4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 5

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Fit testing is the only practical way to ensure a barrier is formed between a worker’s respiratory system and the harmful agent. Which refers to the measurement of the integrity of this barrier?

    • Fit factor.
    • Comfort variable.
    • IDLH concentration.
    • Maximum use concentration.
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4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC Ure Questions Vol. 5 - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz from the 4B051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC URE Vol. 5 assesses knowledge on ventilation systems, focusing on aspects like static pressure, velocity pressure, and duct design. It's designed for professionals aiming to enhance safety and efficiency in environmental engineering contexts.

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  • 2. 

    Workers are required to be trained and fit tested initially and every  

    • 6 months.

    • 12 months.

    • 18 months.

    • 24 months.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 months.
    Explanation
    Workers are required to be trained and fit tested every 12 months. This means that they need to receive training and undergo fit testing once a year. This ensures that workers are up to date with the necessary knowledge and skills for their job, as well as ensuring that their personal protective equipment (PPE) fits correctly and provides the intended level of protection. Regular training and fit testing help to maintain a safe and healthy work environment for the workers.

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  • 3. 

    A density factor of one means that the air you are dealing with is at

    • A high altitude.

    • Elevated temperature.

    • High barometric pressure.

    • Standard temperature and pressure conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard temperature and pressure conditions.
    Explanation
    A density factor of one indicates that the air is at standard temperature and pressure conditions. This means that the air is at a temperature of 0 degrees Celsius and a pressure of 1 atmosphere. Standard temperature and pressure conditions are used as a reference point for comparing and measuring the properties of gases.

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  • 4. 

    What document should you review to determine if personal protective equipment (PPE) training was accomplished?

    • AF Form 55.

    • AF Form 100.

    • AFOSH Training Form 250.

    • AFOSH Training Form 1000.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55.
    Explanation
    To determine if personal protective equipment (PPE) training was accomplished, one should review the AF Form 55. This form is likely to contain records or documentation related to PPE training, such as attendance logs or completion certificates. By reviewing this form, one can verify if individuals have received the necessary training on personal protective equipment.

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  • 5. 

    Less resistance and better contaminant capture in a ventilation system can be realized by using

    • An air cleaner.

    • Higher velocities.

    • Elbows in the ducting

    • A flange or tapered hood.

    Correct Answer
    A. A flange or tapered hood.
    Explanation
    A flange or tapered hood can help in reducing resistance and improving contaminant capture in a ventilation system. The flange or tapered hood design allows for smoother airflow and reduces turbulence, which in turn decreases resistance in the system. Additionally, the design of the flange or tapered hood helps to direct and capture contaminants more effectively, improving the overall performance of the ventilation system.

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  • 6. 

    Which agency serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the installation respiratory protection program?

    • Civil Engineering (CE).

    • Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE).

    • USAF School of Aerospace Medicine (USAFSAM).

    • Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE).
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the installation respiratory protection program. This means that BE is responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of the program, including developing policies and procedures, conducting training, and ensuring compliance with regulations. BE has the expertise and knowledge in environmental health and safety to effectively manage and implement the respiratory protection program at the installation.

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  • 7. 

    What type of respirator is designed to filter a chemical out of the surrounding air?

    • Air-line.

    • Air-purifying.

    • Closed circuit SCBA.

    • Atmosphere supplying.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air-purifying.
    Explanation
    An air-purifying respirator is designed to filter a chemical out of the surrounding air. This type of respirator uses filters or cartridges to remove contaminants from the air before it is inhaled by the wearer. It is commonly used in situations where the air is contaminated with harmful substances such as chemicals, gases, or particles. The filters or cartridges in an air-purifying respirator are specifically designed to trap and remove the particular type of contaminant present in the air.

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  • 8. 

    Which grid equipment item operates as a variable flow air sampler to collect airborne radioactive materials?

    • M22 automatic alarm system.

    • Joint portal shield.

    • MultiRAE plus.

    • RADeCO.

