Z3d152 Vol 2 Communication Quiz

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1. (203) Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

Explanation

Bit-oriented data communication protocol is based on the position of the bits. In this protocol, data is transmitted and received bit by bit, where each bit carries information and has a specific position within the data stream. This allows for efficient and accurate data transmission, as the protocol focuses on the individual bits rather than characters or larger data units.

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About This Quiz
Z3d152 Vol 2 Communication Quiz - Quiz

The Z3D152 vol 2 communication Quiz assesses knowledge on OSI model layers, data protocols, and video compression standards. It focuses on understanding virtual circuits, binary-synchronous protocols, and bit-oriented... see morecommunication, crucial for networking professionals. see less

2. (210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

Explanation

In a ring topology, the stations are connected in the form of a circle, where each station is connected to exactly two other stations. Data is transmitted in only one direction around the ring, and each station acts as a repeater to amplify and pass on the signal to the next station. This topology provides equal access to all stations and allows for efficient data transmission.

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3. (210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that a network can have a combination of bus, ring, star, or other topologies. By using a hybrid topology, organizations can customize their network to meet their specific needs and requirements. This allows for greater flexibility and scalability in network design.

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4. (201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

Explanation

MPEG-4 is a video compression standard developed by the Motion Picture Experts Group. It is widely used for video streaming, video conferencing, and multimedia storage. It allows for efficient compression of video files while maintaining good quality. JPEG, on the other hand, is a compression standard for still images, not videos. FTP is a protocol used for transferring files, and G.711 is a standard for audio compression, not video compression. Therefore, the correct answer is Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

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5. (204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

Explanation

Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is designed to accurately synchronize the timekeeping of networked computers by exchanging time information between them. It allows computers to maintain consistent and accurate time, which is crucial for various network operations and applications that rely on synchronized time. SNMP is used for network management, DHCP is used for automatic IP address assignment, and PING is used for network troubleshooting. Therefore, NTP is the correct choice for clock synchronization.

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6. (211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

Explanation

A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and allows for the efficient and secure transfer of data between devices within a network. Unlike a hub, which broadcasts data to all devices on a network, a switch intelligently directs data packets only to the intended recipient, improving network performance and security. Therefore, a switch is the correct answer for this question.

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7. (239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

Explanation

The correct answer is confidentiality and integrity. These two cornerstones are essential for ensuring the security of a voice network system. Confidentiality ensures that unauthorized individuals cannot access or intercept sensitive information transmitted over the network. Integrity ensures that the data remains intact and unaltered during transmission. Together, these two cornerstones protect the privacy and reliability of voice communications within the network.

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8. (203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

Explanation

In binary-synchronous protocol, the SYN (synchronize) character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. This character ensures that the sender and receiver are in sync and ready to transmit or receive data. It serves as a signal to indicate the start of a message and helps to maintain the integrity of the data being transmitted.

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9. (204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

Explanation

The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that matches a known IP address for a destination device to a MAC address. It is used to find the MAC address of a device on the same network by broadcasting an ARP request. Once the MAC address is resolved, the device can communicate with the destination device using the MAC address.

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10. (205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

Explanation

Class A network has the most addresses for hosts. This is because Class A networks have a very large range of IP addresses, with the first octet reserved for network identification and the remaining three octets available for host addresses. The first octet can have a range from 1 to 126, allowing for a maximum of 126 different Class A networks, each with millions of possible host addresses.

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11. (206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. This is because IPv6 uses a 128-bit address format, which is much larger than the 32-bit address format used by IPv4. Hexadecimal numbers are used because they provide a more compact representation of the large address space, compared to decimal numbers. Each group of hexadecimal numbers is separated by a colon, allowing for a total of 8 groups in an IPv6 address.

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12. (209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely connect to and access network resources from any location using the internet as the underlying infrastructure. By encrypting the data transmitted over the public network, VPNs ensure that the communication remains secure and private. This allows the AF to connect to and utilize network resources even when they are not physically present on the same network, providing flexibility and remote access capabilities.

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13. (210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

Explanation

Logical topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It represents the logical connections between devices, regardless of their physical locations. It determines how data flows from one device to another and how devices are organized in a network. Unlike physical topology, which refers to the actual physical layout of devices and cables, logical topology focuses on the conceptual structure of the network. Common examples of logical topologies include bus, ring, star, mesh, and tree.

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14. (211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

Explanation

Latency refers to the time it takes for a switch to determine the appropriate destination for a data unit. It measures the delay between the initiation of a request and the response received. Lag refers to a delay or pause in the transmission of data, hop refers to the process of forwarding a data unit from one network node to another, and time zone is unrelated to the switch's decision-making process.

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15. (211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

Explanation

VLAN trunks allow transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. A VLAN trunk is a network link that can carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously. It uses a tagging mechanism to identify which VLAN a particular frame belongs to, allowing multiple VLANs to be transported over the same physical link. This enables efficient use of network resources and simplifies network management by reducing the number of physical links required to connect switches.

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16. (212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

Explanation

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the correct answer because it is the identifier that differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. The SSID is a unique name assigned to a WLAN, allowing devices to connect to the correct network. The hostname is a label assigned to a device on a network, not specific to WLANs. The network name is a general term and does not specifically differentiate WLANs. The Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID) is used to separate network traffic within a LAN, but it does not differentiate WLANs from each other.

