4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman Ure Questions Vol. 1

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Engineering Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is to be used for the purpose of studying the URE Questions for Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC's.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     What Statement describes a unit's purpose?
    • A. 

      Vision

    • B. 

      Mission

    • C. 

      Leadership

    • D. 

      Directional

  • 2. 
     Air Force Medical Service effects can best be described as the
    • A. 

      Ability to provide defensive measures during a contingency

    • B. 

      Ability to achieve Afir Force Medical Service objectives

    • C. 

      Health service support the medics bring to the fight

    • D. 

      War-fighting skills the medics bring to the fight

  • 3. 
    Which of the following AFMS effects includes identifying, assessing, and controlling health hazards? 
    • A. 

      Restore health

    • B. 

      Prevent casualties

    • C. 

      Enhance human performance

    • D. 

      Ensuring a fit and health force

  • 4. 
     Who establishes the purpose and direction of the AFMS?
    • A. 

      Air Force Surgeon General

    • B. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • C. 

      Major Command Surgeon General

    • D. 

      Chief of Staff of the Air Force

  • 5. 
    If an Air Force member desired stress management education, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction? 
    • A. 

      Public Health

    • B. 

      Health Promotion

    • C. 

      Occupational Medicine

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

  • 6. 
    If an Air Force member of a line unit required clinical care, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction? 
    • A. 

      Flight Medicine

    • B. 

      Health Promotion

    • C. 

      Aerospace physiology

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

  • 7. 
    What is the bioenvironmental engineering practical application for the concept of a common set of capabilities and consistent application of skills in any setting? 
    • A. 

      Operational risk management

    • B. 

      Garrison equals deployed

    • C. 

      Health risk assessment

    • D. 

      Identify and analyze

  • 8. 
    Bioenvironmental engineering's primary capability - conduct predictive exposure assessments is done by 
    • A. 

      Using occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures

    • B. 

      Effectively anticipate and recognize when physical health threats exist

    • C. 

      Recommending measures to eliminate or control physical health threats

    • D. 

      Responding to both deliberate and crisis events

  • 9. 
      Bioenvironmental Engineering sometimes interacts with ground safety by
    • A. 

      A. contributing to the Occupational and Health Working Group.

    • B. 

      B. participating with the Confined Space Program team.

    • C. 

      C. resolving a community health issue.

    • D. 

      D. reviewing engineering designs.

  • 10. 
     To correct a drinking water standard violation, Bioenvironmental Engineering interfaces with  
    • A. 

      A. the Air Force Inspection Agency and the Environmental Protection Agency.

    • B. 

      B. the Air Force Medical Operations and the Air Force Inspection Agency.

    • C. 

      C. Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.

    • D. 

      D. Civil Engineering and the Air Force Inspection Agency.

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Environmental, Safety and Occupational Health Council.

    • B. 

      Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group.

    • C. 

      Aerospace Occupational and Environmental Council.

    • D. 

      Aerospace Medicine Council.

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.

    • B. 

      Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.

    • C. 

      Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • D. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency - Bioenvironmental Engineering.

  • 13. 
    Which agency would you consult for assistance when interpreting a policy?  
    • A. 

      United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.

    • B. 

      Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • C. 

      Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.

    • D. 

      Air Force Medical Service.

  • 14. 
    If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing vulnerability assessments, health hazard surveillance and drinking water sampling then you are a member of the  
    • A. 

      MNBC Team.

    • B. 

      PAM Team.

    • C. 

      Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.

    • D. 

      Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.

  • 15. 
     If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing confirmatory sampling of suspected contamination and analyzing associated risks jointly with civil engineering then you are member of the  
    • A. 

      MNBC Team.

    • B. 

      PAM Team.

    • C. 

      Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.

    • D. 

      Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.

  • 16. 
    Matter has three basic forms: solid, liquid and gas. Its physical state is dependent upon the  
    • A. 

      Temperature and atmospheric pressure.

    • B. 

      Atmospheric pressure only.

    • C. 

      Mass and weight.

    • D. 

      Mass only.

  • 17. 
    Which of the following physical states of matter cannot be compressed?  
    • A. 

      Solid and liquid.

    • B. 

      Liquid and gas.

    • C. 

      Liquid only.

