Z3d152 Vol 2 Communication Quiz

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  • 1/124 Questions

    (203) Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

    • Character-oriented.
    • Bit-oriented.
    • Network.
    • Routing.
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About This Quiz

The Z3D152 vol 2 communication Quiz assesses knowledge on OSI model layers, data protocols, and video compression standards. It focuses on understanding virtual circuits, binary-synchronous protocols, and bit-oriented communication, crucial for networking professionals.

Z3d152 Vol 2 Communication Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

    • Bus.

    • Ring.

    • Star.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ring.
    Explanation
    In a ring topology, the stations are connected in the form of a circle, where each station is connected to exactly two other stations. Data is transmitted in only one direction around the ring, and each station acts as a repeater to amplify and pass on the signal to the next station. This topology provides equal access to all stations and allows for efficient data transmission.

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  • 3. 

    (210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

    • Bus.

    • Ring.

    • Star.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hybrid.
    Explanation
    A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that a network can have a combination of bus, ring, star, or other topologies. By using a hybrid topology, organizations can customize their network to meet their specific needs and requirements. This allows for greater flexibility and scalability in network design.

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  • 4. 

    (201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

    • Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

    • Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG).

    • File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

    • G.711.

    Correct Answer
    A. Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).
    Explanation
    MPEG-4 is a video compression standard developed by the Motion Picture Experts Group. It is widely used for video streaming, video conferencing, and multimedia storage. It allows for efficient compression of video files while maintaining good quality. JPEG, on the other hand, is a compression standard for still images, not videos. FTP is a protocol used for transferring files, and G.711 is a standard for audio compression, not video compression. Therefore, the correct answer is Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

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  • 5. 

    (204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

    • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).

    • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

    • Network Time Protocol (NTP).

    • Packet Internet Groper (PING).

    Correct Answer
    A. Network Time Protocol (NTP).
    Explanation
    Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is designed to accurately synchronize the timekeeping of networked computers by exchanging time information between them. It allows computers to maintain consistent and accurate time, which is crucial for various network operations and applications that rely on synchronized time. SNMP is used for network management, DHCP is used for automatic IP address assignment, and PING is used for network troubleshooting. Therefore, NTP is the correct choice for clock synchronization.

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  • 6. 

    (211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

    • Switch.

    • Firewall.

    • Gateway.

    • Repeater.

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch.
    Explanation
    A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and allows for the efficient and secure transfer of data between devices within a network. Unlike a hub, which broadcasts data to all devices on a network, a switch intelligently directs data packets only to the intended recipient, improving network performance and security. Therefore, a switch is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 7. 

    (239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

    • Circumvention, and confidentiality.

    • Circumvention, and disclosure.

    • Confidentiality, and integrity.

    • Disclosure, and integrity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality, and integrity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is confidentiality and integrity. These two cornerstones are essential for ensuring the security of a voice network system. Confidentiality ensures that unauthorized individuals cannot access or intercept sensitive information transmitted over the network. Integrity ensures that the data remains intact and unaltered during transmission. Together, these two cornerstones protect the privacy and reliability of voice communications within the network.

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  • 8. 

    (203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

    • SEQ.

    • SYN.

    • STX.

    • EST.

    Correct Answer
    A. SYN.
    Explanation
    In binary-synchronous protocol, the SYN (synchronize) character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. This character ensures that the sender and receiver are in sync and ready to transmit or receive data. It serves as a signal to indicate the start of a message and helps to maintain the integrity of the data being transmitted.

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  • 9. 

    (204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

    • IP.

    • Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

    • Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that matches a known IP address for a destination device to a MAC address. It is used to find the MAC address of a device on the same network by broadcasting an ARP request. Once the MAC address is resolved, the device can communicate with the destination device using the MAC address.

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  • 10. 

    (205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

    • A.

    • B.

    • C.

    • D.

    Correct Answer
    A. A.
    Explanation
    Class A network has the most addresses for hosts. This is because Class A networks have a very large range of IP addresses, with the first octet reserved for network identification and the remaining three octets available for host addresses. The first octet can have a range from 1 to 126, allowing for a maximum of 126 different Class A networks, each with millions of possible host addresses.

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  • 11. 

    (206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

    • 8 groups of dotted decimal numbers.

    • 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.

    • 4 dotted decimal numbers.

