4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman Ure Questions Vol. 1

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4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman Ure Questions Vol. 1 - Quiz

This quiz is to be used for the purpose of studying the URE Questions for Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC's.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

     Air Force Medical Service effects can best be described as the

    • A.

      Ability to provide defensive measures during a contingency

    • B.

      Ability to achieve Afir Force Medical Service objectives

    • C.

      Health service support the medics bring to the fight

    • D.

      War-fighting skills the medics bring to the fight

    Correct Answer
    C. Health service support the medics bring to the fight
    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Service effects can be best described as the health service support that the medics bring to the fight. This means that the Air Force Medical Service is responsible for providing medical care, treatment, and support to the military personnel during combat situations. The medics play a crucial role in ensuring the health and well-being of the troops, treating injuries and illnesses, and providing necessary medical resources and expertise in the battlefield. Their efforts contribute to the overall success and effectiveness of the military operations.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following AFMS effects includes identifying, assessing, and controlling health hazards? 

    • A.

      Restore health

    • B.

      Prevent casualties

    • C.

      Enhance human performance

    • D.

      Ensuring a fit and health force

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent casualties
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "prevent casualties." This is because preventing casualties involves identifying, assessing, and controlling health hazards. By identifying potential health hazards, assessing their impact on individuals, and implementing appropriate control measures, the aim is to minimize the occurrence of injuries and fatalities, thus preventing casualties.

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  • 3. 

     Who establishes the purpose and direction of the AFMS?

    • A.

      Air Force Surgeon General

    • B.

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • C.

      Major Command Surgeon General

    • D.

      Chief of Staff of the Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Surgeon General
    Explanation
    The Air Force Surgeon General is responsible for establishing the purpose and direction of the AFMS. As the highest-ranking medical officer in the Air Force, they oversee all medical operations and policies within the organization. They work closely with the Secretary of the Air Force and the Chief of Staff of the Air Force to ensure that the medical needs of the Air Force are met and that the AFMS is aligned with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force. The Air Force Surgeon General plays a critical role in shaping the direction and priorities of the AFMS.

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  • 4. 

    If an Air Force member desired stress management education, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction? 

    • A.

      Public Health

    • B.

      Health Promotion

    • C.

      Occupational Medicine

    • D.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

    Correct Answer
    B. Health Promotion
    Explanation
    The Health Promotion aerospace medicine flight would provide stress management education for Air Force members. Health Promotion focuses on promoting and maintaining the physical, mental, and social well-being of individuals. Stress management falls under this category as it aims to help individuals cope with and reduce stress levels. This flight would have the necessary resources and expertise to provide the instruction needed in stress management.

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  • 5. 

    If an Air Force member of a line unit required clinical care, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction? 

    • A.

      Flight Medicine

    • B.

      Health Promotion

    • C.

      Aerospace physiology

    • D.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Medicine
    Explanation
    Flight Medicine would provide the instruction because they specialize in providing clinical care to members of the Air Force. They are trained to address the specific medical needs and challenges faced by Air Force personnel, including those serving in line units. Flight Medicine focuses on ensuring the health and well-being of Air Force members, especially when it comes to the unique demands of their job in the aerospace environment.

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  • 6. 

    What is the bioenvironmental engineering practical application for the concept of a common set of capabilities and consistent application of skills in any setting? 

    • A.

      Operational risk management

    • B.

      Garrison equals deployed

    • C.

      Health risk assessment

    • D.

      Identify and analyze

    Correct Answer
    B. Garrison equals deployed
    Explanation
    The concept of a common set of capabilities and consistent application of skills in any setting is applicable to the garrison equals deployed practical application in bioenvironmental engineering. This means that the skills and capabilities of bioenvironmental engineers should be the same whether they are working in a garrison (home base) or deployed (in a different location). This ensures that the same level of expertise and standards are maintained regardless of the setting, which is important for effective and efficient operations in bioenvironmental engineering.

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  • 7. 

    Bioenvironmental engineering's primary capability - conduct predictive exposure assessments is done by 

    • A.

      Using occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures

    • B.

      Effectively anticipate and recognize when physical health threats exist

    • C.

      Recommending measures to eliminate or control physical health threats

    • D.