    • D. 

      Gas only.

  • 18. 
    Which of the physical states of matter lacks both volume and shape?  
    • A. 

      Solid and liquid.

    • B. 

      Liquid and gas.

    • C. 

      Liquid only.

    • D. 

      Gas only.

  • 19. 
    An example of a solution is a  
    • A. 

      Container of methane gas and carbon dioxide gas.

    • B. 

      Beaker of ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.

    • C. 

      Beaker of sodium hydroxide.

    • D. 

      Container of argon gas.

  • 20. 
    The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the  
    • A. 

      Atomic number.

    • B. 

      Atomic weight.

    • C. 

      Electron number.

    • D. 

      Electron weight.

  • 21. 
    The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of the number of  
    • A. 

      Neutrons, electrons and protons.

    • B. 

      Neutrons and electrons.

    • C. 

      Protons and electrons.

    • D. 

      Protons and neutrons.

  • 22. 
    Due to their high reactivity, what commonly combines with organic compounds to form dangerous chemicals that can be toxic to humans?  
    • A. 

      Metals.

    • B. 

      Alkalis.

    • C. 

      Halogens.

    • D. 

      Noble gases.

  • 23. 
     In what electron shell does most of the reaction activity take place within an atom?  
    • A. 

      Closest to the nucleus.

    • B. 

      Outermost.

    • C. 

      Innermost.

    • D. 

      Middle.

  • 24. 
    What term refers to the number of electrons an atom will give, receive, or share with another in a chemical reaction?  
    • A. 

      Atomic number.

    • B. 

      Atomic weight.

    • C. 

      Element.

    • D. 

      Valence.

  • 25. 
    Elements form compounds in an attempt to  
    • A. 

      Become more stable.

    • B. 

      Disperse energy.

    • C. 

      Become inert.

    • D. 

      Gain energy.

  • 26. 
     An anion has a negative charge because the atom has  
    • A. 

      More neutrons than protons.

    • B. 

      Fewer neutrons than protons.

    • C. 

      More protons than electrons.

    • D. 

      Fewer protons than electrons.

  • 27. 
     Unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons as opposed to saturated compounds  
    • A. 

      Are more chemically reactive.

    • B. 

      Are less chemically reactive.

    • C. 

      Do not react at all.

    • D. 

      React equally.

  • 28. 
    It is important to understand the chemical relationships that place compounds into distinct groups so you can more easily determine the  
    • A. 

      Percent by mass of the compound.

    • B. 

      Saturation rate of the compound.

    • C. 

      Concentration of the compound.

    • D. 

      Hazards of the compound.

  • 29. 
    If 25 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 250 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?  
    • A. 

      0.1 percent.

    • B. 

      10 percent.

    • C. 

      25 percent.

    • D. 

      50 percent.

  • 30. 
    If 50 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 500 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?  
    • A. 

      0.1 percent.

    • B. 

      10 percent.

    • C. 

      25 percent.

    • D. 

      50 percent.

  • 31. 
    If a solution has more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions, it is considered  
    • A. 

      Buffered.

    • B. 

      Alkaline.

    • C. 

      Neutral.

    • D. 

      Acidic.

  • 32. 
    A solution with a pH of 3 is considered  
    • A. 

      Buffered.

    • B. 

      Alkaline.

    • C. 

      Neutral.

    • D. 

      Acidic.

  • 33. 
    Charlie’s law states that at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin); therefore, as temperature  
    • A. 

      Decreases, volume increases.

    • B. 

      Decreases, volume decreases.

    • C. 

      Decreases, volume remains constant.

    • D. 

      Increases, volume remains constant.

  • 34. 
    Gay-Lussac’s law states that at a constant volume, the pressure of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin); therefore, as pressure  
    • A. 

      Increases, temperature increases.

    • B. 

      Increases, temperature decreases.

    • C. 

      Increases, temperature remains constant.

    • D. 

      Decreases, temperature remains constant.

  • 35. 
    The purpose of the plasma membrane within a cell is to  
    • A. 

      Break down protein, carbohydrates, acids, and foreign substances that may enter the cell.

    • B. 

      Promote electron transport and the citric and fatty acid cycles.

    • C. 

      Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.

    • D. 

