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  • 1. 
    What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC?
    • A. 

      Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM.

    • B. 

      Maintenance and Supply Training, Military Police, Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM

    • C. 

      Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM

    • D. 

      Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and Maintenance and Supply Training.

  • 2. 
    Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves.  What subject action level is it?
    • A. 

      Verbal controls

    • B. 

      Neuromuscular controls

    • C. 

      Baton as a leverage device

    • D. 

      Military working dog (off leash)

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      A. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.

    • B. 

      B. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, switch hands on linking chain, and then switch your feet position.

    • C. 

      C. Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.

    • D. 

      D. Switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, and then switch your feet position.

  • 4. 
    SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?
    • A. 

      5-skill level (Journeyman)

    • B. 

      7-skill level (Craftsman)

    • C. 

      9-skill level (Superintendent)

    • D. 

      One is not required

  • 5. 
    Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
    • A. 

      A. Objective

    • B. 

      B. Re-entry

    • C. 

      C. Enroute

    • D. 

      D. Initial

  • 6. 
    The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully…
    • A. 

      Contains 90 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

    • B. 

      Contains 100 click; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

    • C. 

      Contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

    • D. 

      Contains 180 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

  • 7. 
    Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace?
    • A. 

      Air Force Battlespace

    • B. 

      Force Protection Battlespace

    • C. 

      IBD Battlespace

    • D. 

      Base Battlespace

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding.

    • B. 

      Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water.

    • C. 

      Seek medical attention.

    • D. 

      Report the incident to your supervisor.

  • 9. 
    As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.”  This is an example of?
    • A. 

      Real evidence

    • B. 

      Direct evidence

    • C. 

      Testimonial evidence

    • D. 

      Documentary evidence

  • 10. 
    What does the term OCOKA stand for?
    • A. 

      Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

    • B. 

      Observation of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key avenues of approach.

    • C. 

      Observation/fields of fire, cover obstacles, key terrain avenues and approach.

    • D. 

      Observe cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

  • 11. 
    What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?
    • A. 

      Be noisy and stay in every ones business.

    • B. 

      Talk to experienced SF members.

    • C. 

      Get stressed out.

    • D. 

      Let it come to you.

  • 12. 
    What piece of equipment do you use if you need to fire into your secondary sector?
    • A. 

      A bipod

    • B. 

      A tripod

    • C. 

      The buddy system

    • D. 

      Your gear

  • 13. 
    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?
    • A. 

      A. Armored vehicles in support of base defense.

    • B. 

      B. Additional security personnel.

    • C. 

      C. Less military working dogs.

    • D. 

      D. Revised security thinking.

  • 14. 
    Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?
    • A. 

      Non-nuclear alert forces

    • B. 

      C4 systems of active nuclear missions

    • C. 

      Selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment

    • D. 

      Fuels and Liquid Oxygen storage areas

  • 15. 
    When was the first trial issue shield approved?
    • A. 

      1943

    • B. 

      1945

    • C. 

      1950

    • D. 

      1957

  • 16. 
    During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?
    • A. 

      Department of Justice

    • B. 

      Department of State

    • C. 

      Department of Terrorist

    • D. 

      Department of Concept

  • 17. 
    How do MWDs impact crime?
    • A. 

      They are a deterrent to crime

    • B. 

      They are very smart

    • C. 

      They catch every single bad guy

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 18. 
    How many basic fundamentals of defense are there?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 20. 
    Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct only

    • B. 

      SF General Orders only

    • C. 

      Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

    • D. 

      Performance Fitness Examination

  • 21. 
    Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC…
    • A. 

      Security

    • B. 

      Warfare

    • C. 

      Analysis

    • D. 

      Intelligence

  • 22. 
    Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time?
    • A. 

      Two-person SRT (DOD UCNI)

    • B. 

      Three-person SRT (DOD UCNI)

    • C. 

      Mobile Fore Teams (MFT) (DOD UCNI)

    • D. 

      Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DOD UCNI)

  • 23. 
    How many range cards are prepared for each position?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 24. 
    How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      600

    • B. 