      Responding to both deliberate and crisis events

    Correct Answer
    A. Using occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental engineering's primary capability is to conduct predictive exposure assessments by using occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures. This means that bioenvironmental engineers analyze data related to the workplace and environment to determine the likelihood of individuals being exposed to harmful substances or conditions. By doing so, they can identify potential health risks and take appropriate measures to eliminate or control these threats. This helps in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals in various settings, such as workplaces and communities.

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  • 8. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering sometimes interacts with ground safety by

    • A.

      A. contributing to the Occupational and Health Working Group.

    • B.

      B. participating with the Confined Space Program team.

    • C.

      C. resolving a community health issue.

    • D.

      D. reviewing engineering designs.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. participating with the Confined Space Program team.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering sometimes interacts with ground safety by participating with the Confined Space Program team. This suggests that bioenvironmental engineers play a role in ensuring the safety of individuals working in confined spaces. They may provide expertise and guidance in assessing and mitigating potential hazards in these environments. This collaboration highlights the interdisciplinary nature of bioenvironmental engineering and its importance in promoting workplace safety.

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  • 9. 

     To correct a drinking water standard violation, Bioenvironmental Engineering interfaces with  

    • A.

      A. the Air Force Inspection Agency and the Environmental Protection Agency.

    • B.

      B. the Air Force Medical Operations and the Air Force Inspection Agency.

    • C.

      C. Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.

    • D.

      D. Civil Engineering and the Air Force Inspection Agency.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering interfaces with Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency to correct a drinking water standard violation.

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  • 10. 

    Which forum meets once per month to review, discuss and approve issues such as industrial hygiene recommendations?  

    • A.

      Environmental, Safety and Occupational Health Council.

    • B.

      Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group.

    • C.

      Aerospace Occupational and Environmental Council.

    • D.

      Aerospace Medicine Council.

    Correct Answer
    B. Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group.
    Explanation
    The Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group is the correct answer because it is a forum that meets once per month to review, discuss, and approve issues such as industrial hygiene recommendations. The other options, such as the Environmental, Safety and Occupational Health Council, Aerospace Occupational and Environmental Council, and Aerospace Medicine Council, do not specifically mention reviewing, discussing, and approving industrial hygiene recommendations.

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  • 11. 

    Which agency typically formulates new policy for the career field?  

    • A.

      United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.

    • B.

      Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.

    • C.

      Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • D.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency - Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Medical Support Agency - Bioenvironmental Engineering.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Support Agency - Bioenvironmental Engineering is the agency that typically formulates new policy for the career field.

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  • 12. 

    Which agency would you consult for assistance when interpreting a policy?  

    • A.

      United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.

    • B.

      Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • C.

      Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.

    • D.

      Air Force Medical Service.

    Correct Answer
    B. Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.
    Explanation
    When interpreting a policy, the agency that would be consulted for assistance is the Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering. This agency specializes in the field of bioenvironmental engineering and would have the expertise and knowledge to provide guidance and interpretation of policies related to this field. The other options listed, such as the United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and Air Force Medical Service, may have expertise in related areas but may not specifically focus on interpreting policies.

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  • 13. 

    If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing vulnerability assessments, health hazard surveillance and drinking water sampling then you are a member of the  

    • A.

      MNBC Team.

    • B.

      PAM Team.

    • C.

      Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.

    • D.

      Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.

    Correct Answer
    B. PAM Team.
    Explanation
    If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing vulnerability assessments, health hazard surveillance, and drinking water sampling, then you are a member of the PAM Team. The PAM Team is responsible for conducting vulnerability assessments and monitoring health hazards in deployed locations. They also perform drinking water sampling to ensure the safety of the water supply. Therefore, if you have these responsibilities, you would be a member of the PAM Team.

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  • 14. 

     If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing confirmatory sampling of suspected contamination and analyzing associated risks jointly with civil engineering then you are member of the  

    • A.

      MNBC Team.

    • B.

      PAM Team.

    • C.

      Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.

    • D.

      Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.

    Correct Answer
    A. MNBC Team.
    Explanation
    If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing confirmatory sampling of suspected contamination and analyzing associated risks jointly with civil engineering, then you are a member of the MNBC Team. This team is responsible for conducting assessments and analysis related to potential contamination and risks in a deployed location.

