4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 4
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following provides regulatory oversight for the use of radioactive materials by Air Force organizations?
- A.
AF RIC.
- B.
RSC.
- C.
USAF/SG.
- D.
EPA.
Correct Answer
A. AF RIC.Explanation
AF RIC stands for Air Force Radioisotope Committee. The AF RIC provides regulatory oversight for the use of radioactive materials by Air Force organizations. They ensure that the use of radioactive materials is conducted safely and in accordance with regulations and guidelines. The AF RIC is responsible for reviewing and approving requests for the use of radioactive materials, conducting inspections and audits, and providing guidance and training to ensure compliance with radiation safety requirements.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who is the unit commander’s point of contact for radiation protection matters?
- A.
Unit radiation safety officer
- B.
Command radiation safety officer.
- C.
Installation radiation safety officer.
- D.
Unit radiation safety committee officer.
Correct Answer
A. Unit radiation safety officerExplanation
The unit radiation safety officer is the point of contact for radiation protection matters for the unit commander. They are responsible for ensuring that proper radiation safety protocols are followed within the unit and for providing guidance and support to the unit commander in matters related to radiation protection.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The more kinetic energy the electrons have, the
- A.
Closer they are to each other.
- B.
Closer they are to the nucleus.
- C.
Farther they are from each other.
- D.
Farther they are from the nucleus.
Correct Answer
D. Farther they are from the nucleus.Explanation
As the electrons gain more kinetic energy, they move to higher energy levels or orbitals farther away from the nucleus. This is because the increased energy allows them to overcome the attractive force of the nucleus and move to higher energy levels where they are less tightly bound. Therefore, the more kinetic energy the electrons have, the farther they are from the nucleus.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What form of energy does a rock rolling down a hill contain?
- A.
Kinetic.
- B.
Velocity.
- C.
Potential.
- D.
Centrifugal.
Correct Answer
A. Kinetic.Explanation
When a rock is rolling down a hill, it possesses kinetic energy. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion, and it depends on the mass and velocity of an object. As the rock rolls down the hill, it gains speed and its motion increases, resulting in an increase in its kinetic energy. Therefore, the correct answer is kinetic.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The magnetic field is also known as the
- A.
E field.
- B.
H field.
- C.
K field.
- D.
M field.
Correct Answer
B. H field.Explanation
The correct answer is H field. The magnetic field is commonly referred to as the H field. This field represents the magnetic intensity or magnetizing field and is measured in units of ampere per meter (A/m). It is used to describe the magnetic properties and behavior of materials. The H field is related to the magnetic flux density (B field) through the material's magnetic permeability.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The number of electromagnetic waves passing a certain point in one second is known as
- A.
Energy.
- B.
Intensity.
- C.
Frequency.
- D.
Wavelength.
Correct Answer
C. Frequency.Explanation
The number of electromagnetic waves passing a certain point in one second is known as frequency. Frequency is a measure of how many complete cycles of a wave occur in a given time period. It is measured in hertz (Hz) and is directly related to the energy and wavelength of the wave. A higher frequency corresponds to a greater number of waves passing a point in one second, indicating a higher energy and shorter wavelength. Therefore, frequency is the correct answer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 7.
As the frequency becomes higher, wavelength becomes
- A.
Slower.
- B.
Longer.
- C.
Faster.
- D.
Shorter.
Correct Answer
D. Shorter.Explanation
As the frequency of a wave increases, the wavelength decreases. This is because frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other. Higher frequency means more oscillations per unit time, which results in shorter distances between the wave's crests or troughs. Therefore, as the frequency becomes higher, the wavelength becomes shorter.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The amount of energy flowing through a given area in a certain amount of time refers to what measure of electromagnetic radiation?
- A.
Activity.
- B.
Frequency.
- C.
Intensity.
- D.
Wavelength.