      800

    • C. 

      1,100

    • D. 

      1,800

  • 25. 
    Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields?
    • A. 

      Knowledge of the enemy

    • B. 

      Unity of command

    • C. 

      Economy of Force

    • D. 

      Responsiveness

  • 26. 
    On what does a patrol leader base the tentative patrol plan?
    • A. 

      Good terrain analysis

    • B. 

      Bad terrain analysis

    • C. 

      The floating dial on the compass

    • D. 

      The weather

  • 27. 
    What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?
    • A. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a heavyweight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M-9 pistol with the RAS.

    • B. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, non breech-loaded, double pump action (sliding barrel), hip-fired weapon that is attached to the M-249 machine gun with the RAS.

    • C. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.

    • D. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a heavy weight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M240B machine gun with the RAS.

  • 28. 
    What should a flight sector sketch show?
    • A. 

      Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them.

    • B. 

      Flight and squadron identification.

    • C. 

      Squad leader positions.

    • D. 

      True south.

  • 29. 
    The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground?
    • A. 

      Ground level

    • B. 

      1 inch

    • C. 

      2 inch

    • D. 

      3 inch

  • 30. 
    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      800

    • C. 

      1,100

    • D. 

      1,800

  • 31. 
    The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?
    • A. 

      Principles of War

    • B. 

      Rules of Engagement

    • C. 

      Integrated Base Defense

    • D. 

      Defense Force Doctrine

  • 32. 
    What map reference do you use to determine distances?
    • A. 

      Declination

    • B. 

      Bar scale

    • C. 

      Grid North

    • D. 

      Base line

  • 33. 
    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 34. 
    If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder (M72 LAW)?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 35. 
    What are the standard whistle signals?
    • A. 

      Two short blast for STOP, one long blast for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.

    • B. 

      Two short blast for ATTENTION, One long blast for STOP, and several short blasts for GO.

    • C. 

      One long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.

    • D. 

      Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.

  • 36. 
    What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
    • A. 

      A zero tolerance approach to handling crime.

    • B. 

      The police getting involved with local youth programs.

    • C. 

      The police handling random calls to solve community problems.

    • D. 

      Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.

  • 37. 
    If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?
    • A. 

      5 minutes after removing the goggles.

    • B. 

      4 minutes after removing the goggles.

    • C. 

      3 minutes after removing the goggles.

    • D. 

      2 minutes after removing the goggles.

  • 38. 
    US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?
    • A. 

      Federal statutes

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Article 2/UCMJ

    • D. 

      Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)

  • 39. 
    Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?
    • A. 

      Normally found in the lower right margin.

    • B. 

      Always found in the upper right margin.

    • C. 

      Sometimes found in the middle of the map.

    • D. 

      Normally found in the back of the map.

  • 40. 
    What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?
    • A. 

      The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.

    • B. 

      The M240B is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • C. 

      The M240B is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.

    • D. 

      The M240B is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

  • 41. 
    When was the current SF shield adopted?
    • A. 

      1965

    • B. 

      1966

    • C. 

      1970

    • D. 

      1982

  • 42. 
    What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?
    • A. 

      Alco-sensor

    • B. 

      Breathalyzer

    • C. 

      Urine Tests

    • D. 

      Blood Tests

  • 43. 
    How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?
    • A. 

      A. Reduce the enemy’s mobility only.

    • B. 

      B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.

    • C. 

      C. Direct the enemy formations for counterattack.

    • D. 

      D. Channel forces for reengagement at later time.

  • 44. 
    What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?
    • A. 

      You must be a SrA with college background

    • B. 

      Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.

    • C. 

      Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 24 months of total active federal military services.

    • D. 

      You must have 5 on all your EPRs, and selected by the commander.

  • 45. 
    Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?
    • A. 

      SW385 Monostatic Microwave Sensor

    • B. 

      SW310 Bistatic Microwave Sensor

    • C. 

      ECSI Active Infrared Sensor

    • D. 

      Optex LX-2AU

  • 46. 
    What is the most common round used in the M870?
    • A. 

