4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 3

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1. Potential hazardous noise is exposure to steady state noise having an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) noise level greater than or equal to what dBA level?

Explanation

Potential hazardous noise refers to exposure to steady state noise with a TWA noise level greater than or equal to 85 dBA. This means that if the average noise level over an 8-hour period is 85 dBA or higher, it can be considered potentially hazardous.

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About This Quiz
Pathogenic Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in Bioenvironmental Engineering, focusing on biological hazards and control systems. It includes questions on agents like Anthrax, periods of communicability, and protective measures, crucial... see morefor professionals in health and safety fields. see less

2.  Which microorganism is totally dependent on its hosts for replication?

Explanation

Viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they cannot replicate or carry out metabolic functions without a host cell. They depend on the host's cellular machinery to replicate their genetic material and produce new virus particles. Unlike bacteria, eukaryotes, and prokaryotes, viruses lack the necessary cellular components to carry out replication independently. Therefore, viruses are entirely reliant on their hosts for replication.

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3. Which is a disorder of the hand that can be characterized by pain, weakness, and numbness in the fingers, caused by nerve compression in the wrist?  

Explanation

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a disorder of the hand that is characterized by pain, weakness, and numbness in the fingers. It is caused by nerve compression in the wrist, specifically the median nerve. This compression occurs when the carpal tunnel, a narrow passageway in the wrist, becomes narrowed or inflamed. This can be due to various factors such as repetitive hand movements, injury, or underlying medical conditions. Symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome typically include tingling or numbness in the thumb, index, middle, and ring fingers, as well as weakness in the hand and difficulty gripping objects.

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4. If a material safety data sheet (MSDS) is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material, who must request it?

Explanation

The workplace using the product must request the material safety data sheet (MSDS) if it is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material. The MSDS contains important information about the hazards, handling, and emergency procedures related to the material, ensuring that the workplace can safely use and handle the product. It is the responsibility of the workplace to request the MSDS to ensure compliance with safety regulations and protect the health and safety of employees.

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5. Which control removes the hazard from the work area?

Explanation

Substitution is the control that removes the hazard from the work area. This means replacing the hazardous material or process with a less hazardous one. By substituting the hazard, the risk of harm or injury is significantly reduced. Administrative controls involve implementing policies and procedures to minimize the risk, worker rotation involves rotating workers to different tasks to reduce exposure, and personal protective equipment is used to protect workers from hazards but does not remove the hazard itself.

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6. Which is a condition in which the tendon becomes irritated (inflamed) as a result of repeated tensing of that tendon/muscle group?

Explanation

Tendonitis is a condition in which the tendon becomes irritated and inflamed due to repeated tensing of that tendon or muscle group. This inflammation can cause pain, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area. Synovitis refers to inflammation of the synovial membrane, which lines the joint capsules. Raynaud's phenomenon is a condition where the blood vessels in the fingers and toes constrict, causing them to turn white or blue. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a condition characterized by compression of the median nerve in the wrist, leading to numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand.

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7. Anthrax is an example of which biohazardous agent?

Explanation

Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, making it an example of a biohazardous agent that is classified as bacteria.

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8. What type of sample will you use during emergency management settings to identify and quantify airborne threats?

Explanation

In emergency management settings, the type of sample that would be used to identify and quantify airborne threats is an "Area" sample. This type of sample is taken from a specific area or location to measure the presence and concentration of airborne threats such as hazardous chemicals, pollutants, or biological agents. It helps in assessing the level of contamination and determining appropriate response measures to protect the health and safety of individuals in the affected area.

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9.  Which is an inefficient delivery system for biological warfare agents?

Explanation

Conventional explosive munitions are an inefficient delivery system for biological warfare agents because they lack the precision and control required to effectively disperse the agents. These munitions are designed for explosive impact rather than dispersal, making them less suitable for delivering biological agents in a targeted and controlled manner. Boats, aircraft, and trucks equipped with sprayers are all more efficient delivery systems as they allow for better dispersion and control of the agents.

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10. Recommending personnel use a work/rest cycle to schedule increasing exposures during the first 10 to 14 days of heat exposure is an example of which administrative control?

Explanation

The correct answer is acclimatization. Acclimatization refers to the process of gradually adapting to a new environment or condition, such as heat exposure. Recommending personnel to use a work/rest cycle to schedule increasing exposures during the first 10 to 14 days of heat exposure helps the body gradually adjust and become acclimated to the heat. This helps prevent heat-related illnesses and allows individuals to work more safely and efficiently in hot conditions.

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11. What did Congress enact in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storage and handling of toxic chemicals?

Explanation

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act was enacted by Congress in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storage and handling of toxic chemicals. This act aimed to improve chemical safety and emergency preparedness by requiring companies to report information about the hazardous chemicals they use and store, establishing state emergency response commissions, and providing communities with the right to access information about chemical hazards in their area.

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12. What is one of the main components you must include in the Hazard Communications (HAZCOM) Program?

Explanation

One of the main components that must be included in the Hazard Communications (HAZCOM) Program is an inventory of hazardous chemicals. This is important because it allows for proper identification and tracking of the hazardous materials present in the workplace. It ensures that employees are aware of the specific chemicals they may be exposed to and enables the implementation of appropriate safety measures and controls.

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13. When evaluating the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program, what will a shop supervisor need to provide during an occupational and environmental health (OEH) site assessment?

