3s051b Practice Test Set 2

Regular officers who desire discharge or release on completion of all ADSC may tender their resignation. This means that if regular officers want to be discharged or released after completing their Active Duty Service Commitment (ADSC), they have the option to submit their resignation. This implies that they voluntarily choose to leave their position or service.

When a major command (MAJCOM), field operating agency, or direct reporting unit commander is not available to endorse an awards package sent through command channels, the responsibility falls to the vice commander. The vice commander is the second-in-command and has the authority to endorse and approve awards in the absence of the higher-ranking commanders. They ensure that the awards package is properly reviewed and endorsed before it moves further through the command channels.

The correct answer is contacting their assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group. This is because the assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group is responsible for managing assignments and can provide information and guidance on volunteer requirements listed on the EQUAL-Plus.

The AF Form 907 is a form used for members going Permanent Change of Station (PCS) from a Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) with a personnel function and authorization to publish orders. This form is typically accomplished by the GSU servicing Military Personnel Flight (MPF), as they are responsible for managing personnel actions and processing orders for members. Therefore, the correct answer is GSU.

Based on the given information, SSgt Goodall is holding a driver qualification memorandum and is asking for assistance. The correct answer, "Base Vehicle Operations (Licensing) Office," is the most appropriate place for SSgt Goodall to report to because this office is responsible for licensing and managing base vehicles. They would have the necessary expertise and resources to assist SSgt Goodall with his driver qualification memorandum.

Incidents and events that are isolated and remote in time are considered to have little value when determining whether a member should be discharged. This means that such incidents are not given much weight or significance in the decision-making process. The focus is more on recent and consistent behavior rather than isolated occurrences that may not accurately reflect the member's overall performance or conduct.

The Distinguished Flying Cross is the correct answer because it does not automatically qualify an enlisted member for a 10 percent increase in retire pay based on extraordinary heroism. The other military decorations listed, such as the Navy Cross, Air Force Cross, and Medal of Honor, are all prestigious awards that do qualify for the increase in retire pay.

The certification that states a member is qualified for a projected assignment requiring PRP duties is called administrative certification. This certification indicates that the member has met the necessary qualifications and is capable of performing the required duties related to PRP (Personnel Reliability Program). It certifies their ability to handle the responsibilities associated with PRP duties in an administrative capacity.

The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC/assistant NCOIC, personnel employment) uses the IDA worksheet to verify the data. The IDA worksheet is a document that contains all the relevant information about the individual's assignment, such as their duty location, job title, and reporting date. By referring to the IDA worksheet, the NCOIC can ensure that the data on the IDA is accurate and up-to-date.

Individuals are considered for BTZ promotion to SRA the month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion.

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The Rated Officer Corps is not considered a competitive promotion category. This is because the Rated Officer Corps includes officers in specific career fields such as pilots and navigators, who are promoted based on their performance and qualifications within their respective career fields, rather than competing against officers from other career fields. In contrast, the other officer groupings mentioned (Chaplains, Biomedical Science Corps, and LAF) are competitive promotion categories where officers compete against their peers from the same career field for promotions.

The group commander in the chain of command over the immediate commander normally serves as the appointing authority in processing a LOD determination. This means that the group commander has the responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding Line of Duty determinations for their subordinates. They have the power to appoint a board to investigate the circumstances surrounding an injury or illness and determine whether it occurred in the line of duty.

The MPF handles the original AF form 1466 by filing it in the UPRG (Unit Personnel Records Group). They also file a copy of the form in the member's relocation folder for reference and documentation purposes. This ensures that the original form is securely stored while a copy is easily accessible for future use.

The AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation, is used to request and authorize transportation for eligible individuals who are separating from the military. The individuals who are eligible for transportation on this form include Separated Medal of Honor recipients, individuals separated at ETS (Expiration Term of Service), and those who are released from active duty not as a result of intentional misconduct. However, individuals who are involuntary separated for reasons of misconduct, for service characterized as under other than honorable conditions, would not be entitled to transportation on the AF Form 100.

The AF Form 973, Request and Authorization for Change of Administrative Orders, is used to change pertinent data that affects an entitlement. This form allows for the correction of any inaccuracies or updates in information that may impact an individual's entitlements or benefits within the Air Force. It is important to ensure that all relevant data is accurate and up-to-date in order to properly administer and allocate resources within the organization.