Correct Answer
C. Intensity.Explanation
Intensity refers to the amount of energy flowing through a given area in a certain amount of time. In the context of electromagnetic radiation, it specifically refers to the amount of energy carried by the radiation per unit area. Frequency refers to the number of cycles of the wave that occur in a given time period, wavelength refers to the distance between two consecutive points on the wave, and activity does not directly relate to the energy flow of electromagnetic radiation.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A tanning booth is a good example of which type of radiation?
- A.
Gamma.
- B.
Visible.
- C.
Infrared.
- D.
Ultraviolet.
Correct Answer
D. Ultraviolet.Explanation
A tanning booth emits ultraviolet radiation, specifically UV-A and UV-B rays. These rays penetrate the skin and stimulate the production of melanin, causing the skin to darken or tan. While excessive exposure to UV radiation can be harmful and increase the risk of skin cancer, controlled exposure in a tanning booth can provide a desired tan.Rate this question:
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- 10.
This type of radiation is commonly emitted by furnaces and molten metals.
- A.
Gamma.
- B.
Visible.
- C.
Infrared.
- D.
Ultraviolet.
Correct Answer
C. Infrared.Explanation
Infrared radiation is commonly emitted by furnaces and molten metals. Infrared radiation has longer wavelengths than visible light and is not visible to the human eye. It is often associated with heat and is used in various applications such as heating and thermal imaging. Gamma radiation, on the other hand, is a high-energy form of electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by radioactive substances, while visible light is the range of electromagnetic radiation that is visible to the human eye. Ultraviolet radiation has shorter wavelengths than visible light and is emitted by the sun, while infrared radiation has longer wavelengths.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which radiation has the ability to separate orbital electrons from their nuclei creating an ion?
- A.
Visible.
- B.
Ionizing.
- C.
Ultraviolet.
- D.
Nonionizing.
Correct Answer
B. Ionizing.Explanation
Ionizing radiation has the ability to separate orbital electrons from their nuclei, creating an ion. This type of radiation has enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, resulting in the formation of ions. Visible, ultraviolet, and nonionizing radiation do not possess enough energy to cause this ionization process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which component amplifies the RFR signal?
- A.
Receiver.
- B.
Modulator.
- C.
Transmitter
- D.
Transmission line.
Correct Answer
C. TransmitterExplanation
The transmitter is responsible for generating and sending the radio frequency (RF) signal. It takes the input signal and amplifies it to a level suitable for transmission. Therefore, the transmitter is the component that amplifies the RF signal.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which component transfers RFR energy to the antenna?
- A.
Receiver.
- B.
Modulator.
- C.
Transmitter.
- D.
Transmission line.
Correct Answer
D. Transmission line.Explanation
The transmission line is the component that transfers RFR (Radio Frequency Radiation) energy to the antenna. It acts as a conduit, carrying the RF signal from the transmitter to the antenna, ensuring efficient transfer of energy. The receiver is responsible for capturing and processing the signal, while the modulator is responsible for modifying the signal. However, in this case, it is the transmission line that directly transfers the energy to the antenna.Rate this question:
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- 14.
If the wavelength of a RFR emission is 20 cm, a waveguide designed for it must have one dimension that is at least
- A.
5 cm.
- B.
10 cm.
- C.
20 cm.
- D.
40 cm.
Correct Answer
B. 10 cm.Explanation
The wavelength of a radio frequency (RFR) emission determines the minimum size of a waveguide designed for it. The waveguide must have a dimension that is at least one-half of the wavelength in order to effectively transmit the RFR signal. In this case, the wavelength is 20 cm, so the waveguide must have a dimension of at least 10 cm to accommodate the RFR emission.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is an example of a RFR emitter the USAF uses for its mission?
- A.
Cathode.
- B.
Scanner.
- C.
Laser pointer.
- D.
Electronic countermeasures.
