US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! Trivia Questions Quiz

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1. Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves.  What subject action level is it?

Explanation

This scenario involves using verbal controls as the subject action level. The solicitor is asked to depart the base, and they comply with this request after proper identification is provided. Verbal controls refer to using verbal commands or instructions to manage a situation or control the behavior of individuals. In this case, the solicitor's compliance with the verbal request demonstrates the effectiveness of verbal controls in resolving the situation.

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About This Quiz
US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! When it comes to the defense forces, everyone appointed has a specific role they need to play, and there are set rules... see moreon how they meet their roles. By taking this quiz, you will get to test how much you know about the responsibilities of those in the air force. Do give it a try! see less

2. When contacting the violator during a traffic stop,  an exigent circumstance would be speeding to?

Explanation

During a traffic stop, an exigent circumstance refers to an urgent situation that requires immediate action. In this scenario, getting the pregnant wife to the hospital would be considered an exigent circumstance because it involves the well-being and safety of both the mother and the unborn child. It is crucial to prioritize their health and ensure they receive timely medical assistance. The other options, such as getting the mother to work, the daughter to school, or testing the new car's speed, do not involve the same level of urgency or potential risk to life.

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3. Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?

Explanation

Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for the safety of any individuals present in the building and to avoid any unnecessary harm. The verbal warning serves as a precautionary measure to alert others of the dog's presence and potential actions. It allows people to take appropriate actions to protect themselves and prevents any misunderstandings or accidental confrontations.

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4. SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?

Explanation

Prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course, SF members must possess a 5-skill level (Journeyman) skill level. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of proficiency and experience in their field. The 5-skill level is likely necessary to ensure that SF members have a solid foundation of knowledge and skills before they begin training as MWD handlers.

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5. As a POW what information are you required to give when questioned?

Explanation

As a POW, you are required to give your name, rank, service number, and date of birth when questioned. This information is essential for identification purposes and is generally considered non-sensitive. Providing this information helps maintain proper records and facilitates communication between the captors and the prisoner's home country.

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6. What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?

Explanation

Talking to experienced SF (Special Forces) members can be a way to identify stressors on the job. As SF members have more experience and knowledge, they can provide insights into the various stressors that may arise in their line of work. By engaging in conversations with them, one can gain valuable information about the potential stressors and how to manage them effectively. This approach allows individuals to learn from the experiences of others and develop strategies to cope with stressors in their own job.

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7. Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

Explanation

The Code of Conduct and SF General Orders are both forms of guidance that ensure mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct outlines the ethical and moral obligations for members of the military, emphasizing principles such as loyalty, duty, and integrity. SF General Orders, on the other hand, provide specific instructions and regulations for security forces personnel to follow in order to maintain discipline and ensure the safety and security of military installations. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can contribute to the successful completion of missions.

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8. How do MWDs impact crime?

Explanation

MWDs, or Military Working Dogs, are a deterrent to crime. These highly trained dogs possess exceptional senses and skills that make them valuable assets in law enforcement and military operations. Their presence alone can discourage criminals from committing crimes, as they act as a visible and formidable force. Additionally, their ability to detect explosives, drugs, and track down suspects enhances the effectiveness of law enforcement efforts, making them a significant deterrent to criminal activities.

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9. What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?

Explanation

The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS. This means that it is designed to be easily carried and operated by an individual soldier. It can fire one grenade at a time and is loaded by opening the breech. The pump action allows for quick and efficient reloading. It is specifically designed to be attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series, enhancing the firepower and versatility of these rifles.

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10. The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?

Explanation

The concept of "every airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is known as Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual within the base, regardless of their role, has a responsibility to be aware of their surroundings and report any suspicious activities or threats. It promotes a collective effort in ensuring the security and defense of the base, making it more resilient against potential attacks.

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11. How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?

Explanation

The Claymore is employed as part of the base defense obstacle plan to stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks. This means that it is used to hinder the progress of the enemy, preventing them from advancing quickly and forcing them to slow down or change their tactics. By doing so, the Claymore helps to buy time for the defending forces to react and respond to the enemy's assault, increasing the chances of successfully repelling the attack and defending the base.

