4b051 Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman Ure Questions Vol. 1
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This quiz is to be used for the purpose of studying the URE Questions for Bioenvironmental Engineering Journeyman CDC's.
- 1.What Statement describes a unit's purpose?
- A.
Vision
- B.
Mission
- C.
Leadership
- D.
Directional
- 2.Air Force Medical Service effects can best be described as the
- A.
Ability to provide defensive measures during a contingency
- B.
Ability to achieve Afir Force Medical Service objectives
- C.
Health service support the medics bring to the fight
- D.
War-fighting skills the medics bring to the fight
- 3.Which of the following AFMS effects includes identifying, assessing, and controlling health hazards?
- A.
Restore health
- B.
Prevent casualties
- C.
Enhance human performance
- D.
Ensuring a fit and health force
- 4.Who establishes the purpose and direction of the AFMS?
- A.
Air Force Surgeon General
- B.
Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
Major Command Surgeon General
- D.
Chief of Staff of the Air Force
- 5.If an Air Force member desired stress management education, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction?
- A.
Public Health
- B.
Health Promotion
- C.
Occupational Medicine
- D.
Bioenvironmental Engineering
- 6.If an Air Force member of a line unit required clinical care, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction?
- A.
Flight Medicine
- B.
Health Promotion
- C.
Aerospace physiology
- D.
Bioenvironmental Engineering
- 7.What is the bioenvironmental engineering practical application for the concept of a common set of capabilities and consistent application of skills in any setting?
- A.
Operational risk management
- B.
Garrison equals deployed
- C.
Health risk assessment
- D.
Identify and analyze
- 8.Bioenvironmental engineering's primary capability - conduct predictive exposure assessments is done by
- A.
Using occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures
- B.
Effectively anticipate and recognize when physical health threats exist
- C.
Recommending measures to eliminate or control physical health threats
- D.
Responding to both deliberate and crisis events
- 9.Bioenvironmental Engineering sometimes interacts with ground safety by
- A.
A. contributing to the Occupational and Health Working Group.
- B.
B. participating with the Confined Space Program team.
- C.
C. resolving a community health issue.
- D.
D. reviewing engineering designs.
- 10.To correct a drinking water standard violation, Bioenvironmental Engineering interfaces with
- A.
A. the Air Force Inspection Agency and the Environmental Protection Agency.
- B.
B. the Air Force Medical Operations and the Air Force Inspection Agency.
- C.
C. Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.
- D.
D. Civil Engineering and the Air Force Inspection Agency.
- 11.
- A.
Environmental, Safety and Occupational Health Council.
- B.
Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group.
- C.
Aerospace Occupational and Environmental Council.
- D.
Aerospace Medicine Council.
- 12.
- A.
United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.
- B.
Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.
- C.
Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- D.
Air Force Medical Support Agency - Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- 13.Which agency would you consult for assistance when interpreting a policy?
- A.
United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.
- B.
Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- C.
Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.
- D.
Air Force Medical Service.
- 14.If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing vulnerability assessments, health hazard surveillance and drinking water sampling then you are a member of the
- A.
MNBC Team.
- B.
PAM Team.
- C.
Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.
- D.
Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.
- 15.If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing confirmatory sampling of suspected contamination and analyzing associated risks jointly with civil engineering then you are member of the
- A.
MNBC Team.
- B.
PAM Team.
- C.
Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.
- D.
Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.
- 16.Matter has three basic forms: solid, liquid and gas. Its physical state is dependent upon the
- A.
Temperature and atmospheric pressure.
- B.
Atmospheric pressure only.
- C.
Mass and weight.
- D.
Mass only.
- 17.Which of the following physical states of matter cannot be compressed?
- A.
Solid and liquid.
- B.
Liquid and gas.
- C.
Liquid only.
- D.
Gas only.
- 18.Which of the physical states of matter lacks both volume and shape?
- A.
Solid and liquid.
- B.
Liquid and gas.
- C.
Liquid only.
- D.
Gas only.
- 19.An example of a solution is a
- A.
Container of methane gas and carbon dioxide gas.
- B.
Beaker of ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.
- C.
Beaker of sodium hydroxide.
- D.
Container of argon gas.
- 20.The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the
- A.
Atomic number.
- B.
Atomic weight.
- C.
Electron number.
- D.
