US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! Trivia Questions Quiz

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves.  What subject action level is it?

    • Verbal controls
    • Neuromuscular controls
    • Baton as a leverage device
    • Military working dog (off leash)
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About This Quiz

US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! When it comes to the defense forces, everyone appointed has a specific role they need to play, and there are set rules on how they meet their roles. By taking this quiz, you will get to test how much you know about the responsibilities of those in the air force. Do give it a try!

US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When contacting the violator during a traffic stop,  an exigent circumstance would be speeding to?

    • Get your mother to work.

    • Get your daughter to school.

    • Get your pregnant wife to the hospital.

    • See if your new car will actually do 100 mph.

    Correct Answer
    A. Get your pregnant wife to the hospital.
    Explanation
    During a traffic stop, an exigent circumstance refers to an urgent situation that requires immediate action. In this scenario, getting the pregnant wife to the hospital would be considered an exigent circumstance because it involves the well-being and safety of both the mother and the unborn child. It is crucial to prioritize their health and ensure they receive timely medical assistance. The other options, such as getting the mother to work, the daughter to school, or testing the new car's speed, do not involve the same level of urgency or potential risk to life.

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  • 3. 

    Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?

    • Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.

    • Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite.

    • Place the military working dog on a long leash.

    • Have the dog bark three times.

    Correct Answer
    A. Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.
    Explanation
    Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for the safety of any individuals present in the building and to avoid any unnecessary harm. The verbal warning serves as a precautionary measure to alert others of the dog's presence and potential actions. It allows people to take appropriate actions to protect themselves and prevents any misunderstandings or accidental confrontations.

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  • 4. 

    SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?

    • 5-skill level (Journeyman)

    • 7-skill level (Craftsman)

    • 9-skill level (Superintendent)

    • One is not required

    Correct Answer
    A. 5-skill level (Journeyman)
    Explanation
    Prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course, SF members must possess a 5-skill level (Journeyman) skill level. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of proficiency and experience in their field. The 5-skill level is likely necessary to ensure that SF members have a solid foundation of knowledge and skills before they begin training as MWD handlers.

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  • 5. 

    As a POW what information are you required to give when questioned?

    • Anything that will keep you alive.

    • Your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.

    • Your name and date of birth only.

    • No information is allowed to be given when questioned.

    Correct Answer
    A. Your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.
    Explanation
    As a POW, you are required to give your name, rank, service number, and date of birth when questioned. This information is essential for identification purposes and is generally considered non-sensitive. Providing this information helps maintain proper records and facilitates communication between the captors and the prisoner's home country.

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  • 6. 

    What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?

    • Be noisy and stay in every ones business.

    • Talk to experienced SF members.

    • Get stressed out.

    • Let it come to you.

    Correct Answer
    A. Talk to experienced SF members.
    Explanation
    Talking to experienced SF (Special Forces) members can be a way to identify stressors on the job. As SF members have more experience and knowledge, they can provide insights into the various stressors that may arise in their line of work. By engaging in conversations with them, one can gain valuable information about the potential stressors and how to manage them effectively. This approach allows individuals to learn from the experiences of others and develop strategies to cope with stressors in their own job.

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  • 7. 

    Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

    • Code of Conduct only

    • SF General Orders only

    • Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

    • Performance Fitness Examination

    Correct Answer
    A. Code of Conduct and SF General Orders
    Explanation
    The Code of Conduct and SF General Orders are both forms of guidance that ensure mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct outlines the ethical and moral obligations for members of the military, emphasizing principles such as loyalty, duty, and integrity. SF General Orders, on the other hand, provide specific instructions and regulations for security forces personnel to follow in order to maintain discipline and ensure the safety and security of military installations. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can contribute to the successful completion of missions.

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  • 8. 

    How do MWDs impact crime?