Explanation

During an occupational and environmental health (OEH) site assessment, a shop supervisor will need to provide written program documentation. This is because the evaluation of the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program requires proper documentation of the program's policies, procedures, and protocols. This documentation ensures that the shop is compliant with relevant safety regulations and provides a clear understanding of how the shop communicates and manages hazards. Shop safety PowerPoint slides, an opportunity to inspect workers, and records of air sampling results may also be important aspects of the assessment, but the primary requirement is the written program documentation.

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14. Which statement describes grab sampling?

Explanation

Grab sampling refers to the process of collecting a sample at a specific moment or instant, usually over a short period of time. It is different from collecting a sample over a period of time, as it captures a snapshot of the sample at a particular point. Grab samples are often used in situations where continuous sampling is not feasible or necessary. The other statements in the options do not accurately describe grab sampling.

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15. Which monitor is intended for compounds that react to certain wavelengths of ultraviolet (UV) light?

Explanation

Photoionization detectors are designed to detect compounds that react to certain wavelengths of ultraviolet (UV) light. These detectors work by ionizing molecules in a sample using UV light, which then produces ions that can be measured and used to identify and quantify specific compounds. Gas chromatographs, particulate monitors, and flame ionization detectors are not specifically designed for detecting compounds based on their reaction to UV light.

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16. This occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) is a concentration of contaminants that can never be exceeded during any part of the working exposure.  

Explanation

The term "ceiling" refers to an occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) that should never be exceeded during any part of the working exposure. This means that the concentration of contaminants in the air or environment should never go above the specified ceiling limit.

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17. How often are audiometric test booths monitored when all measurements taken are within the Air Force criteria?

Explanation

Audiometric test booths are monitored annually when all measurements taken are within the Air Force criteria. This means that the booths are checked once a year to ensure that the measurements taken during the tests are within the acceptable range set by the Air Force. Monitoring the booths annually helps to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the tests and ensures that the results are consistent with the established criteria.

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18. There has been a change in practices and procedures in the Nondestructive Inspection workplace involving potentially hazardous noise exposure. Who should notify Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) about these changes in work practices or procedures?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Workplace supervisor." The workplace supervisor should notify Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) about the changes in work practices or procedures related to potentially hazardous noise exposure. This is because the supervisor is responsible for ensuring the safety and well-being of the employees in the workplace and should be aware of any changes that could impact their health. BE can then assess the situation and provide guidance or recommendations to mitigate the risks associated with the changes.

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19. What effects of noise exposure can be broken down into acoustic trauma, hearing loss, and tinnitus?

Explanation

The effects of noise exposure can be broken down into acoustic trauma, hearing loss, and tinnitus. These effects primarily affect the auditory system, which includes the ears and the ability to hear. Acoustic trauma refers to damage caused by a sudden, intense noise, such as an explosion, which can lead to immediate hearing loss. Prolonged exposure to loud noises can result in gradual hearing loss over time. Tinnitus is the perception of ringing or buzzing sounds in the ears, often caused by damage to the hair cells in the inner ear. These effects are all related to the auditory system and can be attributed to noise exposure.

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20. What is the goal of biological control measures?

Explanation

The goal of biological control measures is to break the chain of infection. This means that the measures aim to interrupt the transmission of infectious diseases by targeting the various links in the chain, such as the infectious agent, reservoir, mode of transmission, and susceptible host. By breaking the chain of infection, the spread of the disease can be prevented or minimized. This can be achieved through various strategies, such as vaccination, quarantine, vector control, and hygiene practices.

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21. What is the gaseous form of a substance that is a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure?

Explanation

Vapor is the correct answer because it refers to the gaseous form of a substance that is typically a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure. When a substance is heated or undergoes a phase change, it can transition into a vapor state. This term is commonly used to describe the gas phase of substances such as water vapor, steam, or gasoline vapor. Fume, aerosol, and pure gas do not specifically refer to substances that are in a gaseous form due to being a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure.

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22. If a toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials vulnerability assessment final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific US military site, it must receive what classification?

Explanation

If a toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials vulnerability assessment final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific US military site, it must receive a classification of CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET. This is because the information regarding the vulnerability of the military site is sensitive and could potentially be used by adversaries to exploit or attack the site.

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23. Chlorine has a vapor density of 2.47. When identifying inhalation hazards, you would use this vapor density to infer that high concentrations of chlorine would

Explanation

Chlorine has a vapor density of 2.47, which means that it is heavier than air. Substances with higher vapor density tend to sink or settle towards the ground rather than rise into the air. Therefore, based on its vapor density, high concentrations of chlorine would be more likely to sink to the ground rather than evaporate quickly or rise into the air.

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24. Your sampling determines workers are exposed to hazardous chemicals which exceed allowable exposure limits. If stated in the relevant standard, what should be established?

Explanation

If workers are exposed to hazardous chemicals that exceed allowable exposure limits, a regulated area should be established. A regulated area is a designated area where specific safety measures and controls are implemented to protect workers from hazardous substances. This may include the use of personal protective equipment, restricted access, and regular monitoring to ensure compliance with the relevant standards and regulations.

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25. While field calibrating an oxygen meter, the equipment fails to hold calibration. What should be done with the meter?

Explanation

If the equipment fails to hold calibration, it means that it is not providing accurate measurements. Therefore, it should not be used until it is repaired. Using an oxygen meter that is not calibrated correctly could lead to incorrect readings and potentially dangerous situations.

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26. When performing air sampling, how do you prepare a blank?

