3DX5X - Vol 1 And 2
All UREs for volumes 1 and 2 of the 3Dx5x CDCs.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Duty position task.
Correct Answer
D. Duty position task.Explanation
According to AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted), the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor is the duty position task. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks and responsibilities to the enlisted personnel based on their duty position within the military.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Core competency.
Correct Answer
C. Core competency.Explanation
A core competency is a comprehensive package of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are specific to a particular career field. It encompasses the essential abilities and expertise required to perform tasks and responsibilities within that field. Core competencies are essential for individuals to excel in their chosen profession and are often used as a benchmark for evaluating performance and proficiency.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
- A.
Cyber Surety.
- B.
Client Systems.
- C.
Cyber Transport.
- D.
Cyber Systems Operations.
Correct Answer
D. Cyber Systems Operations.Explanation
The correct answer is Cyber Systems Operations. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) deals with the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations worldwide. This involves managing and maintaining the operation of computer systems, networks, and servers, ensuring their availability and functionality. Cyber Systems Operations personnel are responsible for tasks such as installing, configuring, and troubleshooting servers, as well as monitoring system performance and security. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of server infrastructure within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?
- A.
Cyber Surety.
- B.
Client Systems.
- C.
Cyber Transport.
- D.
Cyber Systems Operations.
Correct Answer
B. Client Systems.Explanation
The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility that includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions is Client Systems. This role involves providing technical assistance and troubleshooting for computer systems and networks at the local base level. They are responsible for ensuring the smooth operation of client systems and addressing any issues that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for various tasks related to the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with these devices to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
B. Ground Radar Systems.Explanation
The correct answer is Ground Radar Systems. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. They ensure that these radar systems are functioning properly and provide accurate information for air traffic control and weather monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring. They ensure that the network wiring supports both fixed and deployed operations, making it an essential role in maintaining communication systems within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and can provide valuable insight and advice to help individuals make informed decisions about their career paths.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power in granting exemptions or waivers for these requirements.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). The MFM is knowledgeable about the specific requirements and needs of the career field within the major command and can identify individuals who possess the necessary expertise to contribute to the development of these training materials.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM).Explanation
The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Modify training.
- B.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- C.
Conduct climate training surveys.
- D.
Review the occupational analysis report.
Correct Answer
B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and competencies required for individuals working in that field, as well as identify the training resources and opportunities available to them. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their workforce is properly trained and equipped to meet the demands of their career field.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
Correct Answer
A. 91–46.Explanation
The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would be referenced for safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment."Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
Correct Answer
B. 91–50.Explanation
The correct answer is 91-50. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would provide safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems."Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
- A.
91–46.
- B.
91–50.
- C.
91–64.
- D.
91–68.
Correct Answer
C. 91–64.Explanation
The correct answer is 91-64. This AFOSH standard specifically pertains to safety information on data processing facilities in the Air Force. It outlines the guidelines and regulations that need to be followed to ensure the safety and health of personnel working in these facilities. By referencing AFOSH standard 91-64, organizations can ensure that they are implementing the necessary safety measures to protect their employees and maintain a secure working environment for data processing activities.Rate this question:
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- 16.
From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
- A.
Sunlight.
- B.
Microwaves.
- C.
Ionizing radiation.
- D.
Nonionizing radiation.
Correct Answer
D. Nonionizing radiation.Explanation
Nonionizing radiation refers to a type of radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, thus causing minimal damage to tissues. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause harm at the cellular level and lead to deep tissue damage, nonionizing radiation such as microwaves and sunlight do not have enough energy to cause these harmful effects. Therefore, a person can absorb selectively damaging amounts of nonionizing radiation without experiencing skin heating or any noticeable sensation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
A. Accept no unnecessary risk.Explanation
The principle of "Accept no unnecessary risk" states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk. This means that risks should only be taken when they are necessary for the success of the mission and when the benefits outweigh the potential costs. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can prioritize the safety and well-being of their personnel and resources while still achieving their mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.Explanation
This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take risks as long as the potential benefits outweigh the potential costs. This means that when evaluating risks, one should consider the potential positive outcomes and advantages that may result from taking the risk. By weighing the risks against the opportunities and benefits, organizations can make informed decisions that help maximize their overall capability and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.Explanation
The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are conducted as a normal part of mission operations, rather than being seen as an additional or separate process. This approach ensures that risk assessments are integrated into the overall planning and decision-making process, allowing for a more comprehensive understanding of the risks involved in mission operations. By making risk assessments a standard part of mission planning, organizations can effectively identify and manage risks in a proactive manner.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
- A.
Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.
- B.
Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.
- C.
Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
- D.
Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.
Correct Answer
C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.Explanation
Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that through offensive measures, the US aims to prevent, weaken, or destroy the adversary's ability to operate effectively in cyberspace. By doing so, the US can gain an advantage and protect its own sensitive data and systems from potential threats and attacks.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
- A.