      Break down toxic substances and distribute proteins.

  • 36. 
    Within what part of the cell are the functions for cell expansion, growth, and replication carried out?  
    • A. 

      Plasma membrane.

    • B. 

      Centrioles.

    • C. 

      Cytoplasm.

    • D. 

      Nucleus.

  • 37. 
    The life cycle of a cell is the  
    • A. 

      Growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.

    • B. 

      Division of the nuclear material and of the cytoplasm.

    • C. 

      Determining factor in how the cell will function.

    • D. 

      Period between two successive cell divisions.

  • 38. 
    The types of cells most affected by exposure to ionizing radiation are those that  
    • A. 

      Reproduce slowly.

    • B. 

      Reproduce rapidly.

    • C. 

      Are tightly packed together.

    • D. 

      Are loosely packed together.

  • 39. 
    Which type of tissue is largely nonliving extracellular matrix and is able to endure abuses that the other tissues would not be able to tolerate?  
    • A. 

      Muscle.

    • B. 

      Nervous.

    • C. 

      Epithelial.

    • D. 

      Connective.

  • 40. 
    Which type of tissue is highly cellular and is well supplied with blood?  
    • A. 

      Connective.

    • B. 

      Epithelial.

    • C. 

      Nervous.

    • D. 

      Muscle.

  • 41. 
    Which type of tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities?  
    • A. 

      Muscle.

    • B. 

      Nervous.

    • C. 

      Epithelial.

    • D. 

      Connective.

  • 42. 
    What is the innermost layer of the eye that is the membrane upon which images are received?  
    • A. 

      Ciliary body.

    • B. 

      Choriod.

    • C. 

      Retina.

    • D. 

      Iris.

  • 43. 
    Ultraviolet radiation can create a photochemical reaction in the very outside layer of the eye that kills the cells there. Which of the following best describes a potential effect of overexposure?  
    • A. 

      Sunburned eyeballs.

    • B. 

      Collapsed sclera.

    • C. 

      Burst retina.

    • D. 

      Cataracts.

  • 44. 
    The Eustachian tube is critical to the function of the ear because it  
    • A. 

      Promotes drainage.

    • B. 

      Serves as a receptor for hearing.

    • C. 

      Conducts sound to the auditory nerve.

    • D. 

      Provides a means of equalizing pressure.

  • 45. 
    The organ of Corti is critical to the function of the ear because it  
    • A. 

      Promotes drainage.

    • B. 

      Serves as a receptor for hearing.

    • C. 

      Conducts sound to the auditory nerve.

    • D. 

      Provides a means of equalizing pressure.

  • 46. 
    Preventing the passage of nearly every known variety of germs through the skin’s surface is done by the  
    • A. 

      Nerve endings in the dermis.

    • B. 

      Hornlike protein material called keratin.

    • C. 

      Overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.

    • D. 

      Secretion of sebum by the sebaceous glands.

  • 47. 
    The main function of bones within the human body is to provide  
    • A. 

      A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.

    • B. 

      Adjustments which contribute to joint stability.

    • C. 

      And maintain homeostasis.

    • D. 

      Movement and support.

  • 48. 
    The function of the red marrow of the bones within the skeletal system is to form  
    • A. 

      Red blood cells only.

    • B. 

      Blood platelets and synovial fluid only.

    • C. 

      Red blood cells and white blood cells only.

    • D. 

      Red and white blood cells and blood platelets.

  • 49. 
    The majority of joints in the adult human body are  
    • A. 

      Slightly movable.

    • B. 

      Freely movable.

    • C. 

      Immovable.

    • D. 

      Rigid.

  • 50. 
    The most radiation-sensitive cells in the body are in the bone marrow. What can happen when they are exposed to intense irradiation?  
    • A. 

      Normal replacement of circulating blood cells is impaired.

    • B. 

      Neuroglia cells can no longer conduct nerve impulses.

    • C. 

      Nerve cells are destroyed and cannot be replaced.

    • D. 

      Synovial fluid production is decreased.

  • 51. 
    Skeletal muscle is muscle that  
    • A. 

      Contracts strong and rhythmically.

    • B. 

      Contracts slowly and rhythmically.

    • C. 

      Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.

    • D. 

      Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.

