3S051 Edit Code 02, Vol 3

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  • 1/53 Questions

    (401) The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program is tied to

    • The newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.
    • How many times the sponsor calls the newcomer.
    • The Airman and Family Readiness Center’s sponsor kits.
    • How well the gaining commander speaks with the newcomer.
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About This Quiz

This quiz for the 3S051 edit code 02, Vol 3, assesses knowledge crucial for US Air Force personnel, covering sponsorship duties, INTRO programs, and DEERS enrollment. It is designed to ensure readiness and compliance with Air Force protocols.

3S051 Edit Code 02, Vol 3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (409) Family Member Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to whom?

    • Spouses only

    • Children only

    • Parents of sponsor

    • Spouses and children

    Correct Answer
    A. Spouses and children
    Explanation
    FSGLI expands SGLI coverage to both spouses and children. This means that in addition to the coverage provided for the servicemember under SGLI, FSGLI extends the same benefits to their spouse and children. This ensures that the family members of the servicemember are also protected by life insurance coverage.

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  • 3. 

    (410) The casualty services program objective is to closely track all casualty reports and notifications in accordance with procedures set by HQ AFPC; reports casualties; ensures timely notification has been made to the NOK; and provides compassionate assistance to the NOK until all claims and personal affairs are settled.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. The casualty services program aims to monitor and record all casualty reports and notifications as per HQ AFPC procedures. It ensures that casualties are reported and notifies the next of kin (NOK) promptly. The program also provides support and assistance to the NOK until all claims and personal matters are resolved.

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  • 4. 

    (417) If the career development element has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what can they do in order to save time?

    • Conduct briefings only when necessary.

    • Make appointments for each individual.

    • File all assignment relocation folders in one drawer.

    • Conduct mass briefings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct mass briefings.
    Explanation
    To save time, the career development element can conduct mass briefings instead of conducting numerous individual relocation briefings. By conducting mass briefings, they can address a larger group of individuals at once, saving time and effort compared to conducting briefings for each individual separately. This allows for a more efficient use of time and resources.

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  • 5. 

    (420) How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete before being eligible for retirement?

    • 20

    • 19

    • 10

    • 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
    Explanation
    Members must complete 20 years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) before being eligible for retirement.

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  • 6. 

    (401) As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer?

    • Do you need information about other services?

    • What type of vehicle do you drive?

    • Will your family members accompany you?

    • Do you want a post office box?

    Correct Answer
    A. What type of vehicle do you drive?
    Explanation
    As a sponsor, it is not relevant or appropriate to ask the newcomer about the type of vehicle they drive. This information is not necessary for the purpose of sponsorship and does not contribute to providing assistance or support to the newcomer.

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  • 7. 

    (403) What can not be used to verify eligibility when enrolling a member or dependent in the DEERS?

    • Social security card

    • Passport, driver’s license

    • GTC card

    • Ther official document can be utilized when enrolling a member or dependent into the DEERS.

    Correct Answer
    A. GTC card
    Explanation
    A GTC card cannot be used to verify eligibility when enrolling a member or dependent in the DEERS. The DEERS system requires certain official documents such as a social security card, passport, or driver's license to verify eligibility. However, a GTC card, which stands for Government Travel Charge Card, is not an official document that can be used for this purpose.

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  • 8. 

    (408) Provided criterion is met, military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a

    • Joint allowance

    • Joint residence

    • Basic substance in kind

    • Basic allowance for housing

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint residence
    Explanation
    Military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a joint residence. This means that if both members of the couple are in the military, they may be given the opportunity to be assigned to a location where they can live together. This is beneficial for the couple as it allows them to maintain their relationship and support each other while serving in the military. It also helps to promote a sense of stability and continuity in their personal lives.

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  • 9. 

    (404) ______ is a paid vacation from duty for recreation and relief from the pressures of job-related duties.