The correct answer is 4 February 2000 because the question states that the member has never had an overseas assignment or temporary duty, indicating that they have always been stationed within the United States. Therefore, their ODSD (Overseas and/or Temporary Duty Start Date) would be the same as their total active federal military service date, which is 4 February 2000.

The AFGCM (Air Force Good Conduct Medal) is an achievement award given to enlisted personnel every 3 years for exemplary conduct on active duty. This medal recognizes individuals who have consistently demonstrated good behavior, discipline, and professionalism throughout their military service. It serves as a way to honor and reward those who have consistently upheld the values and standards of the Air Force while on active duty.

If a military couple relocates their dependents to a location other than the FO (Family Overseas) location, it would cause the cancellation of their FO assignment. This means that if the couple's dependents are moved to a different location than where they were supposed to be stationed, the military couple's FO assignment would be cancelled.

The Base MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) must certify medical and educational clearance on the AF Form 1466 before family member orders can be published. This means that the medical and educational information of the dependents traveling overseas must be reviewed and approved by the Base MTF before their orders can be finalized and issued.

A "capper" AFSC differs from other AFSCs because the fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a "0", while the fifth position of all other AFSCs will always be a "9".

RIs (Required Identifications) are crucial for the personnel employment element because they serve the purpose of identifying positions, personnel, or both that cannot be identified through the military classification system. This means that RIs are necessary to specify and categorize roles and individuals that may not fit into the existing classification system. By doing so, RIs ensure that specific job descriptions are practical and applicable to these unique positions and personnel.

The given answer is formatted correctly because it includes the necessary information in the correct order. It starts with "I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS," followed by the specific time and date "at 0800 on 15 August 2001." It also includes the required element of the member's payroll signature at the end.

The board president must be in the grade of major general because this is the highest rank among the options given. As the president of the promotion board, it is important for them to have a higher rank than the officers being considered for promotion. This ensures that the board president has the necessary experience, knowledge, and authority to make informed decisions regarding promotions to colonel.

The correct answer is "An active duty USAFR member in the grade of SrA or above." This is because the USAFR (United States Air Force Reserve) member mentioned in the answer choice is unable to prepare an EPR (Enlisted Performance Report).

Before reenlisting, an Airman must be discharged; this discharge is conditional because it is predicated on the member's immediate reenlistment. This means that in order for an Airman to reenlist, they must first be discharged from their current enlistment. However, this discharge is only temporary and is contingent upon the Airman's immediate reenlistment. Essentially, the Airman is discharged with the understanding that they will immediately reenlist, allowing for a seamless transition from one enlistment to the next.

When a SSgt incurs an incapacitating injury that is not caused by his own misconduct, a recoupment action to recover a SRB is not initiated. This means that if a SSgt becomes unable to perform his duties due to an injury that was not his fault, he will not be required to repay the SRB.

The FTA (First Term Airman) can apply for a BOP (Base of Preference) assignment when they are selected under the selective reenlistment program. This means that if the FTA decides to reenlist in the Air Force and is selected for reenlistment under the selective reenlistment program, they can then apply for a BOP assignment. Receiving an assignment selection date or being disapproved for a career job reservation does not necessarily grant the FTA the opportunity to apply for a BOP assignment.

The member is afforded the opportunity to make a tour election change as soon as they acquire dependents and become eligible to move the family at government expense to the OS location.

The Air Force Personnel Center is the agency responsible for periodically reviewing SEIs (Special Experience Identifiers) to determine their validity and usefulness. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the SEI program, ensuring that the SEIs assigned to military personnel are relevant and beneficial.

The correct answer is "one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years". This means that for each month spent in a particular grade, an individual will earn half a point towards their time in grade. This calculation is applicable for up to 10 years of service. After 10 years, the rate of earning points for time in grade may change.

When an Airman's name is removed from a promotion selection list and the Airman is serving in the grade of TSgt and has not completed the command NCO academy, their promotion is withheld. This means that they have not met the necessary requirements or qualifications for promotion to the next rank. The command NCO academy is a crucial training program that must be completed in order to be considered for promotion. Therefore, until the Airman completes this academy, their promotion will be withheld.

The MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster is manually posted throughout the duration of a promotion cycle to provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status. This means that the roster serves as a document that can be referred to in order to determine whether a member is eligible for promotion or not. It helps to keep track of the promotion status of each member during the promotion cycle.

A Medical Corps officer is entitled to (special pay) MSP if they have at least 8 years of creditable service. This means that they have served in the Medical Corps for a minimum of 8 years and have met the requirements for service credit. This is the only option that specifically mentions the length of service as a requirement for receiving MSP. The other options mention different criteria such as signing a contract, not having completed specialty qualification, or serving in a specific pay grade, but these criteria do not specifically address the requirement for MSP.

If an airman had a CJR waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request, they can request that a CJR be reinstated. This means that if the cancellation was due to any other reason, such as administrative or operational reasons, the airman can still request to have their CJR reinstated.

To be eligible for the award of the AFGCM (Air Force Good Conduct Medal), individuals must demonstrate a positive attitude toward the Air Force and their jobs. This means that they should have a favorable and optimistic mindset towards their role in the Air Force and show enthusiasm and dedication towards their duties. Having a positive attitude is important for maintaining morale, teamwork, and overall effectiveness within the Air Force. It reflects a commitment to the organization and a willingness to contribute to its mission and goals.

The minimum retainability requirement for a CONUS to CONUS humanitarian permanent change of station is 6 months. This means that individuals who are being relocated for humanitarian reasons within the continental United States must commit to a minimum of 6 months at their new duty station before being eligible for another transfer.

The personnel journeyman dates and signs the AF Form 907 in section IV during the final outprocessing interview, whether it is conducted individually or en masse. This is the last step before the personnel journeyman leaves their current assignment, and it is during this interview that all necessary paperwork and documentation are completed and finalized. Therefore, it makes sense for the personnel journeyman to date and sign the form at this stage.

The question is asking which location is not a designated base under the VSBAP. The VSBAP stands for the Voluntary Separation Program for Air Force Personnel. The given options are Socorro AFS in New Mexico, Minot AFB in North Dakota, Los Angeles AFS in California, and Grand Forks AFB in North Dakota. The correct answer is Socorro AFS, New Mexico. This means that Socorro AFS is not included as a designated base under the VSBAP, while the other three locations are.

The question is asking for the factor that is not required on a member's request for a waiver of restriction based on hardship. The correct answer is "How civilian employment or business opportunity would alleviate hardship." This means that when requesting a waiver of restriction based on hardship, it is not necessary to explain how civilian employment or a business opportunity would alleviate the hardship. The other options, such as explaining how the hardship would be eased or eliminated by retirement, stating that the hardship came up or got worse after the restriction was incurred, and describing the efforts made to remedy the situation by means other than retirement, are all required factors in the request.

An S-4 physical profile is not required for all PRP certifications. The other options, including an interview, a current security investigation, and an evaluation of an individual's reliability through the use of written records, are all necessary requirements for PRP certifications.

When the additional rater is not at least a MSgt but there is a civilian equivalent as the next official in the rating chain, the civilian equivalent becomes the endorser. In this situation, the civilian must be at least a GS-7.

The MPF commander is responsible for determining who is qualified to provide counseling on evaluation appeal procedures. In this case, the appeal counseling must be conducted by someone at a level no lower than the NCOIC, career enhancement. This means that the person conducting the counseling should have a position of authority and expertise in career enhancement matters. The member's unit commander and immediate commander may not have the necessary knowledge or authority to conduct the appeal counseling. Similarly, someone at a level no lower than the chief, customer support section may not have the specific expertise required for this type of counseling.

An Airman who is ineligible to reenlist may submit a waiver to reenlist or extend for various reasons, such as insufficient grade, the airman has 5 or more days' lost time, or when the AFSC is not commensurate with grade. However, serving on the airman control roster is not a valid reason for an Airman to submit a waiver to reenlist or extend.

The given answer states that the maximum SRB payment to Air Force personnel is $45,000 for an entire military career. This means that there is no restriction on the amount of money that can be received through the SRB program, as long as it does not exceed $45,000.

