3d0x1 CDC Vol 2

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3d0x1 CDC Vol 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?

    • A.

      Physical.

    • B.

      Data Link.

    • C.

      Network.

    • D.

      Transport.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical. The Physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for defining the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems. It deals with the physical transmission of data and the physical characteristics of the network, such as cables, connectors, and signaling.

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  • 2. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • A.

      High Level Data Link Control and Synchronous Data Link Control.

    • B.

      Logical Link Control and Media Access Control.

    • C.

      Distance Vector and Link State.

    • D.

      RS—232 and RS—530

    Correct Answer
    B. Logical Link Control and Media Access Control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control and Media Access Control. The Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer handles error control and flow control, ensuring reliable data transmission. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for managing access to the physical media, such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi, and handles addressing and data transmission between devices on the network. These two sublayers work together to provide a reliable and efficient data link between network devices.

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  • 3. 

    At what Open System lnterconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?

    • A.

      Network.

    • B.

      Physical.

    • C.

      Data Link.

    • D.

      Transport.

    Correct Answer
    C. Data Link.
    Explanation
    Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes and handles functions such as framing, error detection, and flow control. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN), making them operate at the Data Link layer.

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  • 4. 

    At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?

    • A.

      Network.

    • B.

      Physical.

    • C.

      Data Link.

    • D.

      Transport

    Correct Answer
    A. Network.
    Explanation
    Routers operate at the Network layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. They make decisions based on network layer information such as IP addresses and routing tables. Therefore, the correct answer is Network.

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  • 5. 

    At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?

    • A.

      Application.

    • B.

      Session.

    • C.

      Presentation.

    • D.

      Transport.

    Correct Answer
    C. Presentation.
    Explanation
    Common data compression and encryption schemes are used at the Presentation layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Presentation layer is responsible for formatting and presenting data in a way that can be understood by the application layer. Data compression reduces the size of the data to optimize transmission, while encryption ensures the security and confidentiality of the data. These functions are typically implemented at the Presentation layer before the data is passed to the application layer for processing.

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  • 6. 

    What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?

    • A.

      Application.

    • B.

      Session.

    • C.

      Presentation.

    • D.

      Transport.

    Correct Answer
    A. Application.
    Explanation
    The Open System Interconnect (OSI) model consists of seven layers, with the application layer being the closest to the end user. This layer is responsible for providing services directly to user applications, such as email, web browsers, and file transfer protocols. It interacts with the user and provides a means for accessing network resources. Therefore, the correct answer is Application.

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  • 7. 

    What is a formal set ofrules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?

    • A.

      Specification.

    • B.

      Standard.

    • C.

      Etiquette.

    • D.

      Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    D. Protocol.
    Explanation
    A protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium. It defines the format, timing, sequencing, and error control of data transmission. It ensures that devices can communicate with each other effectively and efficiently by establishing a common language and set of procedures. A specification refers to a detailed description of how a particular system should be implemented, while a standard is a set of guidelines or criteria that define a certain level of quality or compatibility. Etiquette refers to polite behavior or customs, which is not directly related to computer network communication.

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  • 8. 

    What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

    • A.

      Physical.

    • B.

      Logical.

    • C.

      Star.

    • D.

      Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is physical because the physical topology refers to the actual layout of devices and media in a network. It describes how devices are physically connected to each other and to the network media, such as cables or wireless connections. This includes the arrangement of devices, the types of cables used, and the location of devices within the network. In contrast, the logical topology refers to how data flows within the network and is independent of the physical layout. The star and hybrid topologies are examples of physical topologies.

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  • 9. 

    What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?

    • A.

      Physical.

    • B.

      Logical.

    • C.

      Star.

    • D.

      Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Logical.
    Explanation
    Logical topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It refers to the abstract representation of the network, focusing on how data flows between devices rather than the physical layout of the network. This includes concepts such as bus, ring, and mesh topologies, which determine how devices are connected and how data is transmitted between them.