Correct Answer
D. Electronic countermeasures.Explanation
The USAF uses electronic countermeasures as an example of a RFR emitter for its mission. Electronic countermeasures are devices or systems that emit radio frequency radiation (RFR) to disrupt or deceive enemy radar, communication, or other electronic systems. These countermeasures are used to protect aircraft from detection or attack, making them an essential tool for the USAF in carrying out their missions effectively.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which RFR health effect is the biological effect not associated with thermal absorption?
- A.
Indirect.
- B.
Thermal.
- C.
Athermal.
- D.
Resonance.
Correct Answer
C. Athermal.Explanation
The correct answer is "Athermal." Athermal refers to the absence of heat or thermal effects. In the context of RFR (Radio Frequency Radiation), it means that there is no biological effect associated with thermal absorption. This suggests that the health effects of RFR are not related to the heating of tissues or cells. Instead, other mechanisms such as resonance or indirect effects may be responsible for the biological effects of RFR.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which RFR emitter should be the highest priority during the evaluation phase?
- A.
Ground-level hazard.
- B.
Climbing hazard.
- C.
Short duration.
- D.
Inaccessible.
Correct Answer
A. Ground-level hazard.Explanation
During the evaluation phase, the highest priority should be given to the ground-level hazard. This means that any emitter that poses a risk or danger at ground level should be addressed and mitigated first. This is because hazards at ground level can potentially cause immediate harm or injury to individuals, making them the most urgent to deal with.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which RFR emitter should be the second priority during the evaluation phase?
- A.
Inaccessible.
- B.
Short duration.
- C.
Climbing hazard.
- D.
Ground-level hazard.
Correct Answer
C. Climbing hazard.Explanation
During the evaluation phase, the second priority should be given to the climbing hazard RFR emitter. This is because a climbing hazard poses a significant risk to individuals who may come into contact with it. It is important to address and mitigate this hazard to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any accidents or injuries that may occur due to climbing hazards.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When evaluating these RFR emitters, their repair and maintenance shops should be a higher priority than routine operations.
- A.
Inaccessible.
- B.
Short duration.
- C.
Climbing hazard.
- D.
Ground-level hazard.
Correct Answer
B. Short duration.Explanation
The correct answer is "Short duration." This means that the repair and maintenance shops of the RFR emitters should be given a higher priority compared to routine operations because the repair and maintenance tasks are expected to be completed quickly.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which risk rating indicates the transmission time is too short to exceed the average power density allowed for that frequency?
- A.
Low.
- B.
High.
- C.
Moderate.
- D.
Acceptable.
Correct Answer
A. Low.Explanation
The risk rating "Low" indicates that the transmission time is too short to exceed the average power density allowed for that frequency. This means that the transmission is within the acceptable limits and does not pose a significant risk in terms of power density.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If you need the RFR PEL for radiation workers that have been trained and understand the hazards of exposure, you should look in the table for which environment?
- A.
Uncontrolled.
- B.
Unshielded.
- C.
Controlled.
- D.
Shielded.
Correct Answer
C. Controlled.Explanation
The correct answer is "Controlled" because the question is asking for the appropriate table to look in for the RFR PEL (Permissible Exposure Limit) for radiation workers who have been trained and understand the hazards of exposure. In a controlled environment, measures are taken to limit and control the exposure to radiation, so the table for this environment would provide the necessary information for these workers.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which RFR environment would describe the exposure for customers at a golf course near an emitter?
- A.
Shielded.
- B.
Controlled.
- C.
Unshielded.
- D.
Uncontrolled.
Correct Answer
D. Uncontrolled.Explanation
The exposure for customers at a golf course near an emitter would be described as uncontrolled. This means that there are no measures in place to limit or mitigate the exposure to the emissions from the emitter. Customers would be directly exposed to the emissions without any form of shielding or control.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which kind of system is described with the information below? Frequency: 150 MHz PW: 1.2 microseconds PRF: 320 pps Antenna gain: 52 dB Antenna type: Aperature
- A.
Laser.
- B.
Pulsed wave.
- C.
Ionizing source.
- D.
Continuous wave.