    • 128 decimal numbers.

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.
    Explanation
    IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. This is because IPv6 uses a 128-bit address format, which is much larger than the 32-bit address format used by IPv4. Hexadecimal numbers are used because they provide a more compact representation of the large address space, compared to decimal numbers. Each group of hexadecimal numbers is separated by a colon, allowing for a total of 8 groups in an IPv6 address.

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  • 12. 

    (209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

    • Department of Defense network.

    • Air Force network.

    • Local area network.

    • A public network.

    Correct Answer
    A. A public network.
    Explanation
    VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely connect to and access network resources from any location using the internet as the underlying infrastructure. By encrypting the data transmitted over the public network, VPNs ensure that the communication remains secure and private. This allows the AF to connect to and utilize network resources even when they are not physically present on the same network, providing flexibility and remote access capabilities.

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  • 13. 

    (210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

    • Physical.

    • Logical.

    • Hybrid.

    • Star.

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical.
    Explanation
    Logical topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It represents the logical connections between devices, regardless of their physical locations. It determines how data flows from one device to another and how devices are organized in a network. Unlike physical topology, which refers to the actual physical layout of devices and cables, logical topology focuses on the conceptual structure of the network. Common examples of logical topologies include bus, ring, star, mesh, and tree.

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  • 14. 

    (211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

    • Lag.

    • Hop.

    • Latency.

    • Time zone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Latency.
    Explanation
    Latency refers to the time it takes for a switch to determine the appropriate destination for a data unit. It measures the delay between the initiation of a request and the response received. Lag refers to a delay or pause in the transmission of data, hop refers to the process of forwarding a data unit from one network node to another, and time zone is unrelated to the switch's decision-making process.

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  • 15. 

    (211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

    • VLAN trunks.

    • VLAN frames.

    • VLAN links.

    • VLAN ports.

    Correct Answer
    A. VLAN trunks.
    Explanation
    VLAN trunks allow transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. A VLAN trunk is a network link that can carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously. It uses a tagging mechanism to identify which VLAN a particular frame belongs to, allowing multiple VLANs to be transported over the same physical link. This enables efficient use of network resources and simplifies network management by reducing the number of physical links required to connect switches.

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  • 16. 

    (212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

    • Hostname.

    • Network name.

    • Service Set Identifier (SSID).

    • Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID).

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Set Identifier (SSID).
    Explanation
    The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the correct answer because it is the identifier that differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. The SSID is a unique name assigned to a WLAN, allowing devices to connect to the correct network. The hostname is a label assigned to a device on a network, not specific to WLANs. The network name is a general term and does not specifically differentiate WLANs. The Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID) is used to separate network traffic within a LAN, but it does not differentiate WLANs from each other.

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  • 17. 

    (240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

    • Data networks only.

    • Voice networks only.

    • Both voice and data networks.

    • Neither voice nor data networks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both voice and data networks.
    Explanation
    Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the merging of voice and data networks into a single network infrastructure. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure that measures are in place to protect against threats and vulnerabilities that may arise from the convergence of these networks. This comprehensive approach helps to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of both voice and data communications, reducing the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security incidents.

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  • 18. 

    (240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

    • Toll fraud.

    • War dialing.

    • Masquerades.

    • Denial of service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Masquerades.
    Explanation
    Masquerades refer to attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user. This involves impersonating someone with legitimate access privileges to trick the system into granting unauthorized access. Toll fraud refers to unauthorized use of telecommunication services, while war dialing involves scanning phone numbers to find vulnerable systems. Denial of service refers to attacks that aim to disrupt or disable a network or system.

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  • 19. 

    (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

    • Facilitate the detection of intruders.

    • Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.

    • Provide security forces personnel a safe place to work.

    • To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

    Correct Answer
    A. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. This means that the fence acts as a barrier that prevents unauthorized individuals from easily accessing the protected area. The presence of a fence can discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the perimeter, as it creates a visible obstacle and sends a message that the area is secure. Additionally, the fence can also provide a psychological sense of security to those inside the protected area, knowing that there is a physical barrier in place to deter unauthorized entry.

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  • 20. 

    (204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

    • Internet protocol (IP).

    • Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

    • Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
    Explanation
    ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging services for troubleshooting purposes. It is used to send error messages and operational information about network conditions between devices on an IP network. ICMP messages are used to diagnose network connectivity issues, identify network congestion, and troubleshoot network problems. It allows network administrators to monitor network performance, detect and isolate network errors, and gather information about network devices. Therefore, ICMP is the correct answer as it provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting.

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  • 21. 

    (208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

    • Auxiliary.

    • Console.

    • Ethernet.

    • Telnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Console.
    Explanation
    The console port on a router is used for initial configuration. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) through a console cable. By connecting a computer to the console port using a console cable, network administrators can configure the router's settings, such as IP addresses, routing protocols, and security settings, before enabling other ports for network connectivity. The console port provides a reliable and secure method for initial setup and troubleshooting of the router.

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  • 22. 

    (213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

    • Alphabetically.

    • Hierarchically.

    • Numerically.

    • Objectively.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hierarchically.
    Explanation
    A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information is structured in a hierarchical manner, with different levels of information grouped together based on their relationships and dependencies. This hierarchical organization allows for easier management and access to the information within the MIB, as it provides a clear structure and framework for organizing and navigating the data.

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  • 23. 

    (218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

    • The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels.

    • A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.

    • The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition.

    • Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
    Explanation
    A B8ZS signal is a type of line code used in telecommunications to transmit digital data. It is designed to break up long strings of zeros by intentionally inserting bipolar violations. This helps to maintain synchronization and prevent errors in the transmission.

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  • 24. 

    (229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?

    • Commercial providers.

    • National Security Agency (NSA).

    • Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communication and information technology services to the Department of Defense (DOD), and it plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the DOD's network infrastructure. Therefore, DISA is the agency that oversees and provides the necessary transport services for Internet and commercial satellite connections on DOD networks.

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  • 25. 

    (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

    • Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.

    • Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping outside the line of detection.

    • Potential for intruder to bypass the system.

    • Possibility of equipment failures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection." In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection refers to the boundary or area that the system is monitoring for any unauthorized access or intrusion. The IDS must be able to detect any movement or activity that occurs within this line of detection, whether it is walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping. This ensures that any potential intruders attempting to breach the system are identified and alerted.

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  • 26. 

    (251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

    • Ultrasonic.

    • Microwave.

    • Passive infrared.

    • Dual-phenomenology.

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive infrared.
    Explanation
    Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors are designed to detect changes in infrared energy emitted by objects in their field of view. When a person or object moves within the sensor's range, it detects the difference in heat radiation and triggers an alarm. Ultrasonic sensors, on the other hand, use sound waves to detect movement, microwave sensors use radio waves, and dual-phenomenology sensors combine multiple detection methods. Therefore, the correct answer is passive infrared.

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  • 27. 

    (252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

    • None.

    • Tamper.

    • Intruder.

    • Equipment fault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tamper.
    Explanation
    If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is designed to detect any unauthorized access or interference with the sensor, indicating that someone may be attempting to tamper with or disable the system.

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  • 28. 

    (204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

    • Internet Protocol (IP).

    • User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

    • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP provides reliable data delivery services by ensuring that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors. It uses mechanisms such as acknowledgment, retransmission, and flow control to ensure reliable transmission. Unlike UDP, which is a connectionless protocol and does not provide reliability, TCP establishes a connection between the sender and receiver and guarantees the delivery of data. Therefore, TCP is the correct choice for reliable data delivery services.

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  • 29. 

    (208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

    • Line console.

    • Line vty.

    • Enable.

    • Secret.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable.
    Explanation
    When configuring a router, access to privileged EXEC mode is controlled by configuring the "enable" password. This password is used to authenticate users who want to access the privileged EXEC mode, which provides full control and configuration capabilities on the router. By setting an enable password, only authorized users who know the password can access this mode and make changes to the router's configuration.

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  • 30. 

    (211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • .

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical grouping of devices in a network that behave as if they are on their own independent network, even though they may physically be connected to the same switch. By creating VLANs, network administrators can separate traffic and improve network performance and security. Each VLAN forms its own broadcast domain, meaning that broadcast traffic is contained within that VLAN and does not propagate to other VLANs. Therefore, a single VLAN forms one broadcast domain.

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  • 31. 

    (217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

    • Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.

    • NRZ mark.

    • NRZ space.

    • Return-to-zero.