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12. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

Each position requires two range cards.

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13. Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?

Explanation

C4 systems of active nuclear missions are an example of a protection level 1 resource. This means that these systems are of the highest priority and require the most stringent security measures to protect them. These systems are directly involved in active nuclear missions, which are critical to national security. Therefore, they are classified as protection level 1 resources to ensure their integrity and prevent unauthorized access or tampering.

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14. How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The maximum range for the M9 pistol is 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately hitting a target up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range is quite impressive for a pistol and indicates the weapon's effectiveness in engaging targets at long distances.

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15. What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?

Explanation

The given answer accurately describes the characteristics of the M240B machine gun. It highlights that the M240B is a general-purpose machine gun that can be mounted on various platforms such as bipods, tripods, aircraft, or vehicles. It further specifies that the M240B is belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, and fully automatic, firing from the open bolt position. This information provides a comprehensive understanding of the key features and capabilities of the M240B machine gun.

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16. What is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection?

Explanation

The floating dial is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection because it indicates the direction accurately. It is designed to move freely and align with the Earth's magnetic field, allowing the user to determine their heading. If the floating dial is not functioning properly or is misaligned, the compass will not provide accurate directions, making it unreliable for navigation. Therefore, ensuring that the floating dial is in good condition and properly calibrated is crucial for the compass to function correctly.

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17. When was the first trial issue shield approved?

Explanation

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18. What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

Explanation

Developing community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. This approach promotes collaboration and trust between the police and the community, leading to more effective problem-solving and crime prevention strategies. By involving the community in decision-making processes, the police can better understand the specific needs and concerns of the neighborhood, and tailor their efforts accordingly. This philosophy encourages community members to take ownership of their own safety and well-being, fostering a sense of empowerment and unity within the neighborhood.

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19. What is the most common round used in the M870?

Explanation

The most common round used in the M870 is the 12 gauge, "00" buck shot. The gauge refers to the diameter of the shotgun barrel, and 12 gauge is a common size for shotguns. The "00" buck shot refers to the size of the pellets in the shotgun shell, with "00" being larger and therefore more effective for close-range shooting.

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20. Where should the Claymore firing position be located?

Explanation

The Claymore firing position should be located in a foxhole or covered position. This is because a foxhole or covered position provides protection and concealment for the Claymore operator, allowing them to remain hidden from the enemy while effectively engaging targets. Being in a foxhole or covered position also minimizes the risk of the Claymore operator being detected or targeted by the enemy.

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21. As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.”  This is an example of?

Explanation

Testimonial evidence refers to evidence that is presented orally by a witness, based on their personal knowledge or observations. In this scenario, the security forces member is testifying about what they personally saw, stating that they witnessed the car being driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road. This statement is based on the member's personal observation and is therefore considered testimonial evidence.

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22. Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…

Explanation

Martial law is a form of military control that is imposed on the civilian population during times of emergency. During such situations, the government may deem it necessary to temporarily suspend normal laws and regulations to maintain order and security. This could occur in the event of natural disasters, widespread civil unrest, or threats to national security. The declaration of martial law is typically made by the highest authority in the country, such as the president or state governors, depending on the level of government involved.

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23. Describe the MK19?

Explanation

The MK19 is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon with five major assemblies. It is designed to be belt-fed with ammunition that is loaded through the left side of the weapon using a disintegrating metallic link belt. One notable feature of the MK19 is its barrel, which is designed to not overheat even after prolonged firing. Additionally, it has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

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24. Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts?

Explanation

By purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by civilian counterparts, the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) can ensure that their qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders. This means that the CSF personnel will have the necessary training and expertise to effectively handle the equipment, ensuring accurate and admissible evidence in legal proceedings. This also promotes collaboration and coordination between military and civilian law enforcement agencies, enhancing overall security and law enforcement efforts.

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25. The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?

