4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 5

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1. Fit testing is the only practical way to ensure a barrier is formed between a worker's respiratory system and the harmful agent. Which refers to the measurement of the integrity of this barrier?

Explanation

Fit factor refers to the measurement of the integrity of the barrier formed between a worker's respiratory system and the harmful agent. It is the only practical way to ensure that the barrier is effective in protecting the worker from the harmful agent. Comfort variable, IDLH concentration, and maximum use concentration are not related to the measurement of the barrier's integrity.

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4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 5 - Quiz

This quiz from the 4B051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC URE Vol. 5 assesses knowledge on ventilation systems, focusing on aspects like static pressure, velocity pressure, and duct design.... see moreIt's designed for professionals aiming to enhance safety and efficiency in environmental engineering contexts. see less

2. Workers are required to be trained and fit tested initially and every  

Explanation

Workers are required to be trained and fit tested every 12 months. This means that they need to receive training and undergo fit testing once a year. This ensures that workers are up to date with the necessary knowledge and skills for their job, as well as ensuring that their personal protective equipment (PPE) fits correctly and provides the intended level of protection. Regular training and fit testing help to maintain a safe and healthy work environment for the workers.

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3. A density factor of one means that the air you are dealing with is at

Explanation

A density factor of one indicates that the air is at standard temperature and pressure conditions. This means that the air is at a temperature of 0 degrees Celsius and a pressure of 1 atmosphere. Standard temperature and pressure conditions are used as a reference point for comparing and measuring the properties of gases.

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4. What document should you review to determine if personal protective equipment (PPE) training was accomplished?

Explanation

To determine if personal protective equipment (PPE) training was accomplished, one should review the AF Form 55. This form is likely to contain records or documentation related to PPE training, such as attendance logs or completion certificates. By reviewing this form, one can verify if individuals have received the necessary training on personal protective equipment.

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5. Less resistance and better contaminant capture in a ventilation system can be realized by using

Explanation

A flange or tapered hood can help in reducing resistance and improving contaminant capture in a ventilation system. The flange or tapered hood design allows for smoother airflow and reduces turbulence, which in turn decreases resistance in the system. Additionally, the design of the flange or tapered hood helps to direct and capture contaminants more effectively, improving the overall performance of the ventilation system.

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6. Which agency serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the installation respiratory protection program?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the installation respiratory protection program. This means that BE is responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of the program, including developing policies and procedures, conducting training, and ensuring compliance with regulations. BE has the expertise and knowledge in environmental health and safety to effectively manage and implement the respiratory protection program at the installation.

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7. What type of respirator is designed to filter a chemical out of the surrounding air?

Explanation

An air-purifying respirator is designed to filter a chemical out of the surrounding air. This type of respirator uses filters or cartridges to remove contaminants from the air before it is inhaled by the wearer. It is commonly used in situations where the air is contaminated with harmful substances such as chemicals, gases, or particles. The filters or cartridges in an air-purifying respirator are specifically designed to trap and remove the particular type of contaminant present in the air.

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8. Which grid equipment item operates as a variable flow air sampler to collect airborne radioactive materials?

Explanation

RADeCO is the correct answer because it operates as a variable flow air sampler to collect airborne radioactive materials. The other options, M22 automatic alarm system, Joint portal shield, and MultiRAE plus, do not have the same functionality as a variable flow air sampler for collecting airborne radioactive materials.

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9. When radiation exposures to the head and lens of the eye must be evaluated, what is the primary device used to evaluate exposure?

Explanation

The primary device used to evaluate radiation exposures to the head and lens of the eye is a collar. A collar is a protective device worn around the neck that measures the radiation dose received in that area. It is specifically designed to protect the thyroid gland and the lens of the eye, which are particularly sensitive to radiation. By using a collar, the exposure to these critical organs can be accurately evaluated and appropriate measures can be taken to minimize the risk of radiation damage.

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10. How should atmospheric testing be performed in a rectangular shaped confined space?  

Explanation

Atmospheric testing should be performed at the top, middle, and bottom of the rectangular shaped confined space, as well as along the length of the space. This is necessary to ensure that the entire space is properly tested for any potential hazards or contaminants. Testing only at the top and middle, or top and bottom, would not provide a comprehensive assessment of the atmospheric conditions within the space. Therefore, testing at multiple points throughout the space is the most effective and thorough approach.

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11. What is the first element of the Air Force Emergency Management Program?

Explanation

The first element of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is planning. This means that before any action can be taken in response to an emergency or disaster, a thorough plan must be developed. Planning involves identifying potential risks, creating strategies to mitigate those risks, and establishing protocols for response and recovery. It is the foundation upon which all other elements of the program are built.

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12. The value for velocity pressure in a ventilation system is

Explanation

In a ventilation system, velocity pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the moving air due to its velocity. Since velocity is always a positive value, the velocity pressure will also be positive. This is because the pressure exerted by the moving air is always greater than the static pressure of the surrounding air. Therefore, the correct answer is always positive.

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13. Who must review and sign the Master Entry Plan before the entry supervisors can issue permits?  

Explanation

Ground Safety, CE, and BE must review and sign the Master Entry Plan before the entry supervisors can issue permits.

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14. When is the best time to accomplish construction plan review and introduce engineering controls for a facility?  

Explanation

The best time to accomplish construction plan review and introduce engineering controls for a facility is in the design phase. This is because during the design phase, all the necessary plans and specifications are being developed, which allows for a thorough review and incorporation of engineering controls. By addressing these aspects early on, potential issues can be identified and resolved before construction begins, saving time and resources. Reviewing the plans during the design phase also ensures that the facility will meet all necessary requirements and regulations.

