US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! Trivia Questions Quiz

100 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! Trivia Questions Quiz

US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! When it comes to the defense forces, everyone appointed has a specific role they need to play, and there are set rules on how they meet their roles. By taking this quiz, you will get to test how much you know about the responsibilities of those in the air force. Do give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC?
    • A. 

      Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM.

    • B. 

      Maintenance and Supply Training, Military Police, Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM

    • C. 

      Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM

    • D. 

      Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and Maintenance and Supply Training.

  • 2. 
    Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves.  What subject action level is it?
    • A. 

      Verbal controls

    • B. 

      Neuromuscular controls

    • C. 

      Baton as a leverage device

    • D. 

      Military working dog (off leash)

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      A. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.

    • B. 

      B. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, switch hands on linking chain, and then switch your feet position.

    • C. 

      C. Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.

    • D. 

      D. Switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, and then switch your feet position.

  • 4. 
    SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?
    • A. 

      5-skill level (Journeyman)

    • B. 

      7-skill level (Craftsman)

    • C. 

      9-skill level (Superintendent)

    • D. 

      One is not required

  • 5. 
    Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
    • A. 

      A. Objective

    • B. 

      B. Re-entry

    • C. 

      C. Enroute

    • D. 

      D. Initial

  • 6. 
    The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully…
    • A. 

      Contains 90 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

    • B. 

      Contains 100 click; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

    • C. 

      Contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

    • D. 

      Contains 180 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.

  • 7. 
    Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace?
    • A. 

      Air Force Battlespace

    • B. 

      Force Protection Battlespace

    • C. 

      IBD Battlespace

    • D. 

      Base Battlespace

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding.

    • B. 

      Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water.

    • C. 

      Seek medical attention.

    • D. 

      Report the incident to your supervisor.

  • 9. 
    As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.”  This is an example of?
    • A. 

      Real evidence

    • B. 

      Direct evidence

    • C. 

      Testimonial evidence

    • D. 

      Documentary evidence

  • 10. 
    What does the term OCOKA stand for?
    • A. 

      Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

    • B. 

      Observation of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key avenues of approach.

    • C. 

      Observation/fields of fire, cover obstacles, key terrain avenues and approach.

    • D. 

      Observe cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

  • 11. 
    What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?
    • A. 

      Be noisy and stay in every ones business.

    • B. 

      Talk to experienced SF members.

    • C. 

      Get stressed out.

    • D. 

      Let it come to you.

  • 12. 
    What piece of equipment do you use if you need to fire into your secondary sector?
    • A. 

      A bipod

    • B. 

      A tripod

    • C. 

      The buddy system

    • D. 

      Your gear

  • 13. 
    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?
    • A. 

      A. Armored vehicles in support of base defense.

    • B. 

      B. Additional security personnel.

    • C. 

      C. Less military working dogs.

    • D. 

      D. Revised security thinking.

  • 14. 
    Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?
    • A. 

      Non-nuclear alert forces

    • B. 

      C4 systems of active nuclear missions

    • C. 

      Selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment

    • D. 

      Fuels and Liquid Oxygen storage areas

  • 15. 
    When was the first trial issue shield approved?
    • A. 

      1943

    • B. 

      1945

    • C. 

      1950

    • D. 

      1957

  • 16. 
    During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?
    • A. 

      Department of Justice

    • B. 

      Department of State

    • C. 

      Department of Terrorist

    • D. 

      Department of Concept

  • 17. 
    How do MWDs impact crime?
    • A. 

      They are a deterrent to crime

    • B. 

      They are very smart

    • C. 

      They catch every single bad guy

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 18. 
    How many basic fundamentals of defense are there?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 20. 
    Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct only

    • B. 

      SF General Orders only

    • C. 

      Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

    • D. 

      Performance Fitness Examination

  • 21. 
    Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC…
    • A. 

      Security

    • B. 

      Warfare

    • C. 

      Analysis

    • D. 

      Intelligence

  • 22. 
    Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time?
    • A. 

      Two-person SRT (DOD UCNI)

    • B. 

      Three-person SRT (DOD UCNI)

    • C. 