When a member's death is determined to be of a natural origin, without any involvement of misconduct or substance abuse, the method of determination used is administrative. This means that the death is not considered to be related to the member's duties or responsibilities, and it is handled through administrative processes rather than being classified as line of duty.

In the EQUAL rotation assignment advertising system, members returning from OS (overseas) are matched four times a year. This means that these members are given the opportunity to be assigned to a new advertising rotation four times annually.

An enlisted member can make himself ineligible for an assignment after an assignment selection date has been established by requesting retirement under 7-day option provisions. This means that the member has chosen to retire from their military service within seven days of making the request. By doing so, they are effectively removing themselves from consideration for any future assignments.

The AF established TOS requirements to enhance unit operational readiness. This means that by implementing these requirements, the Air Force aims to improve the readiness and effectiveness of its units. This could involve ensuring that members are properly trained and proficient in their jobs, allowing for on-the-job training, and preventing officers from staying in one position for too long (omesteading). By enhancing unit operational readiness, the Air Force can better fulfill its mission and be prepared for any potential challenges or threats.

An AFSC downgrade would be appropriate for a reduction in grade because it indicates a decrease in the level of responsibility and authority that an individual holds within their Air Force Specialty Code. This could be due to disciplinary actions, poor performance, or other factors that deem the individual unfit for their current grade level.

An officer may submit a SPTC (Selective Placement and Training Commitment) to obtain more active duty retainability for various reasons. However, one of the reasons that an officer cannot use a SPTC for is to obtain more active duty retainability for excess leave. This means that if an officer has accumulated excess leave and wants to extend their active duty service to use up that leave, they cannot do so through a SPTC. The SPTC can be used for other purposes such as extending the tour length for an assignment, second consideration for promotion to captain, or an active duty service commitment for education or training.

The correct answer is GSU and MPF support agreement. This is because the question states that a GSU (Geographically Separated Unit) with a personnel function and authorization to publish orders must fully document the disposition of the completed AF Form 907 and all related documents. The GSU would need to have an agreement with the MPF (Military Personnel Flight) for support in order to document and store these records appropriately.

Separation before the completion of an obligated period of service leads to a need for more accessions because when Airmen separate early, it creates a gap in the workforce that needs to be filled. This requires the Air Force to recruit and train new Airmen to replace those who left early. This leads to additional expenses and resources being allocated towards recruiting and training new personnel.

The correct answer is to allow enough time to process a retirement application and issue retirement orders. This is because when members want to take terminal leave, they need to apply for retirement at least 120 days in advance of the requested date plus the number of days leave desired. This time frame is necessary to ensure that there is enough time to process the retirement application and issue retirement orders.

The correct answer is DD Form 214, General Discharge. This form is issued to members whose service characterization is under honorable conditions. It serves as a certificate of release or discharge from active duty.

SDI (Special Duty Identifier) are designated in an individual's personnel records as "Awarded specialties". This means that individuals are given specific specialties or skills based on their performance or achievements. These specialties are recognized and recorded in their personnel records as a way to identify their unique abilities or qualifications.

The AF Form 545 serves as a request for both a CJR (Career Job Reservation) and SRB (Selective Reenlistment Bonus) authorization. This means that first-term airmen can use this form to request both the authorization to reenlist in their current job and to receive a selective reenlistment bonus if eligible.

The correct answer is "expected circumstances have created an extreme financial hardship." This means that the MPF commander will not authorize accelerated payment of a SRB when the financial hardship was expected or anticipated. This suggests that the commander will only consider authorizing accelerated payment if the financial hardship was unexpected or unforeseen.

The correct answer is "TDY unit establishes flight reservations." When members are required to perform 30 days or more TDY at another location en route to their OS reassignment, it is the responsibility of the TDY unit to establish flight reservations for them. This means that the unit organizing the TDY will take care of booking the flights for the members.

Members assigned to isolated locations can apply for reassignment no later than 11 months before their Date of Arrival (DOA). This means that they should submit their reassignment request at least 11 months prior to their scheduled DOA. Applying earlier allows for sufficient time to process the request and make necessary arrangements for the member's reassignment.

The retraining advisory is located in the MilPDS database.