Electron weight.
- 21.The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of the number of
- A.
Neutrons, electrons and protons.
- B.
Neutrons and electrons.
- C.
Protons and electrons.
- D.
Protons and neutrons.
- 22.Due to their high reactivity, what commonly combines with organic compounds to form dangerous chemicals that can be toxic to humans?
- A.
Metals.
- B.
Alkalis.
- C.
Halogens.
- D.
Noble gases.
- 23.In what electron shell does most of the reaction activity take place within an atom?
- A.
Closest to the nucleus.
- B.
Outermost.
- C.
Innermost.
- D.
Middle.
- 24.What term refers to the number of electrons an atom will give, receive, or share with another in a chemical reaction?
- A.
Atomic number.
- B.
Atomic weight.
- C.
Element.
- D.
Valence.
- 25.Elements form compounds in an attempt to
- A.
Become more stable.
- B.
Disperse energy.
- C.
Become inert.
- D.
Gain energy.
- 26.An anion has a negative charge because the atom has
- A.
More neutrons than protons.
- B.
Fewer neutrons than protons.
- C.
More protons than electrons.
- D.
Fewer protons than electrons.
- 27.Unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons as opposed to saturated compounds
- A.
Are more chemically reactive.
- B.
Are less chemically reactive.
- C.
Do not react at all.
- D.
React equally.
- 28.It is important to understand the chemical relationships that place compounds into distinct groups so you can more easily determine the
- A.
Percent by mass of the compound.
- B.
Saturation rate of the compound.
- C.
Concentration of the compound.
- D.
Hazards of the compound.
- 29.If 25 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 250 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?
- A.
0.1 percent.
- B.
10 percent.
- C.
25 percent.
- D.
50 percent.
- 30.If 50 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 500 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?
- A.
0.1 percent.
- B.
10 percent.
- C.
25 percent.
- D.
50 percent.
- 31.If a solution has more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions, it is considered
- A.
Buffered.
- B.
Alkaline.
- C.
Neutral.
- D.
Acidic.
- 32.A solution with a pH of 3 is considered
- A.
Buffered.
- B.
Alkaline.
- C.
Neutral.
- D.
Acidic.
- 33.Charlie’s law states that at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin); therefore, as temperature
- A.
Decreases, volume increases.
- B.
Decreases, volume decreases.
- C.
Decreases, volume remains constant.
- D.
Increases, volume remains constant.
- 34.Gay-Lussac’s law states that at a constant volume, the pressure of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin); therefore, as pressure
- A.
Increases, temperature increases.
- B.
Increases, temperature decreases.
- C.
Increases, temperature remains constant.
- D.
Decreases, temperature remains constant.
- 35.The purpose of the plasma membrane within a cell is to
- A.
Break down protein, carbohydrates, acids, and foreign substances that may enter the cell.
- B.
Promote electron transport and the citric and fatty acid cycles.
- C.
Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.
- D.
Break down toxic substances and distribute proteins.
- 36.Within what part of the cell are the functions for cell expansion, growth, and replication carried out?
- A.
Plasma membrane.
- B.
Centrioles.
- C.
Cytoplasm.
- D.
Nucleus.
- 37.The life cycle of a cell is the
- A.
Growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.
- B.
Division of the nuclear material and of the cytoplasm.
- C.
Determining factor in how the cell will function.
- D.
Period between two successive cell divisions.
- 38.The types of cells most affected by exposure to ionizing radiation are those that
- A.
Reproduce slowly.
- B.
Reproduce rapidly.
- C.
Are tightly packed together.
- D.
Are loosely packed together.
- 39.Which type of tissue is largely nonliving extracellular matrix and is able to endure abuses that the other tissues would not be able to tolerate?
- A.
Muscle.
- B.
Nervous.
- C.
Epithelial.
- D.
Connective.
- 40.Which type of tissue is highly cellular and is well supplied with blood?
- A.
Connective.
- B.
Epithelial.
- C.
Nervous.
- D.
Muscle.
- 41.Which type of tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities?
- A.
Muscle.
- B.
Nervous.
- C.
Epithelial.
- D.
Connective.
- 42.What is the innermost layer of the eye that is the membrane upon which images are received?
- A.
Ciliary body.
- B.
Choriod.
- C.
Retina.
- D.
Iris.