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  • 10. 

    What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?

    • A.

      Bus.

    • B.

      Ring.

    • C.

      Star.

    • D.

      Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Bus". In a bus topology, devices are connected to a common cable called the bus. This cable acts as a communication medium, allowing devices to transmit and receive data. Each device on the bus can access the data transmitted by other devices on the same cable. This topology is relatively simple and inexpensive to implement, but it can be prone to single point failures if the main cable is damaged or disconnected.

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  • 11. 

    What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

    • A.

      Bus

    • B.

      Ring.

    • C.

      Star.

    • D.

      Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    C. Star.
    Explanation
    A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all communication between computers is routed through this central component, which helps to manage and control the network traffic. This type of topology provides better performance and reliability compared to bus or ring topologies, as it allows for easier troubleshooting and isolation of network issues.

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  • 12. 

    What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

    • A.

      Bus

    • B.

      Ring

    • C.

      Star

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    D. Hybrid
    Explanation
    A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that a network using a hybrid topology can have a combination of bus, ring, star, or other topologies. This allows for more flexibility and scalability in designing the network, as different topologies can be used to suit different needs or requirements.

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  • 13. 

    Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?

    • A.

      AppleTalk.

    • B.

      NetBios Extended User Interface.

    • C.

      Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.

    • D.

      Intemetwork Packet Exchange! Sequenced Packet Exchange.

    Correct Answer
    C. Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense has chosen the Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as its standard network protocol to govern the flow of information. TCP/IP is a widely used protocol suite that enables communication between devices on the internet. It provides reliable and secure transmission of data, ensuring that information flows efficiently and securely within the Department of Defense network.

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  • 14. 

    What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known 1 P address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?

    • A.

      Internet Protocol.

    • B.

      Address Resolution Protocol.

    • C.

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

    • D.

      Internet Control Message Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    B. Address Resolution Protocol.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network layer protocol that provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address. ARP is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses in order to facilitate communication between devices on a local network.

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  • 15. 

    What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?

    • A.

      Internet Protocol.

    • B.

      Address Resolution Protocol.

    • C.

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

    • D.

      Internet Control Message Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.
    Explanation
    The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a network layer protocol that provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address. RARP allows a device to send its MAC address to a RARP server and request its corresponding IP address. This is useful in situations where a device does not have a configured IP address and needs to obtain one dynamically.

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  • 16. 

    What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

    • A.

      Internet Protocol.

    • B.

      Address Resolution Protocol.

    • C.

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

    • D.

      Internet Control Message Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    D. Internet Control Message Protocol.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Internet Control Message Protocol. ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging services for troubleshooting and diagnostic purposes. It allows network devices to send error messages and operational information to indicate any issues or errors encountered during communication. ICMP messages can help in troubleshooting network connectivity, identifying network congestion, and diagnosing network problems. It is commonly used by network administrators and diagnostic tools to monitor and troubleshoot network issues.

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  • 17. 

    What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

    • A.

      Internet Protocol.

    • B.

      User Datagram Protocol.

    • C.

      Transmission Control Protocol.

    • D.

      Internet Control Message Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    C. Transmission Control Protocol.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable data delivery services. It ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors by using mechanisms such as acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control. TCP is widely used in applications that require reliable and ordered delivery of data, such as web browsing, email, and file transfers.

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  • 18. 

    What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?

    • A.

      File Transfer Protocol.

    • B.

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol.

    • C.

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.

    • D.

      HyperText Transfer Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    A. File Transfer Protocol.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is File Transfer Protocol. FTP is a widely used application protocol that allows for the transfer of files between a client and a server over a TCP/IP network. It provides a set of commands and responses for authentication, file navigation, and file transfer. FTP is commonly used for uploading and downloading files from remote servers and is supported by most operating systems and web browsers.

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  • 19. 

    What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?

    • A.

      Local Area Network.