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  • 15. 

    Matter has three basic forms: solid, liquid and gas. Its physical state is dependent upon the  

    • A.

      Temperature and atmospheric pressure.

    • B.

      Atmospheric pressure only.

    • C.

      Mass and weight.

    • D.

      Mass only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Temperature and atmospheric pressure.
    Explanation
    The physical state of matter is determined by its temperature and atmospheric pressure. Temperature affects the kinetic energy of particles, causing them to move faster or slower and change their state. Atmospheric pressure, on the other hand, affects the intermolecular forces between particles, which can compress or expand the substance. Therefore, both temperature and atmospheric pressure are important factors in determining the physical state of matter.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the physical states of matter lacks both volume and shape?  

    • A.

      Solid and liquid.

    • B.

      Liquid and gas.

    • C.

      Liquid only.

    • D.

      Gas only.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gas only.
    Explanation
    Gas is the physical state of matter that lacks both volume and shape. Unlike solids and liquids, gases do not have a fixed shape or volume. They can expand or contract to fill the space available to them, and their particles are free to move around randomly. This lack of a fixed shape or volume is what distinguishes gases from the other states of matter.

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  • 17. 

    An example of a solution is a  

    • A.

      Container of methane gas and carbon dioxide gas.

    • B.

      Beaker of ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.

    • C.

      Beaker of sodium hydroxide.

    • D.

      Container of argon gas.

    Correct Answer
    B. Beaker of ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "beaker of ethyl alcohol dissolved in water" because a solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. In this case, the ethyl alcohol and water form a solution because they are evenly mixed and the molecules of each substance are evenly distributed throughout the mixture. The other options do not meet the definition of a solution as they are either pure substances or a mixture of substances that are not evenly mixed.

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  • 18. 

    The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the  

    • A.

      Atomic number.

    • B.

      Atomic weight.

    • C.

      Electron number.

    • D.

      Electron weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Atomic number.
    Explanation
    The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the atomic number. The atomic number represents the unique identity of an element and determines its position in the periodic table. It also determines the number of electrons in a neutral atom since atoms are electrically neutral and have an equal number of protons and electrons. Therefore, the correct answer is atomic number.

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  • 19. 

    The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of the number of  

    • A.

      Neutrons, electrons and protons.

    • B.

      Neutrons and electrons.

    • C.

      Protons and electrons.

    • D.

      Protons and neutrons.

    Correct Answer
    D. Protons and neutrons.
    Explanation
    The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. This is because the mass number represents the total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) in the nucleus of an atom. Electrons have a very small mass compared to protons and neutrons, so they are not included in the mass number calculation.

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  • 20. 

    Due to their high reactivity, what commonly combines with organic compounds to form dangerous chemicals that can be toxic to humans?  

    • A.

      Metals.

    • B.

      Alkalis.

    • C.

      Halogens.

    • D.

      Noble gases.

    Correct Answer
    C. Halogens.
    Explanation
    Halogens are highly reactive elements that commonly combine with organic compounds to form dangerous chemicals that can be toxic to humans. Halogens include elements such as fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine, which have a tendency to react with organic molecules and form stable compounds. These compounds can have harmful effects on human health and can be found in various industrial and household products.

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  • 21. 

     In what electron shell does most of the reaction activity take place within an atom?  

    • A.

      Closest to the nucleus.

    • B.

      Outermost.

    • C.

      Innermost.

    • D.

      Middle.

    Correct Answer
    B. Outermost.
    Explanation
    Most of the reaction activity takes place in the outermost electron shell of an atom because this shell contains the valence electrons, which are the electrons involved in chemical bonding and reactions. These valence electrons are the ones that interact with other atoms to form bonds and create chemical reactions. The other electron shells, such as the innermost and middle shells, are typically filled with core electrons that are less reactive and less involved in chemical reactions. Therefore, the outermost electron shell is where most of the reaction activity occurs.

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  • 22. 

    What term refers to the number of electrons an atom will give, receive, or share with another in a chemical reaction?  

    • A.

      Atomic number.

    • B.

