3DX5X - Vol 1 And 2

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1. Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

Explanation

Single-sign-on is a feature in the Air Force Portal that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without the need for further log-in requirements. This feature enhances convenience and efficiency by eliminating the need for multiple log-ins, saving time and effort for users. It streamlines the authentication process, ensuring that authorized users can access various applications seamlessly with just one log-in.

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About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

All UREs for volumes 1 and 2 of the 3Dx5x CDCs.

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2. The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by

Explanation

The proper way to destroy records to prevent compromise is by using any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding, as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction. This ensures that the information contained in the records cannot be accessed or used by unauthorized individuals, protecting the privacy and security of the individuals involved.

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3. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or modified and are not yet officially released to the public or authorized for distribution.

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4. The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called

Explanation

The correct answer is mobility. Mobility refers to the ability to move freely without being restricted by wires in wireless technology. This allows for greater flexibility and convenience in using wireless devices and accessing information or services on the go. Ease of installations, war driving, and motion capture technology are not directly related to the concept of wireless mobility.

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5. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring. They ensure that the network wiring supports both fixed and deployed operations, making it an essential role in maintaining communication systems within the Air Force.

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6. What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and competencies required for individuals working in that field, as well as identify the training resources and opportunities available to them. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their workforce is properly trained and equipped to meet the demands of their career field.

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7. What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This allows for greater flexibility and scalability in designing the network. For example, a network may have a combination of bus and star topologies, where certain devices are connected in a bus-like manner while others are connected in a star-like manner. This combination allows for efficient communication between devices and provides redundancy in case of network failures.

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8. The classification of a fill device is

Explanation

The correct answer is that a fill device is classified as soon as a key is loaded, and it holds the classification of the loaded key. This means that the classification of the fill device is determined by the key that is loaded into it. Once a key is loaded, the fill device takes on the classification of that key, regardless of whether it is taken out of a safe or put back into a safe. This ensures that the fill device is always classified based on the information it contains, providing security and control over sensitive data.

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9. The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a

Explanation

The correct answer is "driver." A driver is a special program that acts as a bridge between the operating system and hardware components that are not directly connected to the computer's motherboard. It allows the operating system to communicate and control these external hardware devices effectively.

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10. Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

Explanation

Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that through offensive measures, the US aims to prevent, weaken, or destroy the adversary's ability to operate effectively in cyberspace. By doing so, the US can gain an advantage and protect its own sensitive data and systems from potential threats and attacks.

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11. When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

Explanation

Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone in the email thread to receive the response. In most cases, it is more appropriate to reply only to the sender or to select specific recipients who need to be included in the conversation. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and waste the time of individuals who do not need to be involved in the discussion.

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12. What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?

Explanation

UNIX was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems. It was designed to be portable and compatible across different hardware platforms, making it a versatile and widely adopted operating system. UNIX introduced many innovative features and concepts that have influenced the development of modern operating systems. Its ability to run on various computer systems made it a popular choice for both academic and commercial environments, contributing to its widespread use and longevity in the industry.

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13. What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

Explanation

Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over long distances to communicate. It encompasses various technologies and methods, including both analog and digital transmission. Telecommunications allows for the transfer of data, voice, and video signals, enabling communication over significant geographical distances. Broadcasts and transmissions are components of the telecommunications system, but they alone do not encompass the entire process of conveying data over long distances. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a specific technology used for transmitting voice signals over the internet, which is a subset of telecommunications.

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14. What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?

Explanation

The directory that is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition is the root directory. The root directory is the top-level directory in a file system hierarchy and serves as the starting point for navigating the file system. It contains all other directories and files in the file system.

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15. Final reports of a communication security incident are due

Explanation

The final reports of a communication security incident are due 30 days after the initial report is issued. This means that the organization has a month to complete all necessary investigations, gather relevant information, and compile a comprehensive report detailing the incident and any actions taken to address it. This timeline allows for a thorough and timely review of the incident while ensuring that all relevant parties have sufficient time to contribute to the final report.

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16. While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?

Explanation

The feature that lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security while using the Red Switch is the liquid crystal display. The liquid crystal display is a type of visual display that shows information or messages electronically. In this case, it would display the dialed number and indicate the level of security, ensuring that the correct number has been dialed.

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17. Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?

Explanation

An employee is an authorized client who may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network. As an insider, an employee has access to sensitive information and network resources, making them a potential threat if they engage in negligent or malicious activities. They may fall victim to social engineering tactics or intentionally collaborate with external parties to compromise the network's security. Therefore, it is crucial for organizations to implement strong security measures, such as employee training, access controls, and monitoring systems, to mitigate the risk posed by employees.

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18. What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks. They have created standards such as IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi), IEEE 802.15 (Bluetooth), and IEEE 802.16 (WiMAX) to ensure interoperability and reliability in wireless communication technologies. These standards have played a crucial role in the advancement and widespread adoption of wireless networks worldwide.

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19. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?

Explanation

The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility that includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions is Client Systems. This role involves providing technical assistance and troubleshooting for computer systems and networks at the local base level. They are responsible for ensuring the smooth operation of client systems and addressing any issues that may arise.

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20. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

Explanation

The correct answer is Ground Radar Systems. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. They ensure that these radar systems are functioning properly and provide accurate information for air traffic control and weather monitoring.

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21. For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?

Explanation

Federal records centers will accept records with less than 3 years of retention for base closures. This implies that when a military base is closed, the records related to that base can be transferred to federal records centers even if they have not been retained for the standard 3-year period. This exception recognizes the unique circumstances surrounding base closures and the need to properly manage and preserve the associated records.

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22. What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?

Explanation

The Air Force uses Norton and McAfee as their two anti-virus programs. These programs are known for their effectiveness in detecting and removing viruses, malware, and other security threats. Norton and McAfee are widely recognized and trusted in the cybersecurity industry, making them suitable choices for protecting the Air Force's computer systems and networks from potential cyber attacks.

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23. Which document is not considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not primary sources of information created or maintained by the government. Official government records typically include documents such as laws, regulations, official reports, and administrative records that are used for legal, administrative, or historical purposes. Library references and museum exhibitions may contain information about government records, but they are not the records themselves. They are secondary sources that provide interpretations, analysis, or summaries of the primary sources.

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24. Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This document serves as the foundation for holding military members accountable for any violations of binding instructions and laws. It outlines the legal framework for the military justice system and provides guidelines for disciplinary actions and legal proceedings within the military. It ensures that military personnel are subject to a separate set of laws and regulations that are specific to their profession and responsibilities.

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25. In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

Explanation

In August of 1998, the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine. This means that they completed and made available their guidelines and principles for conducting information operations. At the same time, the Joint Staff also published its doctrine, although the specific date is not mentioned. Therefore, the correct answer is 1998, as it is the year when both the Air Force and the Joint Staff published their respective doctrines.

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26. What determines the cutoff for active records?

