4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 4

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1. Which radiation has the ability to separate orbital electrons from their nuclei creating an ion?

Explanation

Ionizing radiation has the ability to separate orbital electrons from their nuclei, creating an ion. This type of radiation has enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, resulting in the formation of ions. Visible, ultraviolet, and nonionizing radiation do not possess enough energy to cause this ionization process.

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About This Quiz
4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 4 - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in bioenvironmental engineering, focusing on radiation protection, kinetic energy, and electromagnetic properties. It is designed for journeyman-level learners in the Air Force, enhancing their understanding and compliance with regulatory standards.

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2. Which laser is hazardous to view under any condition?

Explanation

Class 4 lasers are hazardous to view under any condition because they emit high-power laser beams that can cause severe eye injuries, including permanent blindness. These lasers have the highest level of potential danger and require strict safety precautions to be followed. In contrast, Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3a lasers have lower power levels and are considered less hazardous, with Class 1 being the least hazardous.

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3. Which of the following provides regulatory oversight for the use of radioactive materials by Air Force organizations?

Explanation

AF RIC stands for Air Force Radioisotope Committee. The AF RIC provides regulatory oversight for the use of radioactive materials by Air Force organizations. They ensure that the use of radioactive materials is conducted safely and in accordance with regulations and guidelines. The AF RIC is responsible for reviewing and approving requests for the use of radioactive materials, conducting inspections and audits, and providing guidance and training to ensure compliance with radiation safety requirements.

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4. A tanning booth is a good example of which type of radiation?

Explanation

A tanning booth emits ultraviolet radiation, specifically UV-A and UV-B rays. These rays penetrate the skin and stimulate the production of melanin, causing the skin to darken or tan. While excessive exposure to UV radiation can be harmful and increase the risk of skin cancer, controlled exposure in a tanning booth can provide a desired tan.

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5. What form of energy does a rock rolling down a hill contain?

Explanation

When a rock is rolling down a hill, it possesses kinetic energy. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion, and it depends on the mass and velocity of an object. As the rock rolls down the hill, it gains speed and its motion increases, resulting in an increase in its kinetic energy. Therefore, the correct answer is kinetic.

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6. Which component transfers RFR energy to the antenna?

Explanation

The transmission line is the component that transfers RFR (Radio Frequency Radiation) energy to the antenna. It acts as a conduit, carrying the RF signal from the transmitter to the antenna, ensuring efficient transfer of energy. The receiver is responsible for capturing and processing the signal, while the modulator is responsible for modifying the signal. However, in this case, it is the transmission line that directly transfers the energy to the antenna.

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7. This type of radiation is commonly emitted by furnaces and molten metals.

Explanation

Infrared radiation is commonly emitted by furnaces and molten metals. Infrared radiation has longer wavelengths than visible light and is not visible to the human eye. It is often associated with heat and is used in various applications such as heating and thermal imaging. Gamma radiation, on the other hand, is a high-energy form of electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by radioactive substances, while visible light is the range of electromagnetic radiation that is visible to the human eye. Ultraviolet radiation has shorter wavelengths than visible light and is emitted by the sun, while infrared radiation has longer wavelengths.

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8. Which RFR emitter should be the highest priority during the evaluation phase?

Explanation

During the evaluation phase, the highest priority should be given to the ground-level hazard. This means that any emitter that poses a risk or danger at ground level should be addressed and mitigated first. This is because hazards at ground level can potentially cause immediate harm or injury to individuals, making them the most urgent to deal with.

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9. Where should you hold the probe while conducting RFR measurements?

Explanation

The probe should be held in front of your body while conducting RFR measurements. This position ensures that the probe is exposed to the same level of radiation as your body, providing accurate measurements. Holding the probe above your head, close to your body, or to one side of your body may result in inaccurate readings as the probe may not be exposed to the same level of radiation.

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10.  The ultraviolet rays located in the UV-B range of the electromagnetic spectrum are considered the most destructive form of ultraviolet radiation because they

Explanation

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11. Which kind of system is described with the information below? Frequency: 150 MHz PW: 1.2 microseconds PRF: 320 pps Antenna gain: 52 dB Antenna type: Aperature

Explanation

The given information includes the frequency, pulse width, PRF (Pulse Repetition Frequency), and antenna type. Pulsed wave systems use short bursts or pulses of energy with specific pulse widths and PRF. The frequency of 150 MHz also suggests a pulsed wave system. The antenna gain and type (aperture) are not relevant to determining the type of system. Therefore, based on the given information, the correct answer is pulsing wave.