      Atomic weight.

    • C.

      Element.

    • D.

      Valence.

    Correct Answer
    D. Valence.
    Explanation
    Valence refers to the number of electrons an atom will give, receive, or share with another in a chemical reaction. It determines the atom's ability to form chemical bonds and participate in chemical reactions. The other options, such as atomic number and atomic weight, do not specifically refer to the number of electrons involved in a chemical reaction.

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  • 23. 

    Elements form compounds in an attempt to  

    • A.

      Become more stable.

    • B.

      Disperse energy.

    • C.

      Become inert.

    • D.

      Gain energy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Become more stable.
    Explanation
    Elements form compounds in an attempt to become more stable. When elements combine to form compounds, they undergo chemical reactions that result in the formation of new chemical bonds. These bonds are more stable than the individual atoms, as they allow for a more efficient distribution of electrons. This increased stability is achieved by achieving a full outer electron shell or by attaining a more favorable electron configuration. Therefore, the formation of compounds is driven by the desire of elements to achieve a more stable state.

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  • 24. 

     An anion has a negative charge because the atom has  

    • A.

      More neutrons than protons.

    • B.

      Fewer neutrons than protons.

    • C.

      More protons than electrons.

    • D.

      Fewer protons than electrons.

    Correct Answer
    D. Fewer protons than electrons.
    Explanation
    An anion has a negative charge because it has gained one or more electrons, resulting in more electrons than protons. Since electrons have a negative charge and protons have a positive charge, an excess of electrons leads to an overall negative charge on the atom, making it an anion.

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  • 25. 

     Unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons as opposed to saturated compounds  

    • A.

      Are more chemically reactive.

    • B.

      Are less chemically reactive.

    • C.

      Do not react at all.

    • D.

      React equally.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are more chemically reactive.
    Explanation
    Unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons are more chemically reactive compared to saturated compounds because they have double or triple bonds between carbon atoms. These bonds are more susceptible to breaking and forming new bonds, allowing unsaturated compounds to undergo various chemical reactions such as addition, substitution, and oxidation. In contrast, saturated compounds have only single bonds, making them more stable and less likely to undergo chemical reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is that unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons are more chemically reactive.

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  • 26. 

    It is important to understand the chemical relationships that place compounds into distinct groups so you can more easily determine the  

    • A.

      Percent by mass of the compound.

    • B.

      Saturation rate of the compound.

    • C.

      Concentration of the compound.

    • D.

      Hazards of the compound.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hazards of the compound.
    Explanation
    Understanding the chemical relationships that place compounds into distinct groups is important because it allows us to identify the hazards associated with a compound. Different groups of compounds often have similar chemical properties and reactivity, which can help us predict the potential dangers and risks associated with them. By knowing the hazards of a compound, we can take appropriate safety measures and handle it properly to prevent accidents or harm.

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  • 27. 

    If 25 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 250 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?  

    • A.

      0.1 percent.

    • B.

      10 percent.

    • C.

      25 percent.

    • D.

      50 percent.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 percent.
    Explanation
    The percent by mass can be calculated by dividing the mass of the solute (sodium chloride) by the mass of the solution (sodium chloride + water) and multiplying by 100. In this case, the mass of the solute is 25 grams and the mass of the solution is 250 grams. Dividing 25 by 250 and multiplying by 100 gives 10 percent.

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  • 28. 

    If 50 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 500 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?  

    • A.

      0.1 percent.

    • B.

      10 percent.

    • C.

      25 percent.

    • D.

      50 percent.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 percent.
    Explanation
    The percent by mass is calculated by dividing the mass of the solute (sodium chloride) by the mass of the solution (sodium chloride + water) and multiplying by 100. In this case, the mass of sodium chloride is 50 grams and the mass of the solution is 500 grams. Therefore, the percent by mass is (50/500) * 100 = 10 percent.

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  • 29. 

    If a solution has more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions, it is considered  

    • A.

      Buffered.

    • B.

      Alkaline.

    • C.

      Neutral.

    • D.

      Acidic.