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17. (240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

Explanation

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the merging of voice and data networks into a single network infrastructure. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure that measures are in place to protect against threats and vulnerabilities that may arise from the convergence of these networks. This comprehensive approach helps to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of both voice and data communications, reducing the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security incidents.

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18. (240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

Explanation

Masquerades refer to attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user. This involves impersonating someone with legitimate access privileges to trick the system into granting unauthorized access. Toll fraud refers to unauthorized use of telecommunication services, while war dialing involves scanning phone numbers to find vulnerable systems. Denial of service refers to attacks that aim to disrupt or disable a network or system.

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19. (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

Explanation

The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. This means that the fence acts as a barrier that prevents unauthorized individuals from easily accessing the protected area. The presence of a fence can discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the perimeter, as it creates a visible obstacle and sends a message that the area is secure. Additionally, the fence can also provide a psychological sense of security to those inside the protected area, knowing that there is a physical barrier in place to deter unauthorized entry.

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20. (204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

Explanation

ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging services for troubleshooting purposes. It is used to send error messages and operational information about network conditions between devices on an IP network. ICMP messages are used to diagnose network connectivity issues, identify network congestion, and troubleshoot network problems. It allows network administrators to monitor network performance, detect and isolate network errors, and gather information about network devices. Therefore, ICMP is the correct answer as it provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting.

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21. (208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

Explanation

The console port on a router is used for initial configuration. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) through a console cable. By connecting a computer to the console port using a console cable, network administrators can configure the router's settings, such as IP addresses, routing protocols, and security settings, before enabling other ports for network connectivity. The console port provides a reliable and secure method for initial setup and troubleshooting of the router.

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22. (213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

Explanation

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information is structured in a hierarchical manner, with different levels of information grouped together based on their relationships and dependencies. This hierarchical organization allows for easier management and access to the information within the MIB, as it provides a clear structure and framework for organizing and navigating the data.

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23. (218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

Explanation

A B8ZS signal is a type of line code used in telecommunications to transmit digital data. It is designed to break up long strings of zeros by intentionally inserting bipolar violations. This helps to maintain synchronization and prevent errors in the transmission.

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24. (229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communication and information technology services to the Department of Defense (DOD), and it plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the DOD's network infrastructure. Therefore, DISA is the agency that oversees and provides the necessary transport services for Internet and commercial satellite connections on DOD networks.

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25. (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection." In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection refers to the boundary or area that the system is monitoring for any unauthorized access or intrusion. The IDS must be able to detect any movement or activity that occurs within this line of detection, whether it is walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping. This ensures that any potential intruders attempting to breach the system are identified and alerted.

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26. (251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

Explanation

Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors are designed to detect changes in infrared energy emitted by objects in their field of view. When a person or object moves within the sensor's range, it detects the difference in heat radiation and triggers an alarm. Ultrasonic sensors, on the other hand, use sound waves to detect movement, microwave sensors use radio waves, and dual-phenomenology sensors combine multiple detection methods. Therefore, the correct answer is passive infrared.

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27. (252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

Explanation

If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is designed to detect any unauthorized access or interference with the sensor, indicating that someone may be attempting to tamper with or disable the system.

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28. (204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

Explanation

The correct answer is Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP provides reliable data delivery services by ensuring that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors. It uses mechanisms such as acknowledgment, retransmission, and flow control to ensure reliable transmission. Unlike UDP, which is a connectionless protocol and does not provide reliability, TCP establishes a connection between the sender and receiver and guarantees the delivery of data. Therefore, TCP is the correct choice for reliable data delivery services.

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29. (208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

Explanation

When configuring a router, access to privileged EXEC mode is controlled by configuring the "enable" password. This password is used to authenticate users who want to access the privileged EXEC mode, which provides full control and configuration capabilities on the router. By setting an enable password, only authorized users who know the password can access this mode and make changes to the router's configuration.

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30. (211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

Explanation

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical grouping of devices in a network that behave as if they are on their own independent network, even though they may physically be connected to the same switch. By creating VLANs, network administrators can separate traffic and improve network performance and security. Each VLAN forms its own broadcast domain, meaning that broadcast traffic is contained within that VLAN and does not propagate to other VLANs. Therefore, a single VLAN forms one broadcast domain.

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31. (217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

Explanation

In a return-to-zero (RZ) digital signal, the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels (usually positive or negative) and then returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that the signal alternates between the two levels and includes a zero level in between each transition. This type of signal is commonly used in digital communication systems to represent binary data, where the presence of a signal level represents a "1" and the absence of a signal level represents a "0".

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32. (242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to

Explanation

Measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for the safety of the person performing the task and also prevents any potential damage to the equipment or circuit. By measuring the voltage, one can identify if there are any dangerous levels present, allowing them to take necessary precautions before proceeding with the replacement.

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33. (207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

Explanation

A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and directs data between nodes on a network. It is responsible for forwarding data packets between computer networks, ensuring that they reach their intended destinations. Unlike a bridge, which connects two similar types of networks, a router can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi. A gateway, on the other hand, is a device that connects two different types of networks, such as a local area network (LAN) and the internet. A repeater is a device that amplifies or regenerates a signal to extend its reach in a network but does not direct data between nodes.