      15 gauge, “05” buck shot

    • B. 

      10 gauge, “02” buck shot

    • C. 

      12 gauge, “01” buck shot

    • D. 

      12 gauge, “00” buck shot

  • 47. 
    An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within how many meters of a point on a map?
    • A. 

      4 meters

    • B. 

      8 meters

    • C. 

      10 meters

    • D. 

      13 meters

  • 48. 
    Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…
    • A. 

      When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • B. 

      During government elections.

    • C. 

      When declared by state governors.

    • D. 

      In time of emergency.

  • 49. 
    How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?
    • A. 

      Every 5 minutes

    • B. 

      Every 10 minutes

    • C. 

      Every 15 minutes

    • D. 

      Every 20 minutes

  • 50. 
    What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?
    • A. 

      Move your vehicle in front of the violator’s and tell the violator to follow you.

    • B. 

      Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.

    • C. 

      Signal the violator with you emergency lights and siren to move.

    • D. 

      Signal the driver using your hand and arm signals to follow you.

  • 51. 
    Name the two sighting systems employed by the M18A1?
    • A. 

      Scraping-type edge sight and knife-edge sight.

    • B. 

      Knifing-peep edge and Slit-edge sight.

    • C. 

      Electrical-type edge sight and Controlled-edge sight.

    • D. 

      Slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight.

  • 52. 
    Describe the MK19?
    • A. 

      Is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon, with five major assemblies. It uses ammunition that is belt-fed through the left side of the weapon by a disintegrating metallic link belt. The weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing. It has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

    • B. 

      Is a light weight, air-cooled gas operated weapon, with 2 major parts. It uses ammunition that is magazine fed through the right side of the weapon by a metallic magazine. The features a barrel that overheats, every 200 rounds, even after prolonged firing.

    • C. 

      Is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

    • D. 

      Is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge.

  • 53. 
    When contacting the violator during a traffic stop,  an exigent circumstance would be speeding to?
    • A. 

      Get your mother to work.

    • B. 

      Get your daughter to school.

    • C. 

      Get your pregnant wife to the hospital.

    • D. 

      See if your new car will actually do 100 mph.

  • 54. 
    What is the maximum range of the M2?
    • A. 

      5,764 meters

    • B. 

      6,764 meters

    • C. 

      3,764 yards

    • D. 

      6,764 yards

  • 55. 
    During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to…
    • A. 

      Detain civilians.

    • B. 

      Apprehend all offenders.

    • C. 

      Apprehend military personnel.

    • D. 

      Detain and prosecute offenders.

  • 56. 
    Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?
    • A. 

      Article 1

    • B. 

      Article 5

    • C. 

      Article 7b

    • D. 

      Article 134

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 3555, AF Form 1190, and AF Form 1315.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 3545, AF Form 6811, and AF Form 112.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 3545, AF Form 1168, and AF Form 2970.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 3545, AF Form 1168, and AF Form 1315.

  • 58. 
    Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to?
    • A. 

      Act in an official law enforcement capacity off base.

    • B. 

      Apprehend civilians for on base offenses.

    • C. 

      Release military offenders to supervisors.

    • D. 

      Detain civilians for on base offenses.

  • 59. 
    How many pages make up the AF Form 3545?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 60. 
    Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator’s vehicle during a traffic stop.
    • A. 

      Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left.

    • B. 

      Two vehicle lengths behind and two feet to the left.

    • C. 

      Three vehicle length behind and three feet to the left.

    • D. 

      Three vehicle length behind and two feet to the left.

  • 61. 
    What are the six basic questions that need to answered on an AF Form 1168?
    • A. 

      Who, what, when, where, why and how.

    • B. 

      The, There, Their, You, Him, and Her.

    • C. 

      Who, what, When, where, why and Time.

    • D. 

      Time, Place, What, Where, why, and How.

  • 62. 
    Why do we use demist shield on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      Prevent lens scratches

    • B. 

      Prevent foggy lenses

    • C. 

      Prevent water lenses

    • D. 