Explanation

The cutoff for active records is determined by the retention period. This refers to the length of time that records need to be kept before they can be disposed of or transferred to an archive. Once the retention period has passed, the records are considered inactive and can be either archived or destroyed. Therefore, the retention period plays a crucial role in determining when records are no longer considered active.

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27. Using a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?

Explanation

An IPv4 address is divided into different classes based on the range of the first octet. Class A addresses have a range of 1-126 in the first octet. Therefore, if an IPv4 address falls within this range, it belongs to Class A.

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28. What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?

Explanation

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is the type of network that connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) which connects devices within a limited area, a WAN enables communication over large distances. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure connection that allows users to access a private network remotely, and a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) connects networks within a specific metropolitan area. Therefore, the correct answer is Wide Area Network.

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29. What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?

Explanation

Store-and-forward is the method where the entire frame is received and stored in the buffer. An error check is then performed to ensure the integrity of the frame. Once the error check is passed, the frame is sent to the appropriate port for delivery. This method ensures that the frame is fully received and error-free before forwarding it, thereby minimizing the chances of data corruption or transmission errors.

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30. What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?

Explanation

Nonvolatile memory refers to a type of memory that retains data even after power is removed or lost. Unlike volatile memory, which loses its stored information when power is cut off, nonvolatile memory is designed to preserve data for long periods of time. This type of memory is commonly used in devices such as solid-state drives (SSDs), flash drives, and memory cards, where data needs to be stored even when the device is turned off.

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31. Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a reliable and widely used transmission medium. It consists of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce interference and crosstalk. Twisted pair cables are cost-effective, easy to install, and can support voice signals effectively over short to medium distances. While fiber optic cables offer higher bandwidth and faster data transmission, they are primarily used for data communication rather than voice. Coaxial and twinax cables are also used for various purposes, but twisted pair cables are specifically designed and commonly used for voice communication.

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32. What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?

Explanation

A protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium. It defines the format, timing, sequencing, and error control of data transmission. Protocols ensure that different devices and systems can communicate effectively and understand each other's messages. They provide a common language and framework for communication, allowing for interoperability and reliable data transfer between computers on a network.

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33. What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?

Explanation

A bus topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable. In this topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, called the bus, which acts as a communication medium. The devices on the network can transmit data by sending signals onto the bus, and all devices on the network receive and process these signals. This topology is simple and cost-effective, but it can be prone to congestion and network failures if the bus cable is damaged.

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34. What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network technology?

Explanation

The military's adoption of wireless network technology was slowed down due to concerns regarding both security and reliability. Security is a crucial aspect for the military as they need to ensure that their wireless networks are protected from unauthorized access and potential cyber threats. Additionally, reliability is also a significant concern as the military requires a stable and consistent network connection for their operations. Therefore, these concerns regarding security and reliability played a major role in slowing down the military's adoption of wireless network technology.

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35. Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone the necessary approval process and have been authorized for public distribution or use. This ensures that the information contained in these records is accurate and reliable.

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36. A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an

Explanation

The correct answer is unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV). This term refers to aircraft that can be controlled remotely or operate autonomously without a pilot on board. These vehicles are equipped with cameras, sensors, and other payloads to carry out various tasks such as surveillance, reconnaissance, and data collection. They are commonly used in military operations, scientific research, and commercial applications.

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37. Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?

Explanation

Applications are software programs designed to perform specific tasks. Unlike general software programs that have a wide range of functionalities, applications are tailored to meet specific needs and perform specific functions. They are designed to address a particular problem or provide a specific service, making them more focused and specialized.

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38. Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?

Explanation

Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) is the correct answer because it is a system that provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft, as well as provide final approach guidance and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather. This system is specifically designed for air traffic control and landing operations in temporary or remote locations where there may not be a permanent infrastructure in place. It allows for efficient and safe management of aircraft in challenging environments.

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39. An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

Explanation

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC incident. This term refers to any event or situation that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of sensitive information or cryptographic materials. It highlights the importance of promptly investigating and evaluating such occurrences to mitigate any potential risks and maintain the security of COMSEC material and government information.

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40. The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure

Explanation

The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure that we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed. By keeping records, organizations can have access to relevant data and information that can aid in making informed decisions. This helps decision makers to have a comprehensive understanding of past events, trends, and patterns, enabling them to make effective choices for the future. Additionally, maintaining records allows for accountability and transparency in decision-making processes.

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41. What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a type of network that utilizes tunneling and security protocols to enable communication between two or more computer systems over the public Internet. It provides a secure and private connection by encrypting the data transmitted between the systems, making it suitable for remote access, connecting branch offices, or accessing private networks from outside locations. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) or Wide Area Networks (WANs), a VPN creates a virtual network that operates within the public Internet infrastructure, ensuring confidentiality and privacy of data. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a network that connects multiple LANs within a specific geographic area and is not directly related to tunneling or security protocols.

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42. What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in realtime?

Explanation

AtHoc's solutions provide the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people in real-time through various communication devices such as personal computers, personal digital assistants, land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and giant voice systems. These solutions enable effective and efficient communication during emergencies or critical situations, ensuring that important information reaches the intended recipients promptly and reliably.

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43. What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

Explanation

The loopback address is a reserved IPv4 address used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a device to send and receive data without actually transmitting it over a physical network. The loopback address is represented as 127.0.0.1, which is the correct answer in this case. The other options are not loopback addresses and are used for different purposes within the IPv4 addressing scheme.

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44. An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

Explanation

A full accreditation refers to the decision that allows a system to operate in the environment it was originally intended for. This means that the system meets all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and safely in its designated environment. It implies that the system has successfully undergone a comprehensive evaluation and has been deemed capable of fulfilling its intended purpose without any restrictions or limitations.

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45. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for various tasks related to the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with these devices to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.

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46. What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?

Explanation

The 80/20 rule establishes that 80% of the data should be local to a segment, while 20% of the data should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment. This rule suggests that the majority of data should stay within its segment for efficiency and performance reasons, while a smaller portion can be sent to the other segment when necessary.

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47. A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a

Explanation

Disposition is the correct answer because it refers to the comprehensive term that encompasses the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, as well as the transfer of records to a staging area or records center, and the transfer of records from one organization to another. Retire, archive, and acquisition do not encompass all of these aspects of records management.

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48. From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

Explanation

Nonionizing radiation refers to a type of radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, thus causing minimal damage to tissues. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause harm at the cellular level and lead to deep tissue damage, nonionizing radiation such as microwaves and sunlight do not have enough energy to cause these harmful effects. Therefore, a person can absorb selectively damaging amounts of nonionizing radiation without experiencing skin heating or any noticeable sensation.

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49. Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?

Explanation

The Department of Defense has chosen the Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as its standard network protocol to govern the flow of information. TCP/IP is a widely used protocol suite that provides reliable and efficient communication over networks, including the internet. It ensures the proper delivery and sequencing of data packets, allowing for the secure and efficient transfer of information.

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50. Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. This means that it determines the most efficient route for data to travel from one node to another in a network. By constantly analyzing network conditions and updating routing tables, dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF or EIGRP can adapt to changes in the network topology and select the optimal path for data transmission. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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51. As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?