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34. (207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

Explanation

Internet backbones use Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is specifically designed for routing between autonomous systems (AS) and is used to exchange routing information and maintain a table of available routes. It is highly scalable and can handle the large number of routes and complex network topologies typically found in internet backbones. BGP also supports policy-based routing, allowing network administrators to control the flow of traffic and implement advanced routing policies. OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP are other routing protocols used within individual ASs but are not commonly used in internet backbones.

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35. (215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

Explanation

Individual pulses within a digital signal are represented as bits. In digital communication, information is transmitted in the form of binary digits (bits) which can have two possible values, 0 or 1. Each pulse within a digital signal represents either a 0 or a 1, allowing for the transmission and storage of data in a digital format. Therefore, bits are the correct answer as they represent the individual pulses within a digital signal.

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36. (215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

Explanation

Bits per second is the most commonly used term in data systems to express signaling speed. It represents the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. Baud rate, on the other hand, refers to the number of signal changes per second and is not the same as the number of bits transmitted. Interface speed and Baud per second are not commonly used terms in data systems and are not as accurate as bits per second for expressing signaling speed.

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37. (217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

Explanation

A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. This is because binary signals are based on the binary number system, which uses only two digits (0 and 1) to represent information. Each voltage level corresponds to one of these digits, allowing for the representation of digital information in computers and electronic devices.

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38. (212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

Explanation

The wireless design phase that accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users, and the security and integrity requirements of the network data is planning. During the planning phase, all these factors are taken into consideration to ensure that the wireless network is designed and implemented in a way that meets the needs of the users, while also maintaining the necessary security measures and data integrity. This phase involves analyzing the requirements, conducting a site survey, and creating a detailed plan for the wireless network deployment.

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39. (232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

Explanation

Trend analysis is a program that evaluates circuits on a regular basis to ensure they meet management thresholds. The question asks on what basis this evaluation is conducted, and the correct answer is monthly. This means that the circuits are assessed and analyzed on a monthly basis to track any trends or patterns and ensure they are within the desired thresholds.

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40. (250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

Explanation

The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a gatehouse, which serves as a central control point for monitoring and managing access to the facility. The personnel entry gate is where individuals entering the facility are checked and authorized to enter. Inspection equipment is used to screen individuals and their belongings for any prohibited items or threats. The vehicle entrapment area is a designated space where vehicles entering the facility can be stopped and inspected if necessary. This configuration ensures that access to the facility is controlled and secure.

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41. (202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

Explanation

In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer communicates with the layer above it, the layer below it, and its peer layer. The lowest layer refers to the physical layer, which is responsible for the actual transmission and reception of data. Since it does not communicate with any other layer below it, the lowest layer is not one of the layers that a layer communicates with.

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42. (212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

Explanation

The IEEE specification 802.11a is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices. This is because it operates on the 5 GHz frequency band, which is less crowded and has less interference compared to the 2.4 GHz frequency band used by 802.11b and 802.11g. 802.11r is a specification for fast roaming in Wi-Fi networks and is not related to interference susceptibility.

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43. (214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

Explanation

By configuring the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible, it ensures that the network equipment has enough storage capacity to support a wide range of security services. These security services may include encryption, authentication, access control, and intrusion detection, among others. Having more memory allows the equipment to handle the processing and storage requirements of these services effectively, ensuring the network's security is not compromised.

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44. (222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called

Explanation

When a carrier signal is modulated, sidebands are produced. These sidebands consist of signal components that occur above and below the carrier frequency. They carry the information being transmitted and are essential for the successful demodulation of the signal. Therefore, the correct answer is sidebands.

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45. (205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

Explanation

To support 90 subnets on a Class B network, we need to determine the number of subnet bits required. In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 16 bits for the network portion. To calculate the number of subnet bits needed, we use the formula 2^n >= number of subnets, where n is the number of subnet bits. In this case, 2^n >= 90. By trying different values of n, we find that 2^7 = 128, which is greater than 90. Therefore, we need 7 subnet bits to support 90 subnets on a Class B network.

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46. (211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

Explanation

Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any mismatch or conflicts that could lead to configuration problems. By operating at the same speed and duplex mode, the interfaces can effectively communicate and share the load in the EtherChannel without any issues.

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47. (213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

Explanation

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. This means that SNMP helps administrators in monitoring and analyzing the current network performance, identifying and resolving any issues or problems that may arise, and also assists in making informed decisions regarding the expansion or scalability of the network infrastructure to accommodate future growth.

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48. (214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?

Explanation

The correct answer is Auxiliary. Direct dial-in access to a network device should be denied by disabling the Auxiliary port. The Auxiliary port is typically used for out-of-band management and remote access, so disabling it would prevent unauthorized access to the network device. The Console port is used for local management and configuration, the Interface ports are used for connecting to other network devices, and the Virtual terminal is used for remote management, but none of these ports are specifically designed for direct dial-in access like the Auxiliary port.

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49. (227) What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?

