2w1 7 Level CDC Pretest 2 Of 2

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| By MikeKennedy

MikeKennedy

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 575

| Attempts: 325

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(014) The time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is used to ________
- Develop the deployment of aircraft during aircraft generation
- Provide support to deploying forces during peacetime
- Identify the resource needed to sustain a war effort
- Deploy forces to any contingency operation

About This Quiz

This pretest assesses knowledge on Air Force deployment procedures, focusing on force deployment data, base support plans, and operational capabilities. It is crucial for understanding tasking for aircraft, munitions, and the use of 463L pallet materials in military contexts.

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2.

(014) Each base assigned as a beddown location or assigned responsibility to support forces for the operation plan (OPLAN) must develop a
- Base support plan (BSP)
- War-fighting mobility plan (WFMP)
- Designed operational capability (DOC)
- Time-phased force deployment plan (TPFDP)
Correct Answer

A. Base support plan (BSP)

Explanation

Each base that is assigned as a beddown location or assigned responsibility to support forces for an operation plan (OPLAN) must develop a base support plan (BSP). The BSP outlines the specific support and resources that will be provided by the base to ensure the success of the operation. It includes details such as logistics, personnel, facilities, and equipment needed to support the forces. The BSP is crucial in coordinating and organizing the necessary support for the operation. It ensures that all bases are prepared and equipped to fulfill their roles and responsibilities in the OPLAN.

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3.

(014) Which source provides unit commanders a clear definition of their respective unit’s wartime capability, based upon the authorized manpower and materiel strength of the unit?
- Operation plan (OPLAN)
- Area of responsibility (AOR)
- Designed operational capability (DOC)
- Mission assignment and strategies listing (MASL)
Correct Answer

A. Designed operational capability (DOC)

Explanation

The Designed Operational Capability (DOC) provides unit commanders with a clear definition of their respective unit's wartime capability. It is based on the authorized manpower and materiel strength of the unit. The DOC outlines the unit's capabilities, including its organization, equipment, and training, and helps commanders understand what their unit is capable of achieving in a wartime scenario. It is an important reference for planning and executing military operations.

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4.

(015) What document provides an all-inclusive tasking for aircraft and munitions?
- Generation flow plan
- Air tasking order (ATO)
- Initial tasking order (ITO)
- Operations plan (OPLAN)
Correct Answer

A. Air tasking order (ATO)

Explanation

The Air Tasking Order (ATO) is a document that provides comprehensive instructions and tasking for aircraft and munitions. It outlines the specific tasks, objectives, and targets that need to be accomplished during a specific period of time. The ATO is typically produced by the Air Operations Center (AOC) and serves as a guiding document for air operations, ensuring coordination and synchronization among various air assets and missions. It includes information on airspace control measures, target lists, and specific instructions for aircraft and munitions deployment. The ATO is crucial for effective and efficient air operations in a theater of operations.

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5.

(015) A weapons expediter uses the generation flow plan for ________
- Assigning mission line numbers
- Identifying which aircraft are to be flown
- Aligning load crews with the mission requirements
- Determining which equipment needs to be packed in a deployment kit
Correct Answer

A. Aligning load crews with the mission requirements

Explanation

The weapons expediter uses the generation flow plan to align load crews with the mission requirements. This means that the plan helps the expediter determine which load crews are needed for each specific mission, ensuring that the right personnel are assigned to the right tasks based on the mission's requirements.

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6.

(016) What material(s) can be used as the core of the 463L pallet?
- High-density polystyrene
- Aluminum honeycomb
- Redwood or balsa
- Pine or oak
Correct Answer

A. Redwood or balsa

Explanation

Redwood or balsa can be used as the core of the 463L pallet. These materials are lightweight yet strong, making them suitable for use in pallet construction. They are also resistant to moisture and can withstand heavy loads, ensuring the durability and reliability of the pallet. Additionally, redwood and balsa are readily available and cost-effective options for pallet manufacturing.

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7.

(016) What are the usable dimensions of the 436L pallet?
- 78” x 98.”
- 80” x 102.”
- 84” x 104.”
- 88” x 108.”
Correct Answer

A. 84” x 104.”

Explanation

The usable dimensions of the 436L pallet are 84" x 104". This means that the length of the pallet is 84 inches and the width is 104 inches. These dimensions determine the maximum size of the items that can be placed on the pallet and ensure that they fit properly without overhanging or exceeding the pallet's capacity.