    • They are a deterrent to crime

    • They are very smart

    • They catch every single bad guy

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. They are a deterrent to crime
    Explanation
    MWDs, or Military Working Dogs, are a deterrent to crime. These highly trained dogs possess exceptional senses and skills that make them valuable assets in law enforcement and military operations. Their presence alone can discourage criminals from committing crimes, as they act as a visible and formidable force. Additionally, their ability to detect explosives, drugs, and track down suspects enhances the effectiveness of law enforcement efforts, making them a significant deterrent to criminal activities.

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  • 9. 

    What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a heavyweight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M-9 pistol with the RAS.

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, non breech-loaded, double pump action (sliding barrel), hip-fired weapon that is attached to the M-249 machine gun with the RAS.

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a heavy weight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M240B machine gun with the RAS.

    Correct Answer
    A. The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.
    Explanation
    The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS. This means that it is designed to be easily carried and operated by an individual soldier. It can fire one grenade at a time and is loaded by opening the breech. The pump action allows for quick and efficient reloading. It is specifically designed to be attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series, enhancing the firepower and versatility of these rifles.

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  • 10. 

    The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?

    • Principles of War

    • Rules of Engagement

    • Integrated Base Defense

    • Defense Force Doctrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Base Defense
    Explanation
    The concept of "every airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is known as Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual within the base, regardless of their role, has a responsibility to be aware of their surroundings and report any suspicious activities or threats. It promotes a collective effort in ensuring the security and defense of the base, making it more resilient against potential attacks.

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  • 11. 

    How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?

    • A. Reduce the enemy’s mobility only.

    • B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.

    • C. Direct the enemy formations for counterattack.

    • D. Channel forces for reengagement at later time.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.
    Explanation
    The Claymore is employed as part of the base defense obstacle plan to stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks. This means that it is used to hinder the progress of the enemy, preventing them from advancing quickly and forcing them to slow down or change their tactics. By doing so, the Claymore helps to buy time for the defending forces to react and respond to the enemy's assault, increasing the chances of successfully repelling the attack and defending the base.

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  • 12. 

    How many range cards are prepared for each position?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    Each position requires two range cards.

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  • 13. 

    Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?

    • Non-nuclear alert forces

    • C4 systems of active nuclear missions

    • Selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment

    • Fuels and Liquid Oxygen storage areas

    Correct Answer
    A. C4 systems of active nuclear missions
    Explanation
    C4 systems of active nuclear missions are an example of a protection level 1 resource. This means that these systems are of the highest priority and require the most stringent security measures to protect them. These systems are directly involved in active nuclear missions, which are critical to national security. Therefore, they are classified as protection level 1 resources to ensure their integrity and prevent unauthorized access or tampering.

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  • 14. 

    How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

    • 600

    • 800

    • 1,100

    • 1,800

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,800
    Explanation
    The maximum range for the M9 pistol is 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately hitting a target up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range is quite impressive for a pistol and indicates the weapon's effectiveness in engaging targets at long distances.

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  • 15. 

    What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?

    • The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.

    • The M240B is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • The M240B is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.

    • The M240B is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

    Correct Answer
    A. The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.
    Explanation
    The given answer accurately describes the characteristics of the M240B machine gun. It highlights that the M240B is a general-purpose machine gun that can be mounted on various platforms such as bipods, tripods, aircraft, or vehicles. It further specifies that the M240B is belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, and fully automatic, firing from the open bolt position. This information provides a comprehensive understanding of the key features and capabilities of the M240B machine gun.

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  • 16. 

    What is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection?

    • The lens

    • The body of the compass

    • The cover

    • The floating dial

    Correct Answer
    A. The floating dial
    Explanation
    The floating dial is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection because it indicates the direction accurately. It is designed to move freely and align with the Earth's magnetic field, allowing the user to determine their heading. If the floating dial is not functioning properly or is misaligned, the compass will not provide accurate directions, making it unreliable for navigation. Therefore, ensuring that the floating dial is in good condition and properly calibrated is crucial for the compass to function correctly.