Joint Operability network.
- B.
Tactical data links network.
- C.
Strategic data control network.
- D.
Supervisory control and data acquisition.
Correct Answer
D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.Explanation
Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as manufacturing, energy, and transportation to gather and analyze real-time data, control processes, and make informed decisions. This option is the correct answer as it accurately describes the concept of SCADA.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
- A.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).Explanation
The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. AFNOC is specifically designed to monitor and manage the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its security and functionality. It serves as the central hub for network operations and plays a critical role in maintaining the Air Force's network capabilities. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Network Control Center (NCC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), do not have the same level of authority and responsibility as AFNOC in terms of network control and defense.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
- A.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- B.
Network Control Center (NCC).
- C.
Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D.
Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer
B. Network Control Center (NCC).Explanation
The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 on-site support. They also implement technical and physical network changes. This center plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the network infrastructure at the local level, ensuring smooth operations and addressing any network issues that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).Explanation
The correct answer is Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). This organization's mission is different from the others because it focuses on providing small flyaway communication packages and rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. The other options, Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), do not mention these specific functions in their mission.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).Explanation
The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This organization is responsible for providing communication support and services to the AETF during deployments and operations. They ensure that the AETF has reliable and secure communication systems in place to effectively carry out their missions. The ECS plays a crucial role in maintaining connectivity and facilitating communication between different units within the AETF, enabling seamless coordination and information sharing.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C.
Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D.
Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).Explanation
The correct answer is Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). The ESU is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Their goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and enhance capacity for the warfighter. They focus on providing efficient and effective services to support the Air Force's mission and improve overall operational capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
- A.
Constitution.
- B.
Bill of Rights.
- C.
United States Title Code 10.
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
A. Constitution.Explanation
The Constitution is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It is the supreme law of the land and outlines the structure of the government, the rights and freedoms of the citizens, and the powers and limitations of the different branches of government. The Constitution serves as a framework for creating and interpreting laws, ensuring that they are in line with the principles and values of the nation. The other options listed, such as the Bill of Rights, United States Title Code 10, and Uniform Code of Military Justice, are specific laws or codes that are derived from or fall under the authority of the Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
Constitution.
- B.
Bill of Rights.
- C.
United States Title Code 10.
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
C. United States Title Code 10. -
- 29.
Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
- A.
Constitution.
- B.
Bill of Rights.
- C.
United States Title Code 10.
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer
D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.Explanation
The correct answer is the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This document serves as the foundation for holding military members accountable for any violations of binding instructions and laws. It outlines the legal framework for the military justice system and provides guidelines for disciplinary actions and legal proceedings within the military. It ensures that military personnel are subject to a separate set of laws and regulations that are specific to their profession and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
- A.
1994.
- B.
1995.
- C.
1997.
- D.
1998.
Correct Answer
B. 1995.Explanation
In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD. This suggests that it was in 1995 when these two entities finalized their concepts and began sharing them within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
- A.
1994.
- B.
1995.
- C.
1997.
- D.
1998.
Correct Answer
D. 1998.Explanation
In August of 1998, the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine. This means that they completed and made available their guidelines and principles for conducting information operations. At the same time, the Joint Staff also published its doctrine, although the specific date is not mentioned. Therefore, the correct answer is 1998, as it is the year when both the Air Force and the Joint Staff published their respective doctrines.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
- A.
Air Force Doctrines.
- B.
Air Force Pamphlets.
- C.
Air Force Instructions.
- D.
Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Policy Directives.Explanation
Air Force Policy Directives are directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. Air Force Doctrines, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions may contain other types of guidance or information, but they are not specifically mentioned as the publication type for these directive policy statements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?
- A.
Air Force Pamphlets.
- B.
Air Force Instructions.
- C.
Air Force Publications.
- D.
Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Pamphlets.Explanation
Air Force Pamphlets are the correct answer because they are informational publications that provide instructions or guidance on how to perform certain tasks or procedures. They are typically concise and easy-to-follow documents that offer step-by-step instructions or explanations on a specific topic within the Air Force. Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives may also contain informational content, but they are not specifically categorized as "how to" documents like Air Force Pamphlets.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
- A.
Broadcasts.
- B.
Transmissions.
- C.
Telecommunications.
- D.
Voice over Internet Protocol.
Correct Answer
C. Telecommunications.Explanation
Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over long distances to communicate. It encompasses various technologies and methods, including both analog and digital transmission. Telecommunications allows for the transfer of data, voice, and video signals, enabling communication over significant geographical distances. Broadcasts and transmissions are components of the telecommunications system, but they alone do not encompass the entire process of conveying data over long distances. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a specific technology used for transmitting voice signals over the internet, which is a subset of telecommunications.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
- A.
MyPay.
- B.
E-publishing.
- C.
Air Force Portal.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Portal.Explanation
The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It is a secure website that allows Air Force personnel to access various information and services such as email, training materials, news, and collaboration tools. It serves as a central hub for Air Force members to access important resources and stay connected with the organization.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
- A.