    • Leave

    • Pass

    • R&R

    • Recruiter assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Leave
    Explanation
    Leave is a term used to describe a paid vacation from work. It allows employees to take time off from their job to relax, recharge, and engage in activities outside of work. This time away from work is essential for employees to relieve stress, maintain a healthy work-life balance, and come back to work refreshed and rejuvenated.

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  • 10. 

    (404) Leave must begin and end where?

    • At your duty section

    • On a military installation

    • At your requested leave area

    • In the local area

    Correct Answer
    A. In the local area
    Explanation
    Leave must begin and end in the local area. This means that when a military personnel takes leave, they are expected to start and finish their leave within a certain distance from their duty station. This requirement ensures that they are able to return to their duty section promptly when their leave is over and allows for easier communication and coordination in case of any emergencies or changes in duty requirements.

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  • 11. 

    (415) How many special duty application (s) may be submitted for consideration at any given time?

    • Three

    • One

    • Five

    • Eight

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    At any given time, only one special duty application may be submitted for consideration. This suggests that there is a limit to the number of special duty applications that can be submitted simultaneously.

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  • 12. 

    (416) The intent of the EFMP assignment policy is to use the Air Force member, based on current or projected manning requirements, at locations where required medical, educational, early intervention or related services are available either through the military medical system, through civilian resources utilizing TRICARE (military health network), or a combination thereof and local resources.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The intent of the EFMP assignment policy is to ensure that Air Force members are assigned to locations where the necessary medical, educational, early intervention, or related services are available for their family members. These services can be provided through the military medical system, civilian resources utilizing TRICARE, or a combination of both. The statement is true because the EFMP assignment policy aims to support the well-being and needs of Air Force families by considering the availability of essential services in their assigned locations.

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  • 13. 

    (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following except the

    • death of a member

    • Likelihood of permanent disability

    • Inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours

    • Death of a member’s spouse

    Correct Answer
    A. Death of a member’s spouse
    Explanation
    When a member has an illness, injury, or disease that results in the death of a member, likelihood of permanent disability, or inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours, a line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated. However, the death of a member's spouse is not a factor that requires the initiation of the LOD determination process.

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  • 14. 

    (409) Which is not a requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI)?

    • Must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event.

    • Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event.

    • Must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation.

    • Must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event.

    Correct Answer
    A. Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event.
    Explanation
    The requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember's Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) is that they must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event, they must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation, and they must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event. However, having comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event is not a requirement.

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  • 15. 

    (424) What is the objective of the selective reenlistment program?

    • To ensure the Air Force retains only Airmen who consistently demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards.

    • To ensure the Air Force retains only Airmen who sometimes demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards.

    • To ensure the Air Force retains only Airmen who does not consistently demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards.

    • To ensure the Air Force retains only Airmen who refuses to demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. To ensure the Air Force retains only Airmen who consistently demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards.
    Explanation
    The objective of the selective reenlistment program is to ensure that the Air Force retains only Airmen who consistently demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards. This means that only those Airmen who consistently meet the required standards and show a commitment to maintaining those standards will be allowed to reenlist. This helps to maintain the overall professionalism and effectiveness of the Air Force by ensuring that only the best and most dedicated Airmen are retained.

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  • 16. 

    (408) Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code?

    • C—Join spouse assignment not desired.

    • Code A—Desires join spouse to CONUS or any OS tour

    • Code B—Desires join spouse to CONUS or any accompanied overseas tour.

    • Code H—Join spouse assignment not desired.

    Correct Answer
    A. C—Join spouse assignment not desired.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C—Join spouse assignment not desired. This answer is correct because the question asks for the code that is not a join spouse intent code. The other options (A, B, and H) are all join spouse intent codes, indicating a desire for a join spouse assignment either in CONUS or overseas. Only option C does not indicate a desire for a join spouse assignment.

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  • 17. 