    Correct Answer
    A. RADeCO.
    Explanation
    RADeCO is the correct answer because it operates as a variable flow air sampler to collect airborne radioactive materials. The other options, M22 automatic alarm system, Joint portal shield, and MultiRAE plus, do not have the same functionality as a variable flow air sampler for collecting airborne radioactive materials.

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  • 9. 

    When radiation exposures to the head and lens of the eye must be evaluated, what is the primary device used to evaluate exposure?

    • Collar.

    • Neutron.

    • Extremity.

    • Whole body.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collar.
    Explanation
    The primary device used to evaluate radiation exposures to the head and lens of the eye is a collar. A collar is a protective device worn around the neck that measures the radiation dose received in that area. It is specifically designed to protect the thyroid gland and the lens of the eye, which are particularly sensitive to radiation. By using a collar, the exposure to these critical organs can be accurately evaluated and appropriate measures can be taken to minimize the risk of radiation damage.

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  • 10. 

    How should atmospheric testing be performed in a rectangular shaped confined space?  

    • Top and middle of the space.

    • Top and bottom of the space.

    • Top and bottom, and along the length of the space.

    • Top, middle, and bottom, and along the length of the space.

    Correct Answer
    A. Top, middle, and bottom, and along the length of the space.
    Explanation
    Atmospheric testing should be performed at the top, middle, and bottom of the rectangular shaped confined space, as well as along the length of the space. This is necessary to ensure that the entire space is properly tested for any potential hazards or contaminants. Testing only at the top and middle, or top and bottom, would not provide a comprehensive assessment of the atmospheric conditions within the space. Therefore, testing at multiple points throughout the space is the most effective and thorough approach.

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  • 11. 

    What is the first element of the Air Force Emergency Management Program?

    • Planning.

    • Specialized teams.

    • Disaster response.

    • Incident commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning.
    Explanation
    The first element of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is planning. This means that before any action can be taken in response to an emergency or disaster, a thorough plan must be developed. Planning involves identifying potential risks, creating strategies to mitigate those risks, and establishing protocols for response and recovery. It is the foundation upon which all other elements of the program are built.

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  • 12. 

    The value for velocity pressure in a ventilation system is

    • Always positive.

    • Always negative.

    • Negative on the blowing side.

    • Negative on the exhausting side.

    Correct Answer
    A. Always positive.
    Explanation
    In a ventilation system, velocity pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the moving air due to its velocity. Since velocity is always a positive value, the velocity pressure will also be positive. This is because the pressure exerted by the moving air is always greater than the static pressure of the surrounding air. Therefore, the correct answer is always positive.

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  • 13. 

    Who must review and sign the Master Entry Plan before the entry supervisors can issue permits?  

    • Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE), Public Health (PH), and Civil Engineering (CE).

    • BE, Commander, and CE.

    • Ground Safety, CE, and BE.

    • Ground Safety, PH, and CE.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground Safety, CE, and BE.
    Explanation
    Ground Safety, CE, and BE must review and sign the Master Entry Plan before the entry supervisors can issue permits.

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  • 14. 

    When is the best time to accomplish construction plan review and introduce engineering controls for a facility?  

    • In the design phase.

    • At 25 percent construction completion.

    • At 50 percent construction completion.

    • When ventilation is being installed.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the design phase.
    Explanation
    The best time to accomplish construction plan review and introduce engineering controls for a facility is in the design phase. This is because during the design phase, all the necessary plans and specifications are being developed, which allows for a thorough review and incorporation of engineering controls. By addressing these aspects early on, potential issues can be identified and resolved before construction begins, saving time and resources. Reviewing the plans during the design phase also ensures that the facility will meet all necessary requirements and regulations.

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  • 15. 

    How can friction losses in a ventilation system be reduced?

    • Decrease the hood size.

    • Increase the duct length.

    • Increase the duct velocity.

    • Increase the duct diameter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the duct diameter.
    Explanation
    Increasing the duct diameter can reduce friction losses in a ventilation system. This is because a larger diameter allows for smoother airflow, reducing the resistance caused by friction between the air and the duct walls. This results in improved airflow efficiency and reduced energy consumption.

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  • 16. 

    Other than good contaminant control, what is the biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation?

    • Less noise.