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  • 17. 

    When was the first trial issue shield approved?

    • 1943

    • 1945

    • 1950

    • 1957

    Correct Answer
    A. 1957
  • 18. 

    What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

    • A zero tolerance approach to handling crime.

    • The police getting involved with local youth programs.

    • The police handling random calls to solve community problems.

    • Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.
    Explanation
    Developing community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. This approach promotes collaboration and trust between the police and the community, leading to more effective problem-solving and crime prevention strategies. By involving the community in decision-making processes, the police can better understand the specific needs and concerns of the neighborhood, and tailor their efforts accordingly. This philosophy encourages community members to take ownership of their own safety and well-being, fostering a sense of empowerment and unity within the neighborhood.

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  • 19. 

    What is the most common round used in the M870?

    • 15 gauge, “05” buck shot

    • 10 gauge, “02” buck shot

    • 12 gauge, “01” buck shot

    • 12 gauge, “00” buck shot

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 gauge, “00” buck shot
    Explanation
    The most common round used in the M870 is the 12 gauge, "00" buck shot. The gauge refers to the diameter of the shotgun barrel, and 12 gauge is a common size for shotguns. The "00" buck shot refers to the size of the pellets in the shotgun shell, with "00" being larger and therefore more effective for close-range shooting.

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  • 20. 

    Where should the Claymore firing position be located?

    • BDOC and open position

    • Foxhole or covered position

    • Command center

    • Control center

    Correct Answer
    A. Foxhole or covered position
    Explanation
    The Claymore firing position should be located in a foxhole or covered position. This is because a foxhole or covered position provides protection and concealment for the Claymore operator, allowing them to remain hidden from the enemy while effectively engaging targets. Being in a foxhole or covered position also minimizes the risk of the Claymore operator being detected or targeted by the enemy.

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  • 21. 

    As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.”  This is an example of?

    • Real evidence

    • Direct evidence

    • Testimonial evidence

    • Documentary evidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Testimonial evidence
    Explanation
    Testimonial evidence refers to evidence that is presented orally by a witness, based on their personal knowledge or observations. In this scenario, the security forces member is testifying about what they personally saw, stating that they witnessed the car being driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road. This statement is based on the member's personal observation and is therefore considered testimonial evidence.

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  • 22. 

    Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…

    • When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • During government elections.

    • When declared by state governors.

    • In time of emergency.

    Correct Answer
    A. In time of emergency.
    Explanation
    Martial law is a form of military control that is imposed on the civilian population during times of emergency. During such situations, the government may deem it necessary to temporarily suspend normal laws and regulations to maintain order and security. This could occur in the event of natural disasters, widespread civil unrest, or threats to national security. The declaration of martial law is typically made by the highest authority in the country, such as the president or state governors, depending on the level of government involved.

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  • 23. 

    Describe the MK19?

    • Is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon, with five major assemblies. It uses ammunition that is belt-fed through the left side of the weapon by a disintegrating metallic link belt. The weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing. It has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

    • Is a light weight, air-cooled gas operated weapon, with 2 major parts. It uses ammunition that is magazine fed through the right side of the weapon by a metallic magazine. The features a barrel that overheats, every 200 rounds, even after prolonged firing.

    • Is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

    • Is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon, with five major assemblies. It uses ammunition that is belt-fed through the left side of the weapon by a disintegrating metallic link belt. The weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing. It has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.
    Explanation
    The MK19 is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon with five major assemblies. It is designed to be belt-fed with ammunition that is loaded through the left side of the weapon using a disintegrating metallic link belt. One notable feature of the MK19 is its barrel, which is designed to not overheat even after prolonged firing. Additionally, it has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

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  • 24. 

    Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts?

    • So military personnel are certified by the state.

    • To ensure that you understand how the local and state law enforcement police operate.