Correct Answer
B. Pulsed wave.Explanation
The given information includes the frequency, pulse width, PRF (Pulse Repetition Frequency), and antenna type. Pulsed wave systems use short bursts or pulses of energy with specific pulse widths and PRF. The frequency of 150 MHz also suggests a pulsed wave system. The antenna gain and type (aperture) are not relevant to determining the type of system. Therefore, based on the given information, the correct answer is pulsing wave.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What step must you take after obtaining RFR meter readings in order to find the real power density?
- A.
Compensate for temperature.
- B.
Multiply by the correction factor.
- C.
Account for the calibration curve.
- D.
Calculate the time-weighted average.
Correct Answer
B. Multiply by the correction factor.Explanation
After obtaining RFR meter readings, you need to multiply them by the correction factor in order to find the real power density. This is because the correction factor adjusts the readings to account for any discrepancies or inaccuracies in the measurement. By multiplying the readings by the correction factor, you can obtain a more accurate and reliable value for the real power density.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When performing RFR measurements, always start
- A.
Farther away from the antenna than the calculated distance.
- B.
The same area around the antenna as the calculated distance.
- C.
Twice the calculated distance away from the antenna.
- D.
Closer to the antenna than the calculated distance.
Correct Answer
A. Farther away from the antenna than the calculated distance.Explanation
When performing RFR (Radio Frequency Radiation) measurements, it is recommended to start farther away from the antenna than the calculated distance. This is because the calculated distance is based on theoretical calculations and may not account for real-world factors such as reflections, diffractions, and obstructions. By starting farther away, it helps to ensure that the measurements are taken in a more conservative and accurate manner, reducing the risk of potential RF exposure.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Where should you hold the probe while conducting RFR measurements?
- A.
Above your head.
- B.
Close to your body.
- C.
In front of your body.
- D.
To one side of your body.
Correct Answer
C. In front of your body.Explanation
The probe should be held in front of your body while conducting RFR measurements. This position ensures that the probe is exposed to the same level of radiation as your body, providing accurate measurements. Holding the probe above your head, close to your body, or to one side of your body may result in inaccurate readings as the probe may not be exposed to the same level of radiation.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which RFR control is specifically required for controlled areas where frequencies are below 30 MHz?
- A.
Electrical safety matting.
- B.
Safety interlocks.
- C.
Wooden fences.
- D.
Dummy loads.
Correct Answer
A. Electrical safety matting.Explanation
Electrical safety matting is specifically required for controlled areas where frequencies are below 30 MHz because it provides insulation and protection against electrical shock. Frequencies below 30 MHz are typically associated with low-frequency electrical systems, and the use of electrical safety matting helps to prevent electrical accidents and ensure the safety of personnel working in these areas. Safety interlocks, wooden fences, and dummy loads are not directly related to controlling frequencies or providing electrical safety in this context.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which type of control is not authorized to control RFR exposure?
- A.
Flashing lights.
- B.
Isolation techniques.
- C.
Personal protective equipment.
- D.
Posting a qualified technician to observe.
Correct Answer
C. Personal protective equipment.Explanation
Personal protective equipment (PPE) is not authorized to control radiofrequency radiation (RFR) exposure. PPE, such as gloves, goggles, or aprons, is used to protect individuals from physical or chemical hazards, but it does not provide protection against RFR. RFR exposure can only be controlled through engineering controls, administrative controls, and safe work practices.Rate this question:
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- 29.
At the onset of an RFR overexposure investigation, make sure the exposed individual gets a
- A.
Medical evaluation.
- B.
Record of exposure.
- C.
Thorough interview.
- D.
Complete report.
Correct Answer
A. Medical evaluation.Explanation
In the onset of an RFR overexposure investigation, it is important to prioritize the health and well-being of the exposed individual. A medical evaluation is necessary to assess any potential health effects or symptoms resulting from the overexposure. This evaluation will help determine the appropriate course of action and treatment for the individual. A record of exposure, thorough interview, and complete report may also be important in the investigation process, but the immediate concern should be the medical evaluation of the exposed individual.Rate this question:
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- 30.