    • Lower operating costs.

    • Better protection for equipment.

    • Easier worker access to the process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lower operating costs.
    Explanation
    The biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation is lower operating costs. Local exhaust systems are designed to capture and remove contaminants at the source, which reduces the need for large amounts of ventilation air. This results in lower energy consumption and operating costs compared to dilution ventilation, which requires a higher volume of air to dilute and remove contaminants.

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  • 17. 

    What can be said of velocity pressure when measured across the duct?

    • It is constant across the duct.

    • It is weak along the sides and becomes weaker as you near the center.

    • It is weaker along the sides and becomes stronger as you near the center.

    • It is stronger along the sides and becomes weaker as you near the center.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is weaker along the sides and becomes stronger as you near the center.
    Explanation
    Velocity pressure refers to the pressure exerted by a fluid due to its velocity. In the case of a duct, the velocity of the fluid is highest at the center and decreases towards the sides. Therefore, the velocity pressure is weaker along the sides and becomes stronger as you near the center.

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  • 18. 

    At a minimum, respirators used for emergency use only are required to be inspected

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Annually.

    • Bi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    Respirators used for emergency use only are required to be inspected at a minimum of once a month. This frequency ensures that the respirators are in proper working condition and ready for use during emergencies. Regular inspections help identify any potential issues or damage that may affect the effectiveness of the respirators. By inspecting the respirators monthly, any necessary repairs or replacements can be made promptly, ensuring the safety of the users.

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  • 19. 

    What method of fit testing relies on the sensory response of the individual to the contaminant put into the air?  

    • Qualitative fit test (QLFT).

    • Quantitative fit test (QNFT).

    • Positive pressure fit test.

    • Expanded standards fit test.

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualitative fit test (QLFT).
    Explanation
    The method of fit testing that relies on the sensory response of the individual to the contaminant put into the air is the qualitative fit test (QLFT). This test involves the individual wearing a respirator and performing a series of movements or exercises while a test agent, such as a sweet or bitter solution, is sprayed into the air. The individual then indicates whether they can taste or smell the test agent, which indicates a potential leak in the respirator seal. This method is subjective and relies on the individual's sensory perception to determine the fit of the respirator.

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  • 20. 

    A minimum K factor of four is used in dilution ventilation for fire and explosion control because

    • Very toxic chemicals are involved.

    • Good air distribution cannot be achieved.

    • Concentrations must be kept at or below 25% of the lower explosive limit (LEL).

    • Concentrations must be kept at or below 25% of the upper explosive limit(UEL).

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentrations must be kept at or below 25% of the lower explosive limit (LEL).
    Explanation
    A minimum K factor of four is used in dilution ventilation for fire and explosion control because concentrations must be kept at or below 25% of the lower explosive limit (LEL). This means that the ventilation system needs to dilute the concentration of flammable gases or vapors in the air to a safe level to prevent explosions. A K factor of four ensures that the concentration is reduced to a level that is below 25% of the LEL, minimizing the risk of fire or explosion.

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  • 21. 

    The range of acceptable values for the air flow volume on routine tests is within what percentage of the baseline value?

    • 25%.

    • 20%.

    • 15%.

    • 10%.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10%.
    Explanation
    The range of acceptable values for the air flow volume on routine tests is within 10% of the baseline value. This means that the air flow volume can deviate by up to 10% from the baseline value and still be considered acceptable.

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  • 22. 

    What are two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that are needed to calculate the air flow volume?

    • Area and pressure.

    • Area and velocity.

    • Velocity and pressure.

    • Diameter and velocity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Area and velocity.
    Explanation
    To calculate the air flow volume in ventilation systems, two parameters needed are the area of the opening through which the air flows and the velocity of the air. The area represents the size of the opening, while the velocity represents the speed at which the air is moving through that opening. By multiplying the area and velocity together, the air flow volume can be determined.

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  • 23. 

    What series of filter cannot be used if oil particles are present in the work environment?

    • N

    • P

    • R

    • S

    Correct Answer
    A. N
  • 24. 

    What respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not carried by the wearer?

    • Air-line.