Explanation

The correct answer is 100,000. This means that as of September 2004, the coalition unmanned aircrafts have flown a total of 100,000 flight hours to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.

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52. Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?

Explanation

The Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) is the correct answer because it is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone of a deployed communication network in theater deployable communications (TDC). The ICAP provides the necessary infrastructure and connectivity for communication systems in a deployed environment, allowing for efficient and reliable communication between military units and headquarters. It includes various components such as switches, routers, servers, and other networking equipment that enable the establishment and maintenance of a communication network.

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53. Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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54. Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

Explanation

The Constitution is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It is the supreme law of the land and outlines the structure of the government, the rights and freedoms of the citizens, and the powers and limitations of the different branches of government. The Constitution serves as a framework for creating and interpreting laws, ensuring that they are in line with the principles and values of the nation. The other options listed, such as the Bill of Rights, United States Title Code 10, and Uniform Code of Military Justice, are specific laws or codes that are derived from or fall under the authority of the Constitution.

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55. What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?

Explanation

Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan. This system is specifically designed for managing records in the Air Force, ensuring proper organization and control over files. It allows for the creation and tracking of file disposition control labels, which help in identifying and managing the lifecycle of records.

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56. Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

Explanation

Air Force Pamphlets are the correct answer because they are informational publications that provide instructions or guidance on how to perform certain tasks or procedures. They are typically concise and easy-to-follow documents that offer step-by-step instructions or explanations on a specific topic within the Air Force. Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives may also contain informational content, but they are not specifically categorized as "how to" documents like Air Force Pamphlets.

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57. Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

Explanation

A community of practice is a feature within the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and solve group problems. This feature promotes knowledge sharing, learning, and collaboration among individuals who have a common interest or expertise in a particular area.

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58. What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

Explanation

Emanation best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment. Emanation refers to the unintentional release of electromagnetic signals or radiation from electronic devices, which can potentially interfere with other nearby devices or be intercepted by unauthorized individuals. This can result in compromising the security and confidentiality of the communication. Emulation, signature, and salutation do not accurately describe this concept.

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59. Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?

Explanation

SEAMARK was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems.

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60. Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?

Explanation

Port 8080 is commonly used for hosting Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative to avoid conflicts with other applications that may be using port 80. This allows for the simultaneous hosting of multiple HTTP servers or proxies on the same machine. Port 110 is used for the Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) for email retrieval, and port 443 is used for secure HTTP (HTTPS) communication.

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61. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logical Link Control and Media Access Control. The Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer provides error control and flow control services, as well as addressing and framing of data packets. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media, managing transmission and reception of data frames, and handling collision detection and resolution. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data transmission over a network.

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62. What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?

Explanation

Logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted in a network at a conceptual level, regardless of the physical layout. It defines the paths that data takes from one device to another, including the logical connections and protocols used. In contrast, physical topology refers to the actual physical layout of devices and cables in a network. Therefore, the correct answer is logical, as it specifically addresses the communication and transmission of data in a network.

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63. Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?

Explanation

Direct Connections is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network. Rogue Access Points, War Drivers, and Hackers are all potential security threats to a WLAN, but Direct Connections refers to a wired connection and not a threat to the wireless network itself.

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64. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and can provide valuable insight and advice to help individuals make informed decisions about their career paths.

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65. What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?

Explanation

Routing algorithms initialize and maintain routing tables to aid the process of path determination. Routing tables store information about the network topology, including the available routes and their associated metrics. By constantly updating and referencing these tables, routing algorithms can determine the most efficient paths for forwarding packets to their destinations. Routing tables are crucial for routers to make informed decisions on how to route traffic through the network, ensuring efficient and reliable communication between different nodes.

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66. What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this configuration, all communication between computers must pass through the central component. This topology is commonly used in Ethernet networks as it provides a high level of reliability and allows for easy troubleshooting and expansion.

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67. The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the

Explanation

The computing part of the computer refers to the component responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations. The central processing unit (CPU) is the primary computing component, and it consists of several subunits, including the control unit, arithmetic logic unit (ALU), and memory unit. However, the microprocessor is the most accurate answer as it specifically refers to the integrated circuit that contains the CPU, ALU, and control unit on a single chip. Therefore, the microprocessor is the correct answer for the computing part of the computer.

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68. Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications. Theater deployable communications is a function that is designed to provide a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure. It allows for the secure and non-secure exchange of voice, data, and video communications using line-of-sight, satellite, or hard-wired resources. This function is specifically designed to be deployed in a theater of operations, enabling effective and efficient communication in military operations.

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69. The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the

Explanation

The kernel is responsible for managing the core functions of the operating system. It acts as a bridge between the hardware and software, providing essential services such as memory management, process scheduling, and device drivers. The kernel is the central component of the operating system, handling system calls, managing resources, and ensuring proper communication between different parts of the system. It is the heart of the operating system, making it the correct answer in this case.

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70. Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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71. What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

Explanation

The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It is a secure website that allows Air Force personnel to access various information and services such as email, training materials, news, and collaboration tools. It serves as a central hub for Air Force members to access important resources and stay connected with the organization.

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72. Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

Explanation

The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it provides a convenient and efficient way for Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel records and information online. It eliminates the need for individuals to physically visit a Military Personnel Flight office, saving time and resources. Additionally, the virtual Military Personnel Flight allows for self-service options, such as updating personal information and requesting certain documents, further enhancing the convenience and accessibility for Air Force personnel.

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73. This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network

Explanation

The warrior component is the correct answer because it refers to the items that directly connect the warfighter to the global network. This component includes the necessary equipment, devices, and systems that enable communication and information exchange between the warfighter and the global network. It plays a crucial role in ensuring that the warfighter has access to the resources and capabilities of the global information grid, enabling effective communication, coordination, and decision-making in military operations.

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74. What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?

Explanation

The maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is 19.2 Kbps. This means that the network can transmit data at a maximum rate of 19.2 kilobits per second.

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75. Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications to the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft?

Explanation

Mystic Star is the correct answer because it is the system that provides high-quality voice/data HF and UHF satellite communications specifically for the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while they are on special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft. Seamark, NORAD, and MILSATCOM do not provide this specific service.

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76. The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?

Explanation

The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within 1 microsecond of universal time code. This level of accuracy is crucial for precise positioning and navigation purposes.

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77. Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv4 addresses are expressed in dotted decimal notation to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into four sections, each representing an 8-bit value separated by periods. This allows users to easily read and understand the address, as it resembles a familiar decimal format. The other options, such as colon hexadecimal format, hexadecimal, and octal, are not commonly used for expressing IPv4 addresses and may be less intuitive for users.

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78. This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.

Explanation

A translational bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another. This means that it can take data packets from one network using a specific protocol and translate them into a different protocol that is used by another network. This allows different networks with incompatible protocols to communicate with each other. Therefore, the correct answer is "Translational."

