4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 3

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  • 1/100 Questions

     Which microorganism is totally dependent on its hosts for replication?

    • Virus.
    • Bacteria.
    • Eukaryotes.
    • Prokaryotes.
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4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 3 - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Bioenvironmental Engineering, focusing on biological hazards and control systems. It includes questions on agents like Anthrax, periods of communicability, and protective measures, crucial for professionals in health and safety fields.

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  • 2. 

    Potential hazardous noise is exposure to steady state noise having an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) noise level greater than or equal to what dBA level?

    • 40 dBA.

    • 75 dBA.

    • 80 dBA.

    • 85 dBA.

    Correct Answer
    A. 85 dBA.
    Explanation
    Potential hazardous noise refers to exposure to steady state noise with a TWA noise level greater than or equal to 85 dBA. This means that if the average noise level over an 8-hour period is 85 dBA or higher, it can be considered potentially hazardous.

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  • 3. 

    If a material safety data sheet (MSDS) is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material, who must request it?

    • Public Health.

    • Ground Safety.

    • Workplace using the product.

    • Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    Correct Answer
    A. Workplace using the product.
    Explanation
    The workplace using the product must request the material safety data sheet (MSDS) if it is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material. The MSDS contains important information about the hazards, handling, and emergency procedures related to the material, ensuring that the workplace can safely use and handle the product. It is the responsibility of the workplace to request the MSDS to ensure compliance with safety regulations and protect the health and safety of employees.

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  • 4. 

    Which control removes the hazard from the work area?

    • Substitution.

    • Administrative.

    • Worker rotation.

    • Personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Substitution.
    Explanation
    Substitution is the control that removes the hazard from the work area. This means replacing the hazardous material or process with a less hazardous one. By substituting the hazard, the risk of harm or injury is significantly reduced. Administrative controls involve implementing policies and procedures to minimize the risk, worker rotation involves rotating workers to different tasks to reduce exposure, and personal protective equipment is used to protect workers from hazards but does not remove the hazard itself.

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  • 5. 

    Which is a disorder of the hand that can be characterized by pain, weakness, and numbness in the fingers, caused by nerve compression in the wrist?  

    • Medial Epicondylitis.

    • Lateral Epicondylitis.

    • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.

    • Hand-Arm Vibration Syndrome.

    Correct Answer
    A. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
    Explanation
    Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a disorder of the hand that is characterized by pain, weakness, and numbness in the fingers. It is caused by nerve compression in the wrist, specifically the median nerve. This compression occurs when the carpal tunnel, a narrow passageway in the wrist, becomes narrowed or inflamed. This can be due to various factors such as repetitive hand movements, injury, or underlying medical conditions. Symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome typically include tingling or numbness in the thumb, index, middle, and ring fingers, as well as weakness in the hand and difficulty gripping objects.

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  • 6. 

    Anthrax is an example of which biohazardous agent?

    • Fungi.

    • Prions.

    • Bacteria.

    • Arboviruses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacteria.
    Explanation
    Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, making it an example of a biohazardous agent that is classified as bacteria.

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  • 7. 

    What type of sample will you use during emergency management settings to identify and quantify airborne threats?

    • Exit.

    • Area.

    • Contrast.

    • Personal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Area.
    Explanation
    In emergency management settings, the type of sample that would be used to identify and quantify airborne threats is an "Area" sample. This type of sample is taken from a specific area or location to measure the presence and concentration of airborne threats such as hazardous chemicals, pollutants, or biological agents. It helps in assessing the level of contamination and determining appropriate response measures to protect the health and safety of individuals in the affected area.

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  • 8. 

    Which is a condition in which the tendon becomes irritated (inflamed) as a result of repeated tensing of that tendon/muscle group?

    • Synovitis.

    • Tendonitis.

    • Raynaud’s phenomenon.

    • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tendonitis.
    Explanation
    Tendonitis is a condition in which the tendon becomes irritated and inflamed due to repeated tensing of that tendon or muscle group. This inflammation can cause pain, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area. Synovitis refers to inflammation of the synovial membrane, which lines the joint capsules. Raynaud's phenomenon is a condition where the blood vessels in the fingers and toes constrict, causing them to turn white or blue. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a condition characterized by compression of the median nerve in the wrist, leading to numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand.