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8.

(016) Which of the following would prevent a 436L pallet from being used?
- Skin for separations from the wood core center
- A dent exceeding four inches in diameter
- A dent exceeding ¼ inch in depth
- Any sign of galvanic corrosion
Correct Answer

A. Skin for separations from the wood core center

Explanation

A skin separation from the wood core center would prevent a 436L pallet from being used because it indicates a structural issue with the pallet. The skin is an essential part of the pallet's structure and if it is separated from the wood core center, it compromises the pallet's strength and integrity. This could lead to the pallet being unable to support the weight of the cargo or potentially breaking during transportation. Therefore, any skin separation would make the pallet unfit for use.

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9.

Full-time weapons safety personnel must be qualified in their Air Force specialty code (AFSC) or civil service equivalent in the maintenance or operation of nuclear weapons, missiles, or non nuclear munitions and successfully complete __________
- The AETC weapons safety course
- A locally approved weapons safety course
- The appropriate major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety course
- An Air Force Safety and Health (AFOSH) approved explosives safety course
Correct Answer

A. The AETC weapons safety course

Explanation

Full-time weapons safety personnel must be qualified in their Air Force specialty code (AFSC) or civil service equivalent in the maintenance or operation of nuclear weapons, missiles, or non-nuclear munitions. In addition to this qualification, they must also successfully complete the AETC weapons safety course. This course is specifically designed to provide them with the necessary knowledge and skills to ensure the safe handling, storage, and operation of weapons. By completing this course, they will be able to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities in maintaining the safety of weapons within the Air Force.

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10.

(017) Who must perform annual reviews of explosives location maps maintained by civil engineering?
- Wing weapons manager or equivalent
- Base civil engineer (BCE)
- Wing weapons safety
- Base fire marshal
Correct Answer

A. Wing weapons safety

Explanation

The Wing weapons safety personnel are responsible for conducting annual reviews of explosives location maps maintained by civil engineering. They are specifically trained and knowledgeable in handling and managing weapons and explosives, making them the most suitable individuals to ensure the accuracy and safety of the maps. The other options, such as the Wing weapons manager or equivalent, Base civil engineer, and Base fire marshal, may have other responsibilities related to weapons and explosives, but the annual review of explosives location maps falls under the jurisdiction of the Wing weapons safety personnel.

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11.

(017) Who identifies the locations for handling hung ordnance and gun-clearing operations, including arm and de-arm areas?
- Wing weapons manager or equivalent
- Base civil engineer (BCE)
- Wing weapons safety
- Quality assurance (QA)
Correct Answer

A. Wing weapons safety

Explanation

The Wing weapons safety identifies the locations for handling hung ordnance and gun-clearing operations, including arm and de-arm areas.

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12.

(018) What publication sets the guidelines for safely storing explosives?
- AFMAN 91–201, Explosive Safety Standards.
- AFI 91–2045, Nonnuclear Munitions Safety Board.
- AFJMAN 23–209, Storage and Handling of Hazardous Materials.
- AFJMAN 23–210, Joint Service Manual (JSM) for Storage and Materials Handling.
Correct Answer

A. AFMAN 91–201, Explosive Safety Standards.

Explanation

The correct answer is AFMAN 91–201, Explosive Safety Standards. This publication is likely to set guidelines for safely storing explosives because it specifically focuses on explosive safety standards. The other options, AFI 91–2045, Nonnuclear Munitions Safety Board, AFJMAN 23–209, Storage and Handling of Hazardous Materials, and AFJMAN 23–210, Joint Service Manual (JSM) for Storage and Materials Handling, do not specifically mention explosives or have a direct connection to explosive safety. Therefore, AFMAN 91–201 is the most appropriate choice for setting guidelines for safely storing explosives.

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13.

(018) What is a measurement of the amount of explosive filler in a given munitions?
- Net explosives weight
- Gross explosives weight
- Quantity-distance (Q-D) weight
- Typical warhead payload weight
Correct Answer

A. Net explosives weight

Explanation

Net explosives weight is a measurement of the amount of explosive filler in a given munition. It refers to the weight of the explosive material itself, excluding any packaging or other non-explosive components. This measurement is important for determining the potential destructive power and handling requirements of the munition. Gross explosives weight would include the weight of packaging and other non-explosive components, while quantity-distance (Q-D) weight and typical warhead payload weight are not specific measurements of explosive filler.

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14.