  • 52. 
    Smooth muscle is muscle that  
    • A. 

      Contracts strong and rhythmically.

    • B. 

      Contracts slowly and rhythmically.

    • C. 

      Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.

    • D. 

      Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.

  • 53. 
    Cardiac muscle is muscle that  
    • A. 

      Contracts strong and rhythmically.

    • B. 

      Contracts slowly and rhythmically.

    • C. 

      Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.

    • D. 

      Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.

  • 54. 
    What two major body systems work together to allow the body to regulate and maintain homeostasis?  
    • A. 

      Lymphatic system and the respiratory system.

    • B. 

      Endocrine system and the lymphatic system.

    • C. 

      Nervous system and the endocrine system.

    • D. 

      Muscular system and the nervous system.

  • 55. 
    What is the main function of the central nervous system?  
    • A. 

      Serves as the major signal receptor.

    • B. 

      Controls the visceral motor nerve fibers.

    • C. 

      Transmits impulses from peripheral organs to the central nervous system.

    • D. 

      Transmits impulses from the central nervous system out to the peripheral organs.

  • 56. 
    Central nervous system stimulants excite acetylcholine production. Which of the following examples best represents a central nervous system stimulant?  
    • A. 

      Benzene.

    • B. 

      Acetone.

    • C. 

      Ethylene glycol.

    • D. 

      Organophosphate.

  • 57. 
    What two major body systems work together in the regulation of body activities?  
    • A. 

      Lymphatic and respiratory.

    • B. 

      Endocrine and lymphatic.

    • C. 

      Nervous and endocrine.

    • D. 

      Muscular and nervous.

  • 58. 
    The secretory products of endocrine glands are called hormones. The role of hormones within the endocrine system is to  
    • A. 

      Permit a constant supply of oxygen.

    • B. 

      Provide a defense against invading microorganisms.

    • C. 

      Regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body.

    • D. 

      Promote continuous and controlled movement of the blood through the capillaries.

  • 59. 
    The alpha cells in the pancreatic islets secrete the hormone glucagon in response to a  
    • A. 

      Low concentration of glucose in the blood.

    • B. 

      Low concentration of insulin in the blood.

    • C. 

      High concentration of glucose in the blood.

    • D. 

      High concentration of insulin in the blood.

  • 60. 
    If the heart is the organ that keeps the blood moving through the vessels, what is the transport medium?  
    • A. 

      Veins.

    • B. 

      Blood.

    • C. 

      Arteries.

    • D. 

      Capillaries.

  • 61. 
    The arterioles have a key role within the cardiovascular system, because they  
    • A. 

      Increase the osmotic pressure.

    • B. 

      Inhibit the return of fluid into the capillaries.

    • C. 

      Regulate the blood flow into the tissue capillaries.

    • D. 

      Facilitate the exchange of materials between the blood and tissue cells.

  • 62. 
    When fluid is prevented from returning to the capillaries and accumulates in the tissue spaces, what is the result?  
    • A. 

      Dermatitis.

    • B. 

      Silicosis.

    • C. 

      Angina.

    • D. 

      Edema.

  • 63. 
    The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. The spleen and the liver both remove from circulating blood old and damaged  
    • A. 

      Platelets.

    • B. 

      Lymphocytes.

    • C. 

      Red blood cells.

    • D. 

      White blood cells.

  • 64. 
    What is the primary function of mature lymphocytes within the lymphatic system?  
    • A. 

      Transmission of nerve impulses.

    • B. 

      Defense against disease.

    • C. 

      Hormone production.

    • D. 

      Homeostasis.

  • 65. 
     Which of the following conditions best illustrates an exaggerated immune response?  
    • A. 

      Hearing loss.

    • B. 

      Cervical strain.

    • C. 

      Hypersensitivity.

    • D. 

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.

  • 66. 
     What two systems work together to supply oxygen and remove wastes from the body?  
    • A. 

      Circulatory and respiratory.

    • B. 

      Respiratory and lymphatic.

    • C. 

      Lymphatic and endocrine.

    • D. 

      Endocrine and nervous.

  • 67. 
    When you exercise, more oxygen is used and more carbon dioxide is produced. The result of this increase in carbon dioxide is the breathing becomes  
    • A. 

      Faster and shallower.