Explanation

During the Vietnam Conflict, the traditional approach to security was challenged as the guerrilla warfare tactics used by the Viet Cong were difficult to combat using conventional military strategies. This led to a reevaluation of security thinking, as it became clear that new and innovative approaches were needed to effectively address the challenges posed by unconventional warfare. Therefore, the Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for revised security thinking.

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26. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Explanation

The correct answer is 5. The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or seriously injured. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat and can cause significant damage within their kill radius. It is important for soldiers and individuals handling hand grenades to be aware of this kill radius and take appropriate precautions to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

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27. What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?

Explanation

Blood tests are considered the most accurate of all chemical tests because they directly measure the presence and concentration of various substances in the blood, such as drugs, alcohol, or other chemicals. Unlike urine tests or breathalyzers, which can be influenced by various factors like hydration levels or recent consumption, blood tests provide a more precise and reliable analysis. Additionally, blood tests can detect substances that may have been metabolized or broken down in the body, providing a more comprehensive understanding of a person's chemical makeup.

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28. What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?

Explanation

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29. What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle?

Explanation

The most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle is by wearing the facemask centered on the forehead. This positioning allows for optimal use and comfort, as the goggle is securely attached to the head and provides a clear view of the surroundings in low-light or dark conditions.

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30. What are the six basic questions that need to answered on an AF Form 1168?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Who, what, when, where, why and how." These six basic questions are commonly used to gather information and provide a comprehensive understanding of a situation or event. By answering these questions, one can determine the individuals involved (who), the specific details or actions (what), the time frame (when), the location (where), the reasons or motives (why), and the methods or processes (how). These questions help in analyzing and documenting incidents, investigations, or any other situation that requires thorough information gathering.

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31. SF squadrons are organized based on what?

Explanation

SF squadrons are organized based on mission requirements. This means that the structure and composition of the squadrons are determined by the specific tasks and objectives they need to fulfill. By organizing the squadrons according to mission requirements, they can be effectively deployed and utilized in various operational scenarios. This ensures that the squadrons are equipped with the necessary personnel, resources, and capabilities to successfully carry out their assigned missions.

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32. Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?

Explanation

A breathalyzer is a breath instrument that uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content. It works by measuring the amount of alcohol in a person's breath sample, which is then used to estimate their blood alcohol concentration. This device is commonly used by law enforcement officers to determine if a person is driving under the influence of alcohol. The other options, Intoxilyzer, Alco-sensor, and Breathometer, are not specifically known for using chemicals to test blood alcohol content.

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33. The GRC 238 what radio part is critical to its operation?

Explanation

The GRC 238 is a radio device, and the antenna is a crucial component for its operation. The antenna is responsible for transmitting and receiving radio signals, allowing the device to communicate effectively. Without a functioning antenna, the radio would not be able to send or receive signals, rendering it useless. Therefore, the antenna is critical to the operation of the GRC 238 radio.

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34. “Probable Cause” searches are covered under what legal manual?

Explanation

MCM Rule 315 is the correct answer because it is the Manual for Courts-Martial, which is a legal manual that provides guidance for military courts. "Probable Cause" searches are likely referring to searches conducted by law enforcement officers based on a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed. The MCM Rule 315 would outline the procedures and requirements for conducting such searches within the military justice system.

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35. The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?

Explanation

The MK19 has little effect on main battle tanks because it is not designed to penetrate heavily armored vehicles. The MK19 is a 40mm automatic grenade launcher that is primarily used against unarmored or lightly armored targets. It is highly effective against personnel, light vehicles, and structures, but lacks the firepower to effectively engage main battle tanks.

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36. During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This department is responsible for handling foreign affairs and diplomatic relations, making it the appropriate agency to handle incidents that occur outside of the country's borders. The Department of Justice, on the other hand, primarily deals with domestic law enforcement and legal matters within the US. The Department of Terrorist and Department of Concept are not actual government departments and do not exist.

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37. US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?

Explanation

The correct answer is Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA). SOFAs are agreements between the US and host nations that define the legal status of US military personnel and their activities in the host nation's territory. These agreements outline the rights and responsibilities of both parties and govern the jurisdiction and control over US military personnel. They provide a framework for cooperation and ensure that US military authority is properly regulated and aligned with the laws and regulations of the host nation.