    • Air-purifying.

    • Open-circuit SCBA.

    • Closed-circuit SCBA.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air-line.
    Explanation
    An air-line respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not carried by the wearer. This type of respirator is connected to an external air source through a hose or tube, providing a continuous supply of clean air to the wearer. Unlike air-purifying respirators that rely on filters to remove contaminants from the air or self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) that carry their own air supply, the air-line respirator requires a separate air source to function effectively.

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  • 25. 

    Who shoulders the responsibility for respirator use in their work area?

    • Safety manager.

    • Individual user.

    • Shift supervisor.

    • Workplace supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Workplace supervisor.
    Explanation
    The workplace supervisor shoulders the responsibility for respirator use in their work area. They are responsible for ensuring that proper safety measures are in place, including providing and maintaining respirators, training employees on their proper use, and enforcing their use in the work area. The safety manager may have a role in overseeing overall safety protocols, but the immediate responsibility for respirator use lies with the workplace supervisor. The individual user and shift supervisor may have some responsibility in using and enforcing the use of respirators, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the workplace supervisor.

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  • 26. 

    How would a confined space that does not actually or potentially contain hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm be classified?

    • Class I space.

    • Class II space.

    • Permit-required space.

    • Non-permit-required space.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-permit-required space.
    Explanation
    A confined space that does not have any hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm would be classified as a non-permit-required space. This means that workers can enter and work in the space without needing a permit or special safety precautions.

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  • 27. 

    In ventilation work, what pressure is exerted outward against the interior surface of an enclosure?

    • Positive static.

    • Negative static.

    • Positive velocity.

    • Negative velocity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive static.
    Explanation
    Positive static pressure is exerted outward against the interior surface of an enclosure in ventilation work. This means that the pressure inside the enclosure is higher than the pressure outside, causing air to be pushed outwards. This can be achieved by using fans or other ventilation equipment to increase the pressure inside the enclosure. Positive static pressure is commonly used to prevent the entry of contaminants or to maintain a specific air quality within the enclosure.

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  • 28. 

    Which type of velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front of a hood that is needed to pull contaminants into the hood?

    • Face velocity.

    • Duct velocity.

    • Capture velocity.

    • Transport velocity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Capture velocity.
    Explanation
    Capture velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front of a hood that is needed to pull contaminants into the hood. It is the velocity required to overcome the opposing forces (such as gravity and air currents) and ensure that the contaminants are effectively captured and drawn into the hood.

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  • 29. 

    Which is a defining factor in identifying a confined space?

    • Large enough for human entry.

    • Designed for continuous occupancy.

    • Unrestricted means for entry and exit.

    • Not large enough to perform assigned work.

    Correct Answer
    A. Large enough for human entry.
    Explanation
    A defining factor in identifying a confined space is that it must be large enough for human entry. Confined spaces are typically restricted in size and have limited entry and exit points. This requirement ensures that a person can physically enter the space but also emphasizes the potential hazards associated with working in confined spaces, such as limited mobility and the risk of entrapment.

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  • 30. 

    Which atmospheric characteristic classifies a confined space as permit-required?

    • No recognized safety or health hazards.

    • The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%.

    • Atmospheric testing greater than 10% of the LEL.

    • No credible potential for hazardous atmosphere engulfment or entrapment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Atmospheric testing greater than 10% of the LEL.
    Explanation
    If atmospheric testing shows that the concentration of a flammable substance is greater than 10% of the lower explosive limit (LEL), it classifies the confined space as permit-required. This indicates that there is a potential for a hazardous atmosphere to be present in the space, which requires special precautions and permits to ensure the safety of workers entering the area.

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  • 31. 

    The depth of your pregnant worker evaluation depends on what?  

    • Length of pregnancy.

    • Concerns and complaints presented to you by the individual.

    • The existing control measures in the individual’s workplace.

    • Risks and existing information concerning the agent the individual is exposed to in their workplace.

