3s051b Practice Test Set 2

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Vruedy
V
Vruedy
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 244
| Attempts: 244
Quiz Flashcard
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/178 Questions

    When is an A1c considered fully qualified for promotion to SRA?

    • Recommended by the commander only.
    • 20 mo TIG and 24 TIS.
    • 28 months TIG only.
    • 20 mo TIG, 36 mo TIS, and recommended by the commander
Please wait...
CDCs Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This is the Q & A for the second half of CDCs 3SO51 Vol. 1

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    When are individuals considered for BTZ promotion to SRA?

    • Six months prior to the Airman's best qualified date.

    • Six months prior to the Airman's fully qualified date.

    • The month prior to the month in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion

    • The month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion

    Correct Answer
    A. The month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion
    Explanation
    Individuals are considered for BTZ promotion to SRA the month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    What is the PES code for an Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the MilPDS?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The PES code for an Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the MilPDS is A.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the nonrecommendation, inclusive dates of the nonrecommendation action, and

    • The Airman's acknowledgment.

    • The promotion eligibility status code.

    • The Airman's time in grade and time in service.

    • A statement indicating that the status is withheld.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Airman's acknowledgment.
    Explanation
    When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the nonrecommendation, inclusive dates of the nonrecommendation action, and the Airman's acknowledgment. This means that the airman must acknowledge that they have received the notice and understand the reasons for the nonrecommendation. The other options, such as the promotion eligibility status code, the Airman's time in grade and time in service, and a statement indicating that the status is withheld, are not mentioned as necessary components of the commander's written notice.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    In the WAPS what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?

    • PFE and EPRS

    • SKT and PFE

    • .PFE and time in grade

    • SKT and decorations.

    Correct Answer
    A. SKT and PFE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SKT and PFE. In the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS), SKT (Specialty Knowledge Test) and PFE (Promotion Fitness Examination) are two weighted factors that account for 44 percent of the total point value. This means that performance in these two areas carries significant weight in determining an airman's promotion eligibility and potential.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    In the WAPS, time in grade is computed at the rate of

    • one-fourth point per month in grade up to 10 years

    • One-fourth point per month in grade up to 20 years

    • .one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years

    • One-half point per month in grade up to 20 years

    Correct Answer
    A. .one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years". This means that for each month spent in a particular grade, an individual will earn half a point towards their time in grade. This calculation is applicable for up to 10 years of service. After 10 years, the rate of earning points for time in grade may change.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    What is the EPR conversion factor?

    • 27

    • 18

    • 15

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 27
    Explanation
    The EPR conversion factor is 27. This means that when converting from one unit to another in the EPR system, you would multiply the value by 27. The conversion factor is a constant that helps in converting measurements accurately and efficiently.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level,

    • 23 mo TIG and 7 yr TAFMS

    • 23 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS

    • 24 mo TIG and 7 yr TAFMS

    • 24 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS
    Explanation
    After becoming a 7 level, a TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after having 24 months of Time in Grade (TIG) and 8 years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS).

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    What is the minimum total points a record can be assessed if all three panel members in a central CMSgt promotion evaluation board score the record as 18?

    • 18

    • 24

    • 270

    • 450

    Correct Answer
    A. 270
    Explanation
    The minimum total points a record can be assessed is 270. This is because all three panel members in a central CMSgt promotion evaluation board score the record as 18. Since there are three panel members, the total points would be 18 x 3 = 54. However, the minimum total points that can be assessed is determined by the scoring increments, which is 5 points. Therefore, the minimum total points would be the closest increment above 54, which is 270.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Which of the following is not considered as a "whole person" factor in the senior NCO promotion process?

    • Education

    • Leadership

    • Marital status

    • Performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Marital status
    Explanation
    Marital status is not considered as a "whole person" factor in the senior NCO promotion process. This means that whether a person is married or single does not affect their chances of promotion. The other factors listed, such as education, leadership, and performance, are all taken into consideration when deciding on promotions. Marital status is not relevant to the evaluation of an individual's qualifications and abilities for a senior NCO position.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Under the STEP program, no Airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except

    • SrA

    • SSgts

    • TSgts

    • MSgts

    Correct Answer
    A. SrA
    Explanation
    Under the STEP program, which stands for Stripes for Exceptional Performers, Airman can only be promoted once in a 12-month period. However, this rule does not apply to Senior Airmen (SrA). Therefore, Senior Airmen can be promoted more than once within a 12-month period under the STEP program.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    In which situation does a member remain eligible for promotion consideration and selection but, if selected, is prevented from assuming the higher grade?