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38. An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within how many meters of a point on a map?

Explanation

An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within 10 meters of a point on a map. This means that if you have the precise 8-digit grid coordinate, you can locate a point on the map with an accuracy of 10 meters.

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39. What general conduct guideline would you violate if you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty?

Explanation

Consuming alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty would violate the general conduct guideline of "Attention to duty." This is because alcohol consumption can impair cognitive and physical abilities, affecting one's ability to perform tasks and responsibilities effectively and safely. It is important to be fully alert and focused while on duty to ensure the highest level of performance and to prioritize the safety of oneself and others.

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40. How many copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared?

Explanation

Two copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared.

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41. A written order issued by a competent authority is called a?

Explanation

A written order issued by a competent authority is called a search authorization. This document grants the power to authorize a search and seizure. It provides legal permission for law enforcement officials to conduct a search of a specified location or individual, based on probable cause or reasonable suspicion of criminal activity. The search authorization ensures that the search is conducted lawfully and protects individuals' rights against unreasonable searches and seizures.

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42. Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?

Explanation

The elevation guide on a map is typically located in the lower right margin. This is a common convention followed by cartographers to provide information about the elevation levels of different areas on the map. It helps users understand the topography of the area and identify any changes in altitude. By placing the elevation guide in the lower right margin, it is easily accessible and does not obstruct other important information on the map.

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43. What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?

Explanation

The sacrificial window in the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle protects the glass objective lens. The glass objective lens is a critical component of the goggle that allows light to enter and be amplified for night vision. The sacrificial window acts as a protective layer, shielding the glass lens from potential damage or scratches. By protecting the glass objective lens, the sacrificial window ensures the overall functionality and effectiveness of the night vision goggle.

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44. What does the term OCOKA stand for?

Explanation

OCOKA stands for Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach. This acronym is commonly used in military tactics and planning to assess and analyze the environment and potential threats in a given area. By considering these factors, military personnel can effectively plan and execute operations, ensuring the best use of available resources and minimizing risks.

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45. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters.

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46. How do we clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces?

Explanation

To clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces, a lint-free cloth should be used. This type of cloth is ideal for cleaning delicate surfaces as it does not leave behind any fibers or lint that could potentially damage the equipment. Using a lint-free cloth ensures that the metal surfaces are thoroughly cleaned without causing any harm.

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47. What map reference do you use to determine distances?

Explanation

A bar scale is used to determine distances on a map. It is a graphic representation of a specific distance on the map compared to the actual distance on the ground. By using the bar scale, one can measure distances accurately by comparing the length of a line on the map to the corresponding length on the bar scale. This allows for precise calculations of distances between different points on the map.

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48. What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?

Explanation

The requirements to attend Airman Leadership School are being an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services. This means that individuals must have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Senior Airman (SrA) and have completed 48 months of active federal military service. This requirement ensures that individuals attending the school have a certain level of experience and time in service before taking on leadership roles.

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49. Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?

Explanation

Article 7b of the UCMJ gives military personnel the authority to apprehend military offenders. This article specifically states that any person subject to the UCMJ may apprehend any person who is subject to trial by a court-martial and who has committed an offense punishable by confinement. This article empowers military personnel to take action and ensure that military offenders are brought to justice.

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50. How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because erecting an assembled antenna mast typically requires two personnel to safely and effectively handle the task. One person can hold and stabilize the mast while the other person can guide and secure it into position. Having two personnel ensures that the mast is properly installed and reduces the risk of accidents or damage during the process.

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51. On what does a patrol leader base the tentative patrol plan?

Explanation

A patrol leader bases the tentative patrol plan on good terrain analysis. This means that they consider the topography, vegetation, and other physical features of the area to determine the best route, potential obstacles, and suitable camping locations. By analyzing the terrain, the patrol leader can make informed decisions to ensure the safety and efficiency of the patrol. They can also consider factors such as visibility, cover, and potential water sources. Overall, good terrain analysis allows the patrol leader to create a well-thought-out plan that maximizes the patrol's chances of success.