    Correct Answer
    A. Risks and existing information concerning the agent the individual is exposed to in their workplace.
    Explanation
    The depth of the pregnant worker evaluation depends on the risks and existing information concerning the agent the individual is exposed to in their workplace. This means that the evaluation should take into consideration the potential hazards and substances that the pregnant worker may come into contact with during their job. By assessing these risks and having existing information about them, appropriate measures can be taken to ensure the safety and well-being of the pregnant worker.

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  • 32. 

    When Health Risk Assessment (HRA) findings exceed the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL), who do you notify?  

    • Section safety representative.

    • Squadron commander.

    • Flight chief.

    • Workplace supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Workplace supervisor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is workplace supervisor. When Health Risk Assessment (HRA) findings exceed the occupational and environmental exposure limit (OEEL), it is the responsibility of the individual to notify their workplace supervisor. The workplace supervisor is in charge of overseeing the safety and well-being of employees and is the appropriate person to inform about any potential health risks that exceed the established limits. The workplace supervisor can then take appropriate actions to address the issue and ensure the safety of the employees.

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  • 33. 

    In a routine survey, ventilation system data collected during the routine assessment should be compared to

    • Key parameters.

    • Factory findings.

    • Previous routine survey data.

    • Data collected during the baseline survey.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data collected during the baseline survey.
    Explanation
    In a routine survey, the ventilation system data collected should be compared to the data collected during the baseline survey. This is because the baseline survey provides the initial measurements and conditions of the ventilation system, which serves as a reference point for future assessments. By comparing the current data to the baseline data, any changes or deviations can be identified and evaluated. Comparing the data to key parameters, factory findings, or previous routine survey data may not provide an accurate assessment of the ventilation system's performance over time.

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  • 34. 

    What may be indicated by a very strong flow coming in an open door of a room containing a local exhaust system?

    • Adequate makeup air.

    • Excessive cross drafts.

    • Inadequate makeup air.

    • Proper discharge of air away from inlets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inadequate makeup air.
    Explanation
    A very strong flow coming in an open door of a room containing a local exhaust system may indicate inadequate makeup air. This means that the exhaust system is pulling in more air from outside the room than is being supplied, causing a negative pressure inside the room. As a result, air is being drawn in through any available openings, such as the open door, to balance the pressure. This indicates that the room is not receiving enough fresh air to compensate for the air being exhausted, leading to inadequate makeup air.

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  • 35. 

    Who interviews the workplace supervisor and enrolled individual when investigating an abnormal exposure to determine its cause?

    • MAJCOM Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) and base BE.

    • Squadron commander and Base Safety.

    • Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) and BE.

    • Base Ground Safety and workplace supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) and BE.
    Explanation
    The Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) and BE (Bioenvironmental Engineering) would be responsible for conducting an investigation into an abnormal exposure to determine its cause. They would interview both the workplace supervisor and the enrolled individual to gather information and gather evidence to identify the cause of the exposure. The IRSO would specifically focus on radiation safety concerns, while BE would have expertise in investigating and assessing environmental factors that may have contributed to the exposure.

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  • 36. 

    Once dosimeters are collected after the monitoring period and disassembled, what two things must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters?

    • TLD number and the Listing 1523.

    • Shipping document and TLD number.

    • TLD shipping holder and TLD number.

    • Listing 1499 and shipping document.

    Correct Answer
    A. TLD number and the Listing 1523.
    Explanation
    The TLD number and the Listing 1523 must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters. This is because the TLD number is a unique identifier for each dosimeter and the Listing 1523 is a record that lists all the dosimeters that were issued. By comparing the TLD number with the Listing 1523, it can be ensured that all the dosimeters that were issued have been accounted for.

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  • 37. 

    Areas of ducts and hoods must be expressed in

    • Inches.

    • Linear feet.

    • Square feet.

    • Cubic feet per minute.

    Correct Answer
    A. Square feet.
    Explanation
    The areas of ducts and hoods must be expressed in square feet because square feet is a unit of measurement for two-dimensional surfaces. Ducts and hoods are typically flat or have a specific cross-sectional shape, so their areas can be measured in square feet. This measurement is important for determining the size and capacity of ducts and hoods in various applications, such as ventilation systems or kitchen exhaust systems. Inches, linear feet, and cubic feet per minute are not appropriate units for expressing the area of ducts and hoods.