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79. An optical communications system is comprised of a

Explanation

The correct answer is transmitter, cable, and receiver. In an optical communications system, the transmitter is responsible for converting electrical signals into optical signals, which are then transmitted through a cable made of optical fibers. The receiver at the other end of the cable receives the optical signals and converts them back into electrical signals for further processing. The logic analyzer and protocol analyzer mentioned in the other options are not essential components of an optical communications system.

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80. Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?

Explanation

Wireless technology offers several advantages, including ease of installation, lower cost, and mobility. However, safety is not one of these advantages. While wireless technology may have safety protocols in place, it is not inherently safer than wired technology. In fact, wireless networks can be vulnerable to security breaches and interference. Therefore, safety is not considered one of the advantages of using wireless technology.

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81. What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?

Explanation

Voltage is applied across Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) material to change the alignment and light polarizing property. By applying voltage, the liquid crystal molecules in the material can be reoriented, which alters the alignment of the crystals and their ability to polarize light. This change in alignment and polarizing property is what allows an LCD to control the passage of light and display different colors and images.

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82. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cyber Systems Operations. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) deals with the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations worldwide. This involves managing and maintaining the operation of computer systems, networks, and servers, ensuring their availability and functionality. Cyber Systems Operations personnel are responsible for tasks such as installing, configuring, and troubleshooting servers, as well as monitoring system performance and security. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of server infrastructure within the Air Force.

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83. Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

Explanation

Analog modems are used over the voice band range of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. This range is commonly referred to as the audio frequency range. Analog modems convert digital signals into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines. The voice band range is the range of frequencies that can be transmitted over telephone lines without significant distortion or loss of quality. The 20 Hz to 20 kHz range covers the typical range of human hearing and allows for the transmission of voice and other audio signals effectively.

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84. The main function of the Data Service Unit is to

Explanation

The Data Service Unit (DSU) is responsible for adapting the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment. This means that the DSU converts the digital data into a format that can be transmitted over the telephone carrier's network. It ensures compatibility and proper communication between the customer's equipment and the carrier's equipment. The other options mentioned, such as buffering and data flow control, managing timing errors and signal regeneration, and providing electrical termination, are not the main functions of the DSU.

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85. What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?

Explanation

Flash Override is a type of Defense Switched Network precedence call that cannot be preempted. Preemption refers to the ability to interrupt or override an ongoing call with a higher priority call. Flash Override calls have the highest priority and cannot be interrupted by any other type of call, including Flash, Priority, or Intermediate calls. Therefore, Flash Override is the correct answer as it is the only option that cannot be preempted.

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86. Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Troubleshoot interface." A troubleshoot interface is not a category of the operating system's task categories. The operating system's task categories typically include user interface, memory management, and processor management. The user interface refers to the interaction between the user and the computer, memory management involves managing the computer's memory resources, and processor management involves managing the computer's central processing unit (CPU). However, a troubleshoot interface is not a standard category of tasks performed by an operating system.

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87. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations?

Explanation

Modularity-scalability is the correct answer because it refers to the characteristic of TDC equipment that requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations. This means that the equipment can be easily assembled, disassembled, and transported, allowing for flexibility and adaptability in different deployment scenarios.

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88. What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?

Explanation

The correct answer is Bourne shell. The Bourne shell is the most commonly used standard all-purpose shell. It was developed by Stephen Bourne and is the default shell for Unix-like operating systems. It provides a command-line interface for users to interact with the operating system and execute commands. The Bourne shell is known for its simplicity and efficiency, making it a popular choice among users and system administrators.

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89. Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

Explanation

COMPUSEC, short for computer security, is the applied discipline that applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction. It involves implementing various security measures such as encryption, access controls, firewalls, and intrusion detection systems to safeguard sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or tampering.

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90. Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

Explanation

INFOCON 5 indicates the lowest level of threat readiness, where there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks. This means that there are no current or imminent threats posed by terrorists to computer networks. It suggests a state of normalcy and minimal risk in terms of terrorist attacks on computer systems.

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91. What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?

Explanation

The correct answer is File Transfer Protocol. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. It allows users to send and receive files between different computers, providing a reliable and efficient method of file transfer. FTP is widely used for uploading website files, downloading software, and sharing large files over networks.

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92. What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?

Explanation

A subnet mask is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number. It is used to determine which part of the IP address belongs to the network and which part belongs to the host. By using a subnet mask, the device can identify the network address and route the data accordingly.

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93. What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?

Explanation

The default classful subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0. This subnet mask allows for a network portion of 16 bits and a host portion of 16 bits. It is used to divide the IP address into network and host portions, with the first two octets representing the network portion and the last two octets representing the host portion. This subnet mask provides a maximum of 65,534 hosts per network.

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94. Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?

Explanation

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP). BGP is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It enables routers in different ASs to communicate and exchange information about the best paths for data to travel. BGP is widely used for inter-domain routing and is responsible for determining the optimal routes for data transmission across the internet. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Routing Information Protocol (RIP), and Enhanced Gateway Routing Protocol (EGRP) are examples of Interior Gateway Protocols (IGP), which are used for routing within a single autonomous system.

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95. What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?

Explanation

The DISN backbone is the correct answer because it serves as the conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System (JWICS) data transmission from one location to another. The DISN backbone is a high-speed, secure network infrastructure that connects various military and intelligence agencies, providing them with reliable and efficient communication capabilities. It ensures the secure transmission of sensitive intelligence information across different locations, facilitating effective collaboration and information sharing within the JWICS network.

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96. Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?

Explanation

The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements. This means that AFPC is in charge of selecting and assigning personnel for specific missions and deployments, ensuring that the necessary manpower is available and properly managed. The other options, Global Force Management (GFM), Combatant Commander (CCDR), and Commander Air Combat Command (COMACC), do not have the primary responsibility for these tasks.

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97. What two main components make up the central processing unit?

Explanation

The central processing unit (CPU) is made up of two main components: the control unit and the arithmetic logic unit (ALU). The control unit is responsible for managing and coordinating the activities of the CPU, including fetching instructions, decoding them, and executing them. The ALU, on the other hand, performs arithmetic and logical operations, such as addition, subtraction, and comparisons. Together, these two components are essential for the CPU to carry out the instructions and perform calculations.

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98. Software is generally divided into

Explanation

The correct answer is systems software, operating systems software, and applications software. This is because software can be categorized into three main types. Systems software refers to the programs that manage and control the computer hardware, such as operating systems and utility programs. Operating systems software specifically refers to the software that controls the basic functions of a computer system. Applications software, on the other hand, refers to programs that are designed to perform specific tasks or functions for the user, such as word processors, spreadsheet software, and web browsers.

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99. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

Explanation

The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are conducted as a normal part of mission operations, rather than being seen as an additional or separate process. This approach ensures that risk assessments are integrated into the overall planning and decision-making process, allowing for a more comprehensive understanding of the risks involved in mission operations. By making risk assessments a standard part of mission planning, organizations can effectively identify and manage risks in a proactive manner.