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12. Coveralls and gloves will prevent what type of radiation from potentially harming a person's skin?

Explanation

Coveralls and gloves are protective gear that can shield a person's skin from harmful radiation. Alpha and beta radiation are types of ionizing radiation that can cause damage to the skin if it comes into direct contact. Therefore, wearing coveralls and gloves can prevent alpha and beta radiation from potentially harming a person's skin. Gamma and X-ray radiation, on the other hand, are forms of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate through coveralls and gloves, making them less effective in protecting against these types of radiation. Neutron and photon radiation are not typically associated with direct skin damage, so coveralls and gloves may not be necessary for protection against these types of radiation.

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13. If you need the RFR PEL for radiation workers that have been trained and understand the hazards of exposure, you should look in the table for which environment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Controlled" because the question is asking for the appropriate table to look in for the RFR PEL (Permissible Exposure Limit) for radiation workers who have been trained and understand the hazards of exposure. In a controlled environment, measures are taken to limit and control the exposure to radiation, so the table for this environment would provide the necessary information for these workers.

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14. Which laser is incapable of causing injury during normal use?

Explanation

Class 1 lasers are considered safe and incapable of causing injury during normal use. They have low power levels and are not hazardous, even with prolonged exposure. Class 2, Class 3a, and Class 4 lasers, on the other hand, have higher power levels and can potentially cause harm if not used properly.

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15. Because infrared radiation is detectable as heat, exposures can be a significant contributor to what condition?

Explanation

Exposure to infrared radiation can cause thermal stress, which refers to the body's inability to regulate its temperature effectively. This can lead to various health issues such as heat exhaustion, heat stroke, and dehydration. Therefore, thermal stress is the most likely condition that can be caused by infrared radiation exposure.

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16. Upon what timeframe are the TLV® for an occupational exposure of the eyes to nearinfrared radiation based?

Explanation

The TLV® for an occupational exposure of the eyes to near-infrared radiation is based on an 8-hour workday. This means that the recommended limit for exposure to near-infrared radiation is calculated based on an 8-hour period of work.

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17.  Which type of radiation poses the most serious external hazard because of its high penetrating ability?

Explanation

Gamma radiation poses the most serious external hazard because of its high penetrating ability. Unlike alpha and beta radiation, gamma radiation is highly energetic and can easily pass through materials, including the human body. This makes it more likely to cause damage to living tissues and organs, leading to serious health risks such as radiation sickness, DNA damage, and an increased risk of cancer.

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18. As the frequency becomes higher, wavelength becomes

Explanation

As the frequency of a wave increases, the wavelength decreases. This is because frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other. Higher frequency means more oscillations per unit time, which results in shorter distances between the wave's crests or troughs. Therefore, as the frequency becomes higher, the wavelength becomes shorter.

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19. Which component amplifies the RFR signal?

Explanation

The transmitter is responsible for generating and sending the radio frequency (RF) signal. It takes the input signal and amplifies it to a level suitable for transmission. Therefore, the transmitter is the component that amplifies the RF signal.

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20. What step must you take after obtaining RFR meter readings in order to find the real power density?

Explanation

After obtaining RFR meter readings, you need to multiply them by the correction factor in order to find the real power density. This is because the correction factor adjusts the readings to account for any discrepancies or inaccuracies in the measurement. By multiplying the readings by the correction factor, you can obtain a more accurate and reliable value for the real power density.

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21. At the onset of an RFR overexposure investigation, make sure the exposed individual gets a

Explanation

In the onset of an RFR overexposure investigation, it is important to prioritize the health and well-being of the exposed individual. A medical evaluation is necessary to assess any potential health effects or symptoms resulting from the overexposure. This evaluation will help determine the appropriate course of action and treatment for the individual. A record of exposure, thorough interview, and complete report may also be important in the investigation process, but the immediate concern should be the medical evaluation of the exposed individual.

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22. Workers must receive initial and annual training when they have the potential to be exposed to

Explanation

Workers must receive initial and annual training when they have the potential to be exposed to 10 percent of annual dose limits. This means that if workers have the potential to be exposed to radiation levels that reach or exceed 10 percent of the maximum allowable dose for a year, they must receive training. This training is important to ensure that workers are aware of the risks associated with radiation exposure and know how to protect themselves and others from harm.