- 43.Ultraviolet radiation can create a photochemical reaction in the very outside layer of the eye that kills the cells there. Which of the following best describes a potential effect of overexposure?
- A.
Sunburned eyeballs.
- B.
Collapsed sclera.
- C.
Burst retina.
- D.
Cataracts.
- 44.The Eustachian tube is critical to the function of the ear because it
- A.
Promotes drainage.
- B.
Serves as a receptor for hearing.
- C.
Conducts sound to the auditory nerve.
- D.
Provides a means of equalizing pressure.
- 45.The organ of Corti is critical to the function of the ear because it
- A.
Promotes drainage.
- B.
Serves as a receptor for hearing.
- C.
Conducts sound to the auditory nerve.
- D.
Provides a means of equalizing pressure.
- 46.Preventing the passage of nearly every known variety of germs through the skin’s surface is done by the
- A.
Nerve endings in the dermis.
- B.
Hornlike protein material called keratin.
- C.
Overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.
- D.
Secretion of sebum by the sebaceous glands.
- 47.The main function of bones within the human body is to provide
- A.
A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.
- B.
Adjustments which contribute to joint stability.
- C.
And maintain homeostasis.
- D.
Movement and support.
- 48.The function of the red marrow of the bones within the skeletal system is to form
- A.
Red blood cells only.
- B.
Blood platelets and synovial fluid only.
- C.
Red blood cells and white blood cells only.
- D.
Red and white blood cells and blood platelets.
- 49.The majority of joints in the adult human body are
- A.
Slightly movable.
- B.
Freely movable.
- C.
Immovable.
- D.
Rigid.
- 50.The most radiation-sensitive cells in the body are in the bone marrow. What can happen when they are exposed to intense irradiation?
- A.
Normal replacement of circulating blood cells is impaired.
- B.
Neuroglia cells can no longer conduct nerve impulses.
- C.
Nerve cells are destroyed and cannot be replaced.
- D.
Synovial fluid production is decreased.
- 51.Skeletal muscle is muscle that
- A.
Contracts strong and rhythmically.
- B.
Contracts slowly and rhythmically.
- C.
Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.
- D.
Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.
- 52.Smooth muscle is muscle that
- A.
Contracts strong and rhythmically.
- B.
Contracts slowly and rhythmically.
- C.
Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.
- D.
Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.
- 53.Cardiac muscle is muscle that
- A.
Contracts strong and rhythmically.
- B.
Contracts slowly and rhythmically.
- C.
Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.
- D.
Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.
- 54.What two major body systems work together to allow the body to regulate and maintain homeostasis?
- A.
Lymphatic system and the respiratory system.
- B.
Endocrine system and the lymphatic system.
- C.
Nervous system and the endocrine system.
- D.
Muscular system and the nervous system.
- 55.What is the main function of the central nervous system?
- A.
Serves as the major signal receptor.
- B.
Controls the visceral motor nerve fibers.
- C.
Transmits impulses from peripheral organs to the central nervous system.
- D.
Transmits impulses from the central nervous system out to the peripheral organs.
- 56.Central nervous system stimulants excite acetylcholine production. Which of the following examples best represents a central nervous system stimulant?
- A.
Benzene.
- B.
Acetone.
- C.
Ethylene glycol.
- D.
Organophosphate.
- 57.What two major body systems work together in the regulation of body activities?
- A.
Lymphatic and respiratory.
- B.
Endocrine and lymphatic.
- C.
Nervous and endocrine.
- D.
Muscular and nervous.
- 58.The secretory products of endocrine glands are called hormones. The role of hormones within the endocrine system is to
- A.
Permit a constant supply of oxygen.
- B.
Provide a defense against invading microorganisms.
- C.
Regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body.
- D.
Promote continuous and controlled movement of the blood through the capillaries.
- 59.The alpha cells in the pancreatic islets secrete the hormone glucagon in response to a
- A.
Low concentration of glucose in the blood.
- B.
Low concentration of insulin in the blood.
- C.
High concentration of glucose in the blood.
- D.
High concentration of insulin in the blood.
- 60.If the heart is the organ that keeps the blood moving through the vessels, what is the transport medium?
- A.
Veins.
- B.
Blood.
- C.
Arteries.
- D.
Capillaries.
- 61.The arterioles have a key role within the cardiovascular system, because they
- A.