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  • 9. 

     Which is an inefficient delivery system for biological warfare agents?

    • Boats.

    • Aircraft.

    • Truck equipped with sprayers.

    • Conventional explosive munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conventional explosive munitions.
    Explanation
    Conventional explosive munitions are an inefficient delivery system for biological warfare agents because they lack the precision and control required to effectively disperse the agents. These munitions are designed for explosive impact rather than dispersal, making them less suitable for delivering biological agents in a targeted and controlled manner. Boats, aircraft, and trucks equipped with sprayers are all more efficient delivery systems as they allow for better dispersion and control of the agents.

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  • 10. 

    What did Congress enact in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storage and handling of toxic chemicals?

    • State Emergency Response Commission.

    • Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act.

    • Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act.

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act.
    Explanation
    The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act was enacted by Congress in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storage and handling of toxic chemicals. This act aimed to improve chemical safety and emergency preparedness by requiring companies to report information about the hazardous chemicals they use and store, establishing state emergency response commissions, and providing communities with the right to access information about chemical hazards in their area.

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  • 11. 

    What is one of the main components you must include in the Hazard Communications (HAZCOM) Program?

    • A point of contact for HAZMAT (hazardous material.

    • An inventory of hazardous chemical.

    • A listing of controls for each hazard.

    • A tracking system for hazardous materials.

    Correct Answer
    A. An inventory of hazardous chemical.
    Explanation
    One of the main components that must be included in the Hazard Communications (HAZCOM) Program is an inventory of hazardous chemicals. This is important because it allows for proper identification and tracking of the hazardous materials present in the workplace. It ensures that employees are aware of the specific chemicals they may be exposed to and enables the implementation of appropriate safety measures and controls.

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  • 12. 

    When evaluating the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program, what will a shop supervisor need to provide during an occupational and environmental health (OEH) site assessment?

    • Written program documentation.

    • Shop safety PowerPoint slides.

    • A opportunity to inspect workers.

    • Records of the last two air sampling results.

    Correct Answer
    A. Written program documentation.
    Explanation
    During an occupational and environmental health (OEH) site assessment, a shop supervisor will need to provide written program documentation. This is because the evaluation of the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program requires proper documentation of the program's policies, procedures, and protocols. This documentation ensures that the shop is compliant with relevant safety regulations and provides a clear understanding of how the shop communicates and manages hazards. Shop safety PowerPoint slides, an opportunity to inspect workers, and records of air sampling results may also be important aspects of the assessment, but the primary requirement is the written program documentation.

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  • 13. 

    Which statement describes grab sampling?

    • Sample collected over a period of time.

    • Instantaneous sample taken over a short period of time.

    • Samples taken must be analyzed by a certified laboratory.

    • Samples taken to demonstrate compliance with health standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Instantaneous sample taken over a short period of time.
    Explanation
    Grab sampling refers to the process of collecting a sample at a specific moment or instant, usually over a short period of time. It is different from collecting a sample over a period of time, as it captures a snapshot of the sample at a particular point. Grab samples are often used in situations where continuous sampling is not feasible or necessary. The other statements in the options do not accurately describe grab sampling.

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  • 14. 

    Which monitor is intended for compounds that react to certain wavelengths of ultraviolet (UV) light?

    • Gas chromatographs.

    • Particulate monitors.

    • Photoionization detectors.

    • Flame ionization detectors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Photoionization detectors.
    Explanation
    Photoionization detectors are designed to detect compounds that react to certain wavelengths of ultraviolet (UV) light. These detectors work by ionizing molecules in a sample using UV light, which then produces ions that can be measured and used to identify and quantify specific compounds. Gas chromatographs, particulate monitors, and flame ionization detectors are not specifically designed for detecting compounds based on their reaction to UV light.

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  • 15. 

    This occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) is a concentration of contaminants that can never be exceeded during any part of the working exposure.  

    • Skin.

    • Ceiling.

    • Excursions.

    • Short term.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ceiling.
    Explanation
    The term "ceiling" refers to an occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) that should never be exceeded during any part of the working exposure. This means that the concentration of contaminants in the air or environment should never go above the specified ceiling limit.