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100. In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

Explanation

In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD. This suggests that it was in 1995 when these two entities finalized their concepts and began sharing them within the Department of Defense.

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101. A logical group of record is called a/an

Explanation

A logical group of record is called a file because a file is a collection of related data that is stored together. It is a way to organize and store data in a computer system. Files can contain various types of information, such as text, images, audio, or video. By grouping records together in a file, it becomes easier to access and manage the data efficiently. Files can be stored on various storage devices such as hard drives, solid-state drives, or cloud storage.

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102. Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?

Explanation

Marking the records for filing is considered the second step of file management because it involves the process of identifying and labeling the records that need to be filed. This step ensures that the records are organized and can be easily located when needed. Once the records are marked, they can be properly arranged and stored, which is the subsequent step in the file management process.

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103. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

Explanation

The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network layer protocol that provides messaging capabilities to assist with troubleshooting. ICMP messages are used to report various types of errors, such as unreachable hosts or network congestion, and they can also be used for diagnostic and debugging purposes. ICMP messages are typically generated by network devices, such as routers or firewalls, and they provide valuable information about the status and health of the network. Therefore, ICMP is the correct answer as it is specifically designed to aid in troubleshooting network issues.

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104. What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?

Explanation

The purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal is to provide a secure communication link between a foxhole and the National Command Authority for commanders. This terminal allows commanders to transmit and receive important information and orders in real-time, ensuring effective command and control in tactical operations. It is specifically designed to facilitate communication between commanders on the ground and the higher levels of command, enabling efficient decision-making and coordination.

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105. Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA) missions?

Explanation

The correct answer is High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS). This system supports various USAF programs such as Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA) missions. HF-GCS is specifically designed for global communication using high-frequency radio waves, making it an ideal choice for supporting these missions.

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106. What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?

Explanation

The Open System Interconnect (OSI) model is a conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a communication system into seven layers. The layer closest to the end user is the Application layer. This layer provides services directly to the user and is responsible for tasks such as network communication, file transfer, email, and web browsing. It interacts with the user's applications and provides a user-friendly interface for accessing network resources. Therefore, the Application layer is the correct answer as it is the layer that directly interacts with the end user.

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107. Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in a user-friendly manner using the Colon Hexadecimal Format. This format uses a series of eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. This makes it easier for users to read and remember the addresses compared to the binary representation used in IPv4. The use of hexadecimal digits allows for a larger address space, accommodating the growing number of devices connected to the internet.

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108. What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Explanation

The correct answer is physical because the physical topology refers to the physical arrangement of devices and media in a network. It describes how the devices are connected to each other and the physical layout of cables, wires, and other network components. This includes the physical location of routers, switches, servers, and other network devices, as well as the type of cables used to connect them. In contrast, logical topology refers to how data flows within the network and is independent of the physical layout. Star and hybrid are examples of physical topologies.

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109. What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates at the MAC address level and uses filtering and forwarding techniques to selectively pass network traffic between the segments. Unlike a hub, which broadcasts all incoming data to all connected devices, a bridge intelligently forwards data only to the intended destination, reducing network congestion and improving overall network performance. Switches and routers, on the other hand, operate at higher layers of the network and have additional functionalities beyond segmenting the network.

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110. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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111. What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?

Explanation

The TSEC/KIV-7 encryption device is rarely seen due to its lower maximum data rate. This suggests that the device has a slower processing speed or capacity compared to the other options listed.

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112. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

Explanation

This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take risks as long as the potential benefits outweigh the potential costs. This means that when evaluating risks, one should consider the potential positive outcomes and advantages that may result from taking the risk. By weighing the risks against the opportunities and benefits, organizations can make informed decisions that help maximize their overall capability and effectiveness.

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113. Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

Explanation

Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as manufacturing, energy, and transportation to gather and analyze real-time data, control processes, and make informed decisions. This option is the correct answer as it accurately describes the concept of SCADA.

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114. What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

Explanation

The COMSEC program is designed to detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. This means that the program focuses on identifying any vulnerabilities or flaws in the procedures and protocols related to communication security, and taking corrective actions to prevent any potential compromise of sensitive information. The program aims to ensure that the necessary measures are in place to protect critical information from unauthorized access or interception.

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115. One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?

Explanation

The Datacenter Edition of Windows Server is designed to provide support for high-end, high traffic application servers. It offers advanced features such as unlimited virtualization rights, high availability, and scalability. This edition is specifically optimized for data centers and provides a reliable platform for running critical business applications with high performance and reliability.

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116. Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives are directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. Air Force Doctrines, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions may contain other types of guidance or information, but they are not specifically mentioned as the publication type for these directive policy statements.

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117. What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Explanation

Class C addresses are typically used for networks with about 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, with the first three octets dedicated to the network portion and the last octet for host identification. This allows for up to 2^8 (256) possible network addresses, with each network having the potential for up to 2^8 (256) hosts. Therefore, a Class C address is suitable for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class D addresses are reserved for multicast addresses, Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F addresses are currently unassigned.

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118. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

Explanation

An IPv4 address is a 32-bit address used to identify devices on a network. It consists of four sets of numbers separated by periods, with each set ranging from 0 to 255. This allows for a total of 2^32 (4,294,967,296) unique addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is 32 bits.

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119. At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Network layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets between different networks. Routers use this layer to make decisions on the best path for data packets to reach their destination. They examine the destination IP address in the packet header and use routing tables to determine the next hop or interface to forward the packet. Therefore, routers play a crucial role in connecting different networks and enabling communication between them.

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120. What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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121. How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?

Explanation

Non-internet protocols are sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET) by being encapsulated by the internet protocol before transmission. This means that the non-internet protocols are wrapped or packaged within the internet protocol packets, allowing them to be transmitted across the SIPRNET. This encapsulation process ensures that the non-internet protocols can be effectively transmitted and received within the SIPRNET environment.

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122. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power in granting exemptions or waivers for these requirements.

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123. Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?

Explanation

The correct answer is High altitude endurance (HAE). This system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time. This suggests that the HAE system is specifically designed to capture and transmit high-quality imagery quickly, allowing the warfighter to gather valuable information and make informed decisions in a timely manner.

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124. Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

Explanation

OPSEC (Operations Security) is the correct answer because it refers to the process of identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions in military operations and other activities. This involves safeguarding sensitive information from potential threats or adversaries by implementing measures to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure. EMSEC (Emissions Security), COMSEC (Communications Security), and COMPUSEC (Computer Security) are also important security programs, but they focus on different aspects of security such as protecting communication channels or computer systems.

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125. Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. AFNOC is specifically designed to monitor and manage the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its security and functionality. It serves as the central hub for network operations and plays a critical role in maintaining the Air Force's network capabilities. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Network Control Center (NCC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), do not have the same level of authority and responsibility as AFNOC in terms of network control and defense.

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126. Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?

Explanation

The correct answer is Workgroup. In a workgroup network model, each computer functions independently and has its own local user accounts. There is no central management of user accounts, and each computer is responsible for its own security and authentication. In contrast, a domain network model uses a centralized server to manage user accounts and security policies. Active Directory is a service provided by Windows Server that enables centralized management of user accounts, while a user group is a collection of user accounts with similar permissions and access rights.