You must forward all documentation of RFR overexposure investigation to USAFSAM if the exposures may have exceeded at least
- A.
The PEL.
- B.
Two times the PEL.
- C.
Five times the PEL.
- D.
10 times the PEL.
Correct Answer
C. Five times the PEL.Explanation
If the exposures in the RFR overexposure investigation may have exceeded at least five times the permissible exposure limit (PEL), then all documentation of the investigation must be forwarded to USAFSAM.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The three components required for a laser to operate are a laser medium, an optical cavity, and a
- A.
Light source.
- B.
Focusing lens.
- C.
Targeting mirror.
- D.
Pumping system.
Correct Answer
D. Pumping system.Explanation
A pumping system is necessary for a laser to operate because it provides the energy required to excite the atoms or molecules in the laser medium. This excitation creates a population inversion, which is necessary for the amplification of light. The pumping system can use various methods such as electrical discharge, flash lamps, or diode lasers to provide the energy needed. Without a pumping system, the laser medium would not be able to reach the necessary energy levels to produce a laser beam.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which laser is incapable of causing injury during normal use?
- A.
Class 1.
- B.
Class 2.
- C.
Class 3a.
- D.
Class 4.
Correct Answer
A. Class 1.Explanation
Class 1 lasers are considered safe and incapable of causing injury during normal use. They have low power levels and are not hazardous, even with prolonged exposure. Class 2, Class 3a, and Class 4 lasers, on the other hand, have higher power levels and can potentially cause harm if not used properly.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which laser is hazardous to view under any condition?
- A.
Class 1.
- B.
Class 2.
- C.
Class 3a.
- D.
Class 4.
Correct Answer
D. Class 4.Explanation
Class 4 lasers are hazardous to view under any condition because they emit high-power laser beams that can cause severe eye injuries, including permanent blindness. These lasers have the highest level of potential danger and require strict safety precautions to be followed. In contrast, Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3a lasers have lower power levels and are considered less hazardous, with Class 1 being the least hazardous.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which wavelength range damages the cornea by the same photochemical mechanism as bright sunlight?
- A.
Far UV.
- B.
Far IR.
- C.
Near UV.
- D.
Visible.
Correct Answer
A. Far UV.Explanation
Far UV refers to the ultraviolet (UV) radiation with wavelengths shorter than those in the near UV range. This type of UV radiation has high energy and can cause damage to the cornea through a photochemical mechanism similar to that of bright sunlight. The cornea is particularly sensitive to UV radiation, and prolonged exposure to far UV can lead to conditions such as corneal inflammation, cataracts, and even damage to the retina. Therefore, it is important to protect the eyes from far UV radiation by wearing appropriate sunglasses or using other protective measures.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is a nonbeam hazard associated with the use of lasers?
- A.
Photokeratitis.
- B.
Compressed gases.
- C.
Thermo mechanical.
- D.
Pigment darkening.
Correct Answer
B. Compressed gases.Explanation
Compressed gases are a nonbeam hazard associated with the use of lasers because they can pose a risk of explosion or fire if mishandled or if there is a leak in the gas system. This hazard is not directly related to the laser beam itself, but rather to the storage and handling of gases used in conjunction with lasers. Photokeratitis, thermo mechanical effects, and pigment darkening are all beam hazards that can occur when the laser beam directly interacts with the eyes or skin.Rate this question:
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- 36.
As part of the OEHSA process you have identified a small number of personnel exposed to laser hazards. What do you establish in order to capture the population at risk?
- A.
Nominal hazard zone.
- B.
Laser safety program.
- C.
AOC.
- D.
SEG.