    • B.

      Wide Area Network.

    • C.

      Virtual Private Network.

    • D.

      Metropolitan Area Network.

    Correct Answer
    B. Wide Area Network.
    Explanation
    A Wide Area Network (WAN) is the correct answer because it connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances. WANs are used to connect networks across cities, states, countries, or even globally, allowing for communication and data transfer between different locations. In contrast, a Local Area Network (LAN) connects devices within a limited area, such as a home, office, or building. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure network connection that allows remote users to access a private network over the internet. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) connects networks within a specific geographic area, such as a city or town.

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  • 20. 

    What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?

    • A.

      Local Area Network.

    • B.

      Wide Area Network.

    • C.

      Virtual Private Network.

    • D.

      Metropolitan Area Network.

    Correct Answer
    C. Virtual Private Network.
    Explanation
    A Virtual Private Network (VPN) makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enable a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet. VPNs create a secure and encrypted connection between the computers, allowing them to send and receive data as if they were directly connected to a private network. This ensures that the communication remains private and protected from unauthorized access or interception.

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  • 21. 

    Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?

    • A.

      Port 80.

    • B.

      Port 110.

    • C.

      Port 443.

    • D.

      Port 8080.

    Correct Answer
    A. Port 80.
    Explanation
    Port 80 is the common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies. HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting and receiving information on the World Wide Web. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP, and it is used by web servers to listen for incoming HTTP requests from clients. It is the standard port for accessing websites and web applications through a web browser. Other ports mentioned, such as port 110, port 443, and port 8080, have different purposes and are not specifically associated with HTTP servers and proxies.

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  • 22. 

    How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

    • A.

      16 bits.

    • B.

      32 bits.

    • C.

      64 bits.

    • D.

      128 bits.

    Correct Answer
    B. 32 bits.
    Explanation
    An IPv4 address is made up of 32 bits. This means that it consists of a sequence of 32 binary digits (0s and 1s). Each bit represents a binary value and together they form the unique address for a device on a network. The use of 32 bits allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique addresses in the IPv4 addressing system.

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  • 23. 

    Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

    • A.

      Colon Hexadecimal Format.

    • B.

      Dotted Decimal Notation.

    • C.

      Hexadecimal.

    • D.

      Octal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dotted Decimal Notation.
    Explanation
    IPv4 addresses are expressed in dotted decimal notation to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into four octets, each represented by a decimal number separated by dots. This notation is easier for users to read and understand compared to binary, hexadecimal, or octal formats.

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  • 24. 

    Using a range of 1—126 in the first octet of an lPv4 address, what class does it belong to?

    • A.

      Class A.

    • B.

      Class B.

    • C.

      Class C.

    • D.

      Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A.
    Explanation
    An IPv4 address is divided into different classes based on the range of the first octet. Class A addresses have a range of 1-126 in the first octet, which means that any IP address starting with a number between 1 and 126 belongs to Class A.

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  • 25. 

    What lPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

    • A.

      Class C.

    • B.

      Class D.

    • C.

      Class E.

    • D.

      Class F.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C.
    Explanation
    Class C is the correct answer because it is designated for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, allowing for up to 2^24 (16,777,216) unique addresses. This provides enough addresses to accommodate a network with around 250 nodes. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is currently unassigned.

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  • 26. 

    What LPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?

    • A.

      Class C.

    • B.

      Class D.

    • C.

      Class E.

    • D.

      Class F.

    Correct Answer
    B. Class D.
    Explanation
    Class D is used for multicast addressing in IPv4. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. Multicast addresses are used to send packets to a group of hosts rather than a single host. This allows for efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients simultaneously. Class C addresses are used for regular IP addressing, while Class E addresses are reserved for future use. Class F does not exist in IPv4.

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  • 27. 

    What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

    • A.

      0.0.0.0.

    • B.

      127.0.0.1.

    • C.

      207.55.157.255.