      Mobile Fore Teams (MFT) (DOD UCNI)

    • D. 

      Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DOD UCNI)

  • 23. 
    How many range cards are prepared for each position?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 24. 
    How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      600

    • B. 

      800

    • C. 

      1,100

    • D. 

      1,800

  • 25. 
    Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields?
    • A. 

      Knowledge of the enemy

    • B. 

      Unity of command

    • C. 

      Economy of Force

    • D. 

      Responsiveness

  • 26. 
    On what does a patrol leader base the tentative patrol plan?
    • A. 

      Good terrain analysis

    • B. 

      Bad terrain analysis

    • C. 

      The floating dial on the compass

    • D. 

      The weather

  • 27. 
    What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?
    • A. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a heavyweight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M-9 pistol with the RAS.

    • B. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, non breech-loaded, double pump action (sliding barrel), hip-fired weapon that is attached to the M-249 machine gun with the RAS.

    • C. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.

    • D. 

      The M203 grenade launcher is a heavy weight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M240B machine gun with the RAS.

  • 28. 
    What should a flight sector sketch show?
    • A. 

      Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them.

    • B. 

      Flight and squadron identification.

    • C. 

      Squad leader positions.

    • D. 

      True south.

  • 29. 
    The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground?
    • A. 

      Ground level

    • B. 

      1 inch

    • C. 

      2 inch

    • D. 

      3 inch

  • 30. 
    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      800

    • C. 

      1,100

    • D. 

      1,800

  • 31. 
    The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?
    • A. 

      Principles of War

    • B. 

      Rules of Engagement

    • C. 

      Integrated Base Defense

    • D. 

      Defense Force Doctrine

  • 32. 
    What map reference do you use to determine distances?
    • A. 

      Declination

    • B. 

      Bar scale

    • C. 

      Grid North

    • D. 

      Base line

  • 33. 
    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 34. 
    If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder (M72 LAW)?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 35. 
    What are the standard whistle signals?
    • A. 

      Two short blast for STOP, one long blast for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.

    • B. 

      Two short blast for ATTENTION, One long blast for STOP, and several short blasts for GO.

    • C. 

      One long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.

    • D. 

      Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.

  • 36. 
    What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
    • A. 

      A zero tolerance approach to handling crime.

    • B. 

      The police getting involved with local youth programs.

    • C. 

      The police handling random calls to solve community problems.

    • D. 

      Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.

  • 37. 
    If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?
    • A. 

      5 minutes after removing the goggles.

    • B. 

      4 minutes after removing the goggles.

    • C. 

      3 minutes after removing the goggles.

    • D. 

      2 minutes after removing the goggles.

  • 38. 
    US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?
    • A. 

      Federal statutes

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Article 2/UCMJ

    • D. 

      Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)

  • 39. 
    Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?
    • A. 

      Normally found in the lower right margin.

    • B. 

      Always found in the upper right margin.

    • C. 

      Sometimes found in the middle of the map.

    • D. 

      Normally found in the back of the map.

  • 40. 
    What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?
    • A. 

      The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.

    • B. 

      The M240B is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • C. 

      The M240B is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.

    • D. 

      The M240B is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

  • 41. 
    When was the current SF shield adopted?
    • A. 

      1965

    • B. 

      1966

    • C. 

      1970

    • D. 

      1982

  • 42. 
    What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?
    • A. 

      Alco-sensor

    • B. 

      Breathalyzer

    • C. 

      Urine Tests

    • D. 

      Blood Tests

  • 43. 
    How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?
    • A. 

      A. Reduce the enemy’s mobility only.

    • B. 

      B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.

    • C. 

      C. Direct the enemy formations for counterattack.

    • D. 

      D. Channel forces for reengagement at later time.

  • 44. 
    What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?
    • A. 

      You must be a SrA with college background

    • B. 

      Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.

    • C. 

      Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 24 months of total active federal military services.

    • D. 

      You must have 5 on all your EPRs, and selected by the commander.

  • 45. 
    Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?
    • A. 

      SW385 Monostatic Microwave Sensor

    • B. 