    • To boost morale and get rid of outdated and antiquated hand-held speed measuring devices.

    • So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders.

    Correct Answer
    A. So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders.
    Explanation
    By purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by civilian counterparts, the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) can ensure that their qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders. This means that the CSF personnel will have the necessary training and expertise to effectively handle the equipment, ensuring accurate and admissible evidence in legal proceedings. This also promotes collaboration and coordination between military and civilian law enforcement agencies, enhancing overall security and law enforcement efforts.

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  • 25. 

    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?

    • A. Armored vehicles in support of base defense.

    • B. Additional security personnel.

    • C. Less military working dogs.

    • D. Revised security thinking.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Revised security thinking.
    Explanation
    During the Vietnam Conflict, the traditional approach to security was challenged as the guerrilla warfare tactics used by the Viet Cong were difficult to combat using conventional military strategies. This led to a reevaluation of security thinking, as it became clear that new and innovative approaches were needed to effectively address the challenges posed by unconventional warfare. Therefore, the Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for revised security thinking.

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  • 26. 

    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5. The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or seriously injured. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat and can cause significant damage within their kill radius. It is important for soldiers and individuals handling hand grenades to be aware of this kill radius and take appropriate precautions to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

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  • 27. 

    What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?

    • Alco-sensor

    • Breathalyzer

    • Urine Tests

    • Blood Tests

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood Tests
    Explanation
    Blood tests are considered the most accurate of all chemical tests because they directly measure the presence and concentration of various substances in the blood, such as drugs, alcohol, or other chemicals. Unlike urine tests or breathalyzers, which can be influenced by various factors like hydration levels or recent consumption, blood tests provide a more precise and reliable analysis. Additionally, blood tests can detect substances that may have been metabolized or broken down in the body, providing a more comprehensive understanding of a person's chemical makeup.

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  • 28. 

    What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?

    • Move your vehicle in front of the violator’s and tell the violator to follow you.

    • Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.

    • Signal the violator with you emergency lights and siren to move.

    • Signal the driver using your hand and arm signals to follow you.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.
  • 29. 

    What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle?

    • Facemask centered on forehead

    • Hand-held and level

    • Shoulder level

    • Infrared mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Facemask centered on forehead
    Explanation
    The most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle is by wearing the facemask centered on the forehead. This positioning allows for optimal use and comfort, as the goggle is securely attached to the head and provides a clear view of the surroundings in low-light or dark conditions.

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  • 30. 

    What are the six basic questions that need to answered on an AF Form 1168?

    • Who, what, when, where, why and how.

    • The, There, Their, You, Him, and Her.

    • Who, what, When, where, why and Time.

    • Time, Place, What, Where, why, and How.

    Correct Answer
    A. Who, what, when, where, why and how.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Who, what, when, where, why and how." These six basic questions are commonly used to gather information and provide a comprehensive understanding of a situation or event. By answering these questions, one can determine the individuals involved (who), the specific details or actions (what), the time frame (when), the location (where), the reasons or motives (why), and the methods or processes (how). These questions help in analyzing and documenting incidents, investigations, or any other situation that requires thorough information gathering.

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  • 31. 

    SF squadrons are organized based on what?

    • Chief of Security Forces

    • Defense Force Commander

    • Mission requirements

    • Force Protection

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission requirements
    Explanation
    SF squadrons are organized based on mission requirements. This means that the structure and composition of the squadrons are determined by the specific tasks and objectives they need to fulfill. By organizing the squadrons according to mission requirements, they can be effectively deployed and utilized in various operational scenarios. This ensures that the squadrons are equipped with the necessary personnel, resources, and capabilities to successfully carry out their assigned missions.

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  • 32. 

    Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?