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15. How can friction losses in a ventilation system be reduced?

Explanation

Increasing the duct diameter can reduce friction losses in a ventilation system. This is because a larger diameter allows for smoother airflow, reducing the resistance caused by friction between the air and the duct walls. This results in improved airflow efficiency and reduced energy consumption.

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16. Other than good contaminant control, what is the biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation?

Explanation

The biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation is lower operating costs. Local exhaust systems are designed to capture and remove contaminants at the source, which reduces the need for large amounts of ventilation air. This results in lower energy consumption and operating costs compared to dilution ventilation, which requires a higher volume of air to dilute and remove contaminants.

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17. What can be said of velocity pressure when measured across the duct?

Explanation

Velocity pressure refers to the pressure exerted by a fluid due to its velocity. In the case of a duct, the velocity of the fluid is highest at the center and decreases towards the sides. Therefore, the velocity pressure is weaker along the sides and becomes stronger as you near the center.

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18. At a minimum, respirators used for emergency use only are required to be inspected

Explanation

Respirators used for emergency use only are required to be inspected at a minimum of once a month. This frequency ensures that the respirators are in proper working condition and ready for use during emergencies. Regular inspections help identify any potential issues or damage that may affect the effectiveness of the respirators. By inspecting the respirators monthly, any necessary repairs or replacements can be made promptly, ensuring the safety of the users.

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19. What method of fit testing relies on the sensory response of the individual to the contaminant put into the air?  

Explanation

The method of fit testing that relies on the sensory response of the individual to the contaminant put into the air is the qualitative fit test (QLFT). This test involves the individual wearing a respirator and performing a series of movements or exercises while a test agent, such as a sweet or bitter solution, is sprayed into the air. The individual then indicates whether they can taste or smell the test agent, which indicates a potential leak in the respirator seal. This method is subjective and relies on the individual's sensory perception to determine the fit of the respirator.

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20. A minimum K factor of four is used in dilution ventilation for fire and explosion control because

Explanation

A minimum K factor of four is used in dilution ventilation for fire and explosion control because concentrations must be kept at or below 25% of the lower explosive limit (LEL). This means that the ventilation system needs to dilute the concentration of flammable gases or vapors in the air to a safe level to prevent explosions. A K factor of four ensures that the concentration is reduced to a level that is below 25% of the LEL, minimizing the risk of fire or explosion.

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21. The range of acceptable values for the air flow volume on routine tests is within what percentage of the baseline value?

Explanation

The range of acceptable values for the air flow volume on routine tests is within 10% of the baseline value. This means that the air flow volume can deviate by up to 10% from the baseline value and still be considered acceptable.

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22. What are two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that are needed to calculate the air flow volume?

Explanation

To calculate the air flow volume in ventilation systems, two parameters needed are the area of the opening through which the air flows and the velocity of the air. The area represents the size of the opening, while the velocity represents the speed at which the air is moving through that opening. By multiplying the area and velocity together, the air flow volume can be determined.

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23. What series of filter cannot be used if oil particles are present in the work environment?

Explanation

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24. What respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not carried by the wearer?

Explanation

An air-line respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not carried by the wearer. This type of respirator is connected to an external air source through a hose or tube, providing a continuous supply of clean air to the wearer. Unlike air-purifying respirators that rely on filters to remove contaminants from the air or self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) that carry their own air supply, the air-line respirator requires a separate air source to function effectively.

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25. Who shoulders the responsibility for respirator use in their work area?

Explanation

The workplace supervisor shoulders the responsibility for respirator use in their work area. They are responsible for ensuring that proper safety measures are in place, including providing and maintaining respirators, training employees on their proper use, and enforcing their use in the work area. The safety manager may have a role in overseeing overall safety protocols, but the immediate responsibility for respirator use lies with the workplace supervisor. The individual user and shift supervisor may have some responsibility in using and enforcing the use of respirators, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the workplace supervisor.

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26. How would a confined space that does not actually or potentially contain hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm be classified?

Explanation

A confined space that does not have any hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm would be classified as a non-permit-required space. This means that workers can enter and work in the space without needing a permit or special safety precautions.

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27. In ventilation work, what pressure is exerted outward against the interior surface of an enclosure?

Explanation

Positive static pressure is exerted outward against the interior surface of an enclosure in ventilation work. This means that the pressure inside the enclosure is higher than the pressure outside, causing air to be pushed outwards. This can be achieved by using fans or other ventilation equipment to increase the pressure inside the enclosure. Positive static pressure is commonly used to prevent the entry of contaminants or to maintain a specific air quality within the enclosure.

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28. Which type of velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front of a hood that is needed to pull contaminants into the hood?

Explanation

Capture velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front of a hood that is needed to pull contaminants into the hood. It is the velocity required to overcome the opposing forces (such as gravity and air currents) and ensure that the contaminants are effectively captured and drawn into the hood.

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29. Which is a defining factor in identifying a confined space?

Explanation

A defining factor in identifying a confined space is that it must be large enough for human entry. Confined spaces are typically restricted in size and have limited entry and exit points. This requirement ensures that a person can physically enter the space but also emphasizes the potential hazards associated with working in confined spaces, such as limited mobility and the risk of entrapment.

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30. Which atmospheric characteristic classifies a confined space as permit-required?

Explanation

If atmospheric testing shows that the concentration of a flammable substance is greater than 10% of the lower explosive limit (LEL), it classifies the confined space as permit-required. This indicates that there is a potential for a hazardous atmosphere to be present in the space, which requires special precautions and permits to ensure the safety of workers entering the area.