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23.  The number of electromagnetic waves passing a certain point in one second is known as

Explanation

The number of electromagnetic waves passing a certain point in one second is known as frequency. Frequency is a measure of how many complete cycles of a wave occur in a given time period. It is measured in hertz (Hz) and is directly related to the energy and wavelength of the wave. A higher frequency corresponds to a greater number of waves passing a point in one second, indicating a higher energy and shorter wavelength. Therefore, frequency is the correct answer in this context.

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24. Which RFR environment would describe the exposure for customers at a golf course near an emitter?

Explanation

The exposure for customers at a golf course near an emitter would be described as uncontrolled. This means that there are no measures in place to limit or mitigate the exposure to the emissions from the emitter. Customers would be directly exposed to the emissions without any form of shielding or control.

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25. The magnetic field is also known as the

Explanation

The correct answer is H field. The magnetic field is commonly referred to as the H field. This field represents the magnetic intensity or magnetizing field and is measured in units of ampere per meter (A/m). It is used to describe the magnetic properties and behavior of materials. The H field is related to the magnetic flux density (B field) through the material's magnetic permeability.

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26. When performing RFR measurements, always start

Explanation

When performing RFR (Radio Frequency Radiation) measurements, it is recommended to start farther away from the antenna than the calculated distance. This is because the calculated distance is based on theoretical calculations and may not account for real-world factors such as reflections, diffractions, and obstructions. By starting farther away, it helps to ensure that the measurements are taken in a more conservative and accurate manner, reducing the risk of potential RF exposure.

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27. Which type of control is not authorized to control RFR exposure?

Explanation

Personal protective equipment (PPE) is not authorized to control radiofrequency radiation (RFR) exposure. PPE, such as gloves, goggles, or aprons, is used to protect individuals from physical or chemical hazards, but it does not provide protection against RFR. RFR exposure can only be controlled through engineering controls, administrative controls, and safe work practices.

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28. Which skin cover fabric provides the best protection against lasers?

Explanation

Tightly woven fabric provides the best protection against lasers because the close-knit structure of the fabric prevents the laser beams from penetrating through the material. This helps to minimize the risk of burns or other injuries caused by laser exposure. Loose fabric, light-colored fabric, and darkly colored fabric are not as effective in blocking laser beams, as they may have larger gaps between the fibers or allow more light to pass through. Therefore, tightly woven fabric is the most suitable choice for ensuring maximum protection against lasers.

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29. What is an example of a RFR emitter the USAF uses for its mission?

Explanation

The USAF uses electronic countermeasures as an example of a RFR emitter for its mission. Electronic countermeasures are devices or systems that emit radio frequency radiation (RFR) to disrupt or deceive enemy radar, communication, or other electronic systems. These countermeasures are used to protect aircraft from detection or attack, making them an essential tool for the USAF in carrying out their missions effectively.

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30. Which RFR emitter should be the second priority during the evaluation phase?

Explanation

During the evaluation phase, the second priority should be given to the climbing hazard RFR emitter. This is because a climbing hazard poses a significant risk to individuals who may come into contact with it. It is important to address and mitigate this hazard to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any accidents or injuries that may occur due to climbing hazards.

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31. What program does the Air Force use for laser safety assessment and hazard control?

Explanation

LHAZ is the program that the Air Force uses for laser safety assessment and hazard control.

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32. If the wavelength of a RFR emission is 20 cm, a waveguide designed for it must have one dimension that is at least

Explanation

The wavelength of a radio frequency (RFR) emission determines the minimum size of a waveguide designed for it. The waveguide must have a dimension that is at least one-half of the wavelength in order to effectively transmit the RFR signal. In this case, the wavelength is 20 cm, so the waveguide must have a dimension of at least 10 cm to accommodate the RFR emission.

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33. Which RFR health effect is the biological effect not associated with thermal absorption?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Athermal." Athermal refers to the absence of heat or thermal effects. In the context of RFR (Radio Frequency Radiation), it means that there is no biological effect associated with thermal absorption. This suggests that the health effects of RFR are not related to the heating of tissues or cells. Instead, other mechanisms such as resonance or indirect effects may be responsible for the biological effects of RFR.

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34. What is the total surface area in square centimeters covered during a swipe sample of a sealed radiological source?

Explanation

The correct answer is 100. This suggests that during a swipe sample of a sealed radiological source, the total surface area covered is 100 square centimeters.