Explanation

To prepare a blank when performing air sampling, the correct method is to open and immediately seal the media in the work area. This ensures that any contaminants present in the work area are captured and accounted for in the analysis. Keeping an unopened tube with the samples, sampling another worker away from the process, or leaving an opened tube in an area throughout sampling would not accurately represent the background levels of contaminants in the work area.

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27. If air sampling results are reported in milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3), it is necessary to convert the results to parts per million (ppm) when 

Explanation

When the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) is stated in parts per million (ppm), it is necessary to convert the air sampling results from milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) to ppm. This is because the OEEL is the standard or guideline that determines the acceptable level of exposure to a particular contaminant in the air. To compare the air sampling results with the OEEL, they need to be expressed in the same unit of measurement, which is ppm in this case.

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28. What is known as a range of frequencies that extends from one frequency to double that frequency exactly?

Explanation

An octave band is a range of frequencies that extends from one frequency to double that frequency exactly. This means that the upper frequency of the band is exactly twice the lower frequency.

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29. With regard to noise exposures, whole body effects are also known as

Explanation

Whole body effects refer to the effects of noise exposure that go beyond just affecting the auditory system. These effects can include physiological and psychological impacts on the entire body, such as increased stress levels, elevated blood pressure, and sleep disturbances. Nonauditory effects are therefore the correct term to describe these broader impacts of noise exposure on the body.

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30. Which is an important aspect of the employee hazard communication (HAZCOM) program?

Explanation

An important aspect of the employee hazard communication (HAZCOM) program is that employees know how to use chemical hazard information. This means that employees are educated and trained on how to read and understand safety data sheets (SDS), labels, and other information related to hazardous chemicals. This knowledge is crucial in order to ensure that employees can identify and mitigate potential hazards in the workplace, and take appropriate precautions to protect themselves and others from harm.

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31. When are air sampling pumps calibrated?

Explanation

Air sampling pumps are calibrated before and after completing sampling to ensure accurate and reliable results. Calibration before sampling ensures that the pump is functioning properly and accurately measuring the air samples. Calibration after completing sampling allows for any changes or deviations in the pump's performance to be identified and corrected. By calibrating before and after sampling, the integrity of the data collected is maintained, and any potential errors or inaccuracies can be detected and addressed.

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32. Which is known as the distance from one point of a sound wave to an identical point on the next wave?

Explanation

Wavelength is the distance between two identical points on consecutive waves. It is commonly used to describe the length of sound waves, with longer wavelengths corresponding to lower frequencies and shorter wavelengths corresponding to higher frequencies. Velocity refers to the speed at which the wave travels, amplitude refers to the maximum displacement of the wave from its equilibrium position, and frequency refers to the number of complete waves that pass a given point in a certain amount of time.

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33. What is the hierarchy of thermal stress controls?    

Explanation

The correct hierarchy of thermal stress controls is engineering, administrative, and PPE. This means that the first line of defense against thermal stress should be engineering controls, such as implementing ventilation systems or insulation to reduce heat exposure. If engineering controls are not sufficient, administrative controls should be implemented, such as work-rest schedules or providing cool rest areas. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be the last resort and used only when other controls are not feasible or effective.

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34. A period that can last for days, weeks, or months, when a biological threat can be transmitted from person to person is known as

Explanation

The correct answer is communicability period. This refers to a specific time frame during which a biological threat, such as a contagious disease, can be transmitted from one person to another. This period can last for days, weeks, or even months, depending on the specific threat. It is important to understand the communicability period in order to implement appropriate measures to prevent the spread of the threat during this time.

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35. Why are blank samples prepared and shipped along with air samples?

Explanation

Blank samples are prepared and shipped along with air samples to determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory. This is important because any contamination during this period could affect the accuracy and reliability of the air samples. By analyzing the blank samples, any contamination can be identified and accounted for in the analysis of the air samples.

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36. Which is the first stage of evaluating potential noise problems in a workplace?

Explanation

The first stage of evaluating potential noise problems in a workplace is to identify all noise-producing equipment. This is important because it helps in understanding the sources of noise in the workplace and determining which equipment may be contributing to excessive noise levels. By identifying the noise-producing equipment, further assessments and measurements can be conducted to determine the extent of the noise problem and develop appropriate control measures. Conducting a noise source survey, beginning noise dosimetry, and examining worker medical records are all important steps in evaluating noise problems, but they come after identifying the noise-producing equipment.

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37. With whom does Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) jointly work to determine the Fighter Index of Thermal Stress zones based on the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) measurements?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) works jointly with the Meteorological/Weather staff to determine the Fighter Index of Thermal Stress zones based on the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) measurements. The Meteorological/Weather staff provides the necessary weather data and expertise to calculate the WBGT, which is a measure of thermal stress. This information is crucial for BE to assess the potential health risks and make recommendations for the safety and well-being of personnel in different areas. The collaboration between BE and the Meteorological/Weather staff ensures accurate and reliable assessments of thermal stress zones.

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38. What are the most commonly used devices for particulate sampling?

Explanation

Filters are the most commonly used devices for particulate sampling because they are highly effective in capturing and retaining airborne particles. Filters can be made of various materials such as glass fiber, quartz, or Teflon, and they can be used in both personal and ambient air sampling. They are easy to use, cost-effective, and provide accurate results. Filters are commonly used in industries, research laboratories, and environmental monitoring to assess the level of particulate matter in the air.

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39. If you wanted to know the signs and symptoms of exposure to a chemical product, what part of the material safety data sheet (MSDS) would you review?