Explanation

Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use atomic clocks to provide very precise time to GPS receivers. Atomic clocks are extremely accurate timekeeping devices that rely on the vibrations of atoms to measure time. They are able to provide precise time measurements to GPS receivers, allowing for accurate positioning and navigation. Crystal oscillators and internal timing may be used for general timekeeping purposes, but they are not as precise as atomic clocks. Station clocks, on the other hand, are not used by GPS satellites to provide time to receivers.

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50. (230) If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?

Explanation

Technical Control Facilities are required to obtain the latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration in the event that the circuit files are lost or destroyed. This document is important because it provides information about the circuit's configuration, allowing the facilities to recreate and restore the circuit. The TSO contains details such as the type of circuit, its endpoints, and any necessary equipment or services. By obtaining the latest TSO, the Technical Control Facilities can ensure that the circuit is accurately restored and operational.

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51. (236) Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available?

Explanation

The flight commander is responsible for determining if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available. This is because the flight commander is in a position of authority and has the overall responsibility for the maintenance of the aircraft. They have the knowledge and expertise to make decisions regarding maintenance procedures and inspections in the absence of commercial manuals or publications.

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52. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

Explanation

Table control is the correct answer because it refers to the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility that is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This facility ensures that the data in the tables is organized and managed effectively, allowing for efficient access and retrieval of information. The other options, such as journal file, dump/restore, and pending order file, do not specifically pertain to the creation and maintenance of tables in a controlled manner.

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53. (221) In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used for?

Explanation

In common associated signaling (CAS), the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 is used for "Bit robbing". Bit robbing refers to the process of stealing the least significant bit from the sixth frame and using it as the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12. This technique is used to increase the capacity of the signaling system by utilizing existing bits in a more efficient manner.

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54. (225) The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is

Explanation

The correct answer is time division. Time division multiplexing (TDM) is a method used by T1 multiplexers to combine multiple signals into one transmission line. It works by dividing the available time slots into smaller intervals and allocating them to different signals. Each signal takes turns transmitting during its allocated time slot, allowing multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously. This method maximizes the utilization of the transmission line and ensures efficient communication.

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55. (229) What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?

Explanation

DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE) is the correct answer because it is the web application used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). The other options, Facility Circuit Information Tracking (FaCIT), Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS), and Telecommunications Certifications Office Support System (TCOSS), are not mentioned in the question and therefore not the correct answer.

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56. (235) Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and

Explanation

Combined distribution frames are designed to combine the functions of both a main distribution frame and an intermediate distribution frame. This means that they can handle the tasks and responsibilities of both types of frames in a single unit. Therefore, the correct answer is an intermediate distribution frame.

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57. (206) Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?

Explanation

The question asks for the tunneling component that is not part of Teredo. Teredo is a tunneling protocol used to enable IPv6 connectivity over IPv4 networks. The components mentioned in the options, such as host-specific relay, client, and server, are all part of Teredo. However, "agent" is not a recognized tunneling component in the context of Teredo. Therefore, the correct answer is "Agent."

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58. (216) Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?

Explanation

A characteristic of synchronous data operation is that all data bits are the same length in time. This means that each bit within the data stream is transmitted and received at the same predetermined time interval. This ensures that the sender and receiver are synchronized and can accurately interpret the data being transmitted. The uniform length of data bits allows for efficient and reliable data transmission, as it eliminates the need for additional start and stop pulses or timing pulses within the signal stream. System timing becomes critical in synchronous data operation to maintain synchronization between sender and receiver.

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59. (222) What is the process, or result of the process, of modifying (varying) one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal?

Explanation

Modulation is the process of modifying one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal. This allows the information signal to be transmitted efficiently over a communication channel. Multiplexing refers to the combining of multiple signals into one transmission, while quantization is the process of converting continuous analog signals into discrete digital values. Synthesizing involves creating complex signals by combining simpler ones. However, only modulation directly relates to the process described in the question.

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60. (222) To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than

Explanation

The FCC has set limits to prevent interference between FM radio stations. These limits restrict the amount by which each station can deviate its oscillator frequency. The correct answer is 75 kHz because this is the maximum allowed deviation for FM radio stations according to the FCC regulations.

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61. (231) What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

Explanation

If the circuit does not meet all required parameters but the TSO issuing authority still advises that the circuit is accepted for service, a report must be sent indicating the exception. This means that there is an acknowledgement that the circuit does not meet all requirements, but it is still being accepted for service due to certain circumstances or considerations.

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62. (237) When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

Explanation

In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a physical path is established between the calling and receiving parties for the duration of the call. This dedicated circuit ensures that the call has a consistent and uninterrupted connection, as the resources are exclusively allocated to that call. Unlike packet-switched networks, where data is divided into packets and sent separately, circuit-switched networks transmit the entire call in a continuous stream.

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63. (240) What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage and incidents of toll fraud?

Explanation

The Enterprise Telephony Management system provides enterprise-wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud. This system allows organizations to monitor and manage their telephony infrastructure, including tracking resource usage, analyzing network traffic, and detecting and preventing fraudulent activities. It provides a comprehensive view of the organization's telephony environment, enabling effective resource allocation, cost control, and security measures.

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64. (226) Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost?