    • Receives a letter of reprimand

    • Possesses an UIF

    • Awaiting a decision on an application as a CO

    • Is in Phase II of the WBFMP

    Correct Answer
    A. Awaiting a decision on an application as a CO
  • 13. 

    A promotion is withheld when an Airman's name is removed from a promotion selection list and the Airman is?

    • .in Phase II of the WBFMP

    • In the probation period of the WBFMP

    • Serving in the grade of CMSgt and has not completed the Senior NCO academy.

    • Serving in the grade of TSgt and has not completed the command NCO academy

    Correct Answer
    A. Serving in the grade of TSgt and has not completed the command NCO academy
    Explanation
    When an Airman's name is removed from a promotion selection list and the Airman is serving in the grade of TSgt and has not completed the command NCO academy, their promotion is withheld. This means that they have not met the necessary requirements or qualifications for promotion to the next rank. The command NCO academy is a crucial training program that must be completed in order to be considered for promotion. Therefore, until the Airman completes this academy, their promotion will be withheld.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Which officer grouping is not considered a competitive promotion category?

    • Chaplains

    • Rated Officer Corps

    • Biomedical Science Corps

    • LAF

    Correct Answer
    A. Rated Officer Corps
    Explanation
    The Rated Officer Corps is not considered a competitive promotion category. This is because the Rated Officer Corps includes officers in specific career fields such as pilots and navigators, who are promoted based on their performance and qualifications within their respective career fields, rather than competing against officers from other career fields. In contrast, the other officer groupings mentioned (Chaplains, Biomedical Science Corps, and LAF) are competitive promotion categories where officers compete against their peers from the same career field for promotions.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Based on their current grade and date of rank, what are the three promotion zones that active duty officers fall into?

    • Below, in, and above.

    • Under, on, and beyond

    • Advanced, intermediate, and regular

    • Lower level, middle level, and upper level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Below, in, and above.
    Explanation
    Active duty officers fall into three promotion zones based on their current grade and date of rank: below, in, and above. These zones determine the eligibility for promotion and advancement in rank. Officers who are below the promotion zone are not yet eligible for promotion, those in the promotion zone are eligible and may be considered for promotion, and those above the promotion zone have already been promoted. The promotion zones are used to manage the flow of officers through the ranks and ensure a fair and balanced promotion process.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    When a promotion board is considering active duty officers for promotion to colonel, the board president must be in the grade of

    • General

    • Lietenant general

    • Major general

    • Brigadier general

    Correct Answer
    A. Major general
    Explanation
    The board president must be in the grade of major general because this is the highest rank among the options given. As the president of the promotion board, it is important for them to have a higher rank than the officers being considered for promotion. This ensures that the board president has the necessary experience, knowledge, and authority to make informed decisions regarding promotions to colonel.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board?

    • Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.

    • Difference of more than 1.5 points between all of the scores on a record.

    • Board is unable to resolve differences in scoring a particular record after lengthy discussion.

    • Difference in scoring a particular record is resolved after lengthy discussion and changing of votes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record." This means that if there is a difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores given to a particular record by a promotion board, it is considered a significant difference. This suggests that the board members have varying opinions or evaluations of the record, leading to a notable divergence in their scores.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board?

    • Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.

    • Difference of more than 1 points between all of the scores on a record.

    • Board is unable to resolve differences in scoring a particular record after lengthy discussion.

    • Difference in scoring a particular record is resolved after lengthy discussion and changing of votes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.
    Explanation
    The answer states that a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board is when there is a difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record. This means that if there is a gap of 1.5 or more points between the highest and lowest score given to a record, it is considered a significant difference.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    The MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster is manually posted throughout the duration of a promotion cycle to

    • Serve as a suspense control document in scheduling promotion testing

    • Provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status

    • Preclude scheduling military couples for promotion testing on different dates.

    • Serve as a suspense control document in determining "no shows" for promotion testing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status
    Explanation
    The MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster is manually posted throughout the duration of a promotion cycle to provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status. This means that the roster serves as a document that can be referred to in order to determine whether a member is eligible for promotion or not. It helps to keep track of the promotion status of each member during the promotion cycle.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    When career enhancement or the CSS schedules personnel for WAPS testing, they do so by annotating the

    • MPF Selectee Data Verification List.