    Correct Answer
    B. Alkaline.
    Explanation
    If a solution has more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions, it is considered alkaline. This is because hydroxyl ions (OH-) are basic in nature and when there are more of them than hydrogen ions (H+), the solution becomes alkaline. Alkaline solutions have a pH greater than 7 and are also known as basic solutions.

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  • 30. 

    A solution with a pH of 3 is considered  

    • A.

      Buffered.

    • B.

      Alkaline.

    • C.

      Neutral.

    • D.

      Acidic.

    Correct Answer
    D. Acidic.
    Explanation
    A solution with a pH of 3 is considered acidic because pH values below 7 indicate acidic solutions. The lower the pH value, the more acidic the solution is. Therefore, a pH of 3 indicates a highly acidic solution.

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  • 31. 

    Charlie’s law states that at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin); therefore, as temperature  

    • A.

      Decreases, volume increases.

    • B.

      Decreases, volume decreases.

    • C.

      Decreases, volume remains constant.

    • D.

      Increases, volume remains constant.

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreases, volume decreases.
    Explanation
    According to Charlie's law, as the temperature decreases, the volume of a fixed mass of gas also decreases. This is because at lower temperatures, the gas molecules have less kinetic energy and move slower, causing them to occupy less space and resulting in a decrease in volume.

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  • 32. 

    Gay-Lussac’s law states that at a constant volume, the pressure of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin); therefore, as pressure  

    • A.

      Increases, temperature increases.

    • B.

      Increases, temperature decreases.

    • C.

      Increases, temperature remains constant.

    • D.

      Decreases, temperature remains constant.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases, temperature increases.
    Explanation
    Gay-Lussac's law states that at a constant volume, the pressure of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin). This means that as the pressure increases, the temperature will also increase. This relationship can be explained by the kinetic theory of gases, which states that as the pressure on a gas increases, the gas molecules will collide more frequently with the walls of the container, resulting in an increase in temperature.

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  • 33. 

    The purpose of the plasma membrane within a cell is to  

    • A.

      Break down protein, carbohydrates, acids, and foreign substances that may enter the cell.

    • B.

      Promote electron transport and the citric and fatty acid cycles.

    • C.

      Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.

    • D.

      Break down toxic substances and distribute proteins.

    Correct Answer
    C. Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.
    Explanation
    The plasma membrane serves as a barrier, separating the cell's internal environment from its external surroundings. It regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell, allowing the cell to maintain a stable internal environment. Additionally, the plasma membrane protects the cell from harmful substances and helps to maintain the cell's shape and structure.

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  • 34. 

    Within what part of the cell are the functions for cell expansion, growth, and replication carried out?  

    • A.

      Plasma membrane.

    • B.

      Centrioles.

    • C.

      Cytoplasm.

    • D.

      Nucleus.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cytoplasm.
    Explanation
    Cytoplasm is the correct answer because it is the part of the cell where cell expansion, growth, and replication occur. The cytoplasm contains various organelles, such as the ribosomes and mitochondria, which are responsible for these functions. Additionally, the cytoplasm also contains the necessary nutrients and enzymes required for cell growth and replication.

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  • 35. 

    The life cycle of a cell is the  

    • A.

      Growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.

    • B.

      Division of the nuclear material and of the cytoplasm.

    • C.

      Determining factor in how the cell will function.

    • D.

      Period between two successive cell divisions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells. This explanation accurately describes the life cycle of a cell, which involves the cell growing and eventually dividing into two new cells.

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  • 36. 

    The types of cells most affected by exposure to ionizing radiation are those that  

    • A.

      Reproduce slowly.

    • B.

      Reproduce rapidly.

    • C.

      Are tightly packed together.

    • D.

      Are loosely packed together.

    Correct Answer
    B. Reproduce rapidly.
    Explanation
    Exposure to ionizing radiation can cause damage to cells, particularly those that reproduce rapidly. Rapidly reproducing cells, such as those found in the bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles, are more susceptible to the harmful effects of radiation. This is because radiation can disrupt the DNA replication and cell division processes, leading to mutations and cell death. Cells that reproduce slowly, such as nerve cells, are less affected by ionizing radiation.

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  • 37. 

    Which type of tissue is largely nonliving extracellular matrix and is able to endure abuses that the other tissues would not be able to tolerate?  

    • A.