Correct Answer
D. SEG.Explanation
To capture the population at risk of laser hazards, you establish a SEG, which stands for Specific Examination Group. This refers to a group of personnel who have been identified as being exposed to laser hazards and need to undergo specific examinations to assess their health and safety. The SEG helps ensure that the at-risk individuals receive the necessary attention and precautions to prevent any harm or injury caused by laser hazards.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which step in the OEHSA process do you collect information on where the laser is used?
- A.
Site identification.
- B.
Baseline activities.
- C.
Site reconnaissance.
- D.
Conceptual site model.
Correct Answer
C. Site reconnaissance.Explanation
In the OEHSA process, site reconnaissance involves collecting information on where the laser is used. This step typically involves conducting a physical inspection of the site to gather data on the specific areas where the laser is being utilized. This information is crucial for understanding the potential hazards and risks associated with laser use and for developing appropriate control measures to ensure the safety of workers and the environment. Site identification, baseline activities, and conceptual site model are other steps in the OEHSA process but do not specifically involve collecting information on the location of laser use.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What program does the Air Force use for laser safety assessment and hazard control?
- A.
LHAZ.
- B.
ASIMS.
- C.
DOEHRS.
- D.
OEH-MIS.
Correct Answer
A. LHAZ.Explanation
LHAZ is the program that the Air Force uses for laser safety assessment and hazard control.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which skin cover fabric provides the best protection against lasers?
- A.
Loose.
- B.
Light colored.
- C.
Tightly woven.
- D.
Darkly colored.
Correct Answer
C. Tightly woven.Explanation
Tightly woven fabric provides the best protection against lasers because the close-knit structure of the fabric prevents the laser beams from penetrating through the material. This helps to minimize the risk of burns or other injuries caused by laser exposure. Loose fabric, light-colored fabric, and darkly colored fabric are not as effective in blocking laser beams, as they may have larger gaps between the fibers or allow more light to pass through. Therefore, tightly woven fabric is the most suitable choice for ensuring maximum protection against lasers.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Within what spectral region of the electromagnetic spectrum does ultraviolet radiation fall?
- A.
100–400 nanometers.
- B.
400–700 nanometers.
- C.
700–1400 nanometers.
- D.
1400–3000 nanometers.
Correct Answer
A. 100–400 nanometers.Explanation
Ultraviolet radiation falls within the spectral region of 100–400 nanometers in the electromagnetic spectrum. This region is characterized by shorter wavelengths than visible light, making it invisible to the human eye. Ultraviolet radiation is known for its ability to cause sunburn, skin damage, and even skin cancer.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The ultraviolet rays located in the UV-B range of the electromagnetic spectrum are considered the most destructive form of ultraviolet radiation because they
- A.
Have the ability to kill bacteria.
- B.
Produce a pigment-darkening effect.
- C.
Are the strongest of the ultraviolet rays.
- D.
Have enough energy to cause photochemical damage to cellular DNA.
Correct Answer
D. Have enough energy to cause photochemical damage to cellular DNA. -
- 42.
What is the most common adverse response attributable to repeated exposure to ultraviolet radiation by the skin?
- A.
Conjunctivitis.
- B.
Photokeratitis.
- C.
Flash burn.
- D.
Erythema.
Correct Answer
D. Erythema.Explanation
Repeated exposure to ultraviolet radiation by the skin can lead to erythema, which is a common adverse response. Erythema refers to the redness and inflammation of the skin caused by increased blood flow to the affected area. This is a typical reaction of the skin to UV radiation and is often seen as a sunburn. It is important to protect the skin from excessive UV exposure to prevent erythema and other potential skin damage.Rate this question:
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- 43.
When considering a non-solar source of ultraviolet radiation, which option would be a suitable engineering control?
- A.
Sunscreen.
- B.
Sunglasses.
- C.
Filter lenses.
- D.
Blocking filters.