    • Unit Eligiblee for Promotion Testing Roster.

    • MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster

    • Airman Promotion DVR.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Eligiblee for Promotion Testing Roster.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unit Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster." When career enhancement or the CSS schedules personnel for WAPS testing, they do so by annotating the Unit Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    Which phase of the promotion process begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters AFPC?

    • Initial

    • Preselect

    • Postselect

    • File build

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The phase of the promotion process that begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters AFPC is the Initial phase. This is the first step after the selections are made and involves initiating the necessary actions and paperwork to officially promote the selected individuals. It includes updating personnel records, issuing promotion orders, and notifying the individuals of their promotion.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Monthhly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from AFPC before the promotion effective date and on or about the

    • 1st of the month

    • 5th of the month

    • 10th of the month

    • 15th of the month

    Correct Answer
    A. 15th of the month
    Explanation
    Monthly increment products are produced automatically on the 15th of the month. This is because the monthly promotion increment transactions are received from AFPC before the promotion effective date, and the production of the products is scheduled for the 15th.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in the system via transactions from

    • Headquarters USAF to AFPC and MAJCOMs

    • Headquarters USAF to MAJCOMs and MPFs

    • AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs

    • AFPC to the secretary of the Air Force and MAJCOMs

    Correct Answer
    A. AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs. This means that the approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in the system by AFPC (Air Force Personnel Center) sending the information to the servicing MPFs (Military Personnel Flights) and MAJCOMs (Major Commands). This ensures that the promotion information is distributed to the appropriate units and personnel who need to be aware of the promotion results.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which brief is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) MPF that is used by all officer selection boards?

    • OPB

    • Officer ISB

    • OSB

    • Officer PSB

    Correct Answer
    A. OSB
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OSB. The OSB, or Officer Selection Brief, is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) MPF (Military Personnel Flight) that is used by all officer selection boards. It provides a concise overview of the candidate's qualifications, experience, and performance records, allowing the selection boards to assess the individual's suitability for officer positions.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    When a promotion board is to convene within 14 days, how does the MPF notify Headquarters AFPC of erroneous data on an OPB?

    • By message

    • By telephone

    • In a memorandum sent via Federal Express.

    • Via a MilPDS update.

    Correct Answer
    A. By message
    Explanation
    The MPF notifies Headquarters AFPC of erroneous data on an OPB by message. This method allows for quick and efficient communication, ensuring that the correct information is received in a timely manner. It also allows for a written record of the notification, which can be referenced if needed.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    An EPR is not required when the ratee is

    • A SrA or above and has nott had a report for at least 1 year and the period of supervision has been 120 calendar days.

    • An A1C or below, has 20 or more months' TAFMS, has had an initial report, and has not had a report for at least 1 year.

    • An A1C or below,has less than 20 months' TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 calendar days.

    • A member whose performance is unsatifactory

    Correct Answer
    A. An A1C or below,has less than 20 months' TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 calendar days.
    Explanation
    An EPR is not required for an A1C or below who has less than 20 months' Time in Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) and has not had a report for 120 calendar days. This means that if the ratee is a junior enlisted member with less than 20 months of service and has not received a report for 120 calendar days, they do not need an EPR.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Which rater cannot prepare EPR?

    • An officer of a foreign military service in a grade equal to or higher than the ratee

    • An active duty USAFR member in the grade of SrA or above.

    • An active duty member in the grade of SrA if the member has completed the NCO Prepatory Course.

    • A civilian in grade GS-5 holding a supervisory position that is higher than the ratee in the ratee's rating chain.

    Correct Answer
    A. An active duty USAFR member in the grade of SrA or above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "An active duty USAFR member in the grade of SrA or above." This is because the USAFR (United States Air Force Reserve) member mentioned in the answer choice is unable to prepare an EPR (Enlisted Performance Report).

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    When the additional rater is not at least a MSgt but there is a civilian equivalent as the next official in the rating chain, the civilian equivalent becomes the endorser. In this situation, the civilian must be at least a

    • GS-4

    • .GS-5

    • GS-6

    • GS-7

    Correct Answer
    A. GS-7
    Explanation
    When the additional rater is not at least a MSgt but there is a civilian equivalent as the next official in the rating chain, the civilian equivalent becomes the endorser. In this situation, the civilian must be at least a GS-7.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Which individual may assume the responsibility of the rater if the rater is missing in acion?