      Muscle.

    • B.

      Nervous.

    • C.

      Epithelial.

    • D.

      Connective.

    Correct Answer
    D. Connective.
    Explanation
    Connective tissue is largely nonliving extracellular matrix and is able to endure abuses that the other tissues would not be able to tolerate. This is because connective tissue is composed of cells scattered within an extracellular matrix that provides support, protection, and flexibility. It is able to withstand mechanical stress and strain due to its fibrous nature, making it more durable compared to other tissues such as muscle, nervous, and epithelial tissue.

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  • 38. 

    Which type of tissue is highly cellular and is well supplied with blood?  

    • A.

      Connective.

    • B.

      Epithelial.

    • C.

      Nervous.

    • D.

      Muscle.

    Correct Answer
    D. Muscle.
    Explanation
    Muscle tissue is highly cellular and is well supplied with blood. This is because muscle tissue requires a large amount of oxygen and nutrients to function properly. The high vascularity of muscle tissue allows for efficient delivery of these essential resources. Additionally, the high cellular content of muscle tissue is necessary for muscle contraction and movement.

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  • 39. 

    Which type of tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities?  

    • A.

      Muscle.

    • B.

      Nervous.

    • C.

      Epithelial.

    • D.

      Connective.

    Correct Answer
    B. Nervous.
    Explanation
    The nervous tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities. This tissue includes neurons and glial cells, which work together to transmit and process electrical signals throughout the body. Neurons are specialized cells that transmit information through electrical impulses, allowing for communication between different parts of the body. Glial cells provide support and protection to neurons. Together, these cells form the nervous system, which plays a crucial role in coordinating and controlling various body functions such as movement, sensation, and cognition.

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  • 40. 

    What is the innermost layer of the eye that is the membrane upon which images are received?  

    • A.

      Ciliary body.

    • B.

      Choriod.

    • C.

      Retina.

    • D.

      Iris.

    Correct Answer
    C. Retina.
    Explanation
    The retina is the innermost layer of the eye that receives images. It contains specialized cells called photoreceptors that detect light and convert it into electrical signals, which are then sent to the brain via the optic nerve for processing and interpretation. The retina is essential for vision and plays a crucial role in capturing and transmitting visual information.

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  • 41. 

    Ultraviolet radiation can create a photochemical reaction in the very outside layer of the eye that kills the cells there. Which of the following best describes a potential effect of overexposure?  

    • A.

      Sunburned eyeballs.

    • B.

      Collapsed sclera.

    • C.

      Burst retina.

    • D.

      Cataracts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sunburned eyeballs.
    Explanation
    Overexposure to ultraviolet radiation can cause a photochemical reaction in the outer layer of the eye, leading to damage and cell death. This can result in sunburned eyeballs, which refers to inflammation and redness of the eye due to the UV-induced damage.

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  • 42. 

    The Eustachian tube is critical to the function of the ear because it  

    • A.

      Promotes drainage.

    • B.

      Serves as a receptor for hearing.

    • C.

      Conducts sound to the auditory nerve.

    • D.

      Provides a means of equalizing pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Provides a means of equalizing pressure.
    Explanation
    The Eustachian tube is critical to the function of the ear because it provides a means of equalizing pressure. The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the back of the throat and helps maintain equal air pressure on both sides of the eardrum. This is important because changes in pressure can cause discomfort and affect hearing. When we swallow or yawn, the Eustachian tube opens briefly to allow air to flow in or out, equalizing the pressure and preventing damage to the eardrum.

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  • 43. 

    The organ of Corti is critical to the function of the ear because it  

    • A.

      Promotes drainage.

    • B.

      Serves as a receptor for hearing.

    • C.

      Conducts sound to the auditory nerve.

    • D.

      Provides a means of equalizing pressure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Serves as a receptor for hearing.
    Explanation
    The organ of Corti is critical to the function of the ear because it serves as a receptor for hearing. The organ of Corti is located in the cochlea of the inner ear and contains specialized hair cells that are responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. These hair cells are essential for the process of hearing and without them, the ear would not be able to detect and interpret sound.

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  • 44. 

    Preventing the passage of nearly every known variety of germs through the skin’s surface is done by the  

    • A.