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31. The depth of your pregnant worker evaluation depends on what?  

Explanation

The depth of the pregnant worker evaluation depends on the risks and existing information concerning the agent the individual is exposed to in their workplace. This means that the evaluation should take into consideration the potential hazards and substances that the pregnant worker may come into contact with during their job. By assessing these risks and having existing information about them, appropriate measures can be taken to ensure the safety and well-being of the pregnant worker.

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32. When Health Risk Assessment (HRA) findings exceed the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL), who do you notify?  

Explanation

The correct answer is workplace supervisor. When Health Risk Assessment (HRA) findings exceed the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL), it is the responsibility of the individual to notify their workplace supervisor. The workplace supervisor is in charge of overseeing the safety and well-being of employees and is the appropriate person to inform about any potential health risks that exceed the established limits. The workplace supervisor can then take appropriate actions to address the issue and ensure the safety of the employees.

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33. In a routine survey, ventilation system data collected during the routine assessment should be compared to

Explanation

In a routine survey, the ventilation system data collected should be compared to the data collected during the baseline survey. This is because the baseline survey provides the initial measurements and conditions of the ventilation system, which serves as a reference point for future assessments. By comparing the current data to the baseline data, any changes or deviations can be identified and evaluated. Comparing the data to key parameters, factory findings, or previous routine survey data may not provide an accurate assessment of the ventilation system's performance over time.

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34. What may be indicated by a very strong flow coming in an open door of a room containing a local exhaust system?

Explanation

A very strong flow coming in an open door of a room containing a local exhaust system may indicate inadequate makeup air. This means that the exhaust system is pulling in more air from outside the room than is being supplied, causing a negative pressure inside the room. As a result, air is being drawn in through any available openings, such as the open door, to balance the pressure. This indicates that the room is not receiving enough fresh air to compensate for the air being exhausted, leading to inadequate makeup air.

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35. Who interviews the workplace supervisor and enrolled individual when investigating an abnormal exposure to determine its cause?

Explanation

The Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) and BE (Bioenvironmental Engineering) would be responsible for conducting an investigation into an abnormal exposure to determine its cause. They would interview both the workplace supervisor and the enrolled individual to gather information and gather evidence to identify the cause of the exposure. The IRSO would specifically focus on radiation safety concerns, while BE would have expertise in investigating and assessing environmental factors that may have contributed to the exposure.

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36. Once dosimeters are collected after the monitoring period and disassembled, what two things must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters?

Explanation

The TLD number and the Listing 1523 must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters. This is because the TLD number is a unique identifier for each dosimeter and the Listing 1523 is a record that lists all the dosimeters that were issued. By comparing the TLD number with the Listing 1523, it can be ensured that all the dosimeters that were issued have been accounted for.

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37. Areas of ducts and hoods must be expressed in

Explanation

The areas of ducts and hoods must be expressed in square feet because square feet is a unit of measurement for two-dimensional surfaces. Ducts and hoods are typically flat or have a specific cross-sectional shape, so their areas can be measured in square feet. This measurement is important for determining the size and capacity of ducts and hoods in various applications, such as ventilation systems or kitchen exhaust systems. Inches, linear feet, and cubic feet per minute are not appropriate units for expressing the area of ducts and hoods.

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38. When is monitoring required for certain radiation workers?

Explanation

Monitoring is required for certain radiation workers when they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual external dose limit. This means that if their exposure to radiation is expected to reach or exceed 10% of the maximum allowable dose for a year, they need to be monitored. This helps ensure that their radiation exposure is within safe limits and allows for appropriate measures to be taken if necessary to protect their health and safety.

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39. Which is a benefit of ventilating a confined space?

Explanation

Ventilating a confined space is beneficial because it helps to dilute or remove toxic air contaminants. This is important for the safety of individuals working in the confined space, as it reduces the risk of exposure to harmful substances. Ventilation ensures that the air in the confined space remains clean and breathable, creating a healthier and safer environment. It does not eliminate the need to test oxygen levels or for toxic substances, but it helps to minimize the concentration of contaminants in the air.

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40. The statement that best describes when a master entry plan for confined space entry can be prepared is when an organization

Explanation

The best time to prepare a master entry plan for confined space entry is when an organization routinely enters the same confined spaces and the conditions and entry requirements are the same. This allows for a standardized plan to be developed and implemented, ensuring that all necessary precautions are taken and that workers are well-prepared for the specific hazards associated with those confined spaces.

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41. What is the maximum amount of a certain chemical vapor that air can hold at a given temperature?

Explanation

Saturation concentration refers to the maximum amount of a certain chemical vapor that air can hold at a given temperature. It is the point at which the air is fully saturated and can no longer hold any more vapor. This is determined by factors such as temperature, pressure, and the properties of the specific chemical.

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42. When performing face velocity measurements, what must you do just before measuring the air flow of a ventilation system?

Explanation

Before measuring the air flow of a ventilation system, it is necessary to measure out or mentally form a grid over the duct opening. This is important because it helps to ensure that the measurements are taken at consistent and accurate points across the opening. By creating a grid, it becomes easier to systematically measure the face velocity at various points, which provides a more comprehensive understanding of the air flow in the system. This step helps to ensure reliable and consistent measurements during the face velocity measurements.

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43. What are the two most important factors to any indoor air quality (IAQ) survey?

Explanation

The two most important factors to any indoor air quality (IAQ) survey are communication and education. Effective communication is crucial for gathering accurate information and understanding the concerns and needs of the individuals involved. It helps in establishing trust and creating a comfortable environment for sharing information. Education is important to ensure that everyone involved understands the importance of IAQ, the potential risks, and the necessary steps to improve it. It helps in promoting awareness and empowering individuals to make informed decisions regarding IAQ.