    (410) In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)

    • Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief master sergeant (CMSgt) only

    • Staff sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt

    • CMSgt only

    • Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt
    Explanation
    An enlisted Airman must be in the grade of Master Sergeant (MSgt) through Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) in order to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member. This indicates that individuals in these ranks have the necessary experience, authority, and knowledge to handle such sensitive and important communications with the NOK.

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  • 18. 

    (411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the

    • Surviving parents

    • Eligible children only

    • Surviving spouse or eligible children

    • Surviving spouse only

    Correct Answer
    A. Surviving spouse or eligible children
    Explanation
    The correct answer is surviving spouse or eligible children. The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity that is paid by the Air Force to the surviving spouse or eligible children of an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD). This benefit is provided to help support the financial needs of the surviving spouse and children after the death of the service member.

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  • 19. 

    (407) A line of duty (LOD) determination does not impact

    • Disability retirement and severance pay

    • Extension of enlistment

    • Civilian duty pay

    • Forfeiture of pay

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian duty pay
    Explanation
    A line of duty (LOD) determination refers to the process of determining whether an injury or illness that occurred while on duty was a result of the individual's own misconduct or negligence. This determination is important for various reasons, such as disability retirement and severance pay. However, it does not impact civilian duty pay, which is the additional pay that individuals receive for performing specific civilian duties while in the military. The LOD determination focuses on the cause of the injury or illness, while civilian duty pay is a separate issue related to the performance of specific duties.

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  • 20. 

    (411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies,

    • But is suspended upon remarriage before age 45

    • But is suspended upon remarriage before age 55

    • And then it passes onto any surviving children

    • And is not suspended upon remarriage

    Correct Answer
    A. But is suspended upon remarriage before age 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55." This means that if the surviving spouse remarries before reaching the age of 55, they will no longer receive the survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity. This condition is in place to ensure that the benefit is provided to those who may be financially dependent on it, such as a surviving spouse who has not remarried. Once the surviving spouse reaches the age of 55, the SBP annuity will no longer be suspended and they will continue to receive the benefit.

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  • 21. 

    (416) Humanitarian assignment or deferment request that usually warrants approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?

    • The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages.

    • Problems associated with child care arrangement.

    • The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.

    • A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age.

    Correct Answer
    A. The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages.
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because the question asks for the circumstance that would warrant approval for a humanitarian assignment or deferment request. The recent death of a spouse or child, including miscarriages, would likely be considered a significant and traumatic event that could warrant special consideration and support from the military.

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  • 22. 

    (419) What characterization will an Airman receive if separated at expiration term of service (ETS)?

    • General

    • Honorable

    • Other Than Honorable (OTH)

    • Dishonorable

    Correct Answer
    A. Honorable
    Explanation
    If an Airman is separated at the expiration of their term of service (ETS), they will receive an Honorable characterization. This means that they have fulfilled their obligations and duties in a satisfactory manner and have been discharged from the military with a positive record.

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  • 23. 

    (402) What form is used to document a member’s active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?

    • AF Form 899

    • AF IMT 330

    • Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) 63

    • AF IMT 2096

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) 63
  • 24. 

    (402) What is not included in the three main phases of accession processing?

    • Collection

    • Delivery

    • Verification

    • Confirmation

    Correct Answer
    A. Delivery
    Explanation
    The three main phases of accession processing are collection, verification, and confirmation. Delivery is not included in these phases because it refers to the physical transportation of the accessioned items, rather than the processing steps involved in cataloging and organizing them.

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  • 25. 

    (414) The enlisted assignment preference is used for

    • Special duty assignments (SDA)

    • Short notice OS assignments

    • Joint/departmental assignments

    • Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments

    Correct Answer
    A. Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments
    Explanation
    The enlisted assignment preference is used to determine the preferences and desires of enlisted personnel regarding their assignments. It is used to match their preferences with available assignments, whether it is within the continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS). This helps to ensure that enlisted personnel are assigned to locations that align with their preferences and needs.

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  • 26. 

    (403) The ___________ is responsible for validating eligibility of bona fide beneficiaries to received benefits and entitlements, and is the only person authorized to sign block number 99 on the DD Form 1172.

