.

    • C.

      Worker rotation.

    • D.

      Personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Substitution.
    Explanation
    Substitution is the control that removes the hazard from the work area. This means replacing the hazardous material or process with a less hazardous one. By substituting the hazard, the risk of harm or injury is significantly reduced. Administrative controls involve implementing policies and procedures to minimize the risk, worker rotation involves rotating workers to different tasks to reduce exposure, and personal protective equipment is used to protect workers from hazards but does not remove the hazard itself.

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  • 22. 

    Air monitoring devices are a form of what kind of control?

    • A.

      Engineering.

    • B.

      Ventilation.

    • C.

      Administrative.

    • D.

      Personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Administrative.
    Explanation
    Air monitoring devices are a form of administrative control because they are used to monitor and measure air quality in a specific area. These devices help in identifying potential hazards or pollutants in the air and allow for necessary actions to be taken to control or mitigate the risks. Administrative controls involve implementing policies, procedures, and protocols to manage and reduce exposure to hazards, and air monitoring devices play a crucial role in this process.

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  • 23. 

    Your sampling determines workers are exposed to hazardous chemicals which exceed allowable exposure limits. If stated in the relevant standard, what should be established?

    • A.

      Regulated area.

    • B.

      Restricted area.

    • C.

      Remediation area.

    • D.

      Requirements area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulated area.
    Explanation
    If workers are exposed to hazardous chemicals that exceed allowable exposure limits, a regulated area should be established. A regulated area is a designated area where specific safety measures and controls are implemented to protect workers from hazardous substances. This may include the use of personal protective equipment, restricted access, and regular monitoring to ensure compliance with the relevant standards and regulations.

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  • 24. 

    What is one of the main components you must include in the Hazard Communications (HAZCOM) Program?

    • A.

      A point of contact for HAZMAT (hazardous material.

    • B.

      An inventory of hazardous chemical.

    • C.

      A listing of controls for each hazard.

    • D.

      A tracking system for hazardous materials.

    Correct Answer
    B. An inventory of hazardous chemical.
    Explanation
    One of the main components that must be included in the Hazard Communications (HAZCOM) Program is an inventory of hazardous chemicals. This is important because it allows for proper identification and tracking of the hazardous materials present in the workplace. It ensures that employees are aware of the specific chemicals they may be exposed to and enables the implementation of appropriate safety measures and controls.

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  • 25. 

    Which is an important aspect of the employee hazard communication (HAZCOM) program?

    • A.

      Employees are aware of their shop category.

    • B.

      Employees know how to request hazardous chemicals.

    • C.

      Chemical inventories are kept accurate and complete.

    • D.

      Employees know how to use chemical hazard information.

    Correct Answer
    D. Employees know how to use chemical hazard information.
    Explanation
    An important aspect of the employee hazard communication (HAZCOM) program is that employees know how to use chemical hazard information. This means that employees are educated and trained on how to read and understand safety data sheets (SDS), labels, and other information related to hazardous chemicals. This knowledge is crucial in order to ensure that employees can identify and mitigate potential hazards in the workplace, and take appropriate precautions to protect themselves and others from harm.

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  • 26. 

    Relating to the installation hazard communication (HAZCOM) program, which is a responsibility of the Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight?

    • A.

      Develop and maintain a work area/shop-specific HAZCOM written program.

    • B.

      Make appropriate training available to work area supervisors on an as needed basis.

    • C.

      Assess effectiveness of worker HAZCOM program training, including work area training.

    • D.

      Ensure all workers in the squadron/unit are provided a safe and healthy work environment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Assess effectiveness of worker HAZCOM program training, including work area training.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight in relation to the installation hazard communication (HAZCOM) program is to assess the effectiveness of worker HAZCOM program training, including work area training. This means that they are responsible for evaluating how well the workers have been trained in the HAZCOM program and ensuring that the training is effective. This is important for maintaining a safe and healthy work environment for all workers in the squadron/unit.

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  • 27. 