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52. Why do we use demist shield on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?

Explanation

The demist shield is used on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle to prevent foggy lenses. In humid or cold environments, condensation can form on the lenses, obstructing the user's vision. The demist shield acts as a barrier, preventing moisture from accumulating on the lenses and ensuring clear visibility for the user.

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53. Microwave sensors are relatively sensitive to?

Explanation

Microwave sensors are sensitive to rain, snow, vibration, and small wind-blown objects. This means that these sensors can detect and be affected by these factors. Rain and snow can interfere with the sensor's ability to accurately detect objects, while vibration can cause false readings. Additionally, small wind-blown objects can be mistaken as moving objects by the sensor. Therefore, these factors should be taken into consideration when using microwave sensors for detection purposes.

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54. What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the "Security Forces" 3POX1 AFSC?

Explanation

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55. What are the standard whistle signals?

Explanation

The standard whistle signals are one long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.

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56. Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator’s vehicle during a traffic stop.

Explanation

During a traffic stop, it is recommended to position your vehicle two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left of the violator's vehicle. This positioning allows for a safe distance and provides a clear line of sight for both the officer and the violator. Being positioned to the left also provides a buffer zone in case the violator's vehicle suddenly moves or opens a door, reducing the risk of collision.

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57. The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?

Explanation

The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for point and area targets. This means that it can effectively engage and hit specific points or areas on a target, rather than just firing indiscriminately. This makes it suitable for engaging enemy personnel or vehicles that are grouped together in a specific location, as well as for suppressing or neutralizing threats in a designated area. The MK19's ability to provide controlled and accurate fire for point and area targets enhances its effectiveness in combat situations.

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58. The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor are?

Explanation

The correct answer is "An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter." This answer accurately describes the components of the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor. The emitter head is responsible for emitting infrared signals, the battery case provides power, the sensor head detects the reflected signals, and the transmitter sends the detected signals to a receiver or control unit.

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59. If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?

Explanation

When a soldier adapts to the dark before putting on goggles, it means that their eyes have already adjusted to low light conditions. This adaptation allows them to see better in the dark. When the goggles are removed, it would take less time for their eyes to readjust to the darkness compared to someone who did not adapt beforehand. Therefore, the individual would gain full dark adaptation within 2 minutes after removing the goggles.

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60. The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground?

Explanation

The fence for a restricted area must be 2 inches close to firm ground to ensure proper security and restriction. This proximity helps to prevent unauthorized access and ensures that the fence is firmly anchored to the ground, providing stability and durability. Being too close to the ground may cause the fence to be easily bypassed or damaged, while being too far away may compromise its effectiveness in restricting access. Therefore, a distance of 2 inches is considered optimal for maintaining the integrity and functionality of the restricted area's fence.

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61. When was the current SF shield adopted?

Explanation

The current SF shield was adopted in 1966.

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62. Which copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator?

Explanation

The Pink Copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator. This copy is typically given to the individual who committed the violation as a record of their offense. It serves as a reminder and documentation of the violation they have committed.

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63. During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to…

Explanation

During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to apprehend all offenders. This means that they can detain anyone who is found to be violating the law, regardless of whether they are civilians or military personnel. This broad authority allows SF members to maintain order and enforce the law during times of martial law, ensuring that all offenders are taken into custody.

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64. How many basic fundamentals of defense are there?

Explanation

There are five basic fundamentals of defense.

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65. How many different types of ammunition for the M4 carbine?

Explanation

The M4 carbine has seven different types of ammunition available.

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66. Name the two sighting systems employed by the M18A1?

Explanation

The M18A1 employs two sighting systems: slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight. The slit-type peep sight allows for quick target acquisition and provides a wider field of view, while the knife-edge sight offers precise aiming and improved accuracy. These two sighting systems work together to enhance the effectiveness of the M18A1.