    Correct Answer
    A. Return-to-zero.
    Explanation
    In a return-to-zero (RZ) digital signal, the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels (usually positive or negative) and then returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that the signal alternates between the two levels and includes a zero level in between each transition. This type of signal is commonly used in digital communication systems to represent binary data, where the presence of a signal level represents a "1" and the absence of a signal level represents a "0".

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  • 32. 

    (242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to

    • Verify the circuit is not in use.

    • Prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

    • Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

    • Avoid activating alarm circuits on the voice network system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
    Explanation
    Measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for the safety of the person performing the task and also prevents any potential damage to the equipment or circuit. By measuring the voltage, one can identify if there are any dangerous levels present, allowing them to take necessary precautions before proceeding with the replacement.

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  • 33. 

    (207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

    • Bridge.

    • Router.

    • Gateway.

    • Repeater.

    Correct Answer
    A. Router.
    Explanation
    A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and directs data between nodes on a network. It is responsible for forwarding data packets between computer networks, ensuring that they reach their intended destinations. Unlike a bridge, which connects two similar types of networks, a router can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi. A gateway, on the other hand, is a device that connects two different types of networks, such as a local area network (LAN) and the internet. A repeater is a device that amplifies or regenerates a signal to extend its reach in a network but does not direct data between nodes.

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  • 34. 

    (207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

    • Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

    • Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).

    • Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

    • Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
    Explanation
    Internet backbones use Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is specifically designed for routing between autonomous systems (AS) and is used to exchange routing information and maintain a table of available routes. It is highly scalable and can handle the large number of routes and complex network topologies typically found in internet backbones. BGP also supports policy-based routing, allowing network administrators to control the flow of traffic and implement advanced routing policies. OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP are other routing protocols used within individual ASs but are not commonly used in internet backbones.

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  • 35. 

    (215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

    • Bits.

    • Bytes.

    • Codes.

    • Blocks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bits.
    Explanation
    Individual pulses within a digital signal are represented as bits. In digital communication, information is transmitted in the form of binary digits (bits) which can have two possible values, 0 or 1. Each pulse within a digital signal represents either a 0 or a 1, allowing for the transmission and storage of data in a digital format. Therefore, bits are the correct answer as they represent the individual pulses within a digital signal.

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  • 36. 

    (215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

    • Baud rate.

    • Interface speed.

    • Bits per second.

    • Baud per second.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bits per second.
    Explanation
    Bits per second is the most commonly used term in data systems to express signaling speed. It represents the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. Baud rate, on the other hand, refers to the number of signal changes per second and is not the same as the number of bits transmitted. Interface speed and Baud per second are not commonly used terms in data systems and are not as accurate as bits per second for expressing signaling speed.

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  • 37. 

    (217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. This is because binary signals are based on the binary number system, which uses only two digits (0 and 1) to represent information. Each voltage level corresponds to one of these digits, allowing for the representation of digital information in computers and electronic devices.

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  • 38. 

    (212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

    • Planning.

    • Securing.

    • Deployment.

    • Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning.
    Explanation
    The wireless design phase that accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users, and the security and integrity requirements of the network data is planning. During the planning phase, all these factors are taken into consideration to ensure that the wireless network is designed and implemented in a way that meets the needs of the users, while also maintaining the necessary security measures and data integrity. This phase involves analyzing the requirements, conducting a site survey, and creating a detailed plan for the wireless network deployment.

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  • 39. 

    (232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Annual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    Trend analysis is a program that evaluates circuits on a regular basis to ensure they meet management thresholds. The question asks on what basis this evaluation is conducted, and the correct answer is monthly. This means that the circuits are assessed and analyzed on a monthly basis to track any trends or patterns and ensure they are within the desired thresholds.

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  • 40. 

    (250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

    • Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.

    • Security forces entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator and gatehouse.

    • Location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

    • Gatehouse, vehicle parking area and personnel entry gate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.
    Explanation
    The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a gatehouse, which serves as a central control point for monitoring and managing access to the facility. The personnel entry gate is where individuals entering the facility are checked and authorized to enter. Inspection equipment is used to screen individuals and their belongings for any prohibited items or threats. The vehicle entrapment area is a designated space where vehicles entering the facility can be stopped and inspected if necessary. This configuration ensures that access to the facility is controlled and secure.