Correct Answer
D. Blocking filters.Explanation
Blocking filters would be a suitable engineering control for a non-solar source of ultraviolet radiation. Blocking filters are designed to absorb or reflect specific wavelengths of ultraviolet radiation, preventing them from passing through. This can help protect individuals from harmful UV radiation in environments where it is present, such as in certain industrial or laboratory settings. Sunscreen and sunglasses are personal protective equipment rather than engineering controls, and while filter lenses can provide some protection, blocking filters are specifically designed for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 44.
In which of the following items would near-infrared radiation be used?
- A.
Black light.
- B.
Germicidal lamp.
- C.
Television remote.
- D.
Mercury vapor lamp.
Correct Answer
C. Television remote.Explanation
Near-infrared radiation is used in television remotes to transmit signals to the television. This type of radiation is not used in black lights, germicidal lamps, or mercury vapor lamps.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Because infrared radiation is detectable as heat, exposures can be a significant contributor to what condition?
- A.
Erythema.
- B.
Thermal stress.
- C.
Basal cell carcinoma.
- D.
Squamous cell carcinoma.
Correct Answer
B. Thermal stress.Explanation
Exposure to infrared radiation can cause thermal stress, which refers to the body's inability to regulate its temperature effectively. This can lead to various health issues such as heat exhaustion, heat stroke, and dehydration. Therefore, thermal stress is the most likely condition that can be caused by infrared radiation exposure.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is one biological effect that can be associated with an overexposure to infrared radiation?
- A.
Phytosensitivity.
- B.
Lens yellowing.
- C.
Corneal burn.
- D.
Flash burn.
Correct Answer
C. Corneal burn.Explanation
Overexposure to infrared radiation can cause a biological effect known as corneal burn. This occurs when the cornea, the transparent front part of the eye, is damaged by excessive exposure to infrared radiation. This can lead to pain, redness, and vision problems. It is important to protect the eyes from overexposure to infrared radiation to prevent such injuries.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following infrared radiation control options can be associated with the principle of shielding?
- A.
Interlocking doors.
- B.
Protective clothing.
- C.
Blocking filters.
- D.
Canopies.
Correct Answer
B. Protective clothing.Explanation
Protective clothing can be associated with the principle of shielding because it acts as a barrier between the wearer and the infrared radiation. The clothing is designed to absorb or reflect the radiation, preventing it from reaching the skin and causing harm. This principle is similar to shielding, where a physical barrier is used to block or reduce the transmission of radiation. In this case, the protective clothing serves as a shield against the infrared radiation.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When determining infrared radiation hazard controls, what is the selection of a barrier dependent upon?
- A.
Wavelength.
- B.
Thermal load.
- C.
Total exposure time.
- D.
Distance from the source.
Correct Answer
A. Wavelength.Explanation
The selection of a barrier when determining infrared radiation hazard controls is dependent upon the wavelength. Different wavelengths of infrared radiation have varying levels of energy and can penetrate different types of barriers. Therefore, the selection of a barrier should be based on the specific wavelength of the infrared radiation being emitted.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Upon what timeframe are the TLV® for an occupational exposure of the eyes to nearinfrared radiation based?
- A.
7-day workweek.
- B.
5-day workweek.
- C.
8-hour workday.
- D.
10-hour workday.
Correct Answer
C. 8-hour workday.Explanation
The TLV® for an occupational exposure of the eyes to near-infrared radiation is based on an 8-hour workday. This means that the recommended limit for exposure to near-infrared radiation is calculated based on an 8-hour period of work.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When an element is unstable, what will it do to achieve stability?
- A.
Augment energy.
- B.
Expand energy.
- C.
Bind particles of energy.
- D.
Emit particles of energy.
Correct Answer
D. Emit particles of energy.Explanation
When an element is unstable, it will emit particles of energy in order to achieve stability. This process is known as radioactive decay, where unstable atoms release excess energy in the form of particles such as alpha particles, beta particles, or gamma rays. By emitting these particles, the unstable element transforms into a more stable configuration, with a lower energy state. This emission of energy helps the element to achieve a more balanced and stable state.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 10, 2011Quiz Created by
Mav_2591
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