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  • 16. 

    Recommending personnel use a work/rest cycle to schedule increasing exposures during the first 10 to 14 days of heat exposure is an example of which administrative control?

    • Pace of work.

    • Acclimatization.

    • Awareness training.

    • Scheduling of work.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acclimatization.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is acclimatization. Acclimatization refers to the process of gradually adapting to a new environment or condition, such as heat exposure. Recommending personnel to use a work/rest cycle to schedule increasing exposures during the first 10 to 14 days of heat exposure helps the body gradually adjust and become acclimated to the heat. This helps prevent heat-related illnesses and allows individuals to work more safely and efficiently in hot conditions.

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  • 17. 

    How often are audiometric test booths monitored when all measurements taken are within the Air Force criteria?

    • Monthly.

    • Annually.

    • Quarterly.

    • Bi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Audiometric test booths are monitored annually when all measurements taken are within the Air Force criteria. This means that the booths are checked once a year to ensure that the measurements taken during the tests are within the acceptable range set by the Air Force. Monitoring the booths annually helps to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the tests and ensures that the results are consistent with the established criteria.

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  • 18. 

    What is the goal of biological control measures?

    • Change personnel behaviors.

    • Break the chain of infection.

    • Eliminate the chain of infection.

    • Implement the use of personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Break the chain of infection.
    Explanation
    The goal of biological control measures is to break the chain of infection. This means that the measures aim to interrupt the transmission of infectious diseases by targeting the various links in the chain, such as the infectious agent, reservoir, mode of transmission, and susceptible host. By breaking the chain of infection, the spread of the disease can be prevented or minimized. This can be achieved through various strategies, such as vaccination, quarantine, vector control, and hygiene practices.

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  • 19. 

    What is the gaseous form of a substance that is a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure?

    • Fume.

    • Vapor.

    • Aerosol.

    • Pure gas.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vapor.
    Explanation
    Vapor is the correct answer because it refers to the gaseous form of a substance that is typically a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure. When a substance is heated or undergoes a phase change, it can transition into a vapor state. This term is commonly used to describe the gas phase of substances such as water vapor, steam, or gasoline vapor. Fume, aerosol, and pure gas do not specifically refer to substances that are in a gaseous form due to being a liquid or solid at normal room temperature and pressure.

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  • 20. 

    If a toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials vulnerability assessment final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific US military site, it must receive what classification?

    • TOP SECRET.

    • CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET.

    • FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY.

    • UNCLASSIFIED.

    Correct Answer
    A. CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET.
    Explanation
    If a toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials vulnerability assessment final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific US military site, it must receive a classification of CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET. This is because the information regarding the vulnerability of the military site is sensitive and could potentially be used by adversaries to exploit or attack the site.

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  • 21. 

    Chlorine has a vapor density of 2.47. When identifying inhalation hazards, you would use this vapor density to infer that high concentrations of chlorine would

    • Evaporate slowly.

    • Evaporate quickly.

    • Rise into the air.

    • Sink to the ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sink to the ground.
    Explanation
    Chlorine has a vapor density of 2.47, which means that it is heavier than air. Substances with higher vapor density tend to sink or settle towards the ground rather than rise into the air. Therefore, based on its vapor density, high concentrations of chlorine would be more likely to sink to the ground rather than evaporate quickly or rise into the air.

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  • 22. 

    Your sampling determines workers are exposed to hazardous chemicals which exceed allowable exposure limits. If stated in the relevant standard, what should be established?

    • Regulated area.

    • Restricted area.

    • Remediation area.

    • Requirements area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulated area.
    Explanation
    If workers are exposed to hazardous chemicals that exceed allowable exposure limits, a regulated area should be established. A regulated area is a designated area where specific safety measures and controls are implemented to protect workers from hazardous substances. This may include the use of personal protective equipment, restricted access, and regular monitoring to ensure compliance with the relevant standards and regulations.

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  • 23. 

    While field calibrating an oxygen meter, the equipment fails to hold calibration. What should be done with the meter?

    • Use it, then schedule maintenance.

    • It should not be used until repaired.