When an Airman's PCS orders show that they elected to serve an accompanied tour, the initial DEROS (Date Estimated Return from Overseas) is established based on the accompanied tour. This is the case even if the member arrives overseas unaccompanied. The reason for this is because the member was selected and scheduled to serve an accompanied tour, regardless of the fact that they arrived unaccompanied.

The correct answer is enlisted members participating in the WCAP. The AF Form 77 Letter of Evaluation Sheet is specifically prepared for enlisted members who are participating in the WCAP (Warrior Care and Transition Program). This program provides support and resources for wounded, ill, and injured service members as they transition back into military service or civilian life. The evaluation sheet is used to assess the performance and progress of enlisted members in the program.

The statement "For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, 'ratee is geographically separated from evaluator,' in section II" is incorrect. The correct statement should be "For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, 'ratee is geographically separated from evaluator,' in section III." This is because the instructions mention that in section III, comments should be included that portray the student's academic accomplishments.

The correct answer is TAFCS because the total amount of the aviator continuation pay is based on an annual rate determined by the aviator's TAFCS (Total Active Federal Commissioned Service). This means that the longer an aviator serves in the military, the higher their annual rate of continuation pay will be. The other options mentioned, such as commitment through 12 years of commissioned service and active duty service commitment incurred for pilot training, may be factors in determining an aviator's TAFCS, but they are not the direct basis for the total amount of the aviator continuation pay.

Personnel processing instructions are annotated in Section III of the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation checklist. This section likely contains specific guidelines and procedures for personnel to follow when processing for relocation. It may include information on required documents, timelines, and any additional steps that need to be taken during the relocation process.

The reason "The condition existed or was reasonably foreseeable before entry on active duty" would most likely result in disapproval of the request for a humanitarian assignment or deferment because it suggests that the applicant was aware of the situation before joining the military. This reason implies that the applicant knowingly accepted the responsibilities and commitments of military service despite the foreseeable challenges. Therefore, it is less likely to be considered a valid reason for granting a humanitarian assignment or deferment.

The correct answer is M. The letter M is used as a PCS cost identifier on special orders to indicate that the PCS is at no cost to the government.

The Air Force will use the change summary and conversion guide to provide AFSC revisions and conversion instruction to MPFs. This guide will outline the changes and conversions that need to be implemented and provide instructions on how to do so. It is a comprehensive resource that ensures that MPFs have the most up-to-date information and know how to properly update and classify military personnel.

An individual's behavior must be constantly monitored even after they have been judged reliable in order to detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur. This is important to ensure that the individual continues to meet the expectations and standards set for their performance. By monitoring their behavior, any deviations or changes in their performance can be identified early on, allowing for corrective action to be taken before any negative consequences or compromises occur.

The correct answer is 60. This means that the PRF (Performance Report Form) can be completed by the senior rater 60 days before the selection board. This suggests that there is a specific timeframe within which the PRF must be completed and submitted for consideration by the selection board.

The correct answer is AF Form 286A. This form is used for the permanent decertification of a PRP member when the certifying official needs to document the specific circumstances surrounding the decision. The AF Form 286A allows for a thorough record of the decertification process and provides a detailed account of the reasons behind the decision. This documentation is important for maintaining accountability and ensuring transparency in the decertification process.

The STRD (Short Tour Return Date) is established to equal the TAFMSD (Total Active Federal Military Service Date). In this case, the Airman has never served an overseas short tour, so the STRD would be established to equal their TAFMSD, which is the total length of time they have been on active duty. This means that the STRD would be the same as the date they came on active duty, which is 2 February 2000.

When a PCS departure certification is missing during a member's inprocessing, the responsibility of initiating a new one falls on the Gaining MPF (Military Personnel Flight). They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary paperwork and certifications are completed and in order for the member's PCS (Permanent Change of Station) process. In this case, since the departure certification is missing, the Gaining MPF needs to initiate a new one to ensure that the member's PCS is properly documented and processed.

When an airman is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation, the CJR cannot be canceled. This means that even if the airman no longer desires to reenlist or requests voluntary separation, as long as they remain on the CJR waiting list, the CJR cannot be canceled.