Explanation

Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) is a wave-division multiplexing technology that uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost. CWDM allows multiple signals with different wavelengths to be combined and transmitted over a single fiber optic cable, increasing the capacity of the network. Unlike dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM), which uses cooled lasers for higher capacity and longer distances, CWDM is a more cost-effective solution for shorter distances and lower capacity requirements. Therefore, CWDM is the correct answer as it specifically mentions the use of uncooled lasers to reduce cost.

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65. (227) Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source?

Explanation

A Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source is classified as a stratum level 1. This means that it is a highly accurate and reliable source of time synchronization. Stratum level 1 devices receive time directly from atomic clocks or satellite-based timing sources, such as GPS. These devices are considered the most accurate and are typically used as a reference for synchronizing other lower-level devices in a network.

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66. (232) If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be performed?

Explanation

If a circuit fails its management threshold, the appropriate test that might be performed is quality control. Quality control involves inspecting and testing the circuit to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. This test is important to identify any faults or issues in the circuit and to ensure that it functions properly. Operational acceptance, test and acceptance, and operations and maintenance are not directly related to addressing a circuit failure, making them incorrect options.

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67. (252) What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

Explanation

When an alarm is detected in the fence protection system (FPS), an analog signal is sent to the signal processor. An analog signal is a continuous waveform that represents the variations in a physical quantity, such as voltage or current. In this case, the alarm signal is likely to be represented by a varying voltage or current level, which is then processed by the FPS signal processor to trigger the appropriate response or action.

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68. (225) What are the two major types of frame structures?

Explanation

The correct answer is CCITT and low speed. CCITT (Comité Consultatif International Téléphonique et Télégraphique) is a standardization organization that developed recommendations for telecommunication systems. Low speed refers to data transmission at a slower rate, typically used for voice communication or low-bandwidth applications. These two types of frame structures represent different standards and speeds for transmitting data in telecommunication systems.

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69. (231) Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?

Explanation

Within 72 normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO), the circuit control office (CCO) must submit an in-effect report. This report is necessary to ensure that the TSO has been successfully implemented and that the circuit is functioning properly. It allows for proper documentation and tracking of the TSO's status and any issues that may arise.

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70. (240) Which is not a component of the voice protection system architecture?

Explanation

The voice protection system architecture consists of various components that work together to protect voice communication. These components include servers, software, and appliances. However, a firewall is not typically considered a component of the voice protection system architecture. Firewalls are generally used to secure networks and control incoming and outgoing network traffic, rather than specifically protecting voice communication.

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71. (242) What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic–100 (MSL–100) supports?

Explanation

The maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports is 30,000.

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72. (242) What Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis and error reporting?

Explanation

The DMS-100 system contains various subsystems for different purposes, such as test routing, fault detection, fault analysis, and error reporting. Among the given options, the maintenance and administration position is the most suitable choice for housing these subsystems. This position would typically include the necessary tools and interfaces to perform tests, detect faults, analyze them, and report any errors that occur within the system.

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73. (201) At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained and terminated?

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and provides reliable and ordered delivery of data packets. It establishes virtual circuits, which are logical connections between two endpoints, and ensures that the data is delivered accurately and efficiently. The Network layer is responsible for routing and addressing, the Physical layer deals with the physical transmission of data, and the Data Link layer handles framing and error detection.

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74. (220) Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tone" because the question is asking about a communications control signal that uses a two-frequency dialing combination. Pulse, digit, and address do not fit this description. Tone signals, on the other hand, are generated by combining two frequencies and are commonly used in telephone systems for dialing.

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75. (224) Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration?

Explanation

Frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) is a technique that divides the available bandwidth into multiple frequency channels, each carrying a different signal. However, FDM is susceptible to signal deterioration because it allocates fixed frequency bands to each channel, and any interference or noise in those bands can cause signal degradation. This can result in a loss of signal quality and clarity in the multiplexed transmission. Therefore, FDM is very susceptible to signal deterioration compared to other forms of multiplexing like wave-division, time-division, and phase-division.

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76. (229) What document is the authority for the operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment necessary for the installation or operation of the circuit?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Telecommunications service order." The telecommunications service order is the document that gives authority to the operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment required for the installation or operation of the circuit. It serves as a formal request for the provision of telecommunications services and includes details such as the type of service needed, equipment specifications, and any additional requirements.

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77. (230) Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders?

Explanation

DD Form 1753 is the correct answer because it is the form used for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders. The other options, 1441, 1443, and 1698, are not relevant to the given question.

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78. (230) Which DD form is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports?

Explanation

DD Form 1443 is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports. This form is specifically designed to capture and document the status of the DODIN, including its operational availability, performance, and any incidents or outages. By using this form, organizations can provide accurate and up-to-date information on the status of the DODIN, allowing for effective monitoring and management of the network.

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79. (240) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the

Explanation

The correct answer is the President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. This committee released a report that emphasized the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks. The report likely discussed the potential risks and threats associated with these networks, highlighting the need for increased security measures to protect against cyber attacks and other threats.

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80. (240) Where are voice protection system servers installed?

Explanation

The voice protection system servers are installed in the Integrated Network and Security Center. This is the location where network and security operations are centralized and managed. By installing the servers in this center, it ensures that the voice protection system is securely integrated into the overall network infrastructure and can be effectively monitored and controlled.