    When evaluating the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program, what will a shop supervisor need to provide during an occupational and environmental health (OEH) site assessment?

    • A.

      Written program documentation.

    • B.

      Shop safety PowerPoint slides.

    • C.

      A opportunity to inspect workers.

    • D.

      Records of the last two air sampling results.

    Correct Answer
    A. Written program documentation.
    Explanation
    During an occupational and environmental health (OEH) site assessment, a shop supervisor will need to provide written program documentation. This is because the evaluation of the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program requires proper documentation of the program's policies, procedures, and protocols. This documentation ensures that the shop is compliant with relevant safety regulations and provides a clear understanding of how the shop communicates and manages hazards. Shop safety PowerPoint slides, an opportunity to inspect workers, and records of air sampling results may also be important aspects of the assessment, but the primary requirement is the written program documentation.

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  • 28. 

    What is the bioenvironmental engineer’s role in the laboratory chemical hygiene plan (CHP)?

    • A.

      Develop the CHP.

    • B.

      Document compliance.

    • C.

      Provide medical consultation.

    • D.

      Perform exposure determination.

    Correct Answer
    D. Perform exposure determination.
    Explanation
    The bioenvironmental engineer's role in the laboratory chemical hygiene plan (CHP) is to perform exposure determination. This means that they are responsible for assessing and evaluating the potential risks and hazards associated with chemical exposures in the laboratory. They analyze the chemical substances used, the processes involved, and the potential routes of exposure to determine the level of risk to individuals working in the lab. This information is crucial for implementing appropriate safety measures and controls to minimize or eliminate exposure risks.

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  • 29. 

    This is a Department of Defense (DOD) automated system developed and maintained by the Defense Logistics Agency, and is the central repository for Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for the United States government military services.

    • A.

      Environmental Management Information System (EMIS).

    • B.

      AHLTA (Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application).

    • C.

      Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS).

    • D.

      Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS).
    Explanation
    The given information states that the system is the central repository for Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for the United States government military services. The correct answer, Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS), aligns with this information as it is a system that provides access to MSDS for hazardous materials used by the Department of Defense.

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  • 30. 

    Who will determine if a material meets the hazardous material (HAZMAT) definition?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    • B.

      HAZMART.

    • C.

      Hazardous Material Management Program (HMMP) team.

    • D.

      OEH (occupational and environmental health) Working Group.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hazardous Material Management Program (HMMP) team.
    Explanation
    The Hazardous Material Management Program (HMMP) team is responsible for determining if a material meets the hazardous material (HAZMAT) definition. This team is specifically designated to assess and manage hazardous materials in order to ensure the safety and health of workers and the environment. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the characteristics and risks associated with different materials and determine if they meet the criteria to be classified as hazardous.

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  • 31. 

    What entity can only issue to the requestor those items specifically identified on the AF IMT 3952?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    • B.

      HAZMART.

    • C.

      Hazardous Material Management Program (HMMP) team.

    • D.

      OEH (occupational and environmental health) Working Group.

    Correct Answer
    B. HAZMART.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HAZMART. HAZMART is the entity that can only issue to the requestor those items specifically identified on the AF IMT 3952. This suggests that HAZMART is responsible for managing and distributing hazardous materials, ensuring that only the requested items are provided to the requestor.

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  • 32. 

    Which statement describes grab sampling?

    • A.

      Sample collected over a period of time.

    • B.

      Instantaneous sample taken over a short period of time.

    • C.

      Samples taken must be analyzed by a certified laboratory.

    • D.

      Samples taken to demonstrate compliance with health standards.

    Correct Answer
    B. Instantaneous sample taken over a short period of time.
    Explanation
    Grab sampling refers to the process of collecting a sample at a specific moment or instant, usually over a short period of time. It is different from collecting a sample over a period of time, as it captures a snapshot of the sample at a particular point. Grab samples are often used in situations where continuous sampling is not feasible or necessary. The other statements in the options do not accurately describe grab sampling.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is integrated sampling sometimes called?