The survey control officer notifies Headquarters AFPC upon receipt of an unauthorized survey. This means that when the officer receives a survey that was not authorized or approved, they inform the headquarters of AFPC. AFPC stands for Air Force Personnel Center, which is responsible for managing personnel programs and policies for the United States Air Force. By notifying the headquarters, the officer ensures that the unauthorized survey is properly addressed and appropriate actions can be taken.

When more than one AAC (Assignment Availability Code) applies to a member, the one that is used to preclude assignment reconsideration is the one with the longest period of deferment. This means that if there are multiple AACs affecting the member's assignment, the one with the longest period of time before the member becomes available for reassignment takes precedence over the others. This ensures that the member is given the necessary time for their current assignment before being considered for a new one.

The unit commander is required to verify that only the minimum number of positions are consistent with operational PRP requirements on an annual basis. This means that every year, the unit commander must review the positions within the unit and ensure that only the necessary positions are maintained in order to meet the operational PRP requirements. This verification process helps to ensure that the unit is operating efficiently and effectively, with the appropriate number of positions to support the PRP requirements.

The appropriate element must verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet. This means that when information is entered on the IDA worksheet, the element is responsible for checking the accuracy of the data and ensuring that it is correctly coordinated on the worksheet. This helps to maintain the integrity of the member's records and ensures that the information is properly organized and filed.

When a member selected for a COT (Change of Tour) travels to the CONUS (Continental United States) before arriving at the new assignment, the tour completion date of the first tour is updated based on the date the member arrived at the CONUS port. This means that the tour completion date is determined by the date the member physically arrived at the CONUS port, regardless of when they actually arrived at the new assignment or completed the original tour.

HQ AFPC must prepare all AF Forms 63 and fax them to the MPF within 5 duty days of the official assignment or training notification.

The personnel employment element must process a completed retraining application within 5 working days. This means that the application should be reviewed and a decision should be made within this timeframe. Working days typically refer to weekdays, excluding weekends and public holidays. Therefore, the personnel employment element has a maximum of 5 weekdays to process the application and provide a response to the applicant.

The correct answer is PRE. PRE stands for Personnel Relocation Element, which is responsible for preparing a relocation folder when an official assignment notification of a member's selection for reassignment is received. This activity ensures that all necessary documents and information are gathered and organized in the relocation folder to facilitate a smooth transition for the member during the relocation process.

The duty status of personnel who must attend two or more courses of 20 weeks or more duration at one location is Permanent Change of Station (PCS). This means that the personnel will be permanently relocated to the location where the courses are being held for the duration of the courses. This is different from Temporary Duty (TDY) status, where personnel are temporarily assigned to a different location for a specific task or training.

The separation relocation folder is a collection of documents related to the relocation process. The folder would typically include documents such as PCS orders, medical examination memorandums, and checklists. However, the document that would not be found in the separation relocation folder is the "PCS without PCS orders." This document does not pertain to the relocation process as it indicates a Permanent Change of Station without accompanying PCS orders.

The given answer, "satisfactory progress in the WBFMP," is the only statement that does not cause an OPR (Officer Performance Report) to be referred. The other statements, such as "being absent without leave" and "omissions of facts in official documents," are actions or behaviors that would likely result in a referral of the OPR. Similarly, "serious mismanagement of personal affairs" implies a lack of professionalism and competence, which would also lead to a referral. However, "satisfactory progress in the WBFMP" indicates that the individual is meeting or exceeding expectations in their work, and therefore would not trigger a referral.

The correct answer is "member has a documented and substantiated long-term problem involving a family member." This is because the question asks for the exception, meaning that this condition does not need to be met in order for a request for humanitarian assignment to be approved. The other three conditions, which include the member's presence being essential to alleviate a problem, the member being able to resolve the problem within a reasonable amount of time, and the member's problem being more severe than others with a similar problem, must all be met in order for approval to be granted.

The type of tour served is determined by factors such as family members' travel, commander sponsorship, and shipment of HHG to the OS area at government expense. However, the number of family members is not a primary factor in determining the type of tour served.

When classifying a member into a specific AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), the assignment volunteer status is not taken into consideration. This means that whether or not an individual volunteered for a specific assignment does not affect the classification process. The other factors listed - individuals initial enlistment contract, individuals preference, and needs of the Air Force - are all considered when determining the appropriate AFSC for a member.