    • Unit commander

    • Additional rater

    • First sergeant

    • Senior rater

    Correct Answer
    A. Additional rater
    Explanation
    If the rater is missing in action, the additional rater may assume the responsibility. The additional rater is a designated individual who is responsible for evaluating the performance of the ratee in the absence of the primary rater. They may have firsthand knowledge of the ratee's performance or be familiar with their work through other means. The additional rater steps in to provide an evaluation and ensure that the ratee's performance is properly assessed in the absence of the primary rater.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    For a member already serving in the grade of CMSgt, the AF Form 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report (MSgt through CMSgt), is used to make a recommendation for

    • Future assignments

    • Increased responsibilities

    • Retention to high year of tenure

    • Continued service beyond high year of teenure.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Increased responsibilities
    A. Retention to high year of tenure
    Explanation
    The AF Form 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report (MSgt through CMSgt), is used to evaluate the performance of a member already serving in the grade of CMSgt. It is used to make a recommendation for increased responsibilities, retention to high year of tenure, and continued service beyond high year of tenure.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    The purpose of the commander's review on both the AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report and the 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report is to

    • Make sure the ratee is promoted below the zone.

    • Submit comments on any disciplinary actions the ratee incurs.

    • Make sure the evaluation report does not have exaggerations or unrealistic ratings.

    • Add additional comments on participation in community activities and off-base education programs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Make sure the evaluation report does not have exaggerations or unrealistic ratings.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the commander's review on both the AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report and the 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report is to ensure that the evaluation report does not contain any exaggerations or unrealistic ratings. This review is important to maintain the accuracy and fairness of the evaluation process, ensuring that the ratee's performance is accurately reflected in the report. It helps to prevent any potential bias or misrepresentation that could affect the ratee's career progression.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Mandatory AF Form 77 Letter of Evaluation Sheet, is prepared for

    • Airman facing disciplinary action

    • Enlisted members participating in the WCAP

    • Enlisted members that are changing career fields.

    • Officers being considered for below-the-zone promotions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enlisted members participating in the WCAP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is enlisted members participating in the WCAP. The AF Form 77 Letter of Evaluation Sheet is specifically prepared for enlisted members who are participating in the WCAP (Warrior Care and Transition Program). This program provides support and resources for wounded, ill, and injured service members as they transition back into military service or civilian life. The evaluation sheet is used to assess the performance and progress of enlisted members in the program.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Which officers require feedback sessions?

    • Lieutenants only

    • Lieutenants and captains.

    • Lieutenants through majors

    • Lieutenants through colonels

    Correct Answer
    A. Lieutenants through colonels
    Explanation
    This question is asking about which officers require feedback sessions. The correct answer is "Lieutenants through colonels." This means that feedback sessions are required for officers with the rank of lieutenant, captain, major, and colonel.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    How many days before the selection board can PRF be completed by the senior rater?

    • 120

    • 90

    • 60

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 60. This means that the PRF (Performance Report Form) can be completed by the senior rater 60 days before the selection board. This suggests that there is a specific timeframe within which the PRF must be completed and submitted for consideration by the selection board.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    The AF Form 709, Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF), recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key performance factors from the officer's

    • Recent performance

    • Semiannual performance

    • Annual performance.

    • Entire career

    Correct Answer
    A. Entire career
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "entire career." The AF Form 709, Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF), recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key performance factors from the officer's entire career. This means that the form takes into account the officer's performance over the course of their entire career, rather than just recent, semiannual, or annual performance.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    Which Statement is not correct about completing an AF Form 475, Education/Training Report?

    • All comments are restricted to the front side of the form unless the report is a referral.

    • Use the same care and attention in preparing this report as you do in preparing AF Forms 707A and 707B.

    • For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, "ratee is geographically separated from evaluator," in section II.

    • In section III, include comments that portray the student's academic accomplishments.

    Correct Answer
    A. For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, "ratee is geographically separated from evaluator," in section II.
    Explanation
    The statement "For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, 'ratee is geographically separated from evaluator,' in section II" is incorrect. The correct statement should be "For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, 'ratee is geographically separated from evaluator,' in section III." This is because the instructions mention that in section III, comments should be included that portray the student's academic accomplishments.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    All the statements cause an OPR to be referred except

    • Being absent without leave

    • Omissions of facts in official documents.