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44. If any abnormal or potential overexposure occurs, the Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) must notify what person/agency?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA/SG3PB). The Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) is responsible for ensuring radiation safety at the installation. If any abnormal or potential overexposure occurs, the IRSO must notify the AFMSA/SG3PB, which is the agency responsible for providing medical support and guidance to the Air Force. They have the expertise and resources to assess and manage any radiation-related health concerns that may arise.

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45. Two sources of indoor air contamination are interior air and

Explanation

Exterior air is one of the sources of indoor air contamination. This means that pollutants from the outdoor environment can enter indoor spaces and contribute to poor air quality. These pollutants can include dust, pollen, smoke, and other harmful particles. It is important to have proper ventilation and filtration systems in place to minimize the impact of exterior air on indoor air quality.

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46. What actions should be taken if a respirator quantitative fit-test (QNFT) sequence fails a second time?

Explanation

If a respirator quantitative fit-test (QNFT) sequence fails a second time, the recommended action is to repeat the test on a replacement mask of the same size. This suggests that the issue may not be with the mask itself but with the fit or seal of the mask on the individual's face. By using a replacement mask of the same size, it allows for the possibility of a better fit and a successful fit-test result.

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47. Which source material is useful for assessing hazards and estimating hazard duration during CBRN incidents?

Explanation

CHEMRAT (Chemical Hazard Estimation Method and Risk Assessment Tool) is the correct answer because it is a source material specifically designed for assessing hazards and estimating hazard duration during CBRN (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear) incidents. It provides a systematic approach to evaluate the risks associated with chemical hazards and assists in making informed decisions for emergency response planning.

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48. What important procedure must you follow to obtain accurate readings with a velometer?

Explanation

To obtain accurate readings with a velometer, it is important to hold the probe parallel to the air flow. This ensures that the measurement is taken in the direction of the air flow, allowing for accurate velocity readings. Holding the probe at an angle could result in incorrect measurements as it may not capture the full force of the air flow. Therefore, aligning the probe parallel to the air flow is crucial for obtaining accurate readings with a velometer.

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49. What document lists each of the workplaces that use respiratory protection?

Explanation

The Master Respirator Inventory is a document that lists each of the workplaces that use respiratory protection. It serves as a comprehensive record of all the locations where respiratory protection is required, ensuring that all workplaces are accounted for and properly equipped with the necessary respiratory equipment. This inventory helps in managing and tracking the availability and distribution of respirators across different workplaces, ensuring the safety and well-being of the employees.

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50. The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1391, Military Construction Project Data, is normally generated for what type of building projects?

Explanation

The correct answer is Military construction (MILCON). The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1391, Military Construction Project Data, is typically generated for military construction projects. This form is used to gather information about the proposed project, including the scope, cost, and justification. It is an important document in the planning and budgeting process for military construction projects.

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51. As part of preincident measures, a preliminary assessment be executed during the

Explanation

During the planning phase, a preliminary assessment is conducted as part of preincident measures. This assessment helps in identifying potential risks and vulnerabilities that may exist in the system or process. It allows for the development of strategies and plans to mitigate these risks and ensure the effectiveness of the incident response plan. By conducting this assessment during the planning phase, organizations can proactively address any potential issues and improve their overall preparedness for incidents.

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52. During response operations, if you are donning protective equipment to enter a site to perform sampling, to what section of the response structure are you assigned?

Explanation

During response operations, the operations section is responsible for donning protective equipment and entering a site to perform sampling. This section is in charge of executing the response plan and coordinating the activities on the ground. They ensure that all necessary resources and personnel are assigned to the appropriate tasks and that the response operations are carried out effectively and safely. The operations section plays a crucial role in the overall response structure.

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53. If a work area being monitored by the USAF Personnel Dosimetry Program requires five whole body badges, five collar badges, and five finger badges each monitoring period, how many control badges does it require??

Explanation

The work area requires five whole body badges, five collar badges, and five finger badges each monitoring period. The control badges are used to monitor the background radiation and ensure that the readings from the dosimetry badges are accurate. Since there are three types of badges being used (whole body, collar, and finger), it would require three control badges to monitor the background radiation for each type of badge. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

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54. As part of preincident measures, how often are Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) personnel required to assess local industrial facilities for potential toxic industrial chemical/toxic industrial material (TIC/TIM) vulnerabilities?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) personnel are required to assess local industrial facilities for potential toxic industrial chemical/toxic industrial material (TIC/TIM) vulnerabilities on an annual basis. This means that they conduct these assessments once every year.

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55. What circumstance would result in a high K factor?

Explanation

A high K factor refers to a high contaminant toxicity, meaning that the contaminant being released into the air is highly toxic. This toxic contaminant can have a significant impact on the health and safety of individuals in the surrounding environment, making it crucial to take appropriate measures to control and mitigate its effects.

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56. What type of ventilation system survey would Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) perform on a new ventilation system to verify it is operating properly before putting it into service?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) would perform an initial acceptance survey on a new ventilation system to verify it is operating properly before putting it into service. This type of survey is conducted to ensure that the system meets all the necessary requirements and standards for operation and that there are no issues or malfunctions that could potentially impact the health and safety of individuals using the system. It is an essential step in the process of implementing a new ventilation system to ensure its effectiveness and efficiency.

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57. When are routine assessments considered complete?

Explanation

Routine assessments are considered complete when documentation is entered into OEHMIS and the survey report is sent to the workplace. This indicates that all necessary information and findings from the assessment have been recorded and communicated to the relevant parties. It ensures that the assessment process is properly documented and that the workplace has access to the survey report for further action or reference.