      SW310 Bistatic Microwave Sensor

    • C. 

      ECSI Active Infrared Sensor

    • D. 

      Optex LX-2AU

  • 46. 
    What is the most common round used in the M870?
    • A. 

      15 gauge, “05” buck shot

    • B. 

      10 gauge, “02” buck shot

    • C. 

      12 gauge, “01” buck shot

    • D. 

      12 gauge, “00” buck shot

  • 47. 
    An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within how many meters of a point on a map?
    • A. 

      4 meters

    • B. 

      8 meters

    • C. 

      10 meters

    • D. 

      13 meters

  • 48. 
    Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…
    • A. 

      When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • B. 

      During government elections.

    • C. 

      When declared by state governors.

    • D. 

      In time of emergency.

  • 49. 
    How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?
    • A. 

      Every 5 minutes

    • B. 

      Every 10 minutes

    • C. 

      Every 15 minutes

    • D. 

      Every 20 minutes

  • 50. 
    What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?
    • A. 

      Move your vehicle in front of the violator’s and tell the violator to follow you.

    • B. 

      Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.

    • C. 

      Signal the violator with you emergency lights and siren to move.

    • D. 

      Signal the driver using your hand and arm signals to follow you.

  • 51. 
    Name the two sighting systems employed by the M18A1?
    • A. 

      Scraping-type edge sight and knife-edge sight.

    • B. 

      Knifing-peep edge and Slit-edge sight.

    • C. 

      Electrical-type edge sight and Controlled-edge sight.

    • D. 

      Slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight.

  • 52. 
    Describe the MK19?
    • A. 

      Is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon, with five major assemblies. It uses ammunition that is belt-fed through the left side of the weapon by a disintegrating metallic link belt. The weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing. It has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

    • B. 

      Is a light weight, air-cooled gas operated weapon, with 2 major parts. It uses ammunition that is magazine fed through the right side of the weapon by a metallic magazine. The features a barrel that overheats, every 200 rounds, even after prolonged firing.

    • C. 

      Is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

    • D. 

      Is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge.

  • 53. 
    When contacting the violator during a traffic stop,  an exigent circumstance would be speeding to?
    • A. 

      Get your mother to work.

    • B. 

      Get your daughter to school.

    • C. 

      Get your pregnant wife to the hospital.

    • D. 

      See if your new car will actually do 100 mph.

  • 54. 
    What is the maximum range of the M2?
    • A. 

      5,764 meters

    • B. 

      6,764 meters

    • C. 

      3,764 yards

    • D. 

      6,764 yards

  • 55. 
    During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to…
    • A. 

      Detain civilians.

    • B. 

      Apprehend all offenders.

    • C. 

      Apprehend military personnel.

    • D. 

      Detain and prosecute offenders.

  • 56. 
    Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?
    • A. 

      Article 1

    • B. 

      Article 5

    • C. 

      Article 7b

    • D. 

      Article 134

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 3555, AF Form 1190, and AF Form 1315.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 3545, AF Form 6811, and AF Form 112.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 3545, AF Form 1168, and AF Form 2970.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 3545, AF Form 1168, and AF Form 1315.

  • 58. 
    Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to?
    • A. 

      Act in an official law enforcement capacity off base.

    • B. 

      Apprehend civilians for on base offenses.

    • C. 

      Release military offenders to supervisors.

    • D. 

      Detain civilians for on base offenses.

  • 59. 
    How many pages make up the AF Form 3545?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 60. 
    Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator’s vehicle during a traffic stop.
    • A. 

      Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left.

    • B. 

      Two vehicle lengths behind and two feet to the left.

    • C. 

      Three vehicle length behind and three feet to the left.

    • D. 

      Three vehicle length behind and two feet to the left.

  • 61. 
    What are the six basic questions that need to answered on an AF Form 1168?
    • A. 

      Who, what, when, where, why and how.

    • B. 

      The, There, Their, You, Him, and Her.

    • C. 

      Who, what, When, where, why and Time.

    • D. 

      Time, Place, What, Where, why, and How.

  • 62. 
    Why do we use demist shield on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      Prevent lens scratches

    • B. 