    • B. 

      Slower and shallower.

    • C. 

      Slower and deeper.

    • D. 

      Faster and deeper.

  • 68. 
    What happens when the lymph nodes in the lungs trap particles and become enlarged?  
    • A. 

      Decreased pulse rate.

    • B. 

      Increased respiration.

    • C. 

      Loss of consciousness.

    • D. 

      Obstruction of bronchioles.

  • 69. 
    Within the digestive system food is broken down until the molecules are small enough to be absorbed and waste products are  
    • A. 

      Absorbed.

    • B. 

      Eliminated.

    • C. 

      Maintained.

    • D. 

      Converted to energy.

  • 70. 
    One function of the urinary system is to  
    • A. 

      Break down proteins, fats and starches.

    • B. 

      Maintain normal pH of the blood.

    • C. 

      Metabolize toxic substances.

    • D. 

      Increase insulin production.

  • 71. 
    Which of the following statements best describes the function of the reproductive systems?  
    • A. 

      Not vital to the individual’s survival.

    • B. 

      Critical for defense against diseases.

    • C. 

      Maintains homeostasis for survival.

    • D. 

      Vital for the metabolic processes.

  • 72. 
    Substances that are produced by or are a by-product of human activities, not biological systems, is a definition of  
    • A. 

      Poisons.

    • B. 

      Toxicants.

    • C. 

      Pollutants.

    • D. 

      Germ cells.

  • 73. 
    What term describes the ability of a substance to produce an adverse physiological effect?  
    • A. 

      Biotransformation.

    • B. 

      Health threat.

    • C. 

      Toxic agent.

    • D. 

      Dose.

  • 74. 
    What term describes the unwanted effects a substance is capable of producing?  
    • A. 

      Dose.

    • B. 

      Toxicity.

    • C. 

      Response.

    • D. 

      Synergism.

  • 75. 
     A sheet metal worker inhaling small doses of welding fumes over a period of 10 years would be classified as  
    • A. 

      A chronic exposure.

    • B. 

      An acute exposure.

    • C. 

      A chronic effect.

    • D. 

      An acute effect.

  • 76. 
    Toxicity testing on a uniform group of rats results in 40 percent deaths when they receive a 10 mg/kg oral dose of a substance. The 10 mg/kg is called the  
    • A. 

      LC40.

    • B. 

      LD40.

    • C. 

      LC10.

    • D. 

      LD10.

  • 77. 
     What does the slope of the dose-response curve demonstrate?  
    • A. 

      Effective dose.

    • B. 

      Threshold dose.

    • C. 

      Margin of safety.

    • D. 

      Lethal concentration.

  • 78. 
    If you are assessing a shop were workers are exposed to potentially hazardous vapors, then you would be most concerned with identifying  
    • A. 

      Absorption hazards.

    • B. 

      Inhalation hazards.

    • C. 

      Ingestion hazards.

    • D. 

      Injection hazards.

  • 79. 
     Which one of the following is not a protective mechanism against inhaled contaminants?  
    • A. 

      Contaminant transport up the mucociliary escalator.

    • B. 

      Contaminant capture by mucous membranes.

    • C. 

      Film of lipids providing an effective barrier.

    • D. 

      Larger particles filtered out by nasal hairs.

  • 80. 
    If you are assessing a shop where your main concern is the entry of chemicals through unbroken skin, then you are mainly concerned with identifying  
    • A. 

      Absorption hazards.

    • B. 

      Inhalation hazards.

    • C. 

      Ingestion hazards.

    • D. 

      Injection hazards.

  • 81. 
    Which route of entry provides direct entry into the body, bypassing most of the body’s defenses?  
    • A. 

      Absorption.

    • B. 

      Inhalation.

    • C. 

      Ingestion.

    • D. 

      Injection.

  • 82. 
    How does the action of a primary irritant differ from that of a secondary irritant?  
    • A. 

      Primary irritants exert little or no system toxic action.

    • B. 

      Secondary irritants exert little or no system toxic action.

    • C. 

      Primary irritants dilute the normal amount of oxygen in air.

    • D. 

      Secondary irritants dilute the normal amount of oxygen in air.

  • 83. 
    What is the effect of a chemical asphyxiant on the body?  
    • A. 