Increase the osmotic pressure.
- B.
Inhibit the return of fluid into the capillaries.
- C.
Regulate the blood flow into the tissue capillaries.
- D.
Facilitate the exchange of materials between the blood and tissue cells.
- 62.When fluid is prevented from returning to the capillaries and accumulates in the tissue spaces, what is the result?
- A.
Dermatitis.
- B.
Silicosis.
- C.
Angina.
- D.
Edema.
- 63.The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. The spleen and the liver both remove from circulating blood old and damaged
- A.
Platelets.
- B.
Lymphocytes.
- C.
Red blood cells.
- D.
White blood cells.
- 64.What is the primary function of mature lymphocytes within the lymphatic system?
- A.
Transmission of nerve impulses.
- B.
Defense against disease.
- C.
Hormone production.
- D.
Homeostasis.
- 65.Which of the following conditions best illustrates an exaggerated immune response?
- A.
Hearing loss.
- B.
Cervical strain.
- C.
Hypersensitivity.
- D.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
- 66.What two systems work together to supply oxygen and remove wastes from the body?
- A.
Circulatory and respiratory.
- B.
Respiratory and lymphatic.
- C.
Lymphatic and endocrine.
- D.
Endocrine and nervous.
- 67.When you exercise, more oxygen is used and more carbon dioxide is produced. The result of this increase in carbon dioxide is the breathing becomes
- A.
Faster and shallower.
- B.
Slower and shallower.
- C.
Slower and deeper.
- D.
Faster and deeper.
- 68.What happens when the lymph nodes in the lungs trap particles and become enlarged?
- A.
Decreased pulse rate.
- B.
Increased respiration.
- C.
Loss of consciousness.
- D.
Obstruction of bronchioles.
- 69.Within the digestive system food is broken down until the molecules are small enough to be absorbed and waste products are
- A.
Absorbed.
- B.
Eliminated.
- C.
Maintained.
- D.
Converted to energy.
- 70.One function of the urinary system is to
- A.
Break down proteins, fats and starches.
- B.
Maintain normal pH of the blood.
- C.
Metabolize toxic substances.
- D.
Increase insulin production.
- 71.Which of the following statements best describes the function of the reproductive systems?
- A.
Not vital to the individual’s survival.
- B.
Critical for defense against diseases.
- C.
Maintains homeostasis for survival.
- D.
Vital for the metabolic processes.
- 72.Substances that are produced by or are a by-product of human activities, not biological systems, is a definition of
- A.
Poisons.
- B.
Toxicants.
- C.
Pollutants.
- D.
Germ cells.
- 73.What term describes the ability of a substance to produce an adverse physiological effect?
- A.
Biotransformation.
- B.
Health threat.
- C.
Toxic agent.
- D.
Dose.
- 74.What term describes the unwanted effects a substance is capable of producing?
- A.
Dose.
- B.
Toxicity.
- C.
Response.
- D.
Synergism.
- 75.A sheet metal worker inhaling small doses of welding fumes over a period of 10 years would be classified as
- A.
A chronic exposure.
- B.
An acute exposure.
- C.
A chronic effect.
- D.
An acute effect.
- 76.Toxicity testing on a uniform group of rats results in 40 percent deaths when they receive a 10 mg/kg oral dose of a substance. The 10 mg/kg is called the
- A.
LC40.
- B.
LD40.
- C.
LC10.
- D.
LD10.
- 77.What does the slope of the dose-response curve demonstrate?
- A.
Effective dose.
- B.
Threshold dose.
- C.
Margin of safety.
- D.
Lethal concentration.
- 78.If you are assessing a shop were workers are exposed to potentially hazardous vapors, then you would be most concerned with identifying
- A.
Absorption hazards.
- B.
Inhalation hazards.
- C.
Ingestion hazards.
- D.
Injection hazards.
- 79.Which one of the following is not a protective mechanism against inhaled contaminants?
- A.
Contaminant transport up the mucociliary escalator.
- B.
Contaminant capture by mucous membranes.
- C.
Film of lipids providing an effective barrier.
- D.
Larger particles filtered out by nasal hairs.
- 80.If you are assessing a shop where your main concern is the entry of chemicals through unbroken skin, then you are mainly concerned with identifying
- A.