    • Issuing official (IO)

    • Verifying official (VO)

    • Site security manager (SSM)

    • Trusted agent security managers or trusted agents (TASM or TA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Verifying official (VO)
    Explanation
    The verifying official (VO) is responsible for validating the eligibility of bona fide beneficiaries to receive benefits and entitlements. They are the only person authorized to sign block number 99 on the DD Form 1172.

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  • 27. 

    (412) How many members constitute a quorum for the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)?

    • Three

    • Five

    • Seven

    • Nine

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    A quorum for the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) consists of three members. This means that at least three members must be present for the board to conduct official business and make decisions. Having a quorum ensures that there is enough representation and participation from board members to make informed and fair decisions regarding correction of military records.

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  • 28. 

    (423) The WAPS program uses an integrated subsystem of MilPDS called the promotion file, what is it used for?

    • Used as a guideline to determine assignment eligibility status and to maintain personnel data

    • Used as a guideline to determine promotion eligibility status and to maintain personnel data and testing results for promotion selections.

    • Used as a guideline to determine reenlistment eligibility status and to maintain personnel data

    • Used as a guideline to determine DEERS status and to maintain personnel data results for promotion selections.

    Correct Answer
    A. Used as a guideline to determine promotion eligibility status and to maintain personnel data and testing results for promotion selections.
    Explanation
    The promotion file in the WAPS program is used as a guideline to determine promotion eligibility status and to maintain personnel data and testing results for promotion selections. This means that it is used to determine whether an individual is eligible for promotion based on certain criteria, and it also keeps track of their personnel data and testing results for promotional purposes.

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  • 29. 

    (416) To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the following is not a criterion?

    • The member’s presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem.

    • The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.

    • A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements.

    • The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem.

    Correct Answer
    A. The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.
    Explanation
    The criterion that is not required to substantiate a humanitarian assignment request is that the member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete. The other criteria mentioned are necessary for the request, such as the member's presence being essential to alleviate the problem, a vacancy existing at the new duty station, and the problem being more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem.

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  • 30. 

    (421) Which agency is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection?

    • Orderly room

    • The SECAF

    • HQ AFPC

    • Career development element

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development element
    Explanation
    The career development element is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection. They are in charge of informing commanders about the promotion status of their personnel. This includes notifying commanders when their personnel have been selected for promotion as well as when they have not been selected. The career development element plays a crucial role in keeping commanders informed about the promotion process and ensuring that they are aware of the status of their personnel.

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  • 31. 

    (424) The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is

    • $30,000

    • $60,000

    • $75, 000

    • $90,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $90,000
    Explanation
    The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is $90,000. This means that if a service member meets the eligibility criteria and chooses to reenlist, they can receive a bonus of up to $90,000. The SRB is a financial incentive offered by the military to encourage experienced personnel to continue their service. The amount of the bonus varies based on factors such as job specialty, length of reenlistment, and the needs of the military at the time. In this case, the maximum amount that can be paid per zone is $90,000.

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  • 32. 

    (410) Once family members have been notified, the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide name, rank, age,

    • Home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges

    • Home of record, race, and awards and decorations only

    • Race, religion, and total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) only

    • Home of record, race, religion, and TAFMSD, and place of enlistment

    Correct Answer
    A. Home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges
    Explanation
    After family members have been notified, the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide various information about the deceased military personnel. This includes their name, rank, age, home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD (total active federal military service date), as well as their awards, decorations, and badges.

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  • 33. 

    (415) How many months, minimum time on station (TOS), is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)? and how do Amn volunteer for a SDA?

    • 6./ Through the vMPF by updating the SDA job number from the EQUAL-Plus ad.

    • 12./ Through the vMPF by updating the SDA job number from the EQUAL-Plus ad.

    • 0./ Through the vMPF by updating the SDA job number from the EQUAL-Plus ad.