      Inflammation of mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

    • B. 

      Destruction of tissue due to contact with material.

    • C. 

      Reduction of the body’s capacity to use oxygen.

    • D. 

      Depression of the central nervous system.

  • 84. 
     The CNS depressant that has a high margin of safety is  
    • A. 

      Uranium.

    • B. 

      Hydrogen.

    • C. 

      Acetylene.

    • D. 

      Ethyl ether.

  • 85. 
    Which of the following examples best describes a material capable of producing lung tissue damage?  
    • A. 

      Carbon disulfide.

    • B. 

      Hydrogen cyanide.

    • C. 

      Asbestos.

    • D. 

      Mercury.

  • 86. 
    How are fumes formed?  
    • A. 

      Liquid condenses to a tiny solid particle suspended in air.

    • B. 

      Vapor condenses to a tiny solid particle suspended in air.

    • C. 

      Incomplete combustion of substances containing carbon.

    • D. 

      Incomplete combustion of substances containing oxygen.

  • 87. 
    Of the solid aerosols, which group has the greatest variety of sizes, shapes, and toxic effects?  
    • A. 

      Smokes.

    • B. 

      Fumes.

    • C. 

      Dusts.

    • D. 

      Fogs.

  • 88. 
    The Sun heats the Earth’s surface and the air above it causing warm air to rise. As the warm air rises, air pressure  
    • A. 

      Decreases causing the air to cool.

    • B. 

      Increases causing the air to cool.

    • C. 

      Decreases causing the air to become warmer.

    • D. 

      Increases causing the air to become warmer.

  • 89. 
    What effect does carbon dioxide in the atmosphere have on regulating global temperature?  
    • A. 

      Promotes water evaporation, preventing temperature decrease.

    • B. 

      Inhibits water evaporation, preventing temperature increase.

    • C. 

      Radiates infrared heat, preventing temperature decrease.

    • D. 

      Absorbs infrared heat, preventing temperature increase.

  • 90. 
    Water starts its course through the hydrologic cycle when the Sun shines on moist lands and bodies of water causing  
    • A. 

      Transpiration.

    • B. 

      Condensation.

    • C. 

      Evaporation.

    • D. 

      Migration.

  • 91. 
    The Earth’s crust is comprised of natural chemicals called minerals, which are composed of different elements. What element is most abundant within the rocks of the crust?  
    • A. 

      Oxygen.

    • B. 

      Nitrogen.

    • C. 

      Hydrogen.

    • D. 

      Carbon dioxide.

  • 92. 
    Which of the following statements best describes an autotrophic organism?  
    • A. 

      Use already formed organic compounds as a basis for food.

    • B. 

      Can be further categorized as phagotrophs or saprotrophs.

    • C. 

      Are classified by their type of respiration.

    • D. 

      Manufacture their own food entirely.

  • 93. 
    There are two types of food chains. Which of the following examples best describes the grazing food chain?  
    • A. 

      Detrius-autotrophic succession.

    • B. 

      Detrius-saprotrophic succession.

    • C. 

      Autotrophic-phagotrophic succession.

    • D. 

      Autotrophic-saprotrophic succession.

  • 94. 
    What element in the exposure pathway links the release of a chemical from a source and its contact with a receptor at the exposure point?  
    • A. 

      Source.

    • B. 

      Exposure point.

    • C. 

      Exposure route.

    • D. 

      Environmental fate and transport.

  • 95. 
    What is an example of the fate and transport mechanism attenuation for soil?  
    • A. 

      Biodegradation.

    • B. 

      Soil gas migration.

    • C. 

      Erosion via wind or water.

    • D. 

      Impingement with soil particles.

  • 96. 
    What two factors influence the direction and extent of contaminant transport in groundwater?  
    • A. 

      Depth to groundwater and ground cover.

    • B. 

      Soil characteristics and man-made objects.

    • C. 

      Physical characteristics of aquifers and depth.

    • D. 

      Groundwater hydrology and geologic composition.

  • 97. 
    The access of a chemical to the lungs depends foremost on its physical state. For particulates, penetration depends on  
    • A. 

      Size.

    • B. 

      Shape.

    • C. 

      Reactivity.

    • D. 

      Temperature.