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67. What are the three reports used by security forces to document incidents?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. AF Form 3545, AF Form 1168, and AF Form 1315. These three forms are used by security forces to document incidents. AF Form 3545 is used to report incidents such as accidents, crimes, or suspicious activities. AF Form 1168 is used to document witness statements or interviews related to the incident. AF Form 1315 is used to document incidents involving the use of force or firearms. These reports help security forces accurately record and investigate incidents for further action or analysis.

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68. What is a hot loop?

Explanation

A hot loop refers to a continuous line that is connected to every phone and switchboard. This line allows for immediate communication and is used in emergency situations. It ensures that there is a constant connection between all communication devices, enabling quick and efficient communication in critical situations.

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69. When burying the mini magnetic sensor (MMS), how deep must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. This depth ensures that the magnetic sensor head is buried deep enough to avoid detection and tampering, while still allowing it to accurately detect and report any magnetic anomalies. Burying the sensor head too shallow may result in false readings or damage to the sensor, while burying it too deep may reduce its sensitivity and effectiveness.

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70. What is the first step if you suspect exposure through a laceration?

Explanation

When suspecting exposure through a laceration, the first step is to apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding. This is important because it helps to flush out any potential contaminants that may have entered the wound. By applying pressure, it can help to clean the wound and prevent further infection. This step should be taken before washing the area thoroughly with soap and water, seeking medical attention, or reporting the incident to a supervisor.

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71. What piece of equipment do you use if you need to fire into your secondary sector?

Explanation

A bipod is a piece of equipment that is used to provide stability and support to a firearm when firing. It typically consists of two legs that can be extended or retracted to adjust the height and angle of the firearm. Firing into the secondary sector refers to firing in a direction that is not directly in front of the shooter, but rather to the side. Using a bipod can help maintain accuracy and control while firing in this direction.

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72. Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time?

Explanation

The Camper Alert Team (CAT) is responsible for providing on-site security when alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time. This team ensures that the site remains secure and alerts authorities of any potential threats or breaches. The CAT plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and security of the area, especially when alarm systems are not functioning properly.

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73. Define a Hostile Force.

Explanation

A hostile force is defined as any civilian, paramilitary, or military force, or terrorist(s) with or without national designation, that has committed hostile acts, exhibited hostile intent, or has been declared hostile by appropriate authorities. This means that it includes any group or individual that has engaged in aggressive or violent actions, shown intentions to harm or attack, or has been officially labeled as hostile by the relevant authorities. This definition encompasses a wide range of potential threats and allows for flexibility in identifying and responding to hostile forces.

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74. The surface that supports the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) display Control Unit must be able to handle?

Explanation

The surface that supports the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) display Control Unit must be able to handle 200 pounds. This suggests that the Control Unit is quite heavy and requires a sturdy and strong surface to support it. A surface that can handle 200 pounds ensures that the Control Unit will be securely placed and will not be at risk of falling or causing damage.

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75. Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to?

Explanation

Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes individuals to detain civilians for on base offenses. This means that if a civilian commits an offense on a military base, individuals who have the authority granted by this section can lawfully detain them. This provision ensures that military bases can maintain order and security by allowing authorized personnel to take appropriate action against civilians who violate the law on base premises.

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76. Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?

Explanation

The rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed because the objective is the main goal or target that needs to be achieved. Until the objective is identified and clarified, the rally point cannot be finalized as it is dependent on the location or direction needed to reach the objective. Therefore, the rally point remains uncertain or subject to change until the objective is determined.

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77. What is the maximum range of the M2?

Explanation

The maximum range of the M2 is 6,764 meters. This means that the M2 is capable of firing projectiles up to a distance of 6,764 meters.

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78. What term defines a six-digit grid coordinate?

Explanation

A six-digit grid coordinate is defined as a refined coordinate. This term refers to a specific location on a map or grid system that is identified by a six-digit alphanumeric code. It is a more precise and accurate way of pinpointing a location compared to other options like base line, grid azimuths, or back azimuths.

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79. The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully…

Explanation

The correct answer is that the bezel ring contains 120 clicks, with each click equal to 3 degrees. This means that when the bezel ring is rotated fully, it will cover a total of 360 degrees (120 clicks x 3 degrees per click), which is a complete circle. The number of clicks and the degree measurement indicate the precision and accuracy of the rotation, allowing for precise adjustments or measurements to be made.