    • A.

      Compliance screening.

    • B.

      Instantaneous sample.

    • C.

      Direct reading or screening.

    • D.

      Indirect reading or continuous.

    Correct Answer
    D. Indirect reading or continuous.
    Explanation
    Integrated sampling is a method that involves continuously collecting samples over a specific period of time to obtain an average concentration. This is often done using automated instruments that provide indirect readings of the pollutant levels. The term "continuous" refers to the uninterrupted and ongoing nature of the sampling process. Therefore, the correct answer is "Indirect reading or continuous" because integrated sampling is sometimes referred to as continuous sampling due to its continuous and indirect measurement approach.

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  • 34. 

    Which monitor is intended for compounds that react to certain wavelengths of ultraviolet (UV) light?

    • A.

      Gas chromatographs.

    • B.

      Particulate monitors.

    • C.

      Photoionization detectors.

    • D.

      Flame ionization detectors.

    Correct Answer
    C. Photoionization detectors.
    Explanation
    Photoionization detectors are designed to detect compounds that react to certain wavelengths of ultraviolet (UV) light. These detectors work by ionizing molecules in a sample using UV light, which then produces ions that can be measured and used to identify and quantify specific compounds. Gas chromatographs, particulate monitors, and flame ionization detectors are not specifically designed for detecting compounds based on their reaction to UV light.

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  • 35. 

    What are the most commonly used devices for particulate sampling?

    • A.

      Filters.

    • B.

      Sorbent tubes.

    • C.

      Fritted bubblers.

    • D.

      Passive dosimeters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Filters.
    Explanation
    Filters are the most commonly used devices for particulate sampling because they are highly effective in capturing and retaining airborne particles. Filters can be made of various materials such as glass fiber, quartz, or Teflon, and they can be used in both personal and ambient air sampling. They are easy to use, cost-effective, and provide accurate results. Filters are commonly used in industries, research laboratories, and environmental monitoring to assess the level of particulate matter in the air.

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  • 36. 

    What type of sample will you use during emergency management settings to identify and quantify airborne threats?

    • A.

      Exit.

    • B.

      Area.

    • C.

      Contrast.

    • D.

      Personal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Area.
    Explanation
    In emergency management settings, the type of sample that would be used to identify and quantify airborne threats is an "Area" sample. This type of sample is taken from a specific area or location to measure the presence and concentration of airborne threats such as hazardous chemicals, pollutants, or biological agents. It helps in assessing the level of contamination and determining appropriate response measures to protect the health and safety of individuals in the affected area.

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  • 37. 

    What item must be field checked but cannot be calibrated?

    • A.

      Toxic gas monitors.

    • B.

      Personal sampling pumps.

    • C.

      Hand-held sampling pump.

    • D.

      Combustible gas monitors.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hand-held sampling pump.
    Explanation
    Hand-held sampling pumps must be field checked to ensure they are functioning properly and are free from any defects or damage. However, they cannot be calibrated because they do not have the necessary components or mechanisms to adjust or calibrate their measurements. Calibration is the process of adjusting a device to a known standard or reference to ensure accurate and reliable measurements. Since hand-held sampling pumps do not have this capability, they cannot be calibrated.

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  • 38. 

    While field calibrating an oxygen meter, the equipment fails to hold calibration. What should be done with the meter?

    • A.

      Use it, then schedule maintenance.

    • B.

      It should not be used until repaired.

    • C.

      Turn off and retest after 5 minutes.

    • D.

      Remove batteries and retest after 15 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    B. It should not be used until repaired.
    Explanation
    If the equipment fails to hold calibration, it means that it is not providing accurate measurements. Therefore, it should not be used until it is repaired. Using an oxygen meter that is not calibrated correctly could lead to incorrect readings and potentially dangerous situations.

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  • 39. 

    The recommended flow rate of an example chemical is 0.5 to 1.0 liters per minute (lpm). If you wanted to calculate the minimum amount of time you can sample and still meet the limit of detection, what flow rate would you use?