      Shield against sand

  • 63. 
    How many sections is the form divided into? (AF Form 3545)
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 64. 
    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?
    • A. 

      Battery compartment

    • B. 

      Glass objective lens

    • C. 

      Rubber eye cups

    • D. 

      Sight lens

  • 65. 
    The MK19 is most effectively employed as a…
    • A. 

      Static fire platform covering a specific zone.

    • B. 

      Mounted fire platform covering a specific area.

    • C. 

      Mobile suppressive fore platform covering a specific zone.

    • D. 

      Unmounted suppressive fire platform covering a specific area.

  • 66. 
    The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?
    • A. 

      Unarmored

    • B. 

      Lightly armored

    • C. 

      Main battle tanks

    • D. 

      Armored personnel carriers

  • 67. 
    One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is?
    • A. 

      Only an original monitor can be used with the system.

    • B. 

      Any monitor can be used in conjunction with the system.

    • C. 

      Images not produced by the surveillance sight can be recorded.

    • D. 

      The video output is factory preset to NTSC/EIA (60 MHz) standards.

  • 68. 
    The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?
    • A. 

      Point and area targets

    • B. 

      Mounted targets

    • C. 

      Fixed targets

    • D. 

      Static targets

  • 69. 
    The M2 is a very effective, versatile weapon that is…
    • A. 

      Air cooled and blowback operated.

    • B. 

      Belt fed, recoil operated, and air cooled.

    • C. 

      Magazine fed, air cooled, and recoil operated.

    • D. 

      Recoiled operated, air cooled, and blowback operated.

  • 70. 
    How do you estimate the elevation of the bottom of a depression?
    • A. 

      Add one-half the contour interval.

    • B. 

      Subtract one-half the contour interval.

    • C. 

      Divide one-half the contour interval.

    • D. 

      Multiply one-half the contour interval.

  • 71. 
    What term defines a six-digit grid coordinate?
    • A. 

      Base line

    • B. 

      Grid azimuths

    • C. 

      Back azimuths

    • D. 

      Refined coordinate

  • 72. 
    As a POW what information are you required to give when questioned?
    • A. 

      Anything that will keep you alive.

    • B. 

      Your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.

    • C. 

      Your name and date of birth only.

    • D. 

      No information is allowed to be given when questioned.

  • 73. 
    What general conduct guideline would you violate if you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty?
    • A. 

      Attention to duty

    • B. 

      Personal Appearance

    • C. 

      Off-Duty Conduct

    • D. 

      Dealing with Intoxicated Persons

  • 74. 
    What is the primary navigation tool used by Security Forces?
    • A. 

      The floating dial

    • B. 

      The map

    • C. 

      The lensatic compass

    • D. 

      Bar Scale

  • 75. 
    SF squadrons are organized based on what?
    • A. 

      Chief of Security Forces

    • B. 

      Defense Force Commander

    • C. 

      Mission requirements

    • D. 

      Force Protection

  • 76. 
    What Command Section position is manned by the senior SF enlisted leader?
    • A. 

      Chief, Security Forces/Commander (CSF/CC)

    • B. 

      Security Forces Manager (SFM)

    • C. 

      Standardization and Evaluation Section (SFMQ)

    • D. 

      First Sergeant (CCF)

  • 77. 
    Where should the Claymore firing position be located?
    • A. 

      BDOC and open position

    • B. 

      Foxhole or covered position

    • C. 

      Command center

    • D. 

      Control center

  • 78. 
    What is a hot loop?
    • A. 

      Special line designated for emergencies only.

    • B. 

      Special line established for the command post.

    • C. 

      Continuous line of field wire laid out on the perimeter.

    • D. 

      Continuous line connected to every phone and switchboard.

  • 79. 
    What is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection?
    • A. 

      The lens

    • B. 

      The body of the compass

    • C. 

      The cover

    • D. 

      The floating dial

  • 80. 
    How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      2 to 4 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

    • B. 

      4 to 6 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

    • C. 

      6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

    • D. 

      8 to 10 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

  • 82. 
    The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor are?
    • A. 