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58. You must ship dosimeters within how many working days after the monitoring period ends?

Explanation

According to the given question, the dosimeters must be shipped within a certain number of working days after the monitoring period ends. The correct answer is 5, which means that the dosimeters should be shipped within 5 working days after the monitoring period ends.

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59. Which of the following might affect the service life of a respirator?

Explanation

Extreme physical exertion can affect the service life of a respirator because it can cause the wearer to breathe more heavily and increase the demand for air. This increased breathing rate can lead to a faster depletion of the respirator's filtering capacity and reduce its effectiveness in filtering out contaminants. Additionally, physical exertion can cause sweating, which can affect the fit of the respirator and compromise its seal, allowing contaminants to enter.

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60. Risk assessment codes 1, 2, or 3 are classified as

Explanation

Risk assessment codes 1, 2, or 3 are classified as occupational hazards. This indicates that these codes represent risks or dangers that are associated with the workplace or occupation. These hazards can pose a threat to the health and safety of workers and may require specific measures to prevent or mitigate them. The term "occupational hazards" refers to the risks and dangers that are inherent in certain jobs or work environments, and risk assessment codes help to identify and categorize these hazards for effective management and prevention.

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61. If you are deployed to a new location, a priority for effective operation of field communications equipment is to make sure  

Explanation

When deployed to a new location, it is important for effective operation of field communications equipment to ensure that your equipment is integrated with other responders at the new location. This ensures seamless communication and coordination with other team members, allowing for efficient response and collaboration in emergency situations.

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62. During postincident operations, commanders apply what principle skill-set in mitigating and managing threats and risks?

Explanation

During postincident operations, commanders utilize their operational risk management skill-set to mitigate and manage threats and risks. This involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing strategies to minimize them. By applying operational risk management principles, commanders can effectively address the aftermath of an incident and ensure the safety and security of personnel and resources.

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63. The purpose of using splitter vanes, multiple takeoffs, or baffles inside of a local exhaust hood is to provide

Explanation

Splitters vanes, multiple takeoffs, or baffles inside of a local exhaust hood are used to ensure that the air is evenly distributed across the hood face. This is important because it helps to capture and remove contaminants effectively. By achieving uniform air distribution, the hood can effectively capture the contaminants at their source, preventing them from escaping into the surrounding environment.

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64. Increasing the velocity of air through a slot hood without increasing the air flow volume most often results in

Explanation

Increasing the velocity of air through a slot hood without increasing the air flow volume will result in an increase in system resistance. This is because increasing the air velocity without increasing the air flow volume means that the same amount of air is being forced through a smaller area, leading to increased pressure and resistance within the system. This can make it more difficult for the air to flow through the system and can potentially decrease the effectiveness of contaminant control.

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65. Selecting respiratory protection equipment starts with what?

Explanation

Selecting respiratory protection equipment starts with identifying work center respiratory hazards that may be present. This is because it is important to first determine the hazards that workers may be exposed to in order to select the appropriate respiratory protection equipment. Once the hazards are identified, a hazard determination can be performed to assess the level of risk and determine the type of respiratory protection needed. Calculating the hazard ratio, identifying existing controls, and performing a hazard determination are all important steps in the process, but they come after identifying the respiratory hazards.

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66. Operational Readiness Inspections (ORI), Radioactive Material Permit (RAM), and Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI) are examples of what type of inspection?

Explanation

Operational Readiness Inspections (ORI), Radioactive Material Permit (RAM), and Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI) are examples of external inspections. External inspections are conducted by external entities or organizations that are not directly affiliated with the inspected organization. These inspections are typically performed to ensure compliance with regulations, standards, or contractual obligations.

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67. Supervisor training should be repeated when there is a

Explanation

Supervisor training should be repeated when there is a permanent change of station. This is because when a supervisor is transferred to a new location or station, they may encounter different workplace dynamics, policies, and procedures. Repeating the training ensures that the supervisor is familiar with the specific requirements and expectations of their new station and can effectively lead and manage their team in the new environment.

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68. A category 3 workplace must, at a minimum, have a routine risk assessment conducted

Explanation

The correct answer is "as assessment frequency is locally determined." This means that the frequency of conducting routine risk assessments in a category 3 workplace is determined by local regulations or guidelines. It may vary depending on the specific requirements and circumstances of the workplace.

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69. During what step in the routine risk assessment process do you discuss new risks that were not previously identified?

Explanation

During the closing conference of a routine risk assessment process, new risks that were not previously identified are discussed. This is the final step of the process where all the gathered information and data are reviewed and analyzed. It provides an opportunity for stakeholders to come together and discuss any additional risks that may have been overlooked during the earlier stages of the assessment. The closing conference allows for a comprehensive evaluation of all potential risks and ensures that all parties are aware of the newly identified risks.

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70. After you determine that a space meets all the confined space criteria, what do you do next?

Explanation

Once you have determined that a space meets all the confined space criteria, the next step is to identify potential chemical, radiological, and physical health hazards within the confined space. This involves conducting a thorough assessment of the space to identify any substances or conditions that could pose a risk to the health and safety of workers. By identifying these hazards, appropriate control measures can be implemented to ensure the safety of workers entering the confined space.

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71. What is the first step in basic trend analysis?

Explanation

The first step in basic trend analysis is to check for sufficient sampling data. This is important because without enough data, it would be difficult to identify and analyze trends accurately. By ensuring that there is a significant amount of data available, one can establish a reliable foundation for trend analysis and make informed decisions based on the patterns observed.