      Prevent foggy lenses

    • C. 

      Prevent water lenses

    • D. 

      Shield against sand

  • 63. 
    How many sections is the form divided into? (AF Form 3545)
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 64. 
    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?
    • A. 

      Battery compartment

    • B. 

      Glass objective lens

    • C. 

      Rubber eye cups

    • D. 

      Sight lens

  • 65. 
    The MK19 is most effectively employed as a…
    • A. 

      Static fire platform covering a specific zone.

    • B. 

      Mounted fire platform covering a specific area.

    • C. 

      Mobile suppressive fore platform covering a specific zone.

    • D. 

      Unmounted suppressive fire platform covering a specific area.

  • 66. 
    The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?
    • A. 

      Unarmored

    • B. 

      Lightly armored

    • C. 

      Main battle tanks

    • D. 

      Armored personnel carriers

  • 67. 
    One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is?
    • A. 

      Only an original monitor can be used with the system.

    • B. 

      Any monitor can be used in conjunction with the system.

    • C. 

      Images not produced by the surveillance sight can be recorded.

    • D. 

      The video output is factory preset to NTSC/EIA (60 MHz) standards.

  • 68. 
    The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?
    • A. 

      Point and area targets

    • B. 

      Mounted targets

    • C. 

      Fixed targets

    • D. 

      Static targets

  • 69. 
    The M2 is a very effective, versatile weapon that is…
    • A. 

      Air cooled and blowback operated.

    • B. 

      Belt fed, recoil operated, and air cooled.

    • C. 

      Magazine fed, air cooled, and recoil operated.

    • D. 

      Recoiled operated, air cooled, and blowback operated.

  • 70. 
    How do you estimate the elevation of the bottom of a depression?
    • A. 

      Add one-half the contour interval.

    • B. 

      Subtract one-half the contour interval.

    • C. 

      Divide one-half the contour interval.

    • D. 

      Multiply one-half the contour interval.

  • 71. 
    What term defines a six-digit grid coordinate?
    • A. 

      Base line

    • B. 

      Grid azimuths

    • C. 

      Back azimuths

    • D. 

      Refined coordinate

  • 72. 
    As a POW what information are you required to give when questioned?
    • A. 

      Anything that will keep you alive.

    • B. 

      Your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.

    • C. 

      Your name and date of birth only.

    • D. 

      No information is allowed to be given when questioned.

  • 73. 
    What general conduct guideline would you violate if you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty?
    • A. 

      Attention to duty

    • B. 

      Personal Appearance

    • C. 

      Off-Duty Conduct

    • D. 

      Dealing with Intoxicated Persons

  • 74. 
    What is the primary navigation tool used by Security Forces?
    • A. 

      The floating dial

    • B. 

      The map

    • C. 

      The lensatic compass

    • D. 

      Bar Scale

  • 75. 
    SF squadrons are organized based on what?
    • A. 

      Chief of Security Forces

    • B. 

      Defense Force Commander

    • C. 

      Mission requirements

    • D. 

      Force Protection

  • 76. 
    What Command Section position is manned by the senior SF enlisted leader?
    • A. 

      Chief, Security Forces/Commander (CSF/CC)

    • B. 

      Security Forces Manager (SFM)

    • C. 

      Standardization and Evaluation Section (SFMQ)

    • D. 

      First Sergeant (CCF)

  • 77. 
    Where should the Claymore firing position be located?
    • A. 

      BDOC and open position

    • B. 

      Foxhole or covered position

    • C. 

      Command center

    • D. 

      Control center

  • 78. 
    What is a hot loop?
    • A. 

      Special line designated for emergencies only.

    • B. 

      Special line established for the command post.

    • C. 

      Continuous line of field wire laid out on the perimeter.

    • D. 

      Continuous line connected to every phone and switchboard.

  • 79. 
    What is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection?
    • A. 

      The lens

    • B. 

      The body of the compass

    • C. 

      The cover

    • D. 

      The floating dial

  • 80. 
    How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      2 to 4 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

    • B. 

      4 to 6 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

    • C. 