      Nerve endings in the dermis.

    • B.

      Hornlike protein material called keratin.

    • C.

      Overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.

    • D.

      Secretion of sebum by the sebaceous glands.

    Correct Answer
    C. Overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells. The overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells forms a protective barrier on the skin's surface, preventing the passage of germs. This arrangement creates a tight seal, making it difficult for germs to penetrate the skin and enter the body. The nerve endings in the dermis, hornlike protein material called keratin, and secretion of sebum by the sebaceous glands also play important roles in skin protection, but they do not specifically prevent the passage of germs through the skin's surface.

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  • 45. 

    The main function of bones within the human body is to provide  

    • A.

      A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.

    • B.

      Adjustments which contribute to joint stability.

    • C.

      And maintain homeostasis.

    • D.

      Movement and support.

    Correct Answer
    A. A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.
    Explanation
    Bones in the human body serve as a framework that provides support and protection for the soft organs. They create a structure that helps maintain the shape and form of the body, while also safeguarding delicate organs such as the heart, lungs, and brain. Additionally, bones play a crucial role in providing attachment points for muscles, allowing for movement and mobility.

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  • 46. 

    The function of the red marrow of the bones within the skeletal system is to form  

    • A.

      Red blood cells only.

    • B.

      Blood platelets and synovial fluid only.

    • C.

      Red blood cells and white blood cells only.

    • D.

      Red and white blood cells and blood platelets.

    Correct Answer
    D. Red and white blood cells and blood platelets.
    Explanation
    The red marrow of the bones within the skeletal system is responsible for producing red and white blood cells and blood platelets. Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, white blood cells are part of the immune system and help fight off infections, and blood platelets are involved in blood clotting. Therefore, the red marrow plays a crucial role in the production of these important components of the blood.

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  • 47. 

    The majority of joints in the adult human body are  

    • A.

      Slightly movable.

    • B.

      Freely movable.

    • C.

      Immovable.

    • D.

      Rigid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Freely movable.
    Explanation
    The majority of joints in the adult human body are classified as freely movable, also known as synovial joints. These joints allow for a wide range of movement and are found in areas such as the shoulders, hips, and knees. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid, which lubricates and nourishes the joint, allowing for smooth and pain-free movement.

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  • 48. 

    The most radiation-sensitive cells in the body are in the bone marrow. What can happen when they are exposed to intense irradiation?  

    • A.

      Normal replacement of circulating blood cells is impaired.

    • B.

      Neuroglia cells can no longer conduct nerve impulses.

    • C.

      Nerve cells are destroyed and cannot be replaced.

    • D.

      Synovial fluid production is decreased.

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal replacement of circulating blood cells is impaired.
    Explanation
    When bone marrow cells are exposed to intense irradiation, their ability to produce new blood cells is impaired. The bone marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which are essential for maintaining a healthy immune system and proper blood clotting. Intense irradiation can damage or kill the radiation-sensitive cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the production of new blood cells. This can result in anemia, increased susceptibility to infections, and problems with blood clotting.

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  • 49. 

    Skeletal muscle is muscle that  

    • A.

      Contracts strong and rhythmically.

    • B.

      Contracts slowly and rhythmically.

    • C.

      Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.

    • D.

      Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.
    Explanation
    Skeletal muscle acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers. This means that each skeletal muscle fiber can contract and relax on its own, without being directly influenced by the activity of the surrounding muscle fibers. This allows for precise control and coordination of movement, as individual muscle fibers can be activated or deactivated as needed.

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  • 50. 

    Smooth muscle is muscle that  

    • A.

      Contracts strong and rhythmically.

    • B.

      Contracts slowly and rhythmically.

    • C.

      Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.

    • D.

      Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracts slowly and rhythmically.
    Explanation
    Smooth muscle is a type of muscle that contracts slowly and rhythmically. Unlike skeletal muscle, which contracts quickly and forcefully, smooth muscle contracts in a slower and more coordinated manner. This allows for smooth muscle to perform functions such as regulating blood flow, digestion, and breathing, where sustained contractions are required. Smooth muscle is also able to contract independently of neighboring muscle fibers, allowing for more precise control and coordination of movement.

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