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35. The more kinetic energy the electrons have, the

Explanation

As the electrons gain more kinetic energy, they move to higher energy levels or orbitals farther away from the nucleus. This is because the increased energy allows them to overcome the attractive force of the nucleus and move to higher energy levels where they are less tightly bound. Therefore, the more kinetic energy the electrons have, the farther they are from the nucleus.

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36. In which of the following items would near-infrared radiation be used?

Explanation

Near-infrared radiation is used in television remotes to transmit signals to the television. This type of radiation is not used in black lights, germicidal lamps, or mercury vapor lamps.

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37. You need to be more concerned for public exposure to radiation from medical X-ray operations as compared to industrial X-ray operations because

Explanation

The correct answer is due to the proximity of patients and visitors in the medical X-ray environment. In medical X-ray operations, patients and visitors are often in close proximity to the X-ray machine, increasing their potential exposure to radiation. In contrast, industrial X-rays are typically conducted in shielded facilities where public access is restricted, reducing the risk of public exposure.

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38. You consider recommending time as a control method to limit workers' exposures in a radiation field when  

Explanation

The correct answer is "other methods are inadequate or cannot be used." This means that time is recommended as a control method to limit workers' exposures in a radiation field when there are no other suitable methods available or when the existing methods are not effective enough.

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39. Who is the unit commander's point of contact for radiation protection matters?

Explanation

The unit radiation safety officer is the point of contact for radiation protection matters for the unit commander. They are responsible for ensuring that proper radiation safety protocols are followed within the unit and for providing guidance and support to the unit commander in matters related to radiation protection.

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40. Which risk rating indicates the transmission time is too short to exceed the average power density allowed for that frequency?

Explanation

The risk rating "Low" indicates that the transmission time is too short to exceed the average power density allowed for that frequency. This means that the transmission is within the acceptable limits and does not pose a significant risk in terms of power density.

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41. As part of the OEHSA process you have identified a small number of personnel exposed to laser hazards. What do you establish in order to capture the population at risk?

Explanation

To capture the population at risk of laser hazards, you establish a SEG, which stands for Specific Examination Group. This refers to a group of personnel who have been identified as being exposed to laser hazards and need to undergo specific examinations to assess their health and safety. The SEG helps ensure that the at-risk individuals receive the necessary attention and precautions to prevent any harm or injury caused by laser hazards.

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42. When an element is unstable, what will it do to achieve stability?

Explanation

When an element is unstable, it will emit particles of energy in order to achieve stability. This process is known as radioactive decay, where unstable atoms release excess energy in the form of particles such as alpha particles, beta particles, or gamma rays. By emitting these particles, the unstable element transforms into a more stable configuration, with a lower energy state. This emission of energy helps the element to achieve a more balanced and stable state.

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43. What type of testing do you conduct on unsealed radiation sources?

Explanation

Swipe testing is the type of testing conducted on unsealed radiation sources. This involves using a swipe or a wipe to collect samples from the surface of the source and then analyzing these samples for the presence of radioactive contamination. This type of testing helps to ensure that there is no leakage or release of radioactive material from the source, thus ensuring safety and compliance with regulations.

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44. You must forward all documentation of RFR overexposure investigation to USAFSAM if the exposures may have exceeded at least

Explanation

If the exposures in the RFR overexposure investigation may have exceeded at least five times the permissible exposure limit (PEL), then all documentation of the investigation must be forwarded to USAFSAM.

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45. The three components required for a laser to operate are a laser medium, an optical cavity, and a

Explanation

A pumping system is necessary for a laser to operate because it provides the energy required to excite the atoms or molecules in the laser medium. This excitation creates a population inversion, which is necessary for the amplification of light. The pumping system can use various methods such as electrical discharge, flash lamps, or diode lasers to provide the energy needed. Without a pumping system, the laser medium would not be able to reach the necessary energy levels to produce a laser beam.

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46. During the process of radioactive decay, what is another name for the electromagnetic force that causes protons to tear apart the nucleus of the atom?

Explanation

The electromagnetic force that causes protons to tear apart the nucleus of an atom during radioactive decay is known as the Coulomb force. This force is responsible for the repulsion between positively charged protons, as like charges repel each other. As a result of this force, the nucleus becomes unstable and undergoes radioactive decay. The other options, positron force, isomeric force, and transformation force, are not accurate names for the electromagnetic force involved in this process.

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47. When evaluating these RFR emitters, their repair and maintenance shops should be a higher priority than routine operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Short duration." This means that the repair and maintenance shops of the RFR emitters should be given a higher priority compared to routine operations because the repair and maintenance tasks are expected to be completed quickly.