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127. The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Combat Command (ACC). This is because the 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the Air Combat Command.

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128. Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast Service (GBS) is a system that broadcasts via communication payloads on both military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band). This system allows for the dissemination of information and data to military personnel and units in real-time, regardless of their location. It provides a wide range of services including video, audio, and data transmission, making it an essential tool for military operations and communication. The other options mentioned, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F), and National Military Command System (NMCS), do not specifically refer to the service of broadcasting via communication payloads on military and commercial satellites.

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129. What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?

Explanation

The physical layer of the Open System Interconnect model is responsible for defining the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems. It deals with the physical transmission of data, including the physical medium, connectors, voltage levels, and signal timing. It ensures that the bits are properly transmitted over the network and provides the foundation for higher-level protocols to communicate effectively.

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130. What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

Explanation

Fragment-free forwarding method, also known as runtless switching, is a technique used in network switches to reduce the possibility of forwarding damaged or incomplete frames. It examines the first 64 bytes of a frame to ensure that it is not a runt (a frame smaller than the minimum size) before forwarding it. This helps to prevent collisions and improve network performance by avoiding the forwarding of corrupted or incomplete frames.

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131. How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?

Explanation

A Universal Serial Bus (USB) can handle up to 127 peripherals at once. USB devices are connected to a host controller, which manages the communication between the devices and the computer. Each USB device is assigned a unique address, and the host controller can support up to 127 different addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is 127.

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132. What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?

Explanation

Routers operate at Layer 3 of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data transmission and make decisions about packet forwarding based on network conditions and routing protocols. Layer 3 devices, such as routers, enable communication between different networks and ensure efficient and reliable data transmission.

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133. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted), the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor is the duty position task. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks and responsibilities to the enlisted personnel based on their duty position within the military.

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134. What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?

Explanation

The TSEC/KIV-19 encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is specifically designed to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits. This device is capable of providing secure encryption for a wide range of sensitive information, making it the correct answer for this question.

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135. What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?

Explanation

The AN/CYZ-10 /DTD is the encryption device capable of loading up to 500 keys.

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136. What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?

Explanation

The first step in merging voice, data, and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force is to integrate traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems. This means combining the existing traditional time division multiplexing switches with voice over IP technology, allowing voice communication to be transmitted over the IP network. This integration ensures a seamless transition and compatibility between the different networks, enabling efficient communication and data transmission within the Air Force.

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137. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

Explanation

The characteristic of mobility in theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment requires that size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to a minimum. This is necessary in order to support the transportation, deployment, and operations of the equipment in a deployed environment. By ensuring that the equipment is mobile, it can be easily transported and set up quickly, allowing for efficient communication in the field.

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138. Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

Explanation

The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 on-site support. They also implement technical and physical network changes. This center plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the network infrastructure at the local level, ensuring smooth operations and addressing any network issues that may arise.

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139. Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

Explanation

Relative pathnames begin at the current working directory. They specify the location of a file or directory relative to the current directory. For example, if the current working directory is "home/user/documents", a relative pathname like "../pictures" would refer to the "pictures" directory located in the parent directory of "documents".

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140. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

Explanation

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is the correct answer because it is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable data delivery services. TCP ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order, without loss, duplication, or errors. It uses acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control mechanisms to ensure reliable delivery of data over IP networks. TCP is widely used for applications that require reliable and ordered delivery of data, such as web browsing, email, file transfer, and remote login.

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141. Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast Service (GBS) is the system that capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters. This system utilizes satellite technology to broadcast information, such as video, imagery, and data, to military personnel in real-time, enabling them to make informed decisions and enhance situational awareness. The GBS system is designed to be scalable, flexible, and reliable, making it an ideal solution for delivering critical information to warfighters in various operational environments.

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142. How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?

Explanation

A FireWire bus can support up to 63 devices. This is because the FireWire standard allows for a maximum of 63 devices to be connected on a single bus. Each device connected to the bus is assigned a unique address, and the bus can handle communication and data transfer between all the devices simultaneously. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

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143. Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?

Explanation

The Standard Form 135 is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas, or to transfer records to another organization. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of documenting the transfer and accountability of records, ensuring that the records are properly accounted for and tracked during the retirement process.

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144. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?

Explanation

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is responsible for matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address. ARP is used to find the MAC address of a device on the same network by sending an ARP request. The device with the matching IP address responds with its MAC address, allowing communication between devices at the data link layer.

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145. What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

Posturing is the correct answer because it refers to the process of preparing and positioning air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a state where they are ready to be deployed. This includes ensuring that they have the necessary training, equipment, and personnel to support global requirements, home station requirements, or the needs of Combatant Commanders (CCDR). Posturing involves maintaining a high state of readiness and readiness levels for AEF forces.

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146. Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF)?

Explanation

The correct answer is unit type codes. Unit type codes are the basic building blocks used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF). These codes provide a standardized way of identifying and categorizing different types of units, allowing for efficient organization and coordination during military operations. By using unit type codes, planners can quickly determine the capabilities and composition of various units, facilitating the deployment of forces in a timely and effective manner.

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147. Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD) and provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are tasked with ensuring secure and reliable communications for the DoD, including managing and maintaining the Defense Switched Network, which is a global voice and data network used by the military for secure communication.

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148. Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?

Explanation

The Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information under the program called Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR). This program encompasses various aspects of military operations, including the management of command and control systems, communication networks, computer systems, intelligence gathering and analysis, as well as surveillance and reconnaissance activities. It is a comprehensive program that ensures effective information management and utilization within the DOD.

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149. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?

Explanation

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a network layer protocol that allows a device to determine its IP address based on its MAC address. RARP is used in situations where a device knows its own MAC address but does not know its IP address. By sending a RARP request, the device can request the IP address associated with its MAC address from a RARP server. The server then responds with the corresponding IP address, allowing the device to configure its network settings.

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150. Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?

Explanation

The Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces. The AOC serves as the command and control hub for planning, directing, and executing air and space operations. It integrates and synchronizes air and space power with other elements of the joint force, ensuring effective and efficient use of resources to achieve mission objectives.

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151. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

Explanation

The principle of "Accept no unnecessary risk" states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk. This means that risks should only be taken when they are necessary for the success of the mission and when the benefits outweigh the potential costs. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can prioritize the safety and well-being of their personnel and resources while still achieving their mission objectives.

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152. Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

Explanation

The correct answer is "sensitive but unclassified." This term is used to describe information that, while not classified, still requires protection due to its sensitivity. Disclosing such information could potentially have adverse effects on national security, as it could be exploited or used in a way that compromises the country's safety. Therefore, it is important to handle sensitive but unclassified information with caution and restrict its access to authorized individuals.

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153. Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109 is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is used by the Air Force. It helps to maintain a record of all visitors entering restricted areas, ensuring security and accountability.