    • A.

      0.25 lpm.

    • B.

      0.5 lpm.

    • C.

      1.0 lpm.

    • D.

      1.5 lpm.

    Correct Answer
    C. 1.0 lpm.
    Explanation
    The recommended flow rate of the example chemical is 0.5 to 1.0 liters per minute (lpm). In order to calculate the minimum amount of time needed to meet the limit of detection, it is necessary to use the maximum flow rate within the recommended range. Therefore, the flow rate that should be used is 1.0 lpm.

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  • 40. 

    When sampling for vapors, why are minimum and maximum flow rates used with a solid sorbent tube?

    • A.

      Ensure tube is correctly placed.

    • B.

      Ensure flexibility in your sampling strategy.

    • C.

      Ensure the sample is collected without damaging the media.

    • D.

      Ensure contaminant will be in contact with collection media long enough to be captured.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensure contaminant will be in contact with collection media long enough to be captured.
    Explanation
    The use of minimum and maximum flow rates with a solid sorbent tube ensures that the contaminant will be in contact with the collection media for a sufficient amount of time to be captured. By setting a minimum flow rate, it ensures that the sample is collected at a slow enough rate to allow for proper adsorption onto the sorbent material. On the other hand, setting a maximum flow rate prevents the sample from being collected too quickly, which could result in insufficient contact time with the sorbent material and lower collection efficiency. Overall, using both minimum and maximum flow rates helps to optimize the collection of vapors on a solid sorbent tube.

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  • 41. 

    When setting up the sampling train, you must assemble the sample pump, the tubing, soap bubble buret and which of the following?  

    • A.

      Rotometer.

    • B.

      Pump holder.

    • C.

      Sample media.

    • D.

      Buret holder.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sample media.
    Explanation
    When setting up the sampling train, you need to assemble various components including the sample pump, tubing, soap bubble buret, and the sample media. The sample media refers to the material or substance that is being sampled or collected during the process. It could be air, water, soil, or any other substance that is being analyzed or tested. The sample media is an essential component of the sampling train as it is the material that is being collected for analysis.

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  • 42. 

    When are air sampling pumps calibrated?

    • A.

      Before and after completing sampling.

    • B.

      Before sampling begins only.

    • C.

      After completing sampling only.

    • D.

      Before sampling and after changing sample media.

    Correct Answer
    A. Before and after completing sampling.
    Explanation
    Air sampling pumps are calibrated before and after completing sampling to ensure accurate and reliable results. Calibration before sampling ensures that the pump is functioning properly and accurately measuring the air samples. Calibration after completing sampling allows for any changes or deviations in the pump's performance to be identified and corrected. By calibrating before and after sampling, the integrity of the data collected is maintained, and any potential errors or inaccuracies can be detected and addressed.

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  • 43. 

    To ensure pumps will not be tampered with, with whom should you discuss the importance of air sampling prior to placing your pumps in a fixed location?

    • A.

      Workers.

    • B.

      Base safety.

    • C.

      Workplace commander.

    • D.

      Workplace supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Workplace supervisor.
    Explanation
    To ensure that pumps will not be tampered with, it is important to discuss the importance of air sampling with the workplace supervisor. The workplace supervisor is responsible for overseeing the operations and safety of the workplace, including the placement and security of equipment such as pumps. They have the authority to enforce safety protocols and ensure that workers understand the importance of air sampling and the consequences of tampering with the pumps. Discussing this with the workplace supervisor will help to ensure that necessary precautions are taken to maintain the integrity of the sampling process.

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  • 44. 

    Your goal using a direct reading instrument (DRI) to perform air sampling is to obtain

    • A.

      The quickest air sample possible.

    • B.

      An air sample from the supervisor.

    • C.

      An air sample for the entire shift.

    • D.

      The most representative air sample possible.