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48. Once you swipe the external surface of a radioactive material shipment, what step follows?

Explanation

After swiping the external surface of a radioactive material shipment, the next step is to check the swipe paper with an ADM-300. This is done to determine if there is any contamination present on the surface of the shipment. The ADM-300 is a device used for detecting and measuring radiation levels. By checking the swipe paper with this device, it ensures that any potential contamination can be identified and appropriate measures can be taken to handle the shipment safely.

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49. What section recycles and disposes radioactive waste and mixed waste generated by Air Force operations?  

Explanation

The Air Force Radioactive Recycle and Disposal Office is responsible for recycling and disposing of radioactive waste and mixed waste generated by Air Force operations. This office ensures that these hazardous materials are handled and disposed of in a safe and environmentally friendly manner. They play a crucial role in managing and minimizing the impact of radioactive waste on the environment and public health.

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50. What type of radiation permit is issued for radioactive material uses which are unique in nature or relative risk?

Explanation

A "nontemplate" radiation permit is issued for radioactive material uses that are unique in nature or relative risk. This means that these uses do not fit into the standard or traditional categories for radiation permits.

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51. Which RFR control is specifically required for controlled areas where frequencies are below 30 MHz?

Explanation

Electrical safety matting is specifically required for controlled areas where frequencies are below 30 MHz because it provides insulation and protection against electrical shock. Frequencies below 30 MHz are typically associated with low-frequency electrical systems, and the use of electrical safety matting helps to prevent electrical accidents and ensure the safety of personnel working in these areas. Safety interlocks, wooden fences, and dummy loads are not directly related to controlling frequencies or providing electrical safety in this context.

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52. When considering a non-solar source of ultraviolet radiation, which option would be a suitable engineering control?

Explanation

Blocking filters would be a suitable engineering control for a non-solar source of ultraviolet radiation. Blocking filters are designed to absorb or reflect specific wavelengths of ultraviolet radiation, preventing them from passing through. This can help protect individuals from harmful UV radiation in environments where it is present, such as in certain industrial or laboratory settings. Sunscreen and sunglasses are personal protective equipment rather than engineering controls, and while filter lenses can provide some protection, blocking filters are specifically designed for this purpose.

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53. What is one biological effect that can be associated with an overexposure to infrared radiation?

Explanation

Overexposure to infrared radiation can cause a biological effect known as corneal burn. This occurs when the cornea, the transparent front part of the eye, is damaged by excessive exposure to infrared radiation. This can lead to pain, redness, and vision problems. It is important to protect the eyes from overexposure to infrared radiation to prevent such injuries.

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54. Which particle is considered the most ionizing?

Explanation

Alpha particles are considered the most ionizing because they have a large mass and a double positive charge, which makes them highly reactive. When alpha particles interact with matter, they transfer a significant amount of energy to the atoms, causing them to lose electrons and become ionized. This ionization process is more pronounced compared to other particles like electrons or beta particles, which have smaller masses and charges. Therefore, alpha particles have a greater ability to ionize atoms and molecules, making them the most ionizing particle among the options given.

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55. Acute Radiation Syndrome typically occurs when the radiation dose exceeds  

Explanation

Acute Radiation Syndrome typically occurs when the radiation dose exceeds 50 rem (0.5 Sv). This means that if a person is exposed to a radiation dose higher than 50 rem (0.5 Sv), they are likely to develop symptoms of acute radiation syndrome. It is important to note that the severity of the syndrome can vary depending on the dose received, with higher doses leading to more severe symptoms.

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56. The amount of energy flowing through a given area in a certain amount of time refers to what measure of electromagnetic radiation?

Explanation

Intensity refers to the amount of energy flowing through a given area in a certain amount of time. In the context of electromagnetic radiation, it specifically refers to the amount of energy carried by the radiation per unit area. Frequency refers to the number of cycles of the wave that occur in a given time period, wavelength refers to the distance between two consecutive points on the wave, and activity does not directly relate to the energy flow of electromagnetic radiation.

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57. You should instruct emergency response personnel to place the EPD Mk2 on their

Explanation

Emergency response personnel should place the EPD Mk2 on their front torso area, outside of any personal protective equipment. This ensures that the device is easily accessible and visible to others in case of an emergency. Placing it outside of the protective equipment also prevents any interference or obstruction of the device's functionality.