    • D.

      255.255.255.255.

    Correct Answer
    B. 127.0.0.1.
    Explanation
    The loopback address is a reserved IPv4 address used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a device to send and receive data to itself. The loopback address is represented by the IP address 127.0.0.1, which is the correct answer in this case. The other options are not loopback addresses.

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  • 28. 

    What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?

    • A.

      Subnet mask.

    • B.

      Broadcast.

    • C.

      Multicast.

    • D.

      Subnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Subnet mask.
    Explanation
    A subnet mask is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number. It is used to determine which part of the IP address represents the network and which part represents the host. The subnet mask is applied to the IP address using a bitwise AND operation, which effectively separates the network and host portions of the address. This allows the device to route packets correctly within the network and identify the appropriate destination for each packet.

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  • 29. 

    What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?

    • A.

      255.255.0.0.

    • B.

      255.255.240.0.

    • C.

      255.255.255.0.

    • D.

      255.255.255.224.

    Correct Answer
    A. 255.255.0.0.
    Explanation
    The default classful subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0. This is because class B networks have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, which allows for a maximum of 65,534 host addresses.

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  • 30. 

    What method bonows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?

    • A.

      Classful Subnet Masking.

    • B.

      Classless Inter-Domain Routing.

    • C.

      Virtual Private Networking.

    • D.

      Virtual Local Area Networking.

    Correct Answer
    B. Classless Inter-Domain Routing.
    Explanation
    Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is the method that borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet. CIDR allows for more flexible and efficient allocation of IP addresses by allowing variable length subnet masks (VLSM). This means that the subnet mask can be adjusted to accommodate different network sizes, rather than being limited to the fixed network sizes of classful subnet masking.

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  • 31. 

    Instead of using binary, how are lPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

    • A.

      Colon Hexadecimal Forthat.

    • B.

      Dotted Decimal Notation.

    • C.

      Hexadecimal.

    • D.

      Octal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Colon Hexadecimal Forthat.
  • 32. 

    What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for lPv6?

    • A.

      1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

    • B.

      1OAB::3:0:1234:5678.

    • C.

      255.255.255.255.

    • D.

      127.0.0.1.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an IPv6 address expressed in leading zero compression notation. This notation allows consecutive blocks of zeros to be represented as "::". In the given answer, the blocks "0:0" and "0:0" are compressed using "::", resulting in 1234:1234::1234:0:0:1234.

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  • 33. 

    What notation is expressed in zero compression for lPv6?

    • A.

      1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

    • B.

      10AB::3:0:1234:5678.

    • C.

      255.255.255.255.

    • D.

      127.0.0.1.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.

    This notation represents the zero compression in IPv6. The "::" indicates that a series of consecutive zeros have been compressed. In this case, the zeros between "3" and "1234" have been compressed. This notation helps to shorten the IPv6 address and make it more readable.

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  • 34. 

    What Unicast address scope operates within a network-segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

    • A.

      Site-local.

    • B.

      Link-local.

    • C.

      Aggregatable Local.

    • D.

      Aggregatable Global.

    Correct Answer
    B. Link-local.
    Explanation
    Link-local addresses have a scope that is limited to a specific network segment and do not require a router to direct traffic. These addresses are automatically assigned to interfaces when no other address is available, and they are used for communication within the local network only. They cannot be routed outside of the network segment, making them ideal for local communication and for ensuring that network traffic stays within the intended network.

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  • 35. 

    What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

    • A.

      Site-local.

    • B.

      Link-local.

    • C.

      Aggregatable Local.

    • D.

      Aggregatable Global.

    Correct Answer
    A. Site-local.
    Explanation
    Site-local addresses are designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site. They are used for communication within a specific site or organization and are not meant to be globally unique or routable on the internet. Site-local addresses were deprecated in 2004 by RFC 4193, which introduced Unique Local Addresses (ULA) as a replacement.