MyPay.
- B.
E-publishing.
- C.
Air Force Portal.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Portal.Explanation
The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. This is because the Air Force Portal provides a centralized platform for accessing and sharing information, resources, and tools within the Air Force. It allows personnel to easily collaborate, communicate, and access important documents and applications, making it an essential tool for the IT task force and other transformation efforts.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?
- A.
My base.
- B.
Single-sign-on.
- C.
Community of practice.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
B. Single-sign-on.Explanation
Single-sign-on is a feature in the Air Force Portal that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without the need for further log-in requirements. This feature enhances convenience and efficiency by eliminating the need for multiple log-ins, saving time and effort for users. It streamlines the authentication process, ensuring that authorized users can access various applications seamlessly with just one log-in.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
- A.
My base.
- B.
Single-sign-on.
- C.
Community of practice.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
D. Virtual Military Personnel Flight.Explanation
The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it provides a convenient and efficient way for Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel records and information online. It eliminates the need for individuals to physically visit a Military Personnel Flight office, saving time and resources. Additionally, the virtual Military Personnel Flight allows for self-service options, such as updating personal information and requesting certain documents, further enhancing the convenience and accessibility for Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
- A.
My base.
- B.
Single-sign-on.
- C.
Community of practice.
- D.
Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer
C. Community of practice.Explanation
A community of practice is a feature within the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and solve group problems. This feature promotes knowledge sharing, learning, and collaboration among individuals who have a common interest or expertise in a particular area.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”
- A.
AFI 33-118.
- B.
AFI 33-119.
- C.
AFI 33-127.
- D.
AFI 33-129.
Correct Answer
D. AFI 33-129. -
- 41.
Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
- A.
AFI 33-127.
- B.
AFI 33-129.
- C.
AFI 35-101.
- D.
AFI 35-108.
Correct Answer
C. AFI 35-101. -
- 42.
When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
- A.
Keep emails brief and to the point.
- B.
Read your email out loud to yourself.
- C.
Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
- D.
Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.
Correct Answer
C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.Explanation
Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone in the email thread to receive the response. In most cases, it is more appropriate to reply only to the sender or to select specific recipients who need to be included in the conversation. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and waste the time of individuals who do not need to be involved in the discussion.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which document is not considered an official government record?
- A.
Published doctrines.
- B.
Geographical base maps.
- C.
Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
- D.
Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer
D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.Explanation
Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not primary sources of information created or maintained by the government. Official government records typically include documents such as laws, regulations, official reports, and administrative records that are used for legal, administrative, or historical purposes. Library references and museum exhibitions may contain information about government records, but they are not the records themselves. They are secondary sources that provide interpretations, analysis, or summaries of the primary sources.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Records that are considered to be in draft format
- A.
Can be altered and are not officially released.
- B.
Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
- C.
Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
- D.
Officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer
A. Can be altered and are not officially released.Explanation
The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or modified and are not yet officially released to the public or authorized for distribution.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
- A.
Officially signed and not released.
- B.
Officially signed and officially released.
- C.
Can be altered and are not officially released.
- D.
Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.
Correct Answer
B. Officially signed and officially released.Explanation
Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone the necessary approval process and have been authorized for public distribution or use. This ensures that the information contained in these records is accurate and reliable.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
C. Command records manager.Explanation
The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers are properly trained and equipped to handle their duties in managing records at the base level. The command records manager has the authority and expertise to develop and implement training programs that meet the specific needs and requirements of the base records management system.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
A. Base records manager.Explanation
The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically performed by a base records manager. This role is responsible for overseeing the management and organization of records within a specific military base or facility. They ensure that records are properly maintained, accessible, and that staff are trained in record-keeping procedures. The other options, such as the Chief of Office of Records, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have different responsibilities within the records management hierarchy, but they do not specifically include the duties mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
D. Functional area records manager.Explanation
A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies regarding record-keeping. They play a crucial role in organizing and preserving important documents, facilitating efficient retrieval and disposal of records when necessary.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
- A.
Base records manager.
- B.
Chief of Office of Records.
- C.
Command records manager.
- D.
Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer
B. Chief of Office of Records.Explanation
The Chief of Office of Records is the individual with the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This role is responsible for overseeing the management and organization of records within their office, including the appointment of custodians who will be responsible for the maintenance and security of those records. The Chief of Office of Records is typically a senior-level position within an organization and has the necessary knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding the appointment of record custodians.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
- A.
File.
- B.
Record.
- C.
Database.
- D.
Enterprise.
Correct Answer
B. Record.Explanation
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. A record is a collection of related data elements that are treated as a unit and can be accessed and manipulated together. It represents a single entity or item within a database and typically includes various attributes or fields that store specific information about that entity. A record is an essential component of a database system and is used for storing, retrieving, and managing data efficiently.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 21, 2012Quiz Created by
Redbird777
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