Explanation

The correct answer is Hazards Identification. This section of the material safety data sheet (MSDS) provides information about the potential hazards associated with the chemical product. It includes details about the signs and symptoms of exposure, such as irritation, respiratory problems, or skin reactions. Reviewing this section can help to identify the possible health effects of the chemical and ensure appropriate safety measures are taken.

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40. When identifying toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials in the vicinity of an installation, you should evaluate facilities within

Explanation

When identifying toxic industrial chemicals and materials in the vicinity of an installation, it is recommended to evaluate facilities within a larger radius of 20 miles. This wider range allows for a more comprehensive assessment of potential hazards and ensures that all nearby facilities that may pose a risk are considered. Evaluating facilities within a smaller radius may result in overlooking potentially dangerous sources of toxic substances.

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41. Air monitoring devices are a form of what kind of control?

Explanation

Air monitoring devices are a form of administrative control because they are used to monitor and measure air quality in a specific area. These devices help in identifying potential hazards or pollutants in the air and allow for necessary actions to be taken to control or mitigate the risks. Administrative controls involve implementing policies, procedures, and protocols to manage and reduce exposure to hazards, and air monitoring devices play a crucial role in this process.

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42. What entity can only issue to the requestor those items specifically identified on the AF IMT 3952?

Explanation

The correct answer is HAZMART. HAZMART is the entity that can only issue to the requestor those items specifically identified on the AF IMT 3952. This suggests that HAZMART is responsible for managing and distributing hazardous materials, ensuring that only the requested items are provided to the requestor.

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43. You should calculate a compliance factor for multiple chemicals because they can affect the worker how?

Explanation

Calculating a compliance factor for multiple chemicals is important because they can have a cumulative effect on a worker's health. When chemicals attack the same organ in the same way, it means that they have a similar mode of action and can cause additive or synergistic effects when combined. This can lead to increased toxicity and a higher risk of adverse health effects. Therefore, understanding how chemicals interact and affect the same organ is crucial in determining the overall risk and developing appropriate safety measures.

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44. When setting up the sampling train, you must assemble the sample pump, the tubing, soap bubble buret and which of the following?  

Explanation

When setting up the sampling train, you need to assemble various components including the sample pump, tubing, soap bubble buret, and the sample media. The sample media refers to the material or substance that is being sampled or collected during the process. It could be air, water, soil, or any other substance that is being analyzed or tested. The sample media is an essential component of the sampling train as it is the material that is being collected for analysis.

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45. When sampling for vapors, why are minimum and maximum flow rates used with a solid sorbent tube?

Explanation

The use of minimum and maximum flow rates with a solid sorbent tube ensures that the contaminant will be in contact with the collection media for a sufficient amount of time to be captured. By setting a minimum flow rate, it ensures that the sample is collected at a slow enough rate to allow for proper adsorption onto the sorbent material. On the other hand, setting a maximum flow rate prevents the sample from being collected too quickly, which could result in insufficient contact time with the sorbent material and lower collection efficiency. Overall, using both minimum and maximum flow rates helps to optimize the collection of vapors on a solid sorbent tube.

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46. What is an important factor to consider when developing your sampling methodology?

Explanation

When developing a sampling methodology, one important factor to consider is where to sample. This refers to selecting the specific locations or sites from which the samples will be collected. The choice of sampling locations can significantly impact the representativeness and accuracy of the collected data. Factors such as the presence of potential sources of contamination, variability in the target population, and accessibility should be taken into account when determining where to sample. By carefully selecting the sampling locations, researchers can ensure that the collected samples are truly representative of the population or phenomenon being studied.

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47. What is the distance from the top to the bottom of a sound wave when compared to normal atmospheric pressure?

Explanation

The distance from the top to the bottom of a sound wave when compared to normal atmospheric pressure is known as the amplitude. Amplitude refers to the maximum displacement or distance that a particle in a medium moves from its rest position when a wave passes through it. It is a measure of the intensity or loudness of a sound wave.

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48. What would be considered an indicator of long-term ergonomic hazard control success?

Explanation

A reduction in the incidence rate of musculoskeletal disorders would be considered an indicator of long-term ergonomic hazard control success. This means that fewer workers are experiencing these types of disorders, which suggests that the ergonomic measures put in place have been effective in preventing or reducing the risk of such injuries. This is a positive outcome as it indicates that the workplace is becoming safer and healthier for employees.

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49. Which office is responsible for the determination of wind chill index zones and displaying colored flags or boards on base in order to minimize the risk of cold injury to personnel?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for the determination of wind chill index zones and displaying colored flags or boards on base in order to minimize the risk of cold injury to personnel.

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50.  In a biologically contaminated environment, which biological health threat control would enable personnel to work or gain rest and relief without wearing individual protective equipment?

Explanation

A collective protective system is designed to create a safe and controlled environment in a biologically contaminated area. It includes measures such as air filtration, pressurization, and decontamination systems to ensure that the space is free from biological hazards. With a collective protective system in place, personnel can work or take breaks without the need for individual protective equipment, as the system provides a barrier against the biological health threats.

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51. All of the following characteristics make toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials attractive improvised weapons except which one?

Explanation

Toxic industrial chemicals and materials are attractive improvised weapons due to their potential to cause illness or injury, their modes of transportation, and the fact that they can be obtained in very large quantities. However, the inability to safeguard against them does not make them attractive weapons. This suggests that there are measures or precautions that can be taken to protect against their harmful effects, making them less desirable as weapons.