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72. Prior to briefing the dosimeter wearer, completing the Listing 1523, and issuing the dosimeter, what must you do to enroll an individual in the dosimetry program?

Explanation

To enroll an individual in the dosimetry program, it is necessary to establish their exposure history. This involves gathering information about their past exposure to radiation, such as previous job roles or activities that may have exposed them to radiation. By understanding their exposure history, the dosimetry program can accurately assess and monitor their radiation dose levels to ensure their safety.

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73. Before a worker can perform verification testing of a confined space, they must be

Explanation

Workers must be trained and certified on the specific testing equipment in order to perform verification testing of a confined space. Additionally, they must be qualified to interpret the results of the testing. This ensures that the worker has the necessary knowledge and skills to accurately identify and evaluate hazards in the space using the testing equipment, as well as interpret the results to make informed decisions about the safety of the space.

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74. A signed Master Entry Plan certifies that all existing hazards  

Explanation

A signed Master Entry Plan certifies that all existing hazards have been evaluated and the necessary protective measures have been taken. This means that not only have the hazards been identified and analyzed, but also appropriate actions have been taken to mitigate the risks associated with those hazards. The evaluation process ensures that all potential risks have been thoroughly assessed and appropriate measures have been implemented to ensure the safety of individuals involved.

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75. What is the Air Force standard relating to the use of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFOSH STD 91-501. This standard is the Air Force's official guideline for the use of personal protective equipment (PPE). It outlines the requirements and procedures for selecting, using, and maintaining PPE to ensure the safety and health of Air Force personnel. AFOSH STD 91-501 covers a wide range of PPE, including eye and face protection, respiratory protection, hearing protection, and more. It is essential for Air Force personnel to follow this standard to minimize the risk of injuries and illnesses in the workplace.

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76. As a rule of thumb, how many samples are required to perform statistics?

Explanation

In statistics, it is generally recommended to have a minimum of six samples to perform calculations. This is because having a larger sample size increases the accuracy and reliability of the statistical analysis. With a small sample size, the results may not be representative of the entire population and can lead to inaccurate conclusions. Therefore, it is important to have at least six samples to ensure the validity of the statistical analysis.

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77. What factor necessitates a more frequent dosimeter exchange?

Explanation

Workers who have a prior exposure history of working with radiation would require a more frequent dosimeter exchange. This is because their previous exposure history indicates that they may have a higher risk of radiation exposure in their current occupation. By exchanging the dosimeter more frequently, it allows for more accurate monitoring of their radiation exposure levels and ensures that they are not exceeding the recommended limits.

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78. Which respirator is designed to capture and scrub the exhaled air of carbon dioxide?

Explanation

A closed-circuit SCBA is designed to capture and scrub the exhaled air of carbon dioxide. Unlike other respirators, which release the exhaled air into the environment, a closed-circuit SCBA recirculates the exhaled air back to the user after removing carbon dioxide through a scrubbing process. This ensures that the user breathes in clean air without the build-up of carbon dioxide, making it an effective choice for environments with high levels of carbon dioxide or where air quality needs to be closely controlled.

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79. In what step of an occupational illness investigation does Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) identify the conditions or circumstances that caused or contributed to the occupational illness?

Explanation

In an occupational illness investigation, Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) conducts exposure assessment to identify the conditions or circumstances that caused or contributed to the illness. This step involves evaluating the level and duration of exposure to hazardous substances or conditions in the workplace. By assessing the exposure, BE can determine the potential risks and identify the factors that led to the illness. This information is crucial for implementing appropriate control measures to prevent future occurrences of occupational illnesses.

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80. During response operations, responders report to the senior person and become a part of the

Explanation

During response operations, it is important for responders to report to a senior person and become a part of the incident command structure. This structure ensures that there is a clear chain of command and coordination among the responders. It helps in organizing and managing the response efforts effectively, ensuring that tasks are assigned, resources are allocated, and decisions are made in a timely manner. The incident command structure also facilitates communication and collaboration between different agencies and organizations involved in the response operations.

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81. What must be determined in the first step in assigning a risk assessment code (RAC)?

Explanation

In assigning a risk assessment code (RAC), the first step is to determine the health hazard severity category. This is because the health hazard severity category helps in assessing the potential harm or adverse effects that may result from exposure to a particular hazard. By determining the health hazard severity category, one can prioritize and allocate resources effectively for risk management and control measures. The length of exposure, previous survey results, and primary exposure route are important factors to consider in the risk assessment process but they are not the first step in assigning a RAC.

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82. Under shelter operations, who spearheads identifying and evaluating installation facilities that can be used as shelters?

Explanation

The Base Civil Engineer is responsible for spearheading the identification and evaluation of installation facilities that can be used as shelters under shelter operations. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the suitability of different facilities for use as shelters and ensure that they meet the necessary requirements for safety and functionality. The Base Civil Engineer plays a crucial role in coordinating and overseeing the process of identifying and evaluating suitable shelter facilities on the installation.

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83. Two major advantages of local exhaust enclosures are that they provide

Explanation

Local exhaust enclosures provide the best contaminant control with the lowest air volume. This means that they are effective in capturing and removing contaminants from the air in a specific area, while minimizing the amount of air that needs to be treated. By controlling and reducing the amount of air volume required, local exhaust enclosures can be more efficient and cost-effective compared to other options. This advantage makes them a preferred choice for industries and processes that generate airborne contaminants that need to be controlled and removed.

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84. What installation working group focuses primarily on analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander?  