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154. An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an

Explanation

A database is an organized collection of data or data structures, which makes it the correct answer. A file is a container for storing data, but it does not necessarily imply organization. A record refers to a single unit of data, but it does not encompass the entire collection. Enterprise is unrelated to the concept of organizing data. Therefore, database is the most fitting term to describe an organized collection of data or data structures.

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155. What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

Explanation

The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. This is because the Air Force Portal provides a centralized platform for accessing and sharing information, resources, and tools within the Air Force. It allows personnel to easily collaborate, communicate, and access important documents and applications, making it an essential tool for the IT task force and other transformation efforts.

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156. Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?

Explanation

Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS) is the correct answer because it is a system that is designed to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support. GTACS is specifically used for air defense operations in a theater of operations and provides the capability to track, monitor, and control airborne assets. It is a crucial system in military operations as it allows for real-time situational awareness and the ability to effectively engage and neutralize airborne threats.

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157. Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

Explanation

The responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the service that owns the installation. This means that the specific branch of the military that operates and maintains the installation is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the network. This ensures that the network remains operational and in good working condition for the defense information system.

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158. A modem is a device that modulates

Explanation

A modem is a device that takes digital data and converts it into analog signals so that it can be transmitted over an analog medium, such as a telephone line. This is necessary because analog mediums can only transmit analog signals, not digital signals. The modem then demodulates the analog signals back into digital data at the receiving end. Therefore, the correct answer is "digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium."

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159. Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?

Explanation

Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK) is the function that primarily provides standard force package descriptions for contingency planning at all levels of command. This means that MEFPAK is responsible for defining and describing the specific manpower and equipment resources that will be needed in various contingency scenarios. By providing these standard force package descriptions, MEFPAK ensures that all levels of command have a clear understanding of the resources required for contingency operations, enabling effective planning and preparation. The other options, such as operational capabilities packages, theater deployable communications, and Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules, do not have the same primary purpose of providing force package descriptions for contingency planning.

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160. This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

Explanation

Common policy and standards refer to a set of guidelines and regulations that are followed by all service branches within the Global Information Grid. These policies and standards ensure uniformity and compatibility in the transmission of information between different branches. By adhering to common policies and standards, the seamless transmission of information is achieved, allowing for efficient communication and collaboration between service branches. Unity of command, joint architecture, and information services may also play a role in facilitating information transmission, but common policy and standards specifically address the need for consistency and compatibility.

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161. An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

Explanation

The correct answer is "Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions." This term refers to technical investigations conducted to detect and prevent compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. It focuses on protecting the electronic materials used in telecommunications from emitting spurious transmissions that could potentially compromise security.

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162. Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

Explanation

KG-84 is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks. It is a secure device that ensures the protection of data transmitted over the network by encrypting it. KG-194, KIV-7, and KG175 are not specifically designed for direct connection to Red local area networks, making KG-84 the correct answer.

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163. What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

Explanation

Site-local addresses are designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site. They are used within a specific site or organization and are not meant to be globally routable. Site-local addresses were deprecated in 2004 by RFC 4193, which introduced Unique Local Addresses (ULA) as a replacement.

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164. Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?

Explanation

The correct answer is eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs. This initiative will help increase network security by streamlining and centralizing the network operation and security functions into two Integrated NOSCs. By eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept, there will be a more focused and efficient approach to network security, allowing for better coordination and control over the network infrastructure. This consolidation will also help in establishing a standardized security model across all MAJCOM areas of responsibility, further enhancing network security.

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165. Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Routine use." A Privacy Act Statement is a notice provided to individuals about the collection, use, and disclosure of their personal information. The routine use describes the specific circumstances under which the information may be disclosed outside the Department of Defense (DOD). It provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed, ensuring transparency and informing individuals about the potential sharing of their information.

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166. Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

Explanation

The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This organization is responsible for providing communication support and services to the AETF during deployments and operations. They ensure that the AETF has reliable and secure communication systems in place to effectively carry out their missions. The ECS plays a crucial role in maintaining connectivity and facilitating communication between different units within the AETF, enabling seamless coordination and information sharing.

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167. Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS). This system is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State. It is a secure network that allows for the transmission of classified information and facilitates communication between intelligence agencies and military commands. The JWICS system is crucial for sharing sensitive intelligence and coordinating operations between these government departments.

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168. What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?

Explanation

The correct answer is an example of leading zero compression in IPv6 notation. Leading zero compression allows consecutive blocks of zeros to be represented with a double colon (::) to make the notation more concise. In this case, the blocks "0:0" and "0:0" are compressed to "::". Therefore, the correct answer is 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

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169. What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?

Explanation

The correct answer is "10AB::3:0:1234:5678." This is the correct notation for zero compression in IPv6. In IPv6, consecutive groups of zeros can be compressed by using "::" to represent multiple groups of zeros. In this notation, "::" is used to compress two consecutive groups of zeros, resulting in a shorter representation of the IPv6 address.

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170. At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network devices over a physical link. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN) by examining the destination address in the data link header. They provide network segmentation, improve network performance, and reduce collisions by creating separate collision domains. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

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171. Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?

Explanation

Enterprise Edition provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services. This edition of the system is designed for large organizations and provides advanced capabilities and scalability to meet their needs. It includes features for managing system resources and integrating with directory services, making it the appropriate choice for supporting these specific features.

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172. Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Deployed warfighter." This segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) refers to a person who is either in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat. This implies that the individual is actively involved in military operations and is located either on the battlefield or in a strategic location far from the combat zone.

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173. What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D is the correct answer because it is the IPv4 class address used for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple hosts simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are reserved for multicast group addresses. These addresses are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be delivered to multiple recipients at the same time. Classes C, E, and F are not used for multicast addressing.

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174. AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?

Explanation

AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns tempo bands with a matching force generation model. Tempo bands refer to the periods of time during which specific units or capabilities are made available for deployment. By aligning tempo bands with a force generation model, the requirements for deploying units and capabilities can be effectively managed and coordinated. This ensures that the right forces are available at the right time to support operational needs and maintain readiness. Unit type codes and joint manning documents are also important in force planning, but they are not specifically aligned with force generation models as tempo bands are.

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175. What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?

Explanation

Aggregatable Global is the correct answer because it refers to a Unicast address scope that allows for hierarchical design and allocation. In this scope, the Network ID portion of the address is broken up into different areas, enabling a more efficient and organized addressing system. This allows for better scalability and management of the network, as well as easier routing and allocation of resources. Aggregatable Global addresses are publicly accessible, meaning they can be used for communication across the internet.

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176. How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?

Explanation

The Defense Switched Network (DSN) provides responsiveness through precedence access thresholding. This means that certain users or types of traffic are given priority access to the network based on their level of importance or urgency. By setting thresholds for different levels of precedence, the DSN ensures that critical communications are prioritized and can be transmitted promptly. This helps to maintain a high level of responsiveness in the network, especially during times of high demand or emergencies.

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177. Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). The ESU is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Their goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and enhance capacity for the warfighter. They focus on providing efficient and effective services to support the Air Force's mission and improve overall operational capabilities.