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81. (251) Which interior intrusion detection system is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo or building?

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39 interior intrusion detection system is specifically designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building. This system is likely equipped with sensors and alarms that can detect unauthorized entry and alert security personnel. The other options, AN/GSS-42, AN/GSS-41, and AN/GSS-29, are not mentioned to have this specific capability in the given information.

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82. (219) How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?

Explanation

The extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence consists of 24 bits.

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83. (247) What does the GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allow?

Explanation

( serial editor, personal computer, or digital picture manipulator (like GVG’s DPM–100) )

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84. (248) Which basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier consists of two transistors that form the upper leg of a totem pole circuit?

Explanation

The correct answer is Output driver. The output driver is a basic circuit in a video distribution amplifier that consists of two transistors forming the upper leg of a totem pole circuit. This circuit is responsible for driving the output signal and ensuring that it has the necessary voltage and current levels to be transmitted effectively to the receiving devices. The output driver helps to amplify and shape the video signal before it is sent out to the connected displays or devices.

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85. (252) What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS)?

Explanation

The maximum detection distance of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS) is 80 meters.

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86. (216) A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes

Explanation

A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes asynchronous operation. This is because synchronizing bits are used to maintain the timing and synchronization between the sender and receiver in asynchronous communication. Asynchronous operation allows for the transmission of data without the need for a continuous clock signal, as the synchronizing bits help the receiver identify the start and end of each data packet.

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87. (220) The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that functions to

Explanation

The signaling equipment has three types of communication signals that control and process calls. This means that the equipment is responsible for managing and directing calls, ensuring that they are properly routed and connected. It does not specifically mention switch addressing or digit translations, so these options can be ruled out. Providing a clear signal is not mentioned as a specific function of the signaling equipment in this context.

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88. (238) In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the “B” channel carries

Explanation

In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel is responsible for carrying user traffic. This channel is used to transmit voice, data, and video signals between the user's devices and the network. It is dedicated to carrying the actual information that the user wants to transmit, such as phone conversations or data files. The other channels in ISDN, such as the "D" channel, are used for call setup, handshaking, and management data. However, the "B" channel is specifically designed for carrying user traffic.

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89. (240) Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection system?

Explanation

A voice protection system is designed to secure communications, enable real-time notifications, and detect and block modem connections. However, centralizing yet distributing management is not a characteristic or capability of such a system. This means that the system does not centralize the management of voice protection, but rather distributes it across different components or entities.

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90. (243) Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter the NT9X35A cross-point card?

Explanation

Incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the NT9X35A cross-point card enter through the Vertical bus (V-bus).

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91. (211) Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design?

Explanation

The correct answer is Transport. In a hierarchical network design, the three distinct layers are Core, Distribution, and Access. The Core layer is responsible for high-speed backbone connectivity, the Distribution layer provides routing and filtering functions, and the Access layer connects end devices to the network. The Transport layer, on the other hand, is a layer in the OSI model that handles end-to-end communication between devices and is not specifically related to the hierarchical network design.

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92. (221) Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occur directly over links interconnecting the signaling points?

Explanation

In the Associated CCS mode, the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occurs directly over links interconnecting the signaling points. This means that the signaling messages are sent and received between the specific signaling points involved in the communication, without the need for any intermediate nodes or additional routing. This mode allows for a more direct and efficient transfer of signaling messages, ensuring a reliable and timely exchange of signaling information between the points involved.

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93. (227) To create a better timing environment in communications networks, external timing distribution occurs through

Explanation

External timing distribution occurs through station clocks in order to create a better timing environment in communications networks. Station clocks are responsible for synchronizing the timing of various network elements and ensuring that they are all operating on the same time reference. This is crucial for maintaining the accuracy and reliability of network operations, especially in scenarios where precise timing is required, such as in telecommunications or financial systems. By using station clocks for timing distribution, the network can achieve better synchronization and minimize timing errors or discrepancies between different network components.

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94. (242) What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?

Explanation

The correct answer is DS–512. The Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core is connected to the DMS-bus using the DS–512 link. This indicates that a high-speed digital signal with a capacity of 512 DS0 channels is used to establish the connection between the two systems. The DS–512 link allows for efficient transmission of data and communication between the DMS-core and the DMS-bus.

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95. (246) Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States as the standard?

Explanation

The correct answer is Advanced Television Systems Committee. This committee was responsible for developing the digital television standards used in the United States. They developed the ATSC standards, which include the transmission, reception, and display of digital television signals. These standards were adopted by the United States as the standard for digital broadcasting, replacing the previous analog system.

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96. (252) What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?

Explanation

The maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is 328 feet.

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97. (252) What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?

Explanation

The secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor is multipath reflection. This means that the sensor detects any reflections or echoes of the microwave signal caused by objects in the environment. These reflections can occur when the signal bounces off buildings, trees, or other obstacles, and the sensor analyzes these reflections to detect any potential intrusions.

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98. (223) Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?

Explanation

Pulse-code modulation (PCM) is a type of pulse modulation that converts analog signals into digital signals by encoding the amplitude of each pulse. Since PCM uses a digital representation, it is less susceptible to noise interference compared to other pulse modulation techniques such as pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM), pulse-duration modulation (PDM), and pulse-position modulation (PPM). PCM's digital encoding ensures that the original signal is accurately represented, making it more robust against noise. Therefore, pulse-code modulation is the type of pulse modulation that is least affected by noise.