      6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

    • D. 

      8 to 10 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach.

  • 82. 
    The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor are?
    • A. 

      An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.

    • B. 

      A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.

    • C. 

      A transformer head, infrared sensor head, and transmitter.

    • D. 

      An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.

  • 83. 
    Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by SF to record pertinent information?
    • A. 

      A. The White copy

    • B. 

      B. The Black copy

    • C. 

      C. The Pink copy

    • D. 

      D. The Yellow copy

  • 84. 
    How deep will field wire be buried in loose or sandy soil?
    • A. 

      1 feet deep

    • B. 

      2 feet deep

    • C. 

      3 feet deep

    • D. 

      4 feet deep

  • 85. 
    What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor provide?
    • A. 

      All around protection on key terrain.

    • B. 

      Radiation protection around resources.

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic protection on the perimeter.

    • D. 

      Three dimensional protection in outdoor environments.

  • 86. 
    Microwave sensors are relatively sensitive to?
    • A. 

      Rain, snow, vibration, and small wind-blown objects.

    • B. 

      Vibrations of heavy equipment.

    • C. 

      Bright sunlight or dense fog.

    • D. 

      Rodents and other animals.

  • 87. 
    Which copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator?
    • A. 

      The White Copy

    • B. 

      The Black Copy

    • C. 

      The Pink Copy

    • D. 

      The Yellow Copy

  • 88. 
    Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts?
    • A. 

      So military personnel are certified by the state.

    • B. 

      To ensure that you understand how the local and state law enforcement police operate.

    • C. 

      To boost morale and get rid of outdated and antiquated hand-held speed measuring devices.

    • D. 

      So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders.

  • 89. 
    Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?
    • A. 

      Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.

    • B. 

      Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite.

    • C. 

      Place the military working dog on a long leash.

    • D. 

      Have the dog bark three times.

  • 90. 
    Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?
    • A. 

      Intoxilyzer

    • B. 

      Alco-sensor

    • C. 

      Breathalyzer

    • D. 

      Breathometer

  • 91. 
    How do we clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces?
    • A. 

      Vinegar or water solution

    • B. 

      Light oil lubrication

    • C. 

      Soap and warm water

    • D. 

      Lint free cloth

  • 92. 
    What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      Facemask centered on forehead

    • B. 

      Hand-held and level

    • C. 

      Shoulder level

    • D. 

      Infrared mode

  • 93. 
    When programming frequencies which option do you use to select the receiver transmitter channel?
    • A. 

      A. The Menu Button

    • B. 

      B. The Radio Channel option

    • C. 

      C. The Program channel option

    • D. 

      D. None of the above

  • 94. 
    How many accessories does the GRC 238 come with?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      27

  • 95. 
    The GRC 238 what radio part is critical to its operation?
    • A. 

      The Antenna

    • B. 

      Palm Handset

    • C. 

      Pit Switch

    • D. 

      Battery Latch

  • 96. 
    Define a Hostile Force.
    • A. 

      The imminent threat of force against US forces (and others as designated), including threat to use force to preclude or impeded the missing and/ or duties of US forces.

    • B. 

      An attack or other use of force against the US and US forces (and others as designated), including force used directly to preclude or impede the mission and/ or duties of US Forces.

    • C. 

      Any civilian, paramilitary, or military force, or terrorist(s) with or without national designation, that has committed hostile acts, exhibited hostile intent, or has been declared hostile by appropriate authorities.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 97. 
    How many copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 98. 
    A written order issued by a competent authority is called a?
    • A. 

      Power to authorize

    • B. 

      Search and seizure

    • C. 

      Competent Written Order

    • D. 

      Search Authorization

  • 99. 
    The surface that supports the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) display Control Unit must be able to handle?
    • A. 

      50 pounds

    • B. 

      100 pounds

    • C. 

      200 pounds

    • D. 

      300 pounds

  • 100. 
    “Probable Cause” searches are covered under what legal manual?
    • A. 

      MCM Rule 315

    • B. 

      MCC Rule 315

    • C. 

      MNM Rule 312

    • D. 

      MRE Rule 314