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58. Which wavelength range damages the cornea by the same photochemical mechanism as bright sunlight?

Explanation

Far UV refers to the ultraviolet (UV) radiation with wavelengths shorter than those in the near UV range. This type of UV radiation has high energy and can cause damage to the cornea through a photochemical mechanism similar to that of bright sunlight. The cornea is particularly sensitive to UV radiation, and prolonged exposure to far UV can lead to conditions such as corneal inflammation, cataracts, and even damage to the retina. Therefore, it is important to protect the eyes from far UV radiation by wearing appropriate sunglasses or using other protective measures.

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59. Which of the following is a nonbeam hazard associated with the use of lasers?  

Explanation

Compressed gases are a nonbeam hazard associated with the use of lasers because they can pose a risk of explosion or fire if mishandled or if there is a leak in the gas system. This hazard is not directly related to the laser beam itself, but rather to the storage and handling of gases used in conjunction with lasers. Photokeratitis, thermo mechanical effects, and pigment darkening are all beam hazards that can occur when the laser beam directly interacts with the eyes or skin.

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60. Within what spectral region of the electromagnetic spectrum does ultraviolet radiation fall?

Explanation

Ultraviolet radiation falls within the spectral region of 100–400 nanometers in the electromagnetic spectrum. This region is characterized by shorter wavelengths than visible light, making it invisible to the human eye. Ultraviolet radiation is known for its ability to cause sunburn, skin damage, and even skin cancer.

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61. What term is used to identify the specific distance between an X-ray source and the object of interest?

Explanation

The term used to identify the specific distance between an X-ray source and the object of interest is "focal spot." The focal spot refers to the area on the X-ray tube where the X-rays are emitted. The size of the focal spot affects the sharpness and resolution of the resulting X-ray image.

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62. The effect the inverse square law has on a person's exposure to radiation is that moving away

Explanation

According to the inverse square law, the intensity of radiation decreases as the distance from the source increases. In this case, doubling the distance from a point source would result in the intensity being reduced by a factor of 1/4 (since the inverse square law states that intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance). Therefore, the exposure would be reduced by a factor of 4.

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63. The LET of a beta particle is lower than that of an alpha particle because of its

Explanation

The LET (Linear Energy Transfer) of a particle refers to the amount of energy transferred per unit distance traveled by the particle. In this case, the correct answer is "smaller mass and higher speed" because a beta particle has a smaller mass compared to an alpha particle, and it also travels at a higher speed. Due to its smaller mass and higher speed, a beta particle transfers less energy per unit distance, resulting in a lower LET compared to an alpha particle.

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64. How soon after being notified of a potential overexposure to ionizing radiation must a written report be submitted to the Radioanalytical Laboratory?

Explanation

A written report must be submitted to the Radioanalytical Laboratory within 7 calendar days after being notified of a potential overexposure to ionizing radiation.

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65. What is the most common adverse response attributable to repeated exposure to ultraviolet radiation by the skin?

Explanation

Repeated exposure to ultraviolet radiation by the skin can lead to erythema, which is a common adverse response. Erythema refers to the redness and inflammation of the skin caused by increased blood flow to the affected area. This is a typical reaction of the skin to UV radiation and is often seen as a sunburn. It is important to protect the skin from excessive UV exposure to prevent erythema and other potential skin damage.

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66. Which step in the OEHSA process do you collect information on where the laser is used?

Explanation

In the OEHSA process, site reconnaissance involves collecting information on where the laser is used. This step typically involves conducting a physical inspection of the site to gather data on the specific areas where the laser is being utilized. This information is crucial for understanding the potential hazards and risks associated with laser use and for developing appropriate control measures to ensure the safety of workers and the environment. Site identification, baseline activities, and conceptual site model are other steps in the OEHSA process but do not specifically involve collecting information on the location of laser use.

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67.  When lower kVP settings are used during X-ray production, what is the end result? 

Explanation

When lower kVP settings are used during X-ray production, the end result is an increase in patient exposure. This is because lower kVP settings result in higher X-ray photon energies, which can penetrate the patient's body more effectively and therefore increase the amount of radiation absorbed by the patient. The other options, such as increased X-ray technician exposure, increased "fog film" incidence, and increased scatter radiation, are not the correct answers as they do not directly relate to the use of lower kVP settings.