Explanation

The installation threat working group focuses primarily on analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander. This group is responsible for assessing potential threats to the installation and developing strategies to mitigate those threats. They analyze intelligence information, conduct risk assessments, and provide recommendations on security measures and protocols to ensure the safety and protection of the installation and its personnel.

Submit
85. What is the purpose of the inner tube that makes up a pitot tube?

Explanation

The purpose of the inner tube in a pitot tube is to detect the total pressure of the fluid flow. The total pressure is the sum of the static pressure (pressure exerted by the fluid due to its motion) and the dynamic pressure (pressure exerted by the fluid due to its velocity). By measuring the total pressure, the pitot tube can provide information about the velocity and energy of the fluid flow.

Submit
86. What should the Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) develop for each dose equivalent category of the Listing 1499?

Explanation

The Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) should develop investigation action levels for each dose equivalent category of the Listing 1499. This means that the IRSO needs to establish specific levels at which further investigation and actions should be taken in response to certain dose equivalent levels. These levels will help in determining the appropriate steps to be taken in order to ensure radiation safety and minimize any potential risks or hazards.

Submit
87. When identifying atmospheric hazards in a confined space, fundamental components must be considered

Explanation

The correct answer is before work begins and as work progresses. This means that when identifying atmospheric hazards in a confined space, it is important to consider the fundamental components both before work starts and throughout the duration of the work. This ensures that any potential hazards are identified and addressed at the earliest possible stages, reducing the risk to workers' health and safety.

Submit
88. What is the highest contaminant concentration for which a respirator adequately protects the wearer?

Explanation

The highest contaminant concentration for which a respirator adequately protects the wearer is referred to as the maximum use concentration. This indicates the maximum level of a hazardous substance that a respirator can effectively filter out, ensuring the wearer's safety. The maximum use concentration is determined through extensive testing and evaluation of the respirator's performance and efficiency.

Submit
89. What are the two primary types of shelters portrayed in the Air Force Management Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Deliberately planned and shelter-in-place." This answer suggests that the two primary types of shelters portrayed in the Air Force Management Program are those that are deliberately planned and those that are intended for sheltering in place.

Submit
90. When evaluating ventilation systems using the pitot traverse method, what step is performed   after balancing the system?

Explanation

After balancing the system, the next step in evaluating ventilation systems using the pitot traverse method is to take velocity pressure measurements. This involves using a pitot tube to measure the velocity pressure at various points in the system to determine the airflow velocity. These measurements are essential in determining the effectiveness and efficiency of the ventilation system.

Submit
91. When evaluating a confined space, during which step do you conduct atmospheric testing?

Explanation

During the step of analyzing potential chemical, radiological, and physical health hazards within the confined space, atmospheric testing is conducted. This is done to assess the air quality and determine if there are any hazardous gases, vapors, or contaminants present in the confined space. By conducting atmospheric testing, the safety of individuals entering the confined space can be ensured and appropriate measures can be taken to mitigate any potential risks.

Submit
92. All are benefits of ventilating a confined space except which one?

Explanation

Ventilating a confined space is important for the safety of workers as it helps to reduce heat-related illnesses by improving air circulation and reducing the temperature. It also maintains an adequate level of oxygen, ensuring that workers can breathe properly. Additionally, it eliminates the need for respiratory protection by removing hazardous gases or contaminants from the space. However, it does not reduce the atmospheric testing frequency, as testing is still necessary to ensure that the space is safe for workers.

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93. What unit provides support to the incident commander and directs, monitors, and supports the installation's actions before, during, and after an incident?  

Explanation

The Emergency Operations Center is the unit that provides support to the incident commander and directs, monitors, and supports the installation's actions before, during, and after an incident. It serves as the central command and control facility for coordinating emergency response and recovery efforts. The EOC is responsible for gathering and analyzing information, making decisions, and coordinating resources to effectively respond to and manage the incident. It ensures effective communication and coordination among all involved parties, including incident management teams, emergency personnel, and other stakeholders.

Submit
94. What is the role of the National Incident Management System in incident response?

Explanation

The role of the National Incident Management System is to establish a standardized incident management structure used by responders. This means that it provides a framework for how emergency response organizations and capabilities should be organized and coordinated during incidents. By having a standardized structure, responders from different agencies and jurisdictions can work together more effectively and efficiently, ensuring a coordinated and unified response to incidents.

Submit
95. To whom does Bioenvironmental Engineer (BE) report the findings of a respiratory program review?

Explanation

The correct answer is Aeromedical Council and the Combined Occupational Safety and Health Council. These are the two entities to which a Bioenvironmental Engineer (BE) reports the findings of a respiratory program review.

Submit
96. During postincident operations, what step follows analyzing the health risk?

Explanation

After analyzing the health risk during postincident operations, the next step is to recommend control options. This involves suggesting measures or strategies that can be implemented to mitigate or eliminate the identified health risks. These recommendations may include implementing safety protocols, providing protective equipment, or making changes to processes or procedures to minimize the potential for future incidents or harm. This step is crucial in ensuring the well-being and safety of individuals and preventing similar incidents from occurring in the future.

Submit
97. When responding to an incident, what reference is available to all responders and outlines all of the communications equipment used at the incident site?

Explanation

The incident radio communications plan is the reference available to all responders that outlines all of the communications equipment used at the incident site. This plan provides a detailed guide on how communication should be established and maintained during an incident, ensuring effective and coordinated communication among all responders. It includes information on the types of radios, frequencies, channels, and protocols to be used, enabling responders to communicate efficiently and effectively in emergency situations. The incident radio communications plan is crucial for ensuring smooth communication and coordination among responders during an incident.

Submit
98. In what category would you place a workplace that contains health risk with a medium hazard potential?