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  • 38. 

    When is monitoring required for certain radiation workers?

    • Pregnant workers likely to exceed 50 millirem (mrem) during gestation.

    • Pregnant workers likely to exceed 100 mrem during pregnancy.

    • Workers likely to exceed 15% of the annual limits of intake.

    • Workers likely to exceed 10% of the annual external dose limit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Workers likely to exceed 10% of the annual external dose limit.
    Explanation
    Monitoring is required for certain radiation workers when they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual external dose limit. This means that if their exposure to radiation is expected to reach or exceed 10% of the maximum allowable dose for a year, they need to be monitored. This helps ensure that their radiation exposure is within safe limits and allows for appropriate measures to be taken if necessary to protect their health and safety.

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  • 39. 

    Which is a benefit of ventilating a confined space?

    • Eliminates need to test oxygen levels.

    • Dilutes or removes toxic air contaminants.

    • Reduces the atmospheric testing frequency.

    • Eliminates need to test for toxics substances.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilutes or removes toxic air contaminants.
    Explanation
    Ventilating a confined space is beneficial because it helps to dilute or remove toxic air contaminants. This is important for the safety of individuals working in the confined space, as it reduces the risk of exposure to harmful substances. Ventilation ensures that the air in the confined space remains clean and breathable, creating a healthier and safer environment. It does not eliminate the need to test oxygen levels or for toxic substances, but it helps to minimize the concentration of contaminants in the air.

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  • 40. 

    The statement that best describes when a master entry plan for confined space entry can be prepared is when an organization

    • Routinely enters confined spaces and the conditions present only minor health risks.

    • Enters confined spaces only occasionally and the conditions present only minor health risks.

    • Routinely enters the same confined spaces and the conditions and entry requirements are the same.

    • Routinely enters a variety of confined spaces but the conditions and entry requirements are the same.

    Correct Answer
    A. Routinely enters the same confined spaces and the conditions and entry requirements are the same.
    Explanation
    The best time to prepare a master entry plan for confined space entry is when an organization routinely enters the same confined spaces and the conditions and entry requirements are the same. This allows for a standardized plan to be developed and implemented, ensuring that all necessary precautions are taken and that workers are well-prepared for the specific hazards associated with those confined spaces.

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  • 41. 

    What is the maximum amount of a certain chemical vapor that air can hold at a given temperature?

    • Vapor pressure.

    • Explosive limit.

    • Saturation concentration

    • Required air flow volume.

    Correct Answer
    A. Saturation concentration
    Explanation
    Saturation concentration refers to the maximum amount of a certain chemical vapor that air can hold at a given temperature. It is the point at which the air is fully saturated and can no longer hold any more vapor. This is determined by factors such as temperature, pressure, and the properties of the specific chemical.

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  • 42. 

    When performing face velocity measurements, what must you do just before measuring the air flow of a ventilation system?

    • Calibrate the survey meter.

    • Take static pressure measurements.

    • Identify the key parameter for the system.

    • Measure out or mentally form a grid over the duct opening.

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure out or mentally form a grid over the duct opening.
    Explanation
    Before measuring the air flow of a ventilation system, it is necessary to measure out or mentally form a grid over the duct opening. This is important because it helps to ensure that the measurements are taken at consistent and accurate points across the opening. By creating a grid, it becomes easier to systematically measure the face velocity at various points, which provides a more comprehensive understanding of the air flow in the system. This step helps to ensure reliable and consistent measurements during the face velocity measurements.

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  • 43. 

    What are the two most important factors to any indoor air quality (IAQ) survey?

    • Education and training.

    • Education and counseling.

    • Communication and education.

    • Communication and counseling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communication and education.
    Explanation
    The two most important factors to any indoor air quality (IAQ) survey are communication and education. Effective communication is crucial for gathering accurate information and understanding the concerns and needs of the individuals involved. It helps in establishing trust and creating a comfortable environment for sharing information. Education is important to ensure that everyone involved understands the importance of IAQ, the potential risks, and the necessary steps to improve it. It helps in promoting awareness and empowering individuals to make informed decisions regarding IAQ.