(018) The term “quantity-distance (Q-D)” refers to the
- Distance required between loaded aircraft
- Required distance between explosive magazines
- Protection requirements from potential explosive sites (PES) to different kinds of exposed sites (ES)
- Distance that personnel must be evacuated to during an incident involving a given quantity of explosives
Correct Answer

A. Protection requirements from potential explosive sites (PES) to different kinds of exposed sites (ES)

Explanation

The term "quantity-distance (Q-D)" refers to the protection requirements from potential explosive sites (PES) to different kinds of exposed sites (ES). This means that it is a measure of the distance that needs to be maintained between sites where explosives are stored or handled and other sites that could be at risk of damage or harm in the event of an explosion. This ensures that there is enough distance to minimize the potential impact and protect people and property from the effects of an explosion.

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15.

(018) What area requires an explosive site plan (ESP)?
- Shelters for arm/de-arm crews
- Licensed explosives facilities
- Hung ordnance areas
- Arm/de-arm areas
Correct Answer

A. Shelters for arm/de-arm crews

Explanation

An explosive site plan (ESP) is required for shelters used by arm/de-arm crews. These crews handle explosives and munitions, so it is important to have a plan in place to ensure the safety and security of the area. The ESP includes details such as the layout of the shelter, storage procedures, emergency response plans, and any necessary safety measures. This helps to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents involving explosives and protect the personnel working in these areas.

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16.

(018) What generally addresses quantity-distance (Q-D) relationships and authorizes civil engineering planning activities to continue working on a site plan?
- Priority monitor report (D18).
- Submitting a site plan.
- Preliminary approval.
- Final approval.
Correct Answer

A. Preliminary approval.

Explanation

Preliminary approval generally addresses quantity-distance (Q-D) relationships and authorizes civil engineering planning activities to continue working on a site plan. This means that after receiving preliminary approval, the civil engineering team can proceed with their planning activities without any hindrance. It indicates that the site plan has met the necessary requirements and is in compliance with the quantity-distance regulations. Once the preliminary approval is granted, the team can move forward with confidence towards final approval.

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17.

(019) Who normally keeps a current list of personnel qualified for a safety investigation board (SIB)?
- Base and wing commander
- Each squadron commander
- Group commander
- Wing safety
Correct Answer

A. Base and wing commander

Explanation

The base and wing commander is responsible for keeping a current list of personnel qualified for a safety investigation board (SIB). This is because the base and wing commander have the authority and oversight over the entire base or wing, including safety protocols and investigations. They would have the knowledge and information about the qualifications and training of personnel within their command, making them the appropriate individuals to maintain the list of those qualified for SIBs.

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18.

(019) Historically, who ensures the independence and integrity of safety investigation boards (SIB)?
- Congress
- Commanders
- Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)
- Major commands (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer

A. Congress

Explanation

Congress ensures the independence and integrity of safety investigation boards (SIB). As the legislative branch of the United States government, Congress has the authority to oversee and regulate various aspects of government operations. This includes the establishment and oversight of safety investigation boards to ensure that they are independent and unbiased in their investigations. By holding hearings, conducting investigations, and passing legislation, Congress plays a crucial role in ensuring the transparency and accountability of safety investigation boards.

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19.

(008) What level of maintenance is performed on- or off-equipment at a major repair facility?
- MAJCOM
- Intermediate
- Operational
- Depot
Correct Answer

A. Depot

Explanation

Depot-level maintenance is performed at a major repair facility. This type of maintenance involves extensive repairs and overhauls that cannot be performed at lower levels of maintenance. It is typically done off-equipment, meaning that the equipment is brought to the repair facility for maintenance. Depot-level maintenance is usually conducted by highly skilled technicians and involves complex repairs and replacement of major components. This level of maintenance ensures that equipment is restored to full functionality and extends its overall lifespan.

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20.

(009) What inspection concept is designed to translate flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods and is usually expressed in days?
- Periodic inspection
- Phased inspection
- Isochronal inspection
- Programmed depot maintenance
Correct Answer

A. Isochronal inspection

Explanation

Isochronal inspection is a concept that converts flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods, typically measured in days. This type of inspection ensures that aircraft are inspected and maintained at regular intervals, based on their usage. It helps to identify any potential issues or wear and tear that may have occurred during a specific period of time, allowing for timely repairs and maintenance.

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21.