    • Turn off and retest after 5 minutes.

    • Remove batteries and retest after 15 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. It should not be used until repaired.
    Explanation
    If the equipment fails to hold calibration, it means that it is not providing accurate measurements. Therefore, it should not be used until it is repaired. Using an oxygen meter that is not calibrated correctly could lead to incorrect readings and potentially dangerous situations.

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  • 24. 

    When performing air sampling, how do you prepare a blank?

    • Keep an unopened tube with the samples.

    • Sample another worker away from the process.

    • Open and immediately seal the media in the work area.

    • Leave an opened tube in an area throughout sampling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Open and immediately seal the media in the work area.
    Explanation
    To prepare a blank when performing air sampling, the correct method is to open and immediately seal the media in the work area. This ensures that any contaminants present in the work area are captured and accounted for in the analysis. Keeping an unopened tube with the samples, sampling another worker away from the process, or leaving an opened tube in an area throughout sampling would not accurately represent the background levels of contaminants in the work area.

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  • 25. 

    If air sampling results are reported in milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3), it is necessary to convert the results to parts per million (ppm) when 

    • The air samples were collected in ppm.

    • The contaminant sampled is primarily an irritant.

    • Correcting results to normal temperature and pressure.

    • The occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) is in ppm.

    Correct Answer
    A. The occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) is in ppm.
    Explanation
    When the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL) is stated in parts per million (ppm), it is necessary to convert the air sampling results from milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) to ppm. This is because the OEEL is the standard or guideline that determines the acceptable level of exposure to a particular contaminant in the air. To compare the air sampling results with the OEEL, they need to be expressed in the same unit of measurement, which is ppm in this case.

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  • 26. 

    There has been a change in practices and procedures in the Nondestructive Inspection workplace involving potentially hazardous noise exposure. Who should notify Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) about these changes in work practices or procedures?

    • Base Safety.

    • Public Health.

    • Wing commander.

    • Workplace supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Workplace supervisor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Workplace supervisor." The workplace supervisor should notify Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) about the changes in work practices or procedures related to potentially hazardous noise exposure. This is because the supervisor is responsible for ensuring the safety and well-being of the employees in the workplace and should be aware of any changes that could impact their health. BE can then assess the situation and provide guidance or recommendations to mitigate the risks associated with the changes.

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  • 27. 

    What effects of noise exposure can be broken down into acoustic trauma, hearing loss, and tinnitus?

    • Auditory.

    • Annoyance.

    • Whole body.

    • Nonauditory.

    Correct Answer
    A. Auditory.
    Explanation
    The effects of noise exposure can be broken down into acoustic trauma, hearing loss, and tinnitus. These effects primarily affect the auditory system, which includes the ears and the ability to hear. Acoustic trauma refers to damage caused by a sudden, intense noise, such as an explosion, which can lead to immediate hearing loss. Prolonged exposure to loud noises can result in gradual hearing loss over time. Tinnitus is the perception of ringing or buzzing sounds in the ears, often caused by damage to the hair cells in the inner ear. These effects are all related to the auditory system and can be attributed to noise exposure.

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  • 28. 

    Which is an important aspect of the employee hazard communication (HAZCOM) program?

    • Employees are aware of their shop category.

    • Employees know how to request hazardous chemicals.

    • Chemical inventories are kept accurate and complete.

    • Employees know how to use chemical hazard information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Employees know how to use chemical hazard information.
    Explanation
    An important aspect of the employee hazard communication (HAZCOM) program is that employees know how to use chemical hazard information. This means that employees are educated and trained on how to read and understand safety data sheets (SDS), labels, and other information related to hazardous chemicals. This knowledge is crucial in order to ensure that employees can identify and mitigate potential hazards in the workplace, and take appropriate precautions to protect themselves and others from harm.

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  • 29. 

    When are air sampling pumps calibrated?

    • Before and after completing sampling.

    • Before sampling begins only.

    • After completing sampling only.

    • Before sampling and after changing sample media.