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52. The recommended flow rate of an example chemical is 0.5 to 1.0 liters per minute (lpm). If you wanted to calculate the minimum amount of time you can sample and still meet the limit of detection, what flow rate would you use?

Explanation

The recommended flow rate of the example chemical is 0.5 to 1.0 liters per minute (lpm). In order to calculate the minimum amount of time needed to meet the limit of detection, it is necessary to use the maximum flow rate within the recommended range. Therefore, the flow rate that should be used is 1.0 lpm.

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53. What must you calculate from the sampling and analytical error and your air sampling results to determine whether the time weighted average (TWA) could be above the occupational exposure limit?

Explanation

To determine whether the time weighted average (TWA) could be above the occupational exposure limit, you need to calculate the Upper Confidence Limit (UCL) from the sampling and analytical error and your air sampling results. The UCL represents the upper boundary of the confidence interval, indicating the maximum value that the TWA could potentially be with a certain level of confidence. If the UCL exceeds the occupational exposure limit, it suggests that the TWA could be above the limit and further action may be required to mitigate the exposure.

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54. What method of dermal monitoring can include collecting and analyzing the clothing worn by the worker?

Explanation

Direct dermal monitoring refers to the method of collecting and analyzing samples directly from the skin of the worker. In this case, it can also include collecting and analyzing the clothing worn by the worker, as the clothing may have absorbed substances from the skin. This method allows for a more accurate assessment of potential exposure to chemicals or other substances.

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55. What item must be field checked but cannot be calibrated?

Explanation

Hand-held sampling pumps must be field checked to ensure they are functioning properly and are free from any defects or damage. However, they cannot be calibrated because they do not have the necessary components or mechanisms to adjust or calibrate their measurements. Calibration is the process of adjusting a device to a known standard or reference to ensure accurate and reliable measurements. Since hand-held sampling pumps do not have this capability, they cannot be calibrated.

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56. Following air sampling, when is it appropriate to compare the measured concentration to an exposure standard without calculating a time weighted average (TWA)?

Explanation

When one single sample is taken over an 8-hour shift, it is appropriate to compare the measured concentration to an exposure standard without calculating a time weighted average (TWA). This is because the single sample represents the entire 8-hour shift, providing a snapshot of the exposure during that period.

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57. With concentrations of 20 parts per million (ppm) xylene (OEEL, 100 ppm), 20 ppm methyl chloride (OEEL, 50 ppm), and 20 ppm perchloroethylene (OEEL, 50 ppm), what is the unity for the compliance factor?

Explanation

The compliance factor is calculated by dividing the actual concentration of a substance by the occupational exposure limit (OEEL) for that substance. In this case, the concentrations of xylene, methyl chloride, and perchloroethylene are all 20 ppm, which is equal to their respective OEELs. Therefore, the compliance factor for each substance would be 1.0.

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58. It is the reversible freezing of superficial skin layers and is usually marked by numbness and whiteness of the skin, possible itching, or pain.

Explanation

Frostnip refers to the reversible freezing of superficial skin layers, which is characterized by numbness and whiteness of the skin, along with possible itching or pain. It is a milder form of cold injury compared to frostbite, chilblain, or hypothermia. Frostnip typically does not cause permanent damage to the skin and can be treated by rewarming the affected area.

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59. To ensure pumps will not be tampered with, with whom should you discuss the importance of air sampling prior to placing your pumps in a fixed location?

Explanation

To ensure that pumps will not be tampered with, it is important to discuss the importance of air sampling with the workplace supervisor. The workplace supervisor is responsible for overseeing the operations and safety of the workplace, including the placement and security of equipment such as pumps. They have the authority to enforce safety protocols and ensure that workers understand the importance of air sampling and the consequences of tampering with the pumps. Discussing this with the workplace supervisor will help to ensure that necessary precautions are taken to maintain the integrity of the sampling process.

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60. What sound level meter response time would you select to determine the average noise levels for industrial type operations and when taking Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) compliance measurements?

Explanation

The slow response time would be selected to determine the average noise levels for industrial type operations and when taking OSHA compliance measurements. This is because the slow response time allows for a longer integration period, which is better suited for measuring average noise levels over a longer period of time.

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61. Which is an example of an engineering control?

Explanation

Disinfection of drinking water is an example of an engineering control because it involves the physical modification of the environment to prevent or control the spread of disease. By treating the water with disinfectants, such as chlorine, harmful microorganisms are killed or inactivated, reducing the risk of waterborne illnesses. This control measure is implemented at the source of the hazard, in this case, the water supply, to ensure safe and clean drinking water for the population.

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62. This is a Department of Defense (DOD) automated system developed and maintained by the Defense Logistics Agency, and is the central repository for Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for the United States government military services.

Explanation

The given information states that the system is the central repository for Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for the United States government military services. The correct answer, Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS), aligns with this information as it is a system that provides access to MSDS for hazardous materials used by the Department of Defense.

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63. Which type of sample can be used to determine if a particle size is related to contaminant distribution?

Explanation

Sieving is the correct answer because it is a technique used to determine the particle size distribution of a sample. By passing the sample through a series of sieves with different mesh sizes, the particles are separated based on their size. This allows for the analysis of the distribution of contaminants within the sample based on their particle size. Homogeneous and distribution are not specific types of samples, and composite refers to a mixture of different samples, none of which directly address the relationship between particle size and contaminant distribution.