    • Serious mismanagement of personal affairs.

    • Satisfactory progress in the WBFMP

    Correct Answer
    A. Satisfactory progress in the WBFMP
    Explanation
    The given answer, "satisfactory progress in the WBFMP," is the only statement that does not cause an OPR (Officer Performance Report) to be referred. The other statements, such as "being absent without leave" and "omissions of facts in official documents," are actions or behaviors that would likely result in a referral of the OPR. Similarly, "serious mismanagement of personal affairs" implies a lack of professionalism and competence, which would also lead to a referral. However, "satisfactory progress in the WBFMP" indicates that the individual is meeting or exceeding expectations in their work, and therefore would not trigger a referral.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    A ratee's (officer or Airman) comments to the evaluator named in the referral letter must

    • Contain pertinent attachments

    • Reflect on the character of the evaluator.

    • Not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated

    • Be forwarded through the immediate supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated
    Explanation
    The ratee's comments should not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated. This means that the ratee should not make any accusations or negative comments about the evaluator's integrity without providing sufficient evidence to support those claims. This ensures that any criticism or feedback given by the ratee is fair and based on factual information rather than personal opinions or assumptions.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    When the MPF commander determines who is qualified to provide counseling on evaluation appeal procedures, who must conduct the appeal counseling?

    • The member's unit commander

    • The member's immediate commander

    • Someone at a level no lower than the NCOIC, career enhancement.

    • Someone at a level no lower than the chief, customer support section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Someone at a level no lower than the NCOIC, career enhancement.
    Explanation
    The MPF commander is responsible for determining who is qualified to provide counseling on evaluation appeal procedures. In this case, the appeal counseling must be conducted by someone at a level no lower than the NCOIC, career enhancement. This means that the person conducting the counseling should have a position of authority and expertise in career enhancement matters. The member's unit commander and immediate commander may not have the necessary knowledge or authority to conduct the appeal counseling. Similarly, someone at a level no lower than the chief, customer support section may not have the specific expertise required for this type of counseling.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    Who is authorized to administer the oath of reenlistment?

    • Navy admiral who resigned his commission

    • Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit

    • Captain who was transfered to the ORS

    • Lieutenant colonel who was transferred to the NARS

    Correct Answer
    A. Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit
    Explanation
    A second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit is authorized to administer the oath of reenlistment. This is because as a commissioned officer in the Army National Guard, they have the authority to administer oaths and perform other official duties.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Which statement best describes being discharged in conjunction with reenlisment?

    • A member is never discharged in conjunction with reenlistment

    • A member is reenlisted with no discharge proceeding on an AF form 901.

    • .Before reenlisting, an Airman must be discharged; this discharge is conditional because it is predicated on the member's immediate reenlistment.

    • Before reenlisting, an Airman must not be discharged; this is nonconditional because it is predicated on the member's CJR.

    Correct Answer
    A. .Before reenlisting, an Airman must be discharged; this discharge is conditional because it is predicated on the member's immediate reenlistment.
    Explanation
    Before reenlisting, an Airman must be discharged; this discharge is conditional because it is predicated on the member's immediate reenlistment. This means that in order for an Airman to reenlist, they must first be discharged from their current enlistment. However, this discharge is only temporary and is contingent upon the Airman's immediate reenlistment. Essentially, the Airman is discharged with the understanding that they will immediately reenlist, allowing for a seamless transition from one enlistment to the next.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Which statement is not a reason an Airman, who is ineligible to reenlist, may submit a waiver to reenlist or extend?

    • Insufficient grade.

    • Serving on the airman control roster

    • The airman has 5 or mor days' lost time.

    • The AFSC is not commensurate with grade.

    Correct Answer
    A. Serving on the airman control roster
    Explanation
    An Airman who is ineligible to reenlist may submit a waiver to reenlist or extend for various reasons, such as insufficient grade, the airman has 5 or more days' lost time, or when the AFSC is not commensurate with grade. However, serving on the airman control roster is not a valid reason for an Airman to submit a waiver to reenlist or extend.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    When disapproving a SSgt's waiver for reenlistment request, the unit commander must then ensure that the SSgt

    • Separates immediately

    • Acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.