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178. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of Office of Records is the individual with the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This role is responsible for overseeing the management and organization of records within their office, including the appointment of custodians who will be responsible for the maintenance and security of those records. The Chief of Office of Records is typically a senior-level position within an organization and has the necessary knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding the appointment of record custodians.

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179. Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the command and control structure that has a network node with survivability achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths. This system is designed to ensure the uninterrupted communication and control of strategic nuclear forces, even in the event of a nuclear attack. The use of nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths enhances the system's resilience and ability to withstand potential disruptions.

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180. Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) because it is a radar tracker and correlator software program that takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it on a computer monitor. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), National Military Command System (NMCS), and Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) are not specifically designed for radar tracking and correlation.

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181. Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non- Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of

Explanation

Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO), and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of operational capabilities packages. These packages refer to specific sets of capabilities and resources that are organized and deployed to address specific operational requirements. In this case, the mentioned operations involve providing support and assistance in various civil and humanitarian contexts, which require specific capabilities and resources to be effectively carried out. Therefore, operational capabilities packages are the appropriate term to describe these examples.

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182. Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?

Explanation

The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning communication security incident report case numbers. They handle and manage the communication security incidents within the Air Force, ensuring that each case is properly documented and tracked. This helps in maintaining the security and integrity of the Air Force's communication systems and networks.

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183. At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

Explanation

At Tier 1, the responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure is globally managed. This indicates that Tier 1 is the highest level of authority and control in managing and overseeing the defense information infrastructure on a global scale.

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184. At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?

Explanation

Common data compression and encryption schemes are used at the Presentation layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for formatting and encrypting data for transmission. It ensures that data is in a format that can be understood by the receiving system and handles tasks such as compression, encryption, and decryption. Therefore, it is at the Presentation layer where these schemes are typically implemented to ensure secure and efficient data transmission.

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185. What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

Explanation

AF Form 3227 is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material.

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186. Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"

Explanation

The correct answer is 91-50. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would provide safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems."

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187. At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?

Explanation

Regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) at Tier 2 level. This level ensures operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management.

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188. Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"

Explanation

The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would be referenced for safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment."

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189. Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?

Explanation

AFI 10-701 is a United States Air Force Instruction that covers Operations Security (OPSEC). OPSEC is a process that identifies critical information and determines possible threats to that information. It involves analyzing vulnerabilities and implementing measures to protect sensitive data from being exploited by adversaries. Since AFI 10-701 pertains to OPSEC, the correct answer is OPSEC.

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190. Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

Explanation

The correct answer is Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). This organization's mission is different from the others because it focuses on providing small flyaway communication packages and rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. The other options, Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), do not mention these specific functions in their mission.

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191. Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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192. Which program was created in response to the FY 9703 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?

Explanation

The program that was created in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance is the Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). This program was specifically designed to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture. It aims to provide a unified platform for collecting, processing, analyzing, and disseminating intelligence information from multiple sources.

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193. What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

Explanation

Link-local addresses have a scope that operates within a network segment and does not require a router to direct traffic. These addresses are automatically assigned to interfaces on a network and are used for local communication within that network segment. They are not routable and cannot be used to communicate outside of the network segment. Therefore, link-local addresses fulfill the criteria mentioned in the question.

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194. Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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195. A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an

Explanation

A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. A record is a collection of related data elements that are treated as a unit and can be accessed and manipulated together. It represents a single entity or item within a database and typically includes various attributes or fields that store specific information about that entity. A record is an essential component of a database system and is used for storing, retrieving, and managing data efficiently.

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196. Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET. GCCS is a comprehensive command and control system that enables military commanders to gather, process, and disseminate information for decision-making. It provides situational awareness, planning, and execution capabilities for joint and coalition forces. With its wide deployment and integration with the GIG and SIPRNET, GCCS is a crucial tool for military operations worldwide.

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197. Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?

Explanation

The Global Combat Support System (GCSS) primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements. This system is designed to support the management and execution of logistics operations in military organizations. It helps in streamlining the supply chain, tracking resources, and ensuring efficient logistics planning and execution.

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198. Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

Explanation

INFOCON 4 refers to the condition where there is an increased risk of attack. In this condition, it is necessary to mandate increased monitoring of all network system activities to ensure the security of the system. This means that when INFOCON 4 is in effect, there is a higher level of threat and vulnerability, and therefore, increased monitoring is required to detect and respond to any potential attacks or security breaches.

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199. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). The MFM is knowledgeable about the specific requirements and needs of the career field within the major command and can identify individuals who possess the necessary expertise to contribute to the development of these training materials.

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200. The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

Explanation

The correct answer is 91-64. This AFOSH standard specifically pertains to safety information on data processing facilities in the Air Force. It outlines the guidelines and regulations that need to be followed to ensure the safety and health of personnel working in these facilities. By referencing AFOSH standard 91-64, organizations can ensure that they are implementing the necessary safety measures to protect their employees and maintain a secure working environment for data processing activities.

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An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an...
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a...
A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and...
From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging...
Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its...
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how...
As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition...
Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite...
Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower,...
Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all...
What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each...
Which publication type are informational publications which are "how...
Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based...
What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external...
Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army,...
Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol...
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open...
What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data...
Which of the following is not one the four security threats to...
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process...
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected...
The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit,...
Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications...
The core operating-system function is the management of the computer...
Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense...
What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and...
Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the...
This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items...
What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch...
Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high...
The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining...
Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more...
This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to...
An optical communications system is comprised of a
Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using...
What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the...
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the...
Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
The main function of the Data Service Unit is to
What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be...
Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?
Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic...
What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data...
Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity...
What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet...
What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP...
What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication...
Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary...
What two main components make up the central processing unit?
Software is generally divided into
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk...
In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their...
A logical group of record is called a/an
Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense...
What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?
Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more...
What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a...
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D...
What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum...
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to...
Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control...
What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support...
Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of...
What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet...
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training...
Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the...
Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of...
Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status,...
Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network...
The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to...
Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads...
What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the...
What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers...
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in...
What encryption device is certified to secure all classification...
What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into...
Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic...
Which center is typically aligned under the base communications...
Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer...
Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast...
How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?
Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready...
Which document is the basic building block used in joint force...
Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and...
Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects,...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component...
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most...
Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse,...
Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into...
An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an
What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology...
Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify...
Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base...
A modem is a device that modulates
Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force...
This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless...
An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for...
Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly...
What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally...
Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what...
Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed...
Which function or organization was established to operate with an air...
Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United...
What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges...
Which system provides support for features such as Windows System...
Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be...
What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force...
What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID...
How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?
Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core...
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of...
Which command and control structure has network node whose...
Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that...
Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief...
Which organization assigns communication security incident report case...
At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management...
At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and...
What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard...
At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations...
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would...
Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?
Which function or organization has a mission that varies from...
Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and...
Which program was created in response to the FY 97–03 Defense...
What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will...
Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting...
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of...
Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global...
Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as...
Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all...
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter...
The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you...
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