    • Intoxilyzer

    • Alco-sensor

    • Breathalyzer

    • Breathometer

    Correct Answer
    A. Breathalyzer
    Explanation
    A breathalyzer is a breath instrument that uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content. It works by measuring the amount of alcohol in a person's breath sample, which is then used to estimate their blood alcohol concentration. This device is commonly used by law enforcement officers to determine if a person is driving under the influence of alcohol. The other options, Intoxilyzer, Alco-sensor, and Breathometer, are not specifically known for using chemicals to test blood alcohol content.

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  • 33. 

    The GRC 238 what radio part is critical to its operation?

    • The Antenna

    • Palm Handset

    • Pit Switch

    • Battery Latch

    Correct Answer
    A. The Antenna
    Explanation
    The GRC 238 is a radio device, and the antenna is a crucial component for its operation. The antenna is responsible for transmitting and receiving radio signals, allowing the device to communicate effectively. Without a functioning antenna, the radio would not be able to send or receive signals, rendering it useless. Therefore, the antenna is critical to the operation of the GRC 238 radio.

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  • 34. 

    “Probable Cause” searches are covered under what legal manual?

    • MCM Rule 315

    • MCC Rule 315

    • MNM Rule 312

    • MRE Rule 314

    Correct Answer
    A. MCM Rule 315
    Explanation
    MCM Rule 315 is the correct answer because it is the Manual for Courts-Martial, which is a legal manual that provides guidance for military courts. "Probable Cause" searches are likely referring to searches conducted by law enforcement officers based on a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed. The MCM Rule 315 would outline the procedures and requirements for conducting such searches within the military justice system.

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  • 35. 

    The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?

    • Unarmored

    • Lightly armored

    • Main battle tanks

    • Armored personnel carriers

    Correct Answer
    A. Main battle tanks
    Explanation
    The MK19 has little effect on main battle tanks because it is not designed to penetrate heavily armored vehicles. The MK19 is a 40mm automatic grenade launcher that is primarily used against unarmored or lightly armored targets. It is highly effective against personnel, light vehicles, and structures, but lacks the firepower to effectively engage main battle tanks.

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  • 36. 

    During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?

    • Department of Justice

    • Department of State

    • Department of Terrorist

    • Department of Concept

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This department is responsible for handling foreign affairs and diplomatic relations, making it the appropriate agency to handle incidents that occur outside of the country's borders. The Department of Justice, on the other hand, primarily deals with domestic law enforcement and legal matters within the US. The Department of Terrorist and Department of Concept are not actual government departments and do not exist.

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  • 37. 

    US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?

    • Federal statutes

    • US Constitution

    • Article 2/UCMJ

    • Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA). SOFAs are agreements between the US and host nations that define the legal status of US military personnel and their activities in the host nation's territory. These agreements outline the rights and responsibilities of both parties and govern the jurisdiction and control over US military personnel. They provide a framework for cooperation and ensure that US military authority is properly regulated and aligned with the laws and regulations of the host nation.

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  • 38. 

    An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within how many meters of a point on a map?

    • 4 meters

    • 8 meters

    • 10 meters

    • 13 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 meters
    Explanation
    An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within 10 meters of a point on a map. This means that if you have the precise 8-digit grid coordinate, you can locate a point on the map with an accuracy of 10 meters.

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  • 39. 

    What general conduct guideline would you violate if you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty?

    • Attention to duty

    • Personal Appearance

    • Off-Duty Conduct

    • Dealing with Intoxicated Persons

    Correct Answer
    A. Attention to duty
    Explanation
    Consuming alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty would violate the general conduct guideline of "Attention to duty." This is because alcohol consumption can impair cognitive and physical abilities, affecting one's ability to perform tasks and responsibilities effectively and safely. It is important to be fully alert and focused while on duty to ensure the highest level of performance and to prioritize the safety of oneself and others.

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  • 40. 

    How many copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Two copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared.

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  • 41. 

    A written order issued by a competent authority is called a?