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68. You should calibrate the SAM 935 before

Explanation

The correct answer is "use and every 30 minutes during use." This means that the SAM 935 should be calibrated before each use and then recalibrated every 30 minutes while it is being used. Calibrating the device ensures accuracy and reliability of the measurements it provides. Regular recalibration during use helps to maintain the accuracy of the device over time, as environmental factors or other variables may affect its performance.

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69. What is the intensity at 20.5 feet if the radiation intensity 42 feet from the source is 250 mR/Hr?

Explanation

The intensity of radiation decreases as the distance from the source increases. This is known as the inverse square law. In this case, the intensity at 42 feet is given as 250 mR/hr. To find the intensity at 20.5 feet, we can use the inverse square law formula: (intensity at 42 feet) / (distance at 42 feet squared) = (intensity at 20.5 feet) / (distance at 20.5 feet squared). Solving for the intensity at 20.5 feet, we get 1049 mR/hr.

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70. What type of energy do you use to classify a neutron?

Explanation

Neutrons are classified based on their speed. The speed of a neutron determines its energy level and behavior, such as its ability to cause fission reactions. Therefore, speed is the correct answer for classifying a neutron.

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71. What type of radiation permit is issued for radioactive material contained in items or devices that present minimal risk?

Explanation

A template is a pre-designed format or layout that can be used as a guide for creating similar documents or items. In the context of radiation permits, a template permit refers to a standardized permit that is issued for radioactive material contained in items or devices that present minimal risk. This means that the permit follows a predetermined format and includes all the necessary information and requirements for handling and transporting such radioactive material.

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72. When using the ADM–300 X-ray probe, you hold the probe

Explanation

The correct answer is vertically and use a slow and steady sweeping motion. This is because the ADM-300 X-ray probe is designed to be used in a vertical position, as it allows for better penetration of the X-rays into the material being inspected. Additionally, using a slow and steady sweeping motion helps to ensure that the entire area is properly scanned and inspected, reducing the chances of missing any potential defects or anomalies.

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73. What should be your initial action if you suspect that a dosimeter received an abnormal exposure?

Explanation

If you suspect that a dosimeter received an abnormal exposure, the initial action should be to forward the dosimeter to the Radioanalytical Laboratory. This is because the laboratory is equipped to analyze the dosimeter and determine the extent of the exposure. Interviewing the exposed worker and removing them from duties can be done later, but the priority should be to assess the dosimeter and take corrective action to prevent further exposure based on the laboratory's analysis.

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74. When reviewing training for ionizing radiation exposures, all of the following areas should be considered for amendment except  

Explanation

The question asks which area should not be considered for amendment when reviewing training for ionizing radiation exposures. The correct answer is "general radiation protection principles." This means that when reviewing the training, the other areas such as new procedures, dose results, and equipment should be considered for any necessary amendments or updates. However, the general radiation protection principles do not need to be amended as they are already established guidelines for protecting against radiation exposures.

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75. Every isotope decays at a specific rate, what is the rate of decay proportional to?

Explanation

The rate of decay of an isotope is proportional to the stability of its nucleus. Isotopes with unstable nuclei are more likely to decay at a faster rate compared to isotopes with more stable nuclei. This is because unstable nuclei have excess energy that they release through radioactive decay in order to achieve a more stable state. Therefore, the rate of decay is directly related to the stability of the nucleus.

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76. Since SA is the number of Ci/g of material, what does SA indicate?

Explanation

SA stands for specific activity, which is the number of transformations per second per gram of material. A higher SA indicates a higher number of transformations per second, which means that the material is more radioactive and therefore more dangerous. Therefore, the correct answer is "Increased danger."

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77. In what stage of Acute Radiation Syndrome will the body outwardly express initial symptoms of exposure?

Explanation

The prodromal stage of Acute Radiation Syndrome is characterized by the outward expression of initial symptoms of exposure to radiation. During this stage, individuals may experience symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fatigue, and loss of appetite. These symptoms indicate that the body is starting to react to the radiation exposure.

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78. In β+ decay, the parent nucleus changes a

Explanation

In β+ decay, a proton in the parent nucleus is converted into a neutron, and a positively charged particle, called a positron, is emitted. This process occurs when a proton-rich nucleus undergoes radioactive decay in order to achieve a more stable neutron-to-proton ratio. The positron, which is identical to an electron but with a positive charge, is emitted to conserve charge and maintain overall charge balance in the decay process.

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79. What term is used to identify the number of disintegrations of radioactive material per unit of time?