    • 24./ Through the vMPF by updating the SDA job number from the EQUAL-Plus ad.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0./ Through the vMPF by updating the SDA job number from the EQUAL-Plus ad.
  • 34. 

    (417) OPA was developed to sustain personnel support capability, what orders are not completed within OPA?

    • AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation

    • AF Form 973, Request and Authorization for Change of Administrative Orders

    • DD Form 1610, Request and Authorization for TDY Travel of DOD Personnel

    • AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station –Military

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1610, Request and Authorization for TDY Travel of DOD Personnel
    Explanation
    OPA, which stands for Operational Personnel Accounting, was developed to sustain personnel support capability. It is a system used to track and manage personnel movements, such as separations, changes of administrative orders, and permanent change of station for military personnel. The AF Form 100, AF Form 973, and AF Form 899 are all related to personnel movements that are completed within the OPA system. However, the DD Form 1610, which is used for requesting and authorizing temporary duty travel of DOD personnel, is not completed within the OPA system.

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  • 35. 

    (418) Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) submitted from the mbr to the career development element without a follow-on assignment application is used to request

    • Government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour.

    • Personally funded travel to a specified location other than the follow-on assignment location.

    • Government funded travel for a household goods shipment.

    • Government funded travel for a vehicle shipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour.
    Explanation
    DTDP is used to request government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour. This means that if an Airman is serving a short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour, they can submit a DTDP to request government funded travel to a specific location. This allows them to travel to that location while still serving their tour.

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  • 36. 

    (407) Under what circumstances can a service member not loose substantial government benefits?

    • In the LOD, Existed Prior to Service

    • Not in Line of Duty

    • Due to Own Misconduct

    • Due to Own Misconduct, Existed Prior to Service

    Correct Answer
    A. In the LOD, Existed Prior to Service
    Explanation
    If a service member incurs a disability or injury that existed prior to their service, they may not lose substantial government benefits. This means that if the disability or injury was already present before they joined the military, they will still be eligible for benefits. However, if the disability or injury is a result of their own misconduct or if it occurred while they were not in the line of duty, they may lose substantial government benefits.

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  • 37. 

    (417) What was vOP designed to do?

    • To allow Airmen to in-process their unit and task organization (due to reassignment, retirement, separation) without having to physically visit each office.

    • To allow Airmen to out-process their unit and task organization (due to reassignment, retirement, separation) without having to physically visit each office.

    • To allow Airmen to out-process their unit and task organization (due to reassignment, retirement, separation) and physically visit each office.

    • To allow Airmen to out-process the base (due to TDY) without having to physically visit each office.

    Correct Answer
    A. To allow Airmen to out-process their unit and task organization (due to reassignment, retirement, separation) without having to physically visit each office.
    Explanation
    vOP was designed to allow Airmen to out-process their unit and task organization (due to reassignment, retirement, separation) without having to physically visit each office.

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  • 38. 

    (422) Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman’s original grade?

    • Three and six

    • One and three

    • Six and twelve

    • Twelve and eighteen

    Correct Answer
    A. Three and six
    Explanation
    The demotion authority can restore an Airman's original grade within three to six months after the effective date of the demotion.

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  • 39. 

    (406) What is BAS meant to offset?

    • Food furnished to enlisted personnel at government expense, and is generally provided by the installation’s dining facility

    • Offset costs for lodging

    • Offset costs for a member’s meals

    • Offset costs for living

    Correct Answer
    A. Offset costs for a member’s meals
    Explanation
    BAS, or Basic Allowance for Subsistence, is meant to offset costs for a member's meals. It is provided to enlisted personnel at government expense and is typically provided by the installation's dining facility. BAS helps cover the costs of food for military members, ensuring they have access to meals while on duty.

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  • 40. 

    (401) For information about on- and off-base housing and, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go?