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64. What document would specifically address actions that must be taken for regulated chemicals considered very hazardous?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Substance specific standard." This document specifically addresses actions that must be taken for regulated chemicals considered very hazardous. It provides detailed guidelines and requirements for handling, storing, and disposing of these substances to ensure the safety of workers and the environment. The Substance specific standard is designed to provide specific information and protocols for dealing with these highly hazardous chemicals, ensuring that proper precautions are taken to prevent accidents and minimize risks.

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65. What do we call the portion of sound that is coming toward you?

Explanation

Sound intensity refers to the amount of sound energy that is passing through a unit area per unit time. In the context of the question, when sound is coming toward you, it means that the sound waves are traveling in your direction, and the portion of sound that reaches your ears can be measured as sound intensity. Sound wave, sound weighting, and sound power level are related concepts but do not specifically refer to the portion of sound that is coming toward you.

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66. In which publication will you find a majority of substance specific standards that you will deal with?

Explanation

The OSHA General Industry Standard (1910 series) is the correct answer because it contains a majority of substance specific standards that one will deal with. This publication specifically addresses standards for general industry, including regulations related to hazardous substances and chemicals. It provides guidelines and requirements for the safe handling, storage, and use of substances in various industries. Therefore, it is the most relevant publication for finding substance specific standards.

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67. What action should you take before you collect any surface or subsurface soil samples?

Explanation

Before collecting any surface or subsurface soil samples, it is important to clear the sampling area of any debris. This is necessary to ensure that the collected samples are not contaminated by any foreign materials that may affect the accuracy of the analysis. Removing debris also helps to create a clean and controlled environment for sampling, reducing the risk of introducing any external factors that could influence the results. Therefore, clearing the sampling area of any debris is a crucial step to obtain reliable and representative soil samples.

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68. All are reasons why solubility is important in understanding the potential hazard of a solvent except that it affects the

Explanation

Solubility is important in understanding the potential hazard of a solvent because it affects the absorption of the substance into the body, the storage of the substance in various tissues, and the distribution of the substance throughout the body. However, it does not directly affect the target organs and the rate at which they are damaged.

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69. Your goal using a direct reading instrument (DRI) to perform air sampling is to obtain

Explanation

When using a direct reading instrument (DRI) to perform air sampling, the goal is to obtain the most representative air sample possible. This means that the sample should accurately reflect the composition of the air in the area being tested. By obtaining a representative sample, any potential hazards or contaminants can be accurately identified and appropriate measures can be taken to ensure the safety of the workers.

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70. After determining the equivalent occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL), you have to compare it to the sampling results based on the full exposure period. Using the Brief and Scala model, if the work shift was 10 hours a day, you divide the actual time you sampled by how much?

Explanation

In order to compare the sampling results to the equivalent OEEL, we need to divide the actual time sampled by the work shift duration. In this case, the work shift is 10 hours a day, so we divide the actual time sampled by 10. This allows us to determine the exposure level over the full exposure period.

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71. What field analyzing equipment can you use to sample for pesticides?

Explanation

The HazCat Kit (Hazardous Category) can be used to sample for pesticides. This kit is specifically designed for identifying and categorizing hazardous substances, including pesticides. It provides a systematic approach to analyzing and classifying hazardous materials, making it a suitable choice for sampling pesticides in the field.

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72. Which wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) thermometer do you use to measure ambient air temperature must be shielded to avoid recording radiant heat?

Explanation

The dry bulb thermometer is used to measure the ambient air temperature and must be shielded to avoid recording radiant heat. Radiant heat is the heat transferred by electromagnetic waves and can affect the accuracy of the measurement. By shielding the dry bulb thermometer, it ensures that only the air temperature is being measured and not the radiant heat.

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73. Which is an important precaution with the wet bulb thermometer that you should take before  you take the measurements?

Explanation

It is important to expose the wet bulb thermometer for 25 minutes before taking the reading. This allows the thermometer to reach thermal equilibrium with the surrounding air, ensuring accurate measurements. By exposing it for a specific duration, any temperature differences caused by handling or previous exposure to heat sources can be minimized, leading to more reliable readings.

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74. Relating to the installation hazard communication (HAZCOM) program, which is a responsibility of the Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight?

Explanation

The responsibility of the Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight in relation to the installation hazard communication (HAZCOM) program is to assess the effectiveness of worker HAZCOM program training, including work area training. This means that they are responsible for evaluating how well the workers have been trained in the HAZCOM program and ensuring that the training is effective. This is important for maintaining a safe and healthy work environment for all workers in the squadron/unit.

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75. When collecting breathing zone air samples, the flow rate has changed since you began sampling. As a worst case measure, which flow rate observed should be used to determine volume collected?

Explanation

When collecting breathing zone air samples, it is important to use the lowest flow rate observed to determine the volume collected. This is because using the lowest flow rate ensures that the volume calculation is based on the smallest amount of air sampled, which is a worst-case scenario. Using a higher flow rate could overestimate the volume collected, leading to inaccurate results. Therefore, the lowest flow rate observed should be used as a conservative measure to determine the volume of collected air.

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76. An upper confidence limit (UCL) need not be calculated when the

Explanation

When the time weighted average (TWA) exceeds the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL), there is a need to calculate the upper confidence limit (UCL). This is because the UCL is used to estimate the upper bound of the true value of a parameter, such as the average exposure level. When the TWA exceeds the OEEL, it indicates that the exposure level is potentially higher than what is considered safe or acceptable. Therefore, calculating the UCL is necessary to determine the range within which the true exposure level may lie, considering the sampling and analytical error.

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77. When evaluating air sampling results, when must you calculate a compliance factor?  