    Correct Answer
    A. Before and after completing sampling.
    Explanation
    Air sampling pumps are calibrated before and after completing sampling to ensure accurate and reliable results. Calibration before sampling ensures that the pump is functioning properly and accurately measuring the air samples. Calibration after completing sampling allows for any changes or deviations in the pump's performance to be identified and corrected. By calibrating before and after sampling, the integrity of the data collected is maintained, and any potential errors or inaccuracies can be detected and addressed.

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  • 30. 

    What is known as a range of frequencies that extends from one frequency to double that frequency exactly?

    • A Pascal.

    • A pure tone.

    • Complex sound.

    • An octave band.

    Correct Answer
    A. An octave band.
    Explanation
    An octave band is a range of frequencies that extends from one frequency to double that frequency exactly. This means that the upper frequency of the band is exactly twice the lower frequency.

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  • 31. 

    With regard to noise exposures, whole body effects are also known as

    • Nonauditory effects.

    • Auditory effects.

    • Threshold shifts.

    • Hearing effects.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonauditory effects.
    Explanation
    Whole body effects refer to the effects of noise exposure that go beyond just affecting the auditory system. These effects can include physiological and psychological impacts on the entire body, such as increased stress levels, elevated blood pressure, and sleep disturbances. Nonauditory effects are therefore the correct term to describe these broader impacts of noise exposure on the body.

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  • 32. 

    A period that can last for days, weeks, or months, when a biological threat can be transmitted from person to person is known as

    • Resistance.

    • Contagiousness.

    • Incubation period.

    • Communicability period.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communicability period.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is communicability period. This refers to a specific time frame during which a biological threat, such as a contagious disease, can be transmitted from one person to another. This period can last for days, weeks, or even months, depending on the specific threat. It is important to understand the communicability period in order to implement appropriate measures to prevent the spread of the threat during this time.

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  • 33. 

    Why are blank samples prepared and shipped along with air samples?

    • To measure the affects of temperature and pressure changes during shipping.

    • To measure the affects of temperature and pressure changes during the sampling process.

    • To determine if any contamination occurred after calibrating the sampling pumps and before sampling began.

    • To determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory.

    Correct Answer
    A. To determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory.
    Explanation
    Blank samples are prepared and shipped along with air samples to determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory. This is important because any contamination during this period could affect the accuracy and reliability of the air samples. By analyzing the blank samples, any contamination can be identified and accounted for in the analysis of the air samples.

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  • 34. 

    Which is known as the distance from one point of a sound wave to an identical point on the next wave?

    • Velocity.

    • Amplitude.

    • Frequency.

    • Wavelength.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wavelength.
    Explanation
    Wavelength is the distance between two identical points on consecutive waves. It is commonly used to describe the length of sound waves, with longer wavelengths corresponding to lower frequencies and shorter wavelengths corresponding to higher frequencies. Velocity refers to the speed at which the wave travels, amplitude refers to the maximum displacement of the wave from its equilibrium position, and frequency refers to the number of complete waves that pass a given point in a certain amount of time.

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  • 35. 

    Which is the first stage of evaluating potential noise problems in a workplace?

    • Begin noise dosimetry.

    • Conduct a noise source survey.

    • Examine worker medical records.

    • Identify all noise-producing equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify all noise-producing equipment.
    Explanation
    The first stage of evaluating potential noise problems in a workplace is to identify all noise-producing equipment. This is important because it helps in understanding the sources of noise in the workplace and determining which equipment may be contributing to excessive noise levels. By identifying the noise-producing equipment, further assessments and measurements can be conducted to determine the extent of the noise problem and develop appropriate control measures. Conducting a noise source survey, beginning noise dosimetry, and examining worker medical records are all important steps in evaluating noise problems, but they come after identifying the noise-producing equipment.

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  • 36. 

    What is the hierarchy of thermal stress controls?  

    • Personal protective equipment (PPE), administrative, and engineering.

    • Engineering, PPE, and administrative.

    • Engineering, administrative, and PPE.

    • Administrative, engineering, and PPE.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering, administrative, and PPE.
    Explanation
    The correct hierarchy of thermal stress controls is engineering, administrative, and PPE. This means that the first line of defense against thermal stress should be engineering controls, such as implementing ventilation systems or insulation to reduce heat exposure. If engineering controls are not sufficient, administrative controls should be implemented, such as work-rest schedules or providing cool rest areas. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be the last resort and used only when other controls are not feasible or effective.