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80. Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?

Explanation

The ECSI Active Infrared Sensor is the correct answer because it is the only sensor system mentioned that alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam. The other sensor systems listed, such as the SW385 Monostatic Microwave Sensor and SW310 Bistatic Microwave Sensor, do not specify this requirement. The Optex LX-2AU is also not mentioned to have this specific feature. Therefore, the ECSI Active Infrared Sensor is the most suitable option for the given criteria.

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81. What is the primary navigation tool used by Security Forces?

Explanation

The lensatic compass is the primary navigation tool used by Security Forces. This compass is specifically designed for accurate and precise navigation in outdoor environments. It features a sighting lens and a floating dial that allows the user to align the compass with a specific direction or landmark. The lensatic compass is highly reliable and widely used in military and security operations for its ability to provide accurate bearings and navigate through various terrains.

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82. What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search?

Explanation

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83. How many sections is the form divided into? (AF Form 3545)

Explanation

The form AF Form 3545 is divided into 6 sections.

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84. Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields?

Explanation

Responsiveness is the key principle to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields because it refers to the ability to quickly and effectively react to enemy actions. By being responsive, we can promptly identify and counter enemy threats, minimizing the potential damage and disruption to our airfields. It allows us to adapt our strategies and tactics in real-time, ensuring that we can effectively defend our airfields against any enemy incursions.

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85. What Command Section position is manned by the senior SF enlisted leader?

Explanation

The correct answer is Security Forces Manager (SFM). The SFM is responsible for managing and overseeing the security forces program. They are the senior SF enlisted leader and play a crucial role in ensuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the security forces operations. The SFM works closely with the CSF/CC and other key personnel to develop and implement policies, procedures, and training programs. They also provide guidance and mentorship to the security forces personnel, ensuring their readiness and professional development.

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86. What should a flight sector sketch show?

Explanation

A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identification. This is important for identifying the different flights and squadrons operating in the sector. It helps in maintaining communication and coordination between the different units involved in the flight operations. By displaying the identification information on the sketch, it becomes easier to track and locate specific flights and squadrons within the sector. This information is crucial for effective command and control of the airspace and ensuring the safety and efficiency of flight operations.

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87. One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Any monitor can be used in conjunction with the system." This means that the Hand Held Thermal Imager is compatible with any monitor, allowing users to connect and view the images on different types of monitors. There is no limitation or requirement for using only a specific type of monitor with the system.

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88. When programming frequencies which option do you use to select the receiver transmitter channel?

Explanation

To select the receiver transmitter channel when programming frequencies, the option to use is the Program channel option. This option allows the user to input and save specific channel frequencies for the receiver transmitter. The Menu Button is not related to selecting channels, and the Radio Channel option is not mentioned as a valid option for programming frequencies. Therefore, the correct option is c. The Program channel option.

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89. The M2 is a very effective, versatile weapon that is…

Explanation

The M2 is a belt-fed weapon, meaning it is designed to be fed ammunition through a belt system rather than a magazine. It is also recoil operated, meaning that the force generated by the recoil of each fired round is used to cycle the weapon and load the next round. Additionally, the M2 is air cooled, meaning it does not rely on a water cooling system or other external cooling methods. Therefore, the correct answer is "Belt fed, recoil operated, and air cooled."

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90. If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder (M72 LAW)?

Explanation

In the case of a misfire while using the M72 LAW launcher, it is recommended to wait for 10 seconds before removing the launcher from your shoulder. This waiting period allows time for any delayed ignition or potential malfunction to resolve itself. It is important to exercise caution and follow proper safety protocols when handling explosive devices to minimize the risk of accidents or injuries.

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91. How many pages make up the AF Form 3545?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6. This suggests that the AF Form 3545 consists of 6 pages.

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92. How do you estimate the elevation of the bottom of a depression?

Explanation

To estimate the elevation of the bottom of a depression, you subtract one-half the contour interval. This is because a contour interval represents the difference in elevation between adjacent contour lines on a topographic map. By subtracting one-half of the contour interval, you are effectively estimating the elevation at the midpoint between two contour lines, which can help determine the elevation of the bottom of a depression.