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  • 41. 

    (202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

    • Layer above.

    • Layer below.

    • Lowest layer.

    • Peer layer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest layer.
    Explanation
    In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer communicates with the layer above it, the layer below it, and its peer layer. The lowest layer refers to the physical layer, which is responsible for the actual transmission and reception of data. Since it does not communicate with any other layer below it, the lowest layer is not one of the layers that a layer communicates with.

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  • 42. 

    (212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

    • 802.11a.

    • 802.11b.

    • 802.11g.

    • 802.11r.

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11a.
    Explanation
    The IEEE specification 802.11a is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices. This is because it operates on the 5 GHz frequency band, which is less crowded and has less interference compared to the 2.4 GHz frequency band used by 802.11b and 802.11g. 802.11r is a specification for fast roaming in Wi-Fi networks and is not related to interference susceptibility.

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  • 43. 

    (214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

    • Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.

    • Configure the equipment to use a line console password.

    • Power cycle the equipment at the end of the duty day.

    • Configure the equipment using setup mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.
    Explanation
    By configuring the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible, it ensures that the network equipment has enough storage capacity to support a wide range of security services. These security services may include encryption, authentication, access control, and intrusion detection, among others. Having more memory allows the equipment to handle the processing and storage requirements of these services effectively, ensuring the network's security is not compromised.

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  • 44. 

    (222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called

    • Sidebands.

    • Sine waves.

    • Frequency translators.

    • Modulating frequencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sidebands.
    Explanation
    When a carrier signal is modulated, sidebands are produced. These sidebands consist of signal components that occur above and below the carrier frequency. They carry the information being transmitted and are essential for the successful demodulation of the signal. Therefore, the correct answer is sidebands.

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  • 45. 

    (205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

    • Three.

    • Five.

    • Seven.

    • Nine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seven.
    Explanation
    To support 90 subnets on a Class B network, we need to determine the number of subnet bits required. In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 16 bits for the network portion. To calculate the number of subnet bits needed, we use the formula 2^n >= number of subnets, where n is the number of subnet bits. In this case, 2^n >= 90. By trying different values of n, we find that 2^7 = 128, which is greater than 90. Therefore, we need 7 subnet bits to support 90 subnets on a Class B network.

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  • 46. 

    (211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

    • Disable all the interfaces after creating the EtherChannel.

    • Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.

    • Configure all interfaces for the same parameters as the last port configured.

    • Assign all interfaces in the EtherChannel to a different Virtual LAN (VLAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.
    Explanation
    Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any mismatch or conflicts that could lead to configuration problems. By operating at the same speed and duplex mode, the interfaces can effectively communicate and share the load in the EtherChannel without any issues.

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  • 47. 

    (213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

    • Future growth.

    • Network security.

    • Remote monitoring.

    • Network contingencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Future growth.
    Explanation
    SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. This means that SNMP helps administrators in monitoring and analyzing the current network performance, identifying and resolving any issues or problems that may arise, and also assists in making informed decisions regarding the expansion or scalability of the network infrastructure to accommodate future growth.

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  • 48. 

    (214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?

    • Console.

    • Auxiliary.

    • Interface.

    • Virtual terminal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Auxiliary.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Auxiliary. Direct dial-in access to a network device should be denied by disabling the Auxiliary port. The Auxiliary port is typically used for out-of-band management and remote access, so disabling it would prevent unauthorized access to the network device. The Console port is used for local management and configuration, the Interface ports are used for connecting to other network devices, and the Virtual terminal is used for remote management, but none of these ports are specifically designed for direct dial-in access like the Auxiliary port.

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  • 49. 

    (227) What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?

    • Crystal oscillator

    • Internal timing.

    • Atomic clock.

    • Station clock.

    Correct Answer
    A. Atomic clock.
    Explanation
    Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use atomic clocks to provide very precise time to GPS receivers. Atomic clocks are extremely accurate timekeeping devices that rely on the vibrations of atoms to measure time. They are able to provide precise time measurements to GPS receivers, allowing for accurate positioning and navigation. Crystal oscillators and internal timing may be used for general timekeeping purposes, but they are not as precise as atomic clocks. Station clocks, on the other hand, are not used by GPS satellites to provide time to receivers.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 28, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Rskntroot
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