    • Family support center

    • Base housing office

    • Lodging office

    • Airman and Family Readiness Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Base housing office
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Base housing office. When a newcomer with dependents needs information about on- and off-base housing, the sponsor should go to the Base housing office. This office is responsible for providing information and assistance regarding housing options available on the base. They can provide guidance on the application process, eligibility criteria, and any other relevant information related to housing for military personnel and their families.

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  • 41. 

    (413) ___________controls and approves all surveys with exceptions to occupational surveys, internal reporting requirements, surveys of course graduates, official audit surveys, surveys requiring OMB approval, and single-base surveys initiated by an installation or unit commander.

    • HQ USAF

    • The Wing Commander

    • HQ AFPC/DPSAS

    • The FSS Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ AFPC/DPSAS
    Explanation
    HQ AFPC/DPSAS controls and approves all surveys with exceptions to certain types of surveys. These exceptions include occupational surveys, internal reporting requirements, surveys of course graduates, official audit surveys, surveys requiring OMB approval, and single-base surveys initiated by an installation or unit commander. Therefore, the correct answer is HQ AFPC/DPSAS.

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  • 42. 

    (424) First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration?

    • 30 (54 for six-year enlistees).

    • 36 (60 for six-year enlistees).

    • 33 (57 for six-year enlistees)

    • 40 (64 for six-year enlistees).

    Correct Answer
    A. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees)
    Explanation
    First-term Airmen who complete 33 months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration. For six-year enlistees, they need to complete 57 months to be eligible for SRP consideration.

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  • 43. 

    (412) How long do you have to file a correction to military records?

    • Ordinarily, applicants must file an application within five years after the error or injustice was discovered or with due diligence, should have been discovered.

    • Ordinarily, applicants must file an application within four years after the error or injustice was discovered or with due diligence, should have been discovered.

    • Ordinarily, applicants must file an application within two years after the error or injustice was discovered or with due diligence, should have been discovered.

    • Ordinarily, applicants must file an application within three years after the error or injustice was discovered or with due diligence, should have been discovered.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ordinarily, applicants must file an application within three years after the error or injustice was discovered or with due diligence, should have been discovered.
    Explanation
    Applicants are typically required to file a correction to military records within three years after the error or injustice was discovered or should have been discovered with due diligence. This time limit ensures that applications for corrections are made in a timely manner and allows for the resolution of errors or injustices in a reasonable timeframe. Filing within the specified timeframe is important to ensure that the correction process is efficient and effective.

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  • 44. 

    (419) When does an officer or an enlisted member have the opportunity to separate?

    • When an officer is within a year of completing their active duty service obligation or an enlisted member is within a year of completed their enlistment.

    • When an officer is within 90 days of completing their active duty service obligation or an enlisted member is within 90 days of completed their enlistment.

    • When an officer has completed their active duty service obligation or an enlisted member has completed their enlistment.

    • When an officer is within 7 days of completing their active duty service obligation or an enlisted member is within 7 days of completed their enlistment.

    Correct Answer
    A. When an officer has completed their active duty service obligation or an enlisted member has completed their enlistment.
    Explanation
    An officer or enlisted member has the opportunity to separate when they have completed their active duty service obligation or enlistment. This means that once they have fulfilled their commitment to serve, they have the option to separate from the military.

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  • 45. 

    (421) What requirements must an A1C meet to be eligible for promotion to SrA?

    • Fully qualified A1Cs must be recommended by their CC in writing; have 36 months TIS and 6 months TIG or 12 months TIG, whichever occurs first.

    • Fully qualified A1Cs must be recommended by their CC in writing; have 36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or 28 months TIG, whichever occurs first.

    • Fully qualified A1Cs must be recommended by their CC in writing; have 36 months TIS and 10 months TIG or 18 months TIG

    • Fully qualified A1Cs must be recommended by their CC in writing; have 36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or 26 months TIG, whichever occurs first.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fully qualified A1Cs must be recommended by their CC in writing; have 36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or 28 months TIG, whichever occurs first.
    Explanation
    To be eligible for promotion to SrA, fully qualified A1Cs must be recommended by their CC in writing. Additionally, they must have 36 months Time in Service (TIS) and either 20 months Time in Grade (TIG) or 28 months TIG, whichever occurs first. This means that they need to have served for at least 36 months and have reached the specified TIG requirement before they can be considered for promotion to SrA.