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93. Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Base Battlespace." This is because the question asks for the option that does not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace. The other three options, Air Force Battlespace, Force Protection Battlespace, and IBD Battlespace, are all related to battlespaces that are relevant to IBD. However, Base Battlespace is not directly related to IBD battlespace and therefore does not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace.

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94. The MK19 is most effectively employed as a…

Explanation

The MK19 is a mobile weapon system that is designed to provide suppressive fire. It is not meant to be used in a static position, but rather to be mounted on a vehicle or other mobile platform. It is also designed to cover a specific zone, meaning that it can effectively engage targets within a specific area. Therefore, the correct answer is "Mobile suppressive fore platform covering a specific zone."

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95. How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?

Explanation

During southward star navigation, azimuth checks are made every 15 minutes. This is done to ensure that the ship or aircraft is staying on the correct course and heading in the right direction. By regularly checking the azimuth, which is the angular distance of a celestial body from the observer's meridian, navigators can make adjustments and corrections as needed to maintain the desired course. Making these checks every 15 minutes allows for timely course corrections and helps to ensure accurate navigation.

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96. Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by SF to record pertinent information?

Explanation

The Yellow copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by SF (Security Forces) to record pertinent information.

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97. How deep will field wire be buried in loose or sandy soil?

Explanation

Field wire will be buried 3 feet deep in loose or sandy soil because this depth provides sufficient protection for the wire, preventing it from being exposed or damaged by external factors such as weather conditions, animals, or human activities. Additionally, burying the wire at this depth helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the wire installation, ensuring reliable and efficient transmission of signals or electricity.

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98. What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor provide?

Explanation

The 385 monostatic microwave sensor provides three dimensional protection in outdoor environments. This means that it can detect and monitor threats from all directions and in all dimensions, ensuring comprehensive coverage and security in outdoor areas.

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99. How many accessories does the GRC 238 come with?

Explanation

The GRC 238 comes with 18 accessories.

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100. Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC…

Explanation

The primary focus of OPSEC (Operations Security) is to deny the exploitation of open source information. This means that OPSEC aims to prevent adversaries from gathering and utilizing information that is publicly available to gain an advantage. By analyzing potential vulnerabilities and taking necessary precautions, OPSEC ensures that sensitive information remains protected and not easily accessible to those who may seek to exploit it.

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Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…
Describe the MK19?
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The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?
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SF squadrons are organized based on what?
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The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?
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What general conduct guideline would you violate if you consumed...
How many copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared?
A written order issued by a competent authority is called a?
Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?
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What does the term OCOKA stand for?
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How do we clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces?
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What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?
Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military...
How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?
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Why do we use demist shield on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
Microwave sensors are relatively sensitive to?
What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the "Security Forces"...
What are the standard whistle signals?
Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator’s...
The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?
The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor...
If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual...
The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground?
When was the current SF shield adopted?
Which copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator?
During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to…
How many basic fundamentals of defense are there?
How many different types of ammunition for the M4 carbine?
Name the two sighting systems employed by the M18A1?
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What is a hot loop?
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What is the first step if you suspect exposure through a laceration?
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Define a Hostile Force.
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What is the maximum range of the M2?
What term defines a six-digit grid coordinate?
The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully…
Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of...
What is the primary navigation tool used by Security Forces?
What is the correct procedure for changing your position from...
How many sections is the form divided into? (AF Form 3545)
Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our...
What Command Section position is manned by the senior SF enlisted...
What should a flight sector sketch show?
One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is?
When programming frequencies which option do you use to select the...
The M2 is a very effective, versatile weapon that is…
If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the...
How many pages make up the AF Form 3545?
How do you estimate the elevation of the bottom of a depression?
Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD...
The MK19 is most effectively employed as a…
How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?
Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by SF to record pertinent...
How deep will field wire be buried in loose or sandy soil?
What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor...
How many accessories does the GRC 238 come with?
Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus...
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