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  • 37. 

    What are the most commonly used devices for particulate sampling?

    • Filters.

    • Sorbent tubes.

    • Fritted bubblers.

    • Passive dosimeters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Filters.
    Explanation
    Filters are the most commonly used devices for particulate sampling because they are highly effective in capturing and retaining airborne particles. Filters can be made of various materials such as glass fiber, quartz, or Teflon, and they can be used in both personal and ambient air sampling. They are easy to use, cost-effective, and provide accurate results. Filters are commonly used in industries, research laboratories, and environmental monitoring to assess the level of particulate matter in the air.

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  • 38. 

    With whom does Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) jointly work to determine the Fighter Index of Thermal Stress zones based on the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) measurements?

    • Public Health.

    • Unit commander.

    • Meteorological/Weather staff.

    • Squadron Operation Flights.

    Correct Answer
    A. Meteorological/Weather staff.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) works jointly with the Meteorological/Weather staff to determine the Fighter Index of Thermal Stress zones based on the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) measurements. The Meteorological/Weather staff provides the necessary weather data and expertise to calculate the WBGT, which is a measure of thermal stress. This information is crucial for BE to assess the potential health risks and make recommendations for the safety and well-being of personnel in different areas. The collaboration between BE and the Meteorological/Weather staff ensures accurate and reliable assessments of thermal stress zones.

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  • 39. 

    If you wanted to know the signs and symptoms of exposure to a chemical product, what part of the material safety data sheet (MSDS) would you review?

    • Hazards Identification.

    • Physical and Chemical Properties.

    • Composition/Information on Ingredients.

    • Exposure Controls and Personal Protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hazards Identification.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Hazards Identification. This section of the material safety data sheet (MSDS) provides information about the potential hazards associated with the chemical product. It includes details about the signs and symptoms of exposure, such as irritation, respiratory problems, or skin reactions. Reviewing this section can help to identify the possible health effects of the chemical and ensure appropriate safety measures are taken.

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  • 40. 

    When identifying toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials in the vicinity of an installation, you should evaluate facilities within

    • 5 miles of the installation.

    • 10 miles of the installation.

    • 15 miles of the installation.

    • 20 miles of the installation.

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 miles of the installation.
    Explanation
    When identifying toxic industrial chemicals and materials in the vicinity of an installation, it is recommended to evaluate facilities within a larger radius of 20 miles. This wider range allows for a more comprehensive assessment of potential hazards and ensures that all nearby facilities that may pose a risk are considered. Evaluating facilities within a smaller radius may result in overlooking potentially dangerous sources of toxic substances.

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  • 41. 

    Air monitoring devices are a form of what kind of control?

    • Engineering.

    • Ventilation.

    • Administrative.

    • Personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative.
    Explanation
    Air monitoring devices are a form of administrative control because they are used to monitor and measure air quality in a specific area. These devices help in identifying potential hazards or pollutants in the air and allow for necessary actions to be taken to control or mitigate the risks. Administrative controls involve implementing policies, procedures, and protocols to manage and reduce exposure to hazards, and air monitoring devices play a crucial role in this process.

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  • 42. 

    What entity can only issue to the requestor those items specifically identified on the AF IMT 3952?

    • Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    • HAZMART.

    • Hazardous Material Management Program (HMMP) team.

    • OEH (occupational and environmental health) Working Group.

    Correct Answer
    A. HAZMART.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HAZMART. HAZMART is the entity that can only issue to the requestor those items specifically identified on the AF IMT 3952. This suggests that HAZMART is responsible for managing and distributing hazardous materials, ensuring that only the requested items are provided to the requestor.

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  • 43. 

    You should calculate a compliance factor for multiple chemicals because they can affect the worker how?

    • React to each other.

    • Attack the same organ in the same way.

    • Produce irritation at high concentrations.

    • Cause the same illness in different organs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Attack the same organ in the same way.
    Explanation
    Calculating a compliance factor for multiple chemicals is important because they can have a cumulative effect on a worker's health. When chemicals attack the same organ in the same way, it means that they have a similar mode of action and can cause additive or synergistic effects when combined. This can lead to increased toxicity and a higher risk of adverse health effects. Therefore, understanding how chemicals interact and affect the same organ is crucial in determining the overall risk and developing appropriate safety measures.