Explanation

A workplace that contains health risk with a medium hazard potential would likely fall under the category of "Administrative." This is because administrative work typically involves working in an office or similar environment where the health risks and hazard potential are generally lower compared to other categories such as construction or manufacturing. However, it is important to note that even in administrative settings, there can still be health risks and hazards that need to be managed and mitigated.

Submit
99. During which step of the respirator selection process do you measure the concentration of the contaminant, and determine if it is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit, if the potential for an explosive atmosphere exists?

Explanation

Performing a hazard determination is the step in the respirator selection process where you measure the concentration of the contaminant and determine if it is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit. This is important when there is a potential for an explosive atmosphere, as it helps to assess the level of risk and determine the appropriate respirator to use in such conditions.

Submit
100. What document contains the objectives and overall strategy of the incident commander for managing an incident?

Explanation

The incident action plan is a document that contains the objectives and overall strategy of the incident commander for managing an incident. It outlines the specific actions, resources, and personnel needed to achieve the objectives and provides a detailed plan for responding to and mitigating the incident. The incident action plan is a crucial tool for effective incident management and ensures that all responders are on the same page and working towards a common goal.

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Workers are required to be trained and fit tested initially and every ...
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When radiation exposures to the head and lens of the eye must be...
How should atmospheric testing be performed in a rectangular shaped...
What is the first element of the Air Force Emergency Management...
The value for velocity pressure in a ventilation system is
Who must review and sign the Master Entry Plan before the entry...
When is the best time to accomplish construction plan review and...
How can friction losses in a ventilation system be reduced?
Other than good contaminant control, what is the biggest advantage of...
What can be said of velocity pressure when measured across the duct?
At a minimum, respirators used for emergency use only are...
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A minimum K factor of four is used in dilution ventilation for fire...
The range of acceptable values for the air flow volume on routine...
What are two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that...
What series of filter cannot be used if oil particles are present...
What respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not...
Who shoulders the responsibility for respirator use in their work...
How would a confined space that does not actually or potentially...
In ventilation work, what pressure is exerted outward against the...
Which type of velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front...
Which is a defining factor in identifying a confined space?
Which atmospheric characteristic classifies a confined space as...
The depth of your pregnant worker evaluation depends on what?  
When Health Risk Assessment (HRA) findings exceed the occupational and...
In a routine survey, ventilation system data collected during the...
What may be indicated by a very strong flow coming in an open door of...
Who interviews the workplace supervisor and enrolled individual when...
Once dosimeters are collected after the monitoring period and...
Areas of ducts and hoods must be expressed in
When is monitoring required for certain radiation workers?
Which is a benefit of ventilating a confined space?
The statement that best describes when a master entry plan for...
What is the maximum amount of a certain chemical vapor that air can...
When performing face velocity measurements, what must you do...
What are the two most important factors to any indoor air quality...
If any abnormal or potential overexposure occurs, the Installation...
Two sources of indoor air contamination are interior air and
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Which source material is useful for assessing hazards and estimating...
What important procedure must you follow to obtain accurate readings...
What document lists each of the workplaces that use respiratory...
The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1391, Military Construction...
As part of preincident measures, a preliminary assessment be executed...
During response operations, if you are donning protective equipment to...
If a work area being monitored by the USAF Personnel Dosimetry Program...
As part of preincident measures, how often are Bioenvironmental...
What circumstance would result in a high K factor?
What type of ventilation system survey would Bioenvironmental...
When are routine assessments considered complete?
You must ship dosimeters within how many working days after the...
Which of the following might affect the service life of a respirator?
Risk assessment codes 1, 2, or 3 are classified as
If you are deployed to a new location, a priority for effective...
During postincident operations, commanders apply what principle...
The purpose of using splitter vanes, multiple takeoffs, or baffles...
Increasing the velocity of air through a slot hood without increasing...
Selecting respiratory protection equipment starts with what?
Operational Readiness Inspections (ORI), Radioactive Material Permit...
Supervisor training should be repeated when there is a
A category 3 workplace must, at a minimum, have a routine risk...
During what step in the routine risk assessment process do you discuss...
After you determine that a space meets all the confined space...
What is the first step in basic trend analysis?
Prior to briefing the dosimeter wearer, completing the Listing 1523,...
Before a worker can perform verification testing of a confined space,...
A signed Master Entry Plan certifies that all existing hazards ...
What is the Air Force standard relating to the use of personal...
As a rule of thumb, how many samples are required to perform...
What factor necessitates a more frequent dosimeter exchange?
Which respirator is designed to capture and scrub the exhaled air of...
In what step of an occupational illness investigation does...
During response operations, responders report to the senior person and...
What must be determined in the first step in assigning a risk...
Under shelter operations, who spearheads identifying and evaluating...
Two major advantages of local exhaust enclosures are that they provide
What installation working group focuses primarily on analyzing threats...
What is the purpose of the inner tube that makes up a pitot tube?
What should the Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) develop...
When identifying atmospheric hazards in a confined space, fundamental...
What is the highest contaminant concentration for which a respirator...
What are the two primary types of shelters portrayed in the Air Force...
When evaluating ventilation systems using the pitot traverse method,...
When evaluating a confined space, during which step do you conduct...
All are benefits of ventilating a confined space except which...
What unit provides support to the incident commander and directs,...
What is the role of the National Incident Management System in...
To whom does Bioenvironmental Engineer (BE) report the findings of a...
During postincident operations, what step follows analyzing the health...
When responding to an incident, what reference is available to all...
In what category would you place a workplace that contains health risk...
During which step of the respirator selection process do you measure...
What document contains the objectives and overall strategy of the...
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