      An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.

    • B. 

      A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.

    • C. 

      A transformer head, infrared sensor head, and transmitter.

    • D. 

      An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.

  • 83. 
    Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by SF to record pertinent information?
    • A. 

      A. The White copy

    • B. 

      B. The Black copy

    • C. 

      C. The Pink copy

    • D. 

      D. The Yellow copy

  • 84. 
    How deep will field wire be buried in loose or sandy soil?
    • A. 

      1 feet deep

    • B. 

      2 feet deep

    • C. 

      3 feet deep

    • D. 

      4 feet deep

  • 85. 
    What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor provide?
    • A. 

      All around protection on key terrain.

    • B. 

      Radiation protection around resources.

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic protection on the perimeter.

    • D. 

      Three dimensional protection in outdoor environments.

  • 86. 
    Microwave sensors are relatively sensitive to?
    • A. 

      Rain, snow, vibration, and small wind-blown objects.

    • B. 

      Vibrations of heavy equipment.

    • C. 

      Bright sunlight or dense fog.

    • D. 

      Rodents and other animals.

  • 87. 
    Which copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator?
    • A. 

      The White Copy

    • B. 

      The Black Copy

    • C. 

      The Pink Copy

    • D. 

      The Yellow Copy

  • 88. 
    Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts?
    • A. 

      So military personnel are certified by the state.

    • B. 

      To ensure that you understand how the local and state law enforcement police operate.

    • C. 

      To boost morale and get rid of outdated and antiquated hand-held speed measuring devices.

    • D. 

      So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders.

  • 89. 
    Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?
    • A. 

      Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.

    • B. 

      Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite.

    • C. 

      Place the military working dog on a long leash.

    • D. 

      Have the dog bark three times.

  • 90. 
    Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?
    • A. 

      Intoxilyzer

    • B. 

      Alco-sensor

    • C. 

      Breathalyzer

    • D. 

      Breathometer

  • 91. 
    How do we clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces?
    • A. 

      Vinegar or water solution

    • B. 

      Light oil lubrication

    • C. 

      Soap and warm water

    • D. 

      Lint free cloth

  • 92. 
    What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      Facemask centered on forehead

    • B. 

      Hand-held and level

    • C. 

      Shoulder level

    • D. 

      Infrared mode

  • 93. 
    When programming frequencies which option do you use to select the receiver transmitter channel?
    • A. 

      A. The Menu Button

    • B. 

      B. The Radio Channel option

    • C. 

      C. The Program channel option

    • D. 

      D. None of the above

  • 94. 
    How many accessories does the GRC 238 come with?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      27

  • 95. 
    The GRC 238 what radio part is critical to its operation?
    • A. 

      The Antenna

    • B. 

      Palm Handset

    • C. 

      Pit Switch

    • D. 

      Battery Latch

  • 96. 
    Define a Hostile Force.
    • A. 

      The imminent threat of force against US forces (and others as designated), including threat to use force to preclude or impeded the missing and/ or duties of US forces.

    • B. 

      An attack or other use of force against the US and US forces (and others as designated), including force used directly to preclude or impede the mission and/ or duties of US Forces.

    • C. 

      Any civilian, paramilitary, or military force, or terrorist(s) with or without national designation, that has committed hostile acts, exhibited hostile intent, or has been declared hostile by appropriate authorities.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 97. 
    How many copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 98. 
    A written order issued by a competent authority is called a?
    • A. 

      Power to authorize

    • B. 

      Search and seizure

    • C. 

      Competent Written Order

    • D. 

      Search Authorization

  • 99. 
    The surface that supports the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) display Control Unit must be able to handle?
    • A. 

      50 pounds

    • B. 

      100 pounds

    • C. 

      200 pounds

    • D. 

      300 pounds

  • 100. 
    “Probable Cause” searches are covered under what legal manual?
    • A. 

      MCM Rule 315

    • B. 

      MCC Rule 315

    • C. 

      MNM Rule 312

    • D. 

      MRE Rule 314