Explanation

When evaluating air sampling results, a compliance factor must be calculated when a worker is exposed to two or more chemicals that have similar toxicological effects. This is because the combined exposure to these chemicals may have a greater impact on the worker's health compared to the individual exposures. By calculating a compliance factor, it helps determine if the combined exposure exceeds the permissible exposure limits and if additional control measures are needed to protect the worker.

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78. What are the two types of augers?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Bucket and screw." An auger is a tool used for drilling holes, and it comes in different types. A bucket auger is designed with a hollow cylinder and a cutting edge at the bottom, used for collecting soil samples. On the other hand, a screw auger has a helical blade that helps in removing soil or other materials from the drilled hole. Therefore, bucket and screw are the two types of augers mentioned in the correct answer.

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79. If you mix or blend your soil sample to create an even distribution of the contamination that is in the soil, what type of sample have you collected?

Explanation

A homogenized sample is obtained by mixing or blending the soil sample to ensure an even distribution of the contamination throughout the sample. This helps in obtaining a representative sample that accurately reflects the average level of contamination in the soil. A uniform sample refers to a sample that has consistent characteristics throughout, which may not necessarily involve mixing or blending. A composite sample is a combination of multiple individual samples to create a representative sample. A homogeneous sample refers to a sample that has the same composition and properties throughout.

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80. What can you use to evaluate the whole body effects of sound?

Explanation

An octave band analyzer is used to evaluate the whole body effects of sound. This device measures sound levels across different frequency bands, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of the impact of sound on the entire body. It provides information on the distribution of sound energy and can help identify potential health risks associated with exposure to specific frequency ranges.

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81. Which is commonly referred to as a key program element in which the workplace is examined to identify existing hazards?

Explanation

Workplace analysis is commonly referred to as a key program element in which the workplace is examined to identify existing hazards. This process involves assessing the physical environment, work practices, and procedures to identify potential hazards that may cause harm or injury to employees. By conducting a thorough workplace analysis, organizations can take necessary measures to prevent accidents and ensure a safe working environment for their employees.

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82. The scheduled work week has changed to 8 hours per day, 6 days per week. Which  reduction factor formula should be used to determine the equivalent occupational and environmental   exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Weekly" because the question states that the work week has changed to 8 hours per day, 6 days per week. To determine the equivalent occupational and environmental exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA), the reduction factor formula for weekly exposure should be used. This implies that the exposure limit is being calculated on a weekly basis, taking into account the number of hours worked per day and the number of days worked per week.

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83. Who will determine if a material meets the hazardous material (HAZMAT) definition?

Explanation

The Hazardous Material Management Program (HMMP) team is responsible for determining if a material meets the hazardous material (HAZMAT) definition. This team is specifically designated to assess and manage hazardous materials in order to ensure the safety and health of workers and the environment. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the characteristics and risks associated with different materials and determine if they meet the criteria to be classified as hazardous.

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84. Why is a compliance factor calculated when evaluating air samples?

Explanation

A compliance factor is calculated when evaluating air samples to assess the combined effects of multiple chemicals that have similar toxicological effects. This factor helps determine the overall impact of these chemicals on human health and ensures that the exposure limit is not exceeded. By considering the combined effects, the evaluation becomes more comprehensive and accurate in assessing the potential risks associated with the air samples.

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85. Which sampling device has a major limitation of not being capable of penetrating stony or rocky soil?

Explanation

The Veihmeyer tube sampler has a major limitation of not being capable of penetrating stony or rocky soil. This means that it may not be able to collect samples effectively in areas with such soil conditions.

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86. Which type of control typically attacks the chain of infection at the means of transmission or susceptible host?

Explanation

Administrative controls typically focus on reducing or eliminating the risk of infection by implementing policies, procedures, and protocols. These controls aim to modify behavior and practices to prevent the transmission of pathogens. By implementing administrative controls, such as proper hand hygiene protocols, isolation procedures, and training on infection prevention, the chain of infection can be disrupted at the means of transmission or susceptible host. These controls are often used in healthcare settings and other high-risk environments to minimize the risk of infection.

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87. Exposure excursions above the occupational and environmental exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA) should not exceed three times the OEEL-TWA for more than a total of how many minutes during a work day?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30. This means that exposure excursions above the occupational and environmental exposure limit-time weighted average (OEEL-TWA) should not exceed three times the OEEL-TWA for more than a total of 30 minutes during a work day. This is important to ensure that workers are not exposed to high levels of hazardous substances for extended periods of time, as it can have negative health effects. By limiting these excursions to 30 minutes, it helps to protect the health and safety of workers.

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88. Provided with the Fighter Index of Thermal Stress (FITS) zone, which office is responsible for determining the zone applicability within the aircrew working environment and providing appropriate warnings to the aircrew?  

Explanation

The Squadron Operation Flight is responsible for determining the zone applicability within the aircrew working environment and providing appropriate warnings to the aircrew. This office is likely to have the necessary expertise and knowledge to assess the Fighter Index of Thermal Stress (FITS) zone and its impact on the aircrew. Public Health may be involved in assessing the overall health and well-being of the aircrew, but they may not specifically focus on FITS zone determinations. Similarly, Meteorological/Weather staff may provide weather-related information, but they may not have the specific expertise to assess FITS zones. Bioenvironmental Engineering may be involved in assessing the environmental impact on the aircrew, but they may not have the authority to provide warnings to the aircrew.

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89. The rule of thumb is to correct for atmospheric conditions if there is a difference from NTP. What change in values indicates you should correct for atmospheric conditions?