Absorption hazards.
- B.
Inhalation hazards.
- C.
Ingestion hazards.
- D.
Injection hazards.
- 81.Which route of entry provides direct entry into the body, bypassing most of the body’s defenses?
- A.
Absorption.
- B.
Inhalation.
- C.
Ingestion.
- D.
Injection.
- 82.How does the action of a primary irritant differ from that of a secondary irritant?
- A.
Primary irritants exert little or no system toxic action.
- B.
Secondary irritants exert little or no system toxic action.
- C.
Primary irritants dilute the normal amount of oxygen in air.
- D.
Secondary irritants dilute the normal amount of oxygen in air.
- 83.What is the effect of a chemical asphyxiant on the body?
- A.
Inflammation of mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
- B.
Destruction of tissue due to contact with material.
- C.
Reduction of the body’s capacity to use oxygen.
- D.
Depression of the central nervous system.
- 84.The CNS depressant that has a high margin of safety is
- A.
Uranium.
- B.
Hydrogen.
- C.
Acetylene.
- D.
Ethyl ether.
- 85.Which of the following examples best describes a material capable of producing lung tissue damage?
- A.
Carbon disulfide.
- B.
Hydrogen cyanide.
- C.
Asbestos.
- D.
Mercury.
- 86.How are fumes formed?
- A.
Liquid condenses to a tiny solid particle suspended in air.
- B.
Vapor condenses to a tiny solid particle suspended in air.
- C.
Incomplete combustion of substances containing carbon.
- D.
Incomplete combustion of substances containing oxygen.
- 87.Of the solid aerosols, which group has the greatest variety of sizes, shapes, and toxic effects?
- A.
Smokes.
- B.
Fumes.
- C.
Dusts.
- D.
Fogs.
- 88.The Sun heats the Earth’s surface and the air above it causing warm air to rise. As the warm air rises, air pressure
- A.
Decreases causing the air to cool.
- B.
Increases causing the air to cool.
- C.
Decreases causing the air to become warmer.
- D.
Increases causing the air to become warmer.
- 89.What effect does carbon dioxide in the atmosphere have on regulating global temperature?
- A.
Promotes water evaporation, preventing temperature decrease.
- B.
Inhibits water evaporation, preventing temperature increase.
- C.
Radiates infrared heat, preventing temperature decrease.
- D.
Absorbs infrared heat, preventing temperature increase.
- 90.Water starts its course through the hydrologic cycle when the Sun shines on moist lands and bodies of water causing
- A.
Transpiration.
- B.
Condensation.
- C.
Evaporation.
- D.
Migration.
- 91.The Earth’s crust is comprised of natural chemicals called minerals, which are composed of different elements. What element is most abundant within the rocks of the crust?
- A.
Oxygen.
- B.
Nitrogen.
- C.
Hydrogen.
- D.
Carbon dioxide.
- 92.Which of the following statements best describes an autotrophic organism?
- A.
Use already formed organic compounds as a basis for food.
- B.
Can be further categorized as phagotrophs or saprotrophs.
- C.
Are classified by their type of respiration.
- D.
Manufacture their own food entirely.
- 93.There are two types of food chains. Which of the following examples best describes the grazing food chain?
- A.
Detrius-autotrophic succession.
- B.
Detrius-saprotrophic succession.
- C.
Autotrophic-phagotrophic succession.
- D.
Autotrophic-saprotrophic succession.
- 94.What element in the exposure pathway links the release of a chemical from a source and its contact with a receptor at the exposure point?
- A.
Source.
- B.
Exposure point.
- C.
Exposure route.
- D.
Environmental fate and transport.
- 95.What is an example of the fate and transport mechanism attenuation for soil?
- A.
Biodegradation.
- B.
Soil gas migration.
- C.
Erosion via wind or water.
- D.
Impingement with soil particles.
- 96.What two factors influence the direction and extent of contaminant transport in groundwater?
- A.
Depth to groundwater and ground cover.
- B.
Soil characteristics and man-made objects.
- C.
Physical characteristics of aquifers and depth.
- D.
Groundwater hydrology and geologic composition.
- 97.The access of a chemical to the lungs depends foremost on its physical state. For particulates, penetration depends on
- A.
Size.
- B.
Shape.
- C.
Reactivity.
- D.
Temperature.
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