    Correct Answer
    D. The most representative air sample possible.
    Explanation
    When using a direct reading instrument (DRI) to perform air sampling, the goal is to obtain the most representative air sample possible. This means that the sample should accurately reflect the composition of the air in the area being tested. By obtaining a representative sample, any potential hazards or contaminants can be accurately identified and appropriate measures can be taken to ensure the safety of the workers.

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  • 45. 

    Why are blank samples prepared and shipped along with air samples?

    • A.

      To measure the affects of temperature and pressure changes during shipping.

    • B.

      To measure the affects of temperature and pressure changes during the sampling process.

    • C.

      To determine if any contamination occurred after calibrating the sampling pumps and before sampling began.

    • D.

      To determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory.

    Correct Answer
    D. To determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory.
    Explanation
    Blank samples are prepared and shipped along with air samples to determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory. This is important because any contamination during this period could affect the accuracy and reliability of the air samples. By analyzing the blank samples, any contamination can be identified and accounted for in the analysis of the air samples.

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  • 46. 

    When performing air sampling, how do you prepare a blank?

    • A.

      Keep an unopened tube with the samples.

    • B.

      Sample another worker away from the process.

    • C.

      Open and immediately seal the media in the work area.

    • D.

      Leave an opened tube in an area throughout sampling.

    Correct Answer
    C. Open and immediately seal the media in the work area.
    Explanation
    To prepare a blank when performing air sampling, the correct method is to open and immediately seal the media in the work area. This ensures that any contaminants present in the work area are captured and accounted for in the analysis. Keeping an unopened tube with the samples, sampling another worker away from the process, or leaving an opened tube in an area throughout sampling would not accurately represent the background levels of contaminants in the work area.

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  • 47. 

    When collecting breathing zone air samples, the flow rate has changed since you began sampling. As a worst case measure, which flow rate observed should be used to determine volume collected?

    • A.

      First.

    • B.

      Lowest.

    • C.

      Average.

    • D.

      Highest.

    Correct Answer
    B. Lowest.
    Explanation
    When collecting breathing zone air samples, it is important to use the lowest flow rate observed to determine the volume collected. This is because using the lowest flow rate ensures that the volume calculation is based on the smallest amount of air sampled, which is a worst-case scenario. Using a higher flow rate could overestimate the volume collected, leading to inaccurate results. Therefore, the lowest flow rate observed should be used as a conservative measure to determine the volume of collected air.

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  • 48. 

    Exposure excursions above the occupational and environmental exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA) should not exceed three times the OEEL-TWA for more than a total of how many minutes during a work day?

    • A.

      15.

    • B.

      25.

    • C.

      30.

    • D.

      45.

    Correct Answer
    C. 30.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. This means that exposure excursions above the occupational and environmental exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA) should not exceed three times the OEEL-TWA for more than a total of 30 minutes during a work day. This is important to ensure that workers are not exposed to high levels of hazardous substances for extended periods of time, as it can have negative health effects. By limiting these excursions to 30 minutes, it helps to protect the health and safety of workers.

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  • 49. 

    This occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) is a concentration of contaminants that can never be exceeded during any part of the working exposure.  

    • A.

      Skin.

    • B.

      Ceiling.

    • C.

      Excursions.

    • D.

      Short term.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ceiling.
    Explanation
    The term "ceiling" refers to an occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) that should never be exceeded during any part of the working exposure. This means that the concentration of contaminants in the air or environment should never go above the specified ceiling limit.

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  • 50. 

    The scheduled work week has changed to 8 hours per day, 6 days per week. Which  reduction factor formula should be used to determine the equivalent occupational and environmental exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA)?

    • A.

      Hourly.

    • B.

      Daily.

    • C.

      Weekly.

    • D.

      Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    C. Weekly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Weekly" because the question states that the work week has changed to 8 hours per day, 6 days per week. To determine the equivalent occupational and environmental exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA), the reduction factor formula for weekly exposure should be used. This implies that the exposure limit is being calculated on a weekly basis, taking into account the number of hours worked per day and the number of days worked per week.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Mav_2591
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