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  • 36. 

    What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?

    • A.

      Site-local.

    • B.

      Link-local.

    • C.

      Aggregatable Local.

    • D.

      Aggregatable Global.

    Correct Answer
    D. Aggregatable Global.
    Explanation
    Aggregatable Global is the correct answer because it refers to a unicast address scope that is publicly accessible. In this scope, the Network ID portion of the address is broken up into different areas, which allows for hierarchical design and allocation. This means that the address can be divided into smaller subnets, making it easier to manage and allocate IP addresses in a large network. The term "aggregatable" suggests that these smaller subnets can be aggregated or combined into larger blocks, further enhancing the scalability and efficiency of the network.

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  • 37. 

    The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the

    • A.

      Control unit.

    • B.

      Minicomputer.

    • C.

      Microprocessor.

    • D.

      Arithmetic logic unit.

    Correct Answer
    C. Microprocessor.
    Explanation
    The computing part of the computer is referred to as the microprocessor. The microprocessor is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations. It is often considered the brain of the computer, as it controls and coordinates all the activities of the computer's hardware and software components. The control unit, arithmetic logic unit, and minicomputer are not the correct answers as they do not accurately describe the computing part of the computer.

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  • 38. 

    What two main components make up the central processing unit?

    • A.

      Control unit and read-only memory.

    • B.

      Control unit and arithmetic logic unit.

    • C.

      Arithmetic logic unit and read-only memory.

    • D.

      Arithmetic logic unit and random access memory.

    Correct Answer
    B. Control unit and arithmetic logic unit.
    Explanation
    The central processing unit (CPU) is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations in a computer system. It consists of two main components: the control unit and the arithmetic logic unit (ALU). The control unit coordinates the activities of all the other hardware components, manages the flow of data, and interprets and executes instructions. The ALU performs mathematical and logical operations, such as addition, subtraction, and comparison. Therefore, the correct answer is control unit and arithmetic logic unit.

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  • 39. 

    What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?

    • A.

      Volatile.

    • B.

      Nonvolatile.

    • C.

      Secured.

    • D.

      Unsecured.

    Correct Answer
    B. Nonvolatile.
    Explanation
    Nonvolatile memory is the type of memory that retains data even after power is removed or lost. Unlike volatile memory, which loses its data when power is turned off, nonvolatile memory stores information permanently. This type of memory is commonly used in devices such as flash drives, solid-state drives, and read-only memory (ROM) chips.

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  • 40. 

    Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

    • A.

      Twisted pair cable.

    • B.

      Fiber optic cable.

    • C.

      Coaxial cable.

    • D.

      Twinax cable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Twisted pair cable.
    Explanation
    Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium. It consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce electromagnetic interference. Twisted pair cable is capable of transmitting voice signals effectively over short to medium distances, making it suitable for landline telephone systems. Fiber optic cable, coaxial cable, and twinax cable are also used for transmission, but they are more commonly used for data and video communication rather than voice communication.

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  • 41. 

    An optical communications system is comprised of a

    • A.

      Transmitter, cable, and receiver.

    • B.

      Transmitter, cable, and logic analyzer.

    • C.

      Transmitter, transmission medium, and logic analyzer.

    • D.

      Transmitter, transmission medium, and protocol analyzer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter, cable, and receiver.
    Explanation
    An optical communications system requires a transmitter to convert electrical signals into optical signals, a cable to transmit the optical signals, and a receiver to convert the optical signals back into electrical signals. This ensures that the information can be transmitted effectively and accurately from one point to another. A logic analyzer or protocol analyzer is not necessary for the basic functioning of an optical communications system.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?

    • A.

      Ease of installation.

    • B.

      Lower Cost.

    • C.

      Safety.

    • D.

      Mobility.