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  • 44. 

    When setting up the sampling train, you must assemble the sample pump, the tubing, soap bubble buret and which of the following?  

    • Rotometer.

    • Pump holder.

    • Sample media.

    • Buret holder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sample media.
    Explanation
    When setting up the sampling train, you need to assemble various components including the sample pump, tubing, soap bubble buret, and the sample media. The sample media refers to the material or substance that is being sampled or collected during the process. It could be air, water, soil, or any other substance that is being analyzed or tested. The sample media is an essential component of the sampling train as it is the material that is being collected for analysis.

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  • 45. 

    When sampling for vapors, why are minimum and maximum flow rates used with a solid sorbent tube?

    • Ensure tube is correctly placed.

    • Ensure flexibility in your sampling strategy.

    • Ensure the sample is collected without damaging the media.

    • Ensure contaminant will be in contact with collection media long enough to be captured.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure contaminant will be in contact with collection media long enough to be captured.
    Explanation
    The use of minimum and maximum flow rates with a solid sorbent tube ensures that the contaminant will be in contact with the collection media for a sufficient amount of time to be captured. By setting a minimum flow rate, it ensures that the sample is collected at a slow enough rate to allow for proper adsorption onto the sorbent material. On the other hand, setting a maximum flow rate prevents the sample from being collected too quickly, which could result in insufficient contact time with the sorbent material and lower collection efficiency. Overall, using both minimum and maximum flow rates helps to optimize the collection of vapors on a solid sorbent tube.

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  • 46. 

     In a biologically contaminated environment, which biological health threat control would enable personnel to work or gain rest and relief without wearing individual protective equipment?

    • Administrative.

    • Shelter-in-place.

    • Collective protective system.

    • Ventilated biological cabinets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collective protective system.
    Explanation
    A collective protective system is designed to create a safe and controlled environment in a biologically contaminated area. It includes measures such as air filtration, pressurization, and decontamination systems to ensure that the space is free from biological hazards. With a collective protective system in place, personnel can work or take breaks without the need for individual protective equipment, as the system provides a barrier against the biological health threats.

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  • 47. 

    All of the following characteristics make toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials attractive improvised weapons except which one?

    • Very large quantities.

    • Modes of transportation.

    • Inability to safeguard against.

    • Potential to cause illness/injury.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inability to safeguard against.
    Explanation
    Toxic industrial chemicals and materials are attractive improvised weapons due to their potential to cause illness or injury, their modes of transportation, and the fact that they can be obtained in very large quantities. However, the inability to safeguard against them does not make them attractive weapons. This suggests that there are measures or precautions that can be taken to protect against their harmful effects, making them less desirable as weapons.

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  • 48. 

    The recommended flow rate of an example chemical is 0.5 to 1.0 liters per minute (lpm). If you wanted to calculate the minimum amount of time you can sample and still meet the limit of detection, what flow rate would you use?

    • 0.25 lpm.

    • 0.5 lpm.

    • 1.0 lpm.

    • 1.5 lpm.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.0 lpm.
    Explanation
    The recommended flow rate of the example chemical is 0.5 to 1.0 liters per minute (lpm). In order to calculate the minimum amount of time needed to meet the limit of detection, it is necessary to use the maximum flow rate within the recommended range. Therefore, the flow rate that should be used is 1.0 lpm.

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  • 49. 

    What is an important factor to consider when developing your sampling methodology?

    • Topography.

    • Time of day.

    • Where to sample.

    • Weather conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Where to sample.
    Explanation
    When developing a sampling methodology, one important factor to consider is where to sample. This refers to selecting the specific locations or sites from which the samples will be collected. The choice of sampling locations can significantly impact the representativeness and accuracy of the collected data. Factors such as the presence of potential sources of contamination, variability in the target population, and accessibility should be taken into account when determining where to sample. By carefully selecting the sampling locations, researchers can ensure that the collected samples are truly representative of the population or phenomenon being studied.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Mav_2591

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