    • Power to authorize

    • Search and seizure

    • Competent Written Order

    • Search Authorization

    Correct Answer
    A. Search Authorization
    Explanation
    A written order issued by a competent authority is called a search authorization. This document grants the power to authorize a search and seizure. It provides legal permission for law enforcement officials to conduct a search of a specified location or individual, based on probable cause or reasonable suspicion of criminal activity. The search authorization ensures that the search is conducted lawfully and protects individuals' rights against unreasonable searches and seizures.

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  • 42. 

    Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?

    • Normally found in the lower right margin.

    • Always found in the upper right margin.

    • Sometimes found in the middle of the map.

    • Normally found in the back of the map.

    Correct Answer
    A. Normally found in the lower right margin.
    Explanation
    The elevation guide on a map is typically located in the lower right margin. This is a common convention followed by cartographers to provide information about the elevation levels of different areas on the map. It helps users understand the topography of the area and identify any changes in altitude. By placing the elevation guide in the lower right margin, it is easily accessible and does not obstruct other important information on the map.

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  • 43. 

    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?

    • Battery compartment

    • Glass objective lens

    • Rubber eye cups

    • Sight lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Glass objective lens
    Explanation
    The sacrificial window in the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle protects the glass objective lens. The glass objective lens is a critical component of the goggle that allows light to enter and be amplified for night vision. The sacrificial window acts as a protective layer, shielding the glass lens from potential damage or scratches. By protecting the glass objective lens, the sacrificial window ensures the overall functionality and effectiveness of the night vision goggle.

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  • 44. 

    What does the term OCOKA stand for?

    • Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

    • Observation of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key avenues of approach.

    • Observation/fields of fire, cover obstacles, key terrain avenues and approach.

    • Observe cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

    Correct Answer
    A. Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.
    Explanation
    OCOKA stands for Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach. This acronym is commonly used in military tactics and planning to assess and analyze the environment and potential threats in a given area. By considering these factors, military personnel can effectively plan and execute operations, ensuring the best use of available resources and minimizing risks.

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  • 45. 

    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?

    • 400

    • 800

    • 1,100

    • 1,800

    Correct Answer
    A. 800
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters.

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  • 46. 

    How do we clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces?

    • Vinegar or water solution

    • Light oil lubrication

    • Soap and warm water

    • Lint free cloth

    Correct Answer
    A. Lint free cloth
    Explanation
    To clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces, a lint-free cloth should be used. This type of cloth is ideal for cleaning delicate surfaces as it does not leave behind any fibers or lint that could potentially damage the equipment. Using a lint-free cloth ensures that the metal surfaces are thoroughly cleaned without causing any harm.

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  • 47. 

    What map reference do you use to determine distances?

    • Declination

    • Bar scale

    • Grid North

    • Base line

    Correct Answer
    A. Bar scale
    Explanation
    A bar scale is used to determine distances on a map. It is a graphic representation of a specific distance on the map compared to the actual distance on the ground. By using the bar scale, one can measure distances accurately by comparing the length of a line on the map to the corresponding length on the bar scale. This allows for precise calculations of distances between different points on the map.

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  • 48. 

    What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?

    • You must be a SrA with college background

    • Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.

    • Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 24 months of total active federal military services.

    • You must have 5 on all your EPRs, and selected by the commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.
    Explanation
    The requirements to attend Airman Leadership School are being an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services. This means that individuals must have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Senior Airman (SrA) and have completed 48 months of active federal military service. This requirement ensures that individuals attending the school have a certain level of experience and time in service before taking on leadership roles.

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  • 49. 

    Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?

    • Article 1

    • Article 5

    • Article 7b

    • Article 134

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 7b
    Explanation
    Article 7b of the UCMJ gives military personnel the authority to apprehend military offenders. This article specifically states that any person subject to the UCMJ may apprehend any person who is subject to trial by a court-martial and who has committed an offense punishable by confinement. This article empowers military personnel to take action and ensure that military offenders are brought to justice.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 06, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    18sfs_utm
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