(009) Who is responsible for ensuring the isochronal inspection calendar periods are properly established to meet maintenance engineering requirements?
- MAJCOM functional manager
- Systems program manager
- Plans and scheduling
- Quality Assurance (QA)
Correct Answer

A. Systems program manager

Explanation

The systems program manager is responsible for ensuring that the isochronal inspection calendar periods are properly established to meet maintenance engineering requirements. This role involves coordinating with different departments and stakeholders to develop and maintain an effective inspection schedule that aligns with maintenance needs. By overseeing the planning and scheduling of isochronal inspections, the systems program manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance activities are carried out in a timely and efficient manner.

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22.

(009) What inspection system is used to inspect individual areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond the scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements listed in the -6?
- Period inspection
- Phased inspection
- Isochronal inspection
- Programmed depot maintenance
Correct Answer

A. Programmed depot maintenance

Explanation

Programmed depot maintenance is used to inspect individual areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond the scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements listed in the -6. This type of inspection is typically conducted at a maintenance depot and involves a thorough examination and overhaul of the equipment. It ensures that all necessary repairs and maintenance tasks are completed to maintain the equipment's operational readiness and extend its service life.

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23.

(012) What is the official major command (MAJCOM) developed document showing the base-by-base munitions or tanks racks and pylons (TRAP) requirements?
- Weapons system evaluation program (WSEP)
- War consumable distribution objective (WCDO)
- Non-nuclear consumables annual analysis (NCAA)
- Nuclear ordinance commodity management (NOCM)
Correct Answer

A. War consumable distribution objective (WCDO)

Explanation

The War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO) is the official major command (MAJCOM) developed document that shows the base-by-base munitions or tanks racks and pylons (TRAP) requirements. This document helps in determining the distribution of war consumables such as ammunition, tanks, and racks among different bases. It ensures that each base has the necessary resources to support their operational needs during wartime.

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24.

(013) What is contained in the design operations capability (DOC)?
- Personnel requirements
- Limitation factors (LIMFAC) and manning shortfalls
- Mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and resources required.
- Manning required for deployment, equipment shortfalls, and wartime capability
Correct Answer

A. Mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and resources required.

Explanation

The design operations capability (DOC) contains the mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and resources required. This means that the DOC includes the instructions and details of the mission, as well as the specific resources that are needed to carry out the mission. It does not include personnel requirements, limitation factors, manning shortfalls, or equipment shortfalls. The focus of the DOC is on the mission itself and the necessary resources to accomplish it.

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25.

(013) What system is used to report the status of a unit's resources and training so the commanders can track the readiness of their force structure on a daily basis?
- Mission tasking narrative (MTN)
- Limiting factors (LIMFAC) listings
- Designed operational capability (DOC)
- Status of resources and training system
Correct Answer

A. Status of resources and training system

Explanation

The correct answer is the Status of resources and training system. This system is used to report the status of a unit's resources and training on a daily basis. It allows commanders to track the readiness of their force structure by providing up-to-date information on the availability and proficiency of personnel, equipment, and training. This information is crucial for making informed decisions and ensuring that the unit is prepared to carry out its mission effectively.

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26.

(017) What contains all necessary information to properly site and construct a potential explosion site (PES)?
- Exposed site (ES)
- Explosives site plan (ESP)
- Quantity-Distance (Q-D) arc
- Priority monitor report (D18)
Correct Answer

A. Explosives site plan (ESP)

Explanation

The Explosives Site Plan (ESP) contains all necessary information to properly site and construct a potential explosion site (PES). It provides detailed information about the location, layout, and construction requirements for the site. This includes information about the type and quantity of explosives to be stored, as well as the necessary safety measures and distance requirements. The ESP is essential for ensuring that the PES is designed and built in a way that minimizes the risk of accidents or explosions.

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27.

(018) What is the minimum rank of the president of a safety investigation board (SIB) involving ground, explosive, or aircraft safety in a Class-A on-duty mishap?
- Major or GS-12
- Captain or GS-12
- Colonel or GM-15
- Lieutenant Colonel or GM-13
Correct Answer

A. Lieutenant Colonel or GM-13

Explanation

The minimum rank of the president of a safety investigation board (SIB) involving ground, explosive, or aircraft safety in a Class-A on-duty mishap is Lieutenant Colonel or GM-13. This means that the person leading the investigation must hold at least the rank of Lieutenant Colonel or be at the GM-13 grade level.

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28.