    • Annotates the UPRG accordingly.

    • Goes to Customer Service to ensure the MilPDS is updated

    Correct Answer
    A. Acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "acknowledges receipt of the disapproval." When disapproving a SSgt's waiver for reenlistment request, the unit commander must ensure that the SSgt acknowledges receipt of the disapproval. This means that the SSgt should confirm that they have received the notification of disapproval. This step is important for documentation purposes and to ensure that the SSgt is aware of the decision made regarding their reenlistment request.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Who is allowed to execute an extension of enlistment?

    • First-term airman needing 36 months' retainability for an overseas assignment

    • Career airman desiring to extend for 49 months to increase bonus entitlement.

    • First-term airman wanting to extend for 14 months to determine wheter or ot to make the air force a career

    • Career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment.
    Explanation
    A career airman who has not previously extended their current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment is allowed to execute an extension of enlistment. This individual meets the criteria of being a career airman, needing the required months of retainability, and having not previously extended their enlistment. Therefore, they are eligible to extend their enlistment to meet the requirements for the overseas assignment.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    How does an extension of enlistment compare to a reenlistment?

    • .neither an extension of enlistment nor a reenlistment is ever binding.

    • A reenlistment is never binding because it is generally for a longer period

    • Once the extension has been revoked, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistmen.

    • Once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment. This means that both an extension of enlistment and a reenlistment are equally binding once they have been agreed upon and entered into.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    First-term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a CJR as early as the first duty day of the after he completes how many months on his current enlistment?

    • 35

    • 36

    • 59

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 59
    Explanation
    First-term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a Career Job Reservation (CJR) as early as the first duty day after they complete 59 months on their current enlistment. This means that after serving for almost 5 years, they are eligible to apply for a CJR, which allows them to secure a specific job or career field for their next enlistment period.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    CJR cancellation procedures apply only to

    • Approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.

    • Disapproved CJRs, not rescinded CJRs

    • Past CJRs, not to current CJRs.

    • Members who cannot get a CJR in the AFSC they are currently working in.

    Correct Answer
    A. Approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that CJR cancellation procedures apply only to approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs. This means that if a CJR has been approved but later suspended, the cancellation procedures do not apply.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    A CJR cannot be canceled when an airman

    • Elects to be removed from the CJR waiting list.

    • Has an approved CJR and no longer desires to reenlist.

    • Has an approved CJR and requests voluntary separation.

    • Is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation.
    Explanation
    When an airman is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation, the CJR cannot be canceled. This means that even if the airman no longer desires to reenlist or requests voluntary separation, as long as they remain on the CJR waiting list, the CJR cannot be canceled.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    An airman with an approved or suspended CJR or CJR waiting-list position that was canceled can request that a CJR be reinstated if the airman

    • No longer wants to reenlist

    • Was rendered ineligible to reenlist.

    • Had a CJR waiting-list position was canceled because the member applied for separation

    • Had a cjr waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request.

    Correct Answer
    A. Had a cjr waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request.
    Explanation
    If an airman had a CJR waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request, they can request that a CJR be reinstated. This means that if the cancellation was due to any other reason, such as administrative or operational reasons, the airman can still request to have their CJR reinstated.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 19, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Vruedy

Related Topics

Recent Quizzes

Contracting 7 Level CDCs Contracting 7 Level CDCs
3D1X1 Volume 1 CDCs 3D1X1 Volume 1 CDCs
3D1X5 Volume 1 (URE) 3D1X5 Volume 1 (URE)
3D0X2 CDCS VOLUME 1 3D0X2 CDCS VOLUME 1
3E151 B Set Vol 4 3E151 B Set Vol 4
electrical and environmental volume 5 2A656 electrical and environmental volume 5 2A656

Featured Quizzes

Which Sonic Character Are You? Which Sonic Character Are You?
Articles Quiz With Answers Articles Quiz With Answers
Do I Have a Crush on Him? Quiz Do I Have a Crush on Him? Quiz
What Ethnicity Do I Look Like? What Ethnicity Do I Look Like?
Can You Guess These Asian's Nationality? Can You Guess These Asian's Nationality?
Best Friend Quiz: Are You Really Best Friends? Best Friend Quiz: Are You Really Best Friends?
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.