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  • 44. 

    If any abnormal or potential overexposure occurs, the Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) must notify what person/agency?

    • Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA/SG3PB).

    • Aerospace Medicine Council.

    • Squadron commander.

    • Base Ground Safety.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA/SG3PB).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA/SG3PB). The Installation Radiation Safety Officer (IRSO) is responsible for ensuring radiation safety at the installation. If any abnormal or potential overexposure occurs, the IRSO must notify the AFMSA/SG3PB, which is the agency responsible for providing medical support and guidance to the Air Force. They have the expertise and resources to assess and manage any radiation-related health concerns that may arise.

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  • 45. 

    Two sources of indoor air contamination are interior air and

    • Volatile organic compounds (VOC).

    • Exterior air.

    • Inadequate ventilation.

    • Combustion contaminants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Exterior air.
    Explanation
    Exterior air is one of the sources of indoor air contamination. This means that pollutants from the outdoor environment can enter indoor spaces and contribute to poor air quality. These pollutants can include dust, pollen, smoke, and other harmful particles. It is important to have proper ventilation and filtration systems in place to minimize the impact of exterior air on indoor air quality.

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  • 46. 

    What actions should be taken if a respirator quantitative fit-test (QNFT) sequence fails a second time?

    • Repeat the test on a replacement mask of the same size.

    • Size down one size and repeat the fitting and fit-testing procedures.

    • Repeat the test on the same mask.

    • Size up one size and repeat the fitting and fit-testing procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeat the test on a replacement mask of the same size.
    Explanation
    If a respirator quantitative fit-test (QNFT) sequence fails a second time, the recommended action is to repeat the test on a replacement mask of the same size. This suggests that the issue may not be with the mask itself but with the fit or seal of the mask on the individual's face. By using a replacement mask of the same size, it allows for the possibility of a better fit and a successful fit-test result.

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  • 47. 

    Which source material is useful for assessing hazards and estimating hazard duration during CBRN incidents?

    • WEEL (workplace environmental exposure levels).

    • ERPG Emergency Response Planning Guidelines).

    • CHEMRAT (Chemical Hazard Estimation Method and Risk Assessment Tool).

    • MEDIC CD.

    Correct Answer
    A. CHEMRAT (Chemical Hazard Estimation Method and Risk Assessment Tool).
    Explanation
    CHEMRAT (Chemical Hazard Estimation Method and Risk Assessment Tool) is the correct answer because it is a source material specifically designed for assessing hazards and estimating hazard duration during CBRN (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear) incidents. It provides a systematic approach to evaluate the risks associated with chemical hazards and assists in making informed decisions for emergency response planning.

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  • 48. 

    What important procedure must you follow to obtain accurate readings with a velometer?

    • Hold the probe parallel to the air flow.

    • Always make two traverses at right angles to one another.

    • Choose a section of the duct with smooth flow for measurement.

    • Hold tube so that the mark aligns with the side of the duct and point tube directly into the air stream.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hold the probe parallel to the air flow.
    Explanation
    To obtain accurate readings with a velometer, it is important to hold the probe parallel to the air flow. This ensures that the measurement is taken in the direction of the air flow, allowing for accurate velocity readings. Holding the probe at an angle could result in incorrect measurements as it may not capture the full force of the air flow. Therefore, aligning the probe parallel to the air flow is crucial for obtaining accurate readings with a velometer.

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  • 49. 

    What document lists each of the workplaces that use respiratory protection?

    • Master Respirator Inventory.

    • Certified Respirator Inventory.

    • Respirator Protection Inventory.

    • Installation Respirator Inventory.

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Respirator Inventory.
    Explanation
    The Master Respirator Inventory is a document that lists each of the workplaces that use respiratory protection. It serves as a comprehensive record of all the locations where respiratory protection is required, ensuring that all workplaces are accounted for and properly equipped with the necessary respiratory equipment. This inventory helps in managing and tracking the availability and distribution of respirators across different workplaces, ensuring the safety and well-being of the employees.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 12, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Mav_2591

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