    Correct Answer
    C. Safety.
    Explanation
    Wireless technology offers several advantages, including ease of installation, lower cost, and mobility. However, safety is not one of these advantages. While wireless technology provides convenience and flexibility, it may also pose security risks such as unauthorized access, data breaches, and interference. Therefore, safety is not considered an advantage of using wireless technology.

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  • 43. 

    The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called

    • A.

      Mobility.

    • B.

      Ease of installations.

    • C.

      War driving.

    • D.

      Motion capture technology.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mobility because wireless technology allows for freedom of movement without the need for physical connections or wires. This enables users to move around and access devices or networks without being tethered to a specific location.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?

    • A.

      Rogue Access Points.

    • B.

      Direct Connections.

    • C.

      War Drivers.

    • D.

      Hackers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Direct Connections.
    Explanation
    Direct Connections is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network. Rogue Access Points, War Drivers, and Hackers are all potential security threats to WLANs. Direct Connections refers to devices that are physically connected to the network, rather than accessing it wirelessly. While direct connections can still pose security risks, they are not specifically categorized as a threat to WLANs.

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  • 45. 

    Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?

    • A.

      Auditor.

    • B.

      Employee.

    • C.

      War Driver.

    • D.

      Hacker.

    Correct Answer
    B. Employee.
    Explanation
    An employee is an authorized client who may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network. As an insider, an employee has access to sensitive information and network resources, making them a potential threat if they misuse their privileges or fall victim to social engineering tactics. Whether intentionally or unintentionally, an employee can compromise the security of a network by sharing login credentials, downloading malware, or falling for phishing scams, allowing unauthorized individuals to gain access. Hence, employees need to be educated and trained on cybersecurity best practices to minimize the risk of such incidents.

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  • 46. 

    What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today’s wireless networks?

    • A.

      Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers.

    • B.

      International Organization for Standardization.

    • C.

      Internet assigned numbers authority.

    • D.

      National Science Foundation network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers.
    Explanation
    The Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks. These standards include IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi), IEEE 802.15 (Bluetooth), and IEEE 802.16 (WiMAX), among others. The IEEE is a professional association that focuses on advancing technology in various fields, including wireless communication. Their standards ensure interoperability and compatibility among different wireless devices and networks, enabling seamless communication and providing a foundation for innovation in wireless technology.

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  • 47. 

    How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?

    • A.

      127

    • B.

      128.

    • C.

      227.

    • D.

      228.

    Correct Answer
    A. 127
    Explanation
    A Universal Serial Bus (USB) can handle up to 127 peripherals at once. USB is designed to support multiple devices through a single connection, allowing for easy connectivity and data transfer. This high number of peripherals is made possible by the USB protocol and the way it manages data transmission and power distribution. Therefore, the correct answer is 127.

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  • 48. 

    How many devices can connect to a Fire Wire bus?

    • A.

      63

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      65

    • D.

      66

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    A FireWire bus can support up to 63 devices. This limitation is due to the addressing scheme used by FireWire, which allows for a maximum of 63 unique addresses. Each device connected to the bus requires a unique address, so once all 63 addresses are assigned, no additional devices can be connected.

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  • 49. 

    What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?

    • A.

      Current.

    • B.

      Voltage.

    • C.

      Resistance.

    • D.

      Inductance.

    Correct Answer
    B. Voltage.
    Explanation
    To change the alignment and light polarizing property of Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) material, voltage is applied across it. The application of voltage causes the liquid crystal molecules to reorient themselves, which in turn changes the alignment of the material. This change in alignment affects the polarization of light passing through the LCD, allowing for the control of the display's brightness and color.

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  • 50. 

    What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

    • A.

      Hub

    • B.

      Bridge

    • C.

      Switch

    • D.

      Router

    Correct Answer
    B. Bridge
    Explanation
    A bridge is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the MAC addresses of incoming data packets and forwarding them only to the appropriate segment. This helps to reduce network congestion and improve overall network performance. Bridges are commonly used in local area networks (LANs) to connect different segments and improve network efficiency.

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