Explanation

Activity is the term used to identify the number of disintegrations of radioactive material per unit of time. This measurement is commonly used in the field of nuclear physics to quantify the rate at which radioactive substances decay. It is important in various applications, such as radiation therapy, nuclear power generation, and radiopharmaceutical production.

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80. A source is producing an intensity of 200 R/hr at 4 feet from the source. What would be the distance in feet to the 2.0 mR/hr boundary?

Explanation

The distance to the 2.0 mR/hr boundary can be calculated using the inverse square law. The intensity of radiation decreases with the square of the distance from the source. Since the intensity at 4 feet is 200 R/hr, the intensity at the 2.0 mR/hr boundary can be found by setting up the equation (200 R/hr) / (x^2) = 2.0 mR/hr. Solving for x gives the distance to the boundary as approximately 1265 feet.

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81. When swipe testing a radiological source, what is the next step after you initially monitor the filter to determine background radiation levels?

Explanation

After initially monitoring the filter to determine background radiation levels, the next step is to wipe the source/area thoroughly with the filter paper. This is done to collect any radioactive particles that may be present on the surface and to ensure accurate measurements of the radiation levels.

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82. When determining infrared radiation hazard controls, what is the selection of a barrier dependent upon?

Explanation

The selection of a barrier when determining infrared radiation hazard controls is dependent upon the wavelength. Different wavelengths of infrared radiation have varying levels of energy and can penetrate different types of barriers. Therefore, the selection of a barrier should be based on the specific wavelength of the infrared radiation being emitted.

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83. What term is used to classify radiation health effects in which a given reaction or condition is  not seen until a certain threshold dose is reached?

Explanation

Nonstochastic is the term used to classify radiation health effects in which a given reaction or condition is not seen until a certain threshold dose is reached. This means that the effects are not dependent on the dose and there is a clear threshold below which no effects are observed. Once the threshold dose is exceeded, the effects become apparent. This is in contrast to stochastic effects, where the probability of occurrence increases with increasing dose, but there is no threshold.

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84. An X-ray fluorescence device would be covered under which radiation permit?  

Explanation

An X-ray fluorescence device would be covered under a template radiation permit because it uses X-rays to analyze the composition of materials. X-ray fluorescence devices emit X-rays, which are a form of ionizing radiation. Template radiation permits are specifically designed to regulate and control the use of ionizing radiation devices, such as X-ray machines, in order to ensure safety and prevent unnecessary exposure to radiation. Therefore, it is appropriate for an X-ray fluorescence device to be covered under a template radiation permit.

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85. In pair production, a photon disappears and an electron and positron appear in its place, providing left over energy from their formation which is

Explanation

In pair production, a photon is converted into an electron and a positron. During this process, the energy from the photon is used to create the mass of the electron and positron. Any leftover energy is then shared by the particles as kinetic energy. This means that both the electron and positron receive a portion of the energy, allowing them to move with some velocity. Therefore, the correct answer is that the leftover energy is shared by the particles as kinetic energy.

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86. Which of the following infrared radiation control options can be associated with the principle of shielding?

Explanation

Protective clothing can be associated with the principle of shielding because it acts as a barrier between the wearer and the infrared radiation. The clothing is designed to absorb or reflect the radiation, preventing it from reaching the skin and causing harm. This principle is similar to shielding, where a physical barrier is used to block or reduce the transmission of radiation. In this case, the protective clothing serves as a shield against the infrared radiation.

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87. Using a combination of a low and high atomic number shielding is best used to control what type of radiation?  

Explanation

Using a combination of a low and high atomic number shielding is best used to control beta radiation. Beta particles are high-energy electrons or positrons that can be easily shielded by materials with high atomic numbers, such as lead or tungsten, which absorb the particles and reduce their penetration. At the same time, low atomic number materials, such as plastic or water, can be used to slow down the beta particles through ionization and scattering. Therefore, a combination of low and high atomic number shielding provides the best control over beta radiation.

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88.  What is the easiest and most accurate method you can use to measure ionizing radiation produced by medical X-ray machines?  

Explanation

An EPD (Electronic Personal Dosimeter) is the easiest and most accurate method to measure ionizing radiation produced by medical X-ray machines. EPDs are portable devices that can be worn by individuals to continuously monitor their radiation exposure. They provide real-time measurements and can detect various types of radiation, including X-rays. EPDs are widely used in healthcare settings to ensure the safety of medical personnel and patients. They are convenient, reliable, and provide immediate feedback on radiation levels, making them the preferred choice for measuring ionizing radiation in medical X-ray machines.

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