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99. (245) What names are given to the shifted R–Y and B–Y signals, respectively?

Explanation

The shifted R-Y and B-Y signals are referred to as I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

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100. (223) The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions is known as

Explanation

Pulse-position modulation is a form of pulse modulation where the position of a discrete pulse is varied within a range. In this modulation technique, the timing or position of the pulses is used to convey information. The amplitude and duration of the pulses remain constant, but their position changes to represent different data values. This allows for efficient transmission of data as it reduces the chances of errors and provides better noise immunity.

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101. (228) Who is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point and provides troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC)?

Explanation

The node side coordinator is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point. They also provide troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC). This role acts as a focal point for communications within the facility and ensures smooth operations of the network.

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102. (230) Which test results do you record on the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697–Analog?

Explanation

The correct answer is frequency response and envelope delay. These are two important parameters that need to be recorded on the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697–Analog. Frequency response refers to the ability of a system to reproduce different frequencies accurately, while envelope delay refers to the time it takes for a signal to travel through a system. By recording these test results, technicians can assess the performance of the analog system and make any necessary adjustments or repairs.

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103. (234) When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the second type of circuit you preempt?

Explanation

When you must restore user service by rerouting, the second type of circuit you preempt is nonactive on-call circuits. This means that if there are any circuits that are currently not in use but are reserved for potential on-call usage, they will be preempted in order to prioritize the restoration of user service.

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104. (241) How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

Explanation

The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has three serial data interface ports.

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105. (242) Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

Explanation

The control component of the SuperNode central control consists of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These elements are responsible for managing and controlling the operations of the SuperNode system. The computing mode determines the mode of operation, while the system load module monitors and manages the workload of the system. Together, CM and SLM ensure efficient control and operation of the SuperNode central control.

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106. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pending order file." In a Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility, the pending order file provides the functionality to store data modification orders (DMO) and retrieve them at a specified time for execution. This allows for the efficient management and execution of pending orders within the system.

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107. (208) On a router’s serial interface connection, what provides the timing signal for the communication link?

Explanation

Data communications equipment provides the timing signal for the communication link on a router's serial interface connection. This equipment is responsible for transmitting and receiving data over the network, and it also ensures that the timing is synchronized between the sender and receiver. By providing the timing signal, data communications equipment helps to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the communication link.

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108. (218) Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to

Explanation

Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to maintain ones density standards. This means that they ensure a balanced number of ones and zeros in the transmitted data, which is important for maintaining the integrity of the signal and preventing errors. By maintaining ones density standards, these coding techniques help to minimize the risk of signal degradation and ensure reliable communication.

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109. (233) Which publication lists the methods used to identify systems, links, trunks and circuits?

Explanation

DISAC 310-65-1 is the correct answer because it specifically lists the methods used to identify systems, links, trunks, and circuits. The other options do not mention anything about listing identification methods, so they are incorrect.

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110. (240) During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system?

Explanation

The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab recognized during the initial research for voice system security that the most common security threats could be addressed by a voice protection system.

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111. (252) How many vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors can be serviced per field distribution box (FDB)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because each field distribution box (FDB) can service two vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors. This means that one FDB can provide support and service for two separate sectors, ensuring accurate and reliable data collection from the VTWS sensors.

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112. (228) Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?

Explanation

The Circuit Control Office (CCO) is responsible for managing a circuit end-to-end. They oversee the entire circuit, ensuring its proper functioning and addressing any issues that may arise. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is a separate agency responsible for providing information technology and communications support to the Department of Defense. The Network Control Center (NCC) and Node Side Coordinator (NSC) are not specifically mentioned in relation to circuit management.

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113. (223) Which form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?

Explanation

Binary-phase shift keying (BPSK) is a form of modulation that is insensitive to signal variations. BPSK encodes the information by shifting the phase of the carrier signal by 180 degrees, representing a binary 1 or 0. This modulation scheme is robust against signal variations such as amplitude changes, noise, and distortion. The receiver can accurately detect the phase shift and demodulate the signal, making BPSK an ideal choice for applications where signal variations are common, such as wireless communication systems.

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114. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system fails?

Explanation

The Journal file in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility is used to preserve data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk. This allows for the restoration of data tables in case of a system failure. The Journal file keeps a record of all changes made to the data, ensuring that any modifications can be recovered and applied again if necessary. This feature provides a level of data protection and ensures the integrity of the system.

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115. (203) Which data communication protocol is a transmission code that supports a variety of link types and topologies?

Explanation

SDLC (Synchronous Data Link Control) is a data communication protocol that supports a variety of link types and topologies. It is a synchronous protocol, meaning that data is transmitted in a synchronized manner with the sender and receiver using the same clock signal. SDLC is widely used in communication systems and networks, providing reliable and efficient data transmission. It is capable of supporting different link types and topologies, making it a versatile protocol for various applications.

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116. (221) How is supervisory signaling information transferred in common channel signaling (CCS)?