Explanation

If the temperature difference is greater than 30°F or there is a change in elevation of more than 1,000 feet, it indicates that atmospheric conditions should be corrected for. This means that the measurements or calculations being made may be affected by the difference in temperature or altitude, and adjustments need to be made to account for these variations.

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90. What is the bioenvironmental engineer's role in the laboratory chemical hygiene plan (CHP)?

Explanation

The bioenvironmental engineer's role in the laboratory chemical hygiene plan (CHP) is to perform exposure determination. This means that they are responsible for assessing and evaluating the potential risks and hazards associated with chemical exposures in the laboratory. They analyze the chemical substances used, the processes involved, and the potential routes of exposure to determine the level of risk to individuals working in the lab. This information is crucial for implementing appropriate safety measures and controls to minimize or eliminate exposure risks.

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91. What type of machine treatment control at the source is the most direct method used to reduce noise hazards associated with equipment vibration?

Explanation

Reducing the driving force is the most direct method used to reduce noise hazards associated with equipment vibration. By reducing the driving force, the amount of vibration produced by the equipment is minimized, resulting in lower levels of noise. This can be achieved through various means such as adjusting the speed or power of the equipment, using damping materials, or implementing design modifications to reduce the forces generated during operation. Isolating the source, moving the worker away, or building a barrier can also help in reducing noise, but they are not as direct as reducing the driving force.

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92. What parameters must you set the octave band analyzer (OBA) at prior to performing the octave band survey?

Explanation

The correct answer is Z-weighting, fast, SPL.

In order to perform an octave band survey using an octave band analyzer (OBA), the parameters that need to be set are Z-weighting, fast time response, and sound pressure level (SPL). Z-weighting is used to measure the sound pressure levels across all frequencies equally, which is important for an accurate representation of the overall sound level. Fast time response is used to capture the instantaneous sound levels, which is suitable for most survey applications. SPL is the unit of measurement for sound pressure level, which is necessary to quantify the sound levels in the survey.

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93. If you sample for 6 hours of an 8-hour shift and the worker stays in the area after sampling, you should calculate the time weighted average using which value?

Explanation

If the worker stays in the area after sampling for 6 hours of an 8-hour shift, it means that the worker is exposed to the area for a total of 6 hours. Therefore, when calculating the time weighted average, the value of 6 hours should be used as it represents the actual duration of exposure to the area.

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94. The use of Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE), Public Health (PH), Operations (Ops), and Weather personnel in establishing and monitoring the thermal environment is considered a  

Explanation

The use of Bioenvironmental Engineering, Public Health, Operations, and Weather personnel indicates that multiple disciplines are involved in establishing and monitoring the thermal environment. This suggests that a multi-disciplinary approach is being used, where experts from different fields collaborate and contribute their expertise to address the various aspects of the thermal environment.

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95. Which of the following is integrated sampling sometimes called?

Explanation

Integrated sampling is a method that involves continuously collecting samples over a specific period of time to obtain an average concentration. This is often done using automated instruments that provide indirect readings of the pollutant levels. The term "continuous" refers to the uninterrupted and ongoing nature of the sampling process. Therefore, the correct answer is "Indirect reading or continuous" because integrated sampling is sometimes referred to as continuous sampling due to its continuous and indirect measurement approach.

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96. What is the characteristic of sound that we measure and report when we quantify sound?

Explanation

When we quantify sound, the characteristic that we measure and report is the sound pressure. Sound pressure refers to the force exerted by sound waves on a surface area, and it is typically measured in units of decibels (dB). Sound pressure is an important metric for understanding the loudness or intensity of sound, and it helps us assess the potential impact of sound on human hearing and the environment.

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97. When correcting for atmospheric conditions, which term refers to the volume that would have been drawn through the sampling media by the pump under standard conditions?

Explanation

The term "volume delivered" refers to the volume that would have been drawn through the sampling media by the pump under standard conditions when correcting for atmospheric conditions. This term is used to account for any variations in atmospheric conditions that could affect the volume of air being sampled. By using the volume delivered, researchers can accurately compare and analyze air samples taken under different atmospheric conditions.

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98. When would you use octave band analysis (OBA) method to determine hearing protection device noise attenuation?

Explanation

The octave band analysis (OBA) method is used to determine the hearing protection device noise attenuation when the 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) exceeds 94 dBA. This means that the average noise level over an 8-hour period is above 94 dBA, indicating a high level of noise exposure. By using the OBA method, the specific frequency bands that contribute to the noise can be identified, allowing for the selection of appropriate hearing protection devices that offer adequate attenuation in those frequency ranges.

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99. The advantage of collecting soil gas samples in the field is that it will

Explanation

Collecting soil gas samples in the field can show the migration pattern of contaminants in the soil. By analyzing the composition of the soil gas, it is possible to identify the presence and movement of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the soil. This information is valuable for assessing the extent and direction of contamination, helping to determine the potential risks and plan remediation strategies accordingly. It is not mentioned in the question that collecting soil gas samples can provide information about the porosity of the soil or the solubility of the soil.

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100. Which is the conversion needed by noise dosimeters that indicate the daily dose as a percent?

Explanation

The conversion needed by noise dosimeters to indicate the daily dose as a percent is the daily equivalent continuous sound level. This conversion takes into account the intensity and duration of the noise exposure over a 24-hour period and calculates the equivalent continuous sound level that would result in the same dose. This allows for a standardized measurement of noise exposure and helps in determining the potential risk to hearing health.

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