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  • 46. 

    (418) The decision to authorize dependent travel OCONUS at government expense is based on what criteria?

    • The political climate in the foreign country, possible adverse affects the presence of dependents may have on mission accomplishment, operational readiness, or combat capability.

    • The adequacy of dependent support facilities, possible adverse affects the presence of dependents may have on mission accomplishment, operational readiness, or combat capability.

    • The general desirability of the location, political climate in the foreign country, possible adverse affects the presence of dependents may have on mission accomplishment, operational readiness, or combat capability.

    • The standard of living, general desirability of the location, adequacy of dependent support facilities, political climate in the foreign country, possible adverse affects the presence of dependents may have on mission accomplishment, operational readiness, or combat capability.

    Correct Answer
    A. The standard of living, general desirability of the location, adequacy of dependent support facilities, political climate in the foreign country, possible adverse affects the presence of dependents may have on mission accomplishment, operational readiness, or combat capability.
    Explanation
    The decision to authorize dependent travel OCONUS at government expense is based on several criteria. These criteria include the standard of living, general desirability of the location, adequacy of dependent support facilities, political climate in the foreign country, and possible adverse effects the presence of dependents may have on mission accomplishment, operational readiness, or combat capability. All of these factors are taken into consideration to ensure that the decision is in the best interest of the mission and the well-being of the dependents.

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  • 47. 

    (414) How are assignment selections made for SMSgt and below?

    • SMSgt and below selection for assignments are computer generated; however, an AFPC Assignment NCO and or functional manager reviews each action to ensure validity and equity.

    • SMSgt and below selection for assignments are computer generated; however, an MPS Assignment NCO and or functional manager reviews each action to ensure validity and equity.

    • SMSgt and below selection for assignments are computer generated; however, a MAJCOM Assignment NCO reviews each action to ensure validity and equity.

    • SMSgt and below selection for assignments are computer generated; however, a functional manager reviews each action to ensure validity and equity.

    Correct Answer
    A. SMSgt and below selection for assignments are computer generated; however, an AFPC Assignment NCO and or functional manager reviews each action to ensure validity and equity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that SMSgt and below selection for assignments are computer generated, but they are also reviewed by an AFPC Assignment NCO and/or functional manager to ensure validity and equity. This means that while the computer generates the initial selection, a human review is conducted to ensure that the assignments are fair and appropriate.

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  • 48. 

    (406) ___________ is based on a variety of factors including location and capacity of dining facilities, location of living quarters, duty hours as well as other factors.

    • Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS),

    • Essential station messing (ESM)

    • Per Diem

    • Basic allowance for housing (BAH)

    Correct Answer
    A. Essential station messing (ESM)
    Explanation
    Essential station messing (ESM) is based on a variety of factors including location and capacity of dining facilities, location of living quarters, duty hours as well as other factors. This means that the amount of ESM provided to individuals will depend on where they are stationed, the availability of dining facilities, the proximity of living quarters, and the number of hours they work. ESM takes into account these factors to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate allowance for their subsistence needs while on duty.

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  • 49. 

    (422) What should be an uncommon occurrence?

    • Demoting a CMSgt to AB

    • Demoting a Col to 2Lt

    • Restoring a grade

    • Suspension of adminstrative demotions

    Correct Answer
    A. Restoring a grade
    Explanation
    Restoring a grade should be an uncommon occurrence because grades are typically assigned based on performance and should not be easily changed or reversed. It is important to maintain the integrity of the grading system and ensure that grades accurately reflect a person's abilities and achievements. Therefore, restoring a grade should be a rare event and only done in exceptional circumstances.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 18, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 18, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 24, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    PhillipJ
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