Explanation

In common channel signaling (CCS), supervisory signaling information is transferred through a separate network channel. This means that the signaling information is transmitted separately from the voice or data channels, allowing for more efficient and reliable communication. By using a separate network channel, the signaling information can be transmitted without interfering with the main communication channels, ensuring that the supervisory signals are accurately and efficiently transmitted between the communicating parties.

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117. (252) How many sensors does a taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contain?

Explanation

A taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contains 12 sensors.

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118. (252) What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 200 feet. This means that the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) is 200 feet.

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119. (251) What does the AN/GSS–39(V) system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39(V) system uses the end-of-line module to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel. This module is responsible for detecting any breaks or faults in the wiring and alerting the system to ensure the proper functioning of the sensors. The zone indicator plate, video display unit, and tamper interface module do not serve this specific purpose of monitoring sensor wiring integrity.

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120. (234) Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?

Explanation

The National Communications System (NCS) is the office or system that confirms a restoration priority. The NCS is responsible for coordinating and prioritizing the restoration of communications during emergencies or disasters. They work closely with various government agencies and private sector organizations to ensure that critical communication services are restored in a timely manner.

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121. (247) The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills with

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with either the key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. This means that the effects keyer can use either the video signal from the key bus or a color matte signal that is generated internally to create the key fill. The key fill is the background image or video that is used in conjunction with the key signal to create a composite image.

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122. (251) How many selectable frequencies are obtainable with a SD80DC microwave sensor?

Explanation

The SD80DC microwave sensor is capable of providing 10 selectable frequencies.

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123. (203) What data communication protocol uses characters or “handshaking” to control the link and represent information?

Explanation

Binary synchronous protocol is a data communication protocol that uses characters or "handshaking" to control the link and represent information. This protocol ensures reliable and error-free transmission of data by using synchronization characters and checksums. It provides flow control, error detection, and error correction mechanisms, making it suitable for applications that require high reliability and accuracy in data transmission.

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124. (247) The total number of effects storage registers in the GVG–110 video switcher is

Explanation

The correct answer is 16. The GVG-110 video switcher has a total of 16 effects storage registers. This means that it can store and recall up to 16 different video effects, allowing for a wide range of creative possibilities in video production and switching. With this many storage registers, users have ample flexibility to customize their video transitions and effects according to their specific needs and preferences.

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(203) Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the...
(210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a...
(210) Which topology combines two or more different physical...
(201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression...
(204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the...
(211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces,...
(239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are...
(203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and...
(204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol...
(205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?
(206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by
(209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network...
(210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and...
(211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data...
(211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN)...
(212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network...
(240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the...
(240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as...
(249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose...
(204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help...
(208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?
(213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of...
(218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero...
(229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet...
(249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of...
(251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses...
(252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical...
(204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery...
(208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC...
(211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?
(217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one...
(242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty...
(207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data...
(207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?
(215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are
(215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling...
(217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?
(212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on...
(232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet...
(250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a
(202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will...
(212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE)...
(214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network...
(222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a...
(205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a...
(211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration...
(213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by...
(214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network...
(227) What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to...
(230) If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are...
(236) Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are...
(244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility is...
(221) In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in...
(225) The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
(229) What web application is used to order telecommunications...
(235) Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main...
(206) Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of...
(216) Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
(222) What is the process, or result of the process, of modifying...
(222) To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from...
(231) What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all...
(237) When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
(240) What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource...
(226) Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers...
(227) Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing...
(232) If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be...
(252) What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS)...
(225) What are the two major types of frame structures?
(231) Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the...
(240) Which is not a component of the voice protection system...
(242) What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System...
(242) What Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 system contains...
(201) At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual...
(220) Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing...
(224) Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal...
(229) What document is the authority for the operations and...
(230) Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is...
(230) Which DD form is used as the primary source of information when...
(240) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were...
(240) Where are voice protection system servers installed?
(251) Which interior intrusion detection system is designed to detect...
(219) How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF)...
(247) What does the GVG–110 video switcher serial interface...
(248) Which basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier consists...
(252) What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared...
(216) A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the...
(220) The signaling equipment has three types of communications...
(238) In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the “B”...
(240) Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice...
(243) Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET...
(211) Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical...
(221) Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of...
(227) To create a better timing environment in communications...
(242) What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System...
(246) Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States...
(252) What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor...
(252) What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence...
(223) Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?
(245) What names are given to the shifted R–Y and B–Y signals,...
(223) The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied...
(228) Who is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to...
(230) Which test results do you record on the reverse/back side of the...
(234) When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the...
(241) How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option...
(242) Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode...
(244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility...
(208) On a router’s serial interface connection, what provides the...
(218) Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero...
(233) Which publication lists the methods used to identify systems,...
(240) During the initial research for voice system security, who...
(252) How many vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors can be...
(228) Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?
(223) Which form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
(244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility...
(203) Which data communication protocol is a transmission code that...
(221) How is supervisory signaling information transferred in common...
(252) How many sensors does a taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire...
(252) What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
(251) What does the AN/GSS–39(V) system use to monitor the integrity...
(234) Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
(247) The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills with
(251) How many selectable frequencies are obtainable with a SD80DC...
(203) What data communication protocol uses characters or...
(247) The total number of effects storage registers in the GVG–110...
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