(020) What funds are used to reimburse the stock fund for your squadron’s purchases?
- Yearly budgeted funds for maintenance activities
- Operation and maintenance (O&M)
- Yearly funding allocation
- Maintenance and repairs
Correct Answer

A. Operation and maintenance (O&M)
29.

(020) What is one sure way you can undermine the supply system?
- Integrating supply into the maintenance activity
- Using the wrong priority when ordering parts
- Waiting for parts on order
- Creating an excess stock
Correct Answer

A. Using the wrong priority when ordering parts

Explanation

Using the wrong priority when ordering parts can undermine the supply system because it can lead to delays in receiving critical parts needed for maintenance activities. If parts are not ordered with the correct priority, essential repairs may be delayed or even halted, impacting the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the supply system. This can result in increased downtime, decreased productivity, and potential disruptions in operations. Therefore, ensuring that the correct priority is assigned when ordering parts is crucial for maintaining a smooth and efficient supply system.

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30.

(020) Stock levels for bench stock are based on
- Time compliance technical orders (TCTO)
- Consumption level
- Base supply level
- Availability
Correct Answer

A. Consumption level

Explanation

The correct answer is "consumption level". Stock levels for bench stock are determined based on the consumption level, which refers to the rate at which items are being used or consumed. By analyzing the consumption level, organizations can ensure that an adequate quantity of items is maintained in stock to meet the demand and prevent shortages. This approach helps in optimizing inventory management and avoiding unnecessary stockouts or excess inventory.

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31.

(020) What does supply do when a bench stock part usage is low for a long period of time?
- Reclaims the part
- Initiates a user justification letter
- Initiates a customer usage survey
- Identifies the part as an item for deletion
Correct Answer

A. Identifies the part as an item for deletion

Explanation

When a bench stock part usage is low for a long period of time, supply identifies the part as an item for deletion. This means that the part is no longer considered necessary or useful and will be removed from the inventory. This helps to streamline and optimize the inventory management process by eliminating unnecessary items and reducing costs associated with storage and maintenance of these parts.

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32.

(020) What supply guideline is the most abused?
- Priority designators
- Not turning in repairable assets
- Slow parts delivery
- Hoarding parts
Correct Answer

A. Priority designators

Explanation

Priority designators are the most abused supply guideline because they determine the order in which requests for supplies are fulfilled. Abusing priority designators means that individuals or departments may falsely prioritize their requests, causing delays for others who have legitimate urgent needs. This can lead to inefficiencies in the supply chain and hinder the overall effectiveness of the organization's operations.

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33.

(021) What describes the items and quantities of equipment required to perform the missions and duties of Air Force organizations and individual specialists?
- War reserves materials
- Standardized work packages
- Equipment custody accounts
- Equipment allowance standards
Correct Answer

A. Equipment allowance standards

Explanation

Equipment allowance standards refer to the items and quantities of equipment required to perform the missions and duties of Air Force organizations and individual specialists. These standards provide guidelines for the types and quantities of equipment that should be available to support various operations and tasks. They help ensure that the necessary equipment is on hand and ready for use when needed.

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34.

(021) What section of supply handles the processing of the AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request, for items on your units allowance standard (AS)?
- Equipment management section
- Custody custodian customer support section
- Non-expendable equipment accounts section
- Non-expendable equipment accounts management section
Correct Answer

A. Equipment management section

Explanation

The correct answer is Equipment management section. This section handles the processing of the AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request, for items on the unit's allowance standard (AS).

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35.

(022) What does the 2 designate in the expendability, recoverability, reparability cost designator (ERRCD) “XD2”?
- Expendable
- Reparability
- Cost category
- Depot funded
Correct Answer

A. Cost category

Explanation

The 2 in the expendability, recoverability, reparability cost designator "XD2" designates the cost category.

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36.

(022) What computer-generated detail is used at base level by both supply and the maintenance activities to keep track of repair cycle assets?
- Not repairable this station (NRTS)
- Due-in-from-maintenance (DIFM)
- Work center event
- End-item report
Correct Answer

A. Due-in-from-maintenance (DIFM)

Explanation

Due-in-from-maintenance (DIFM) is the computer-generated detail used at the base level by both supply and maintenance activities to keep track of repair cycle assets. DIFM refers to the items that are currently undergoing maintenance or repair and are expected to be returned to the supply system. It helps in tracking the status and location of these assets, ensuring efficient management and timely availability for future use. This information is crucial for both supply and maintenance activities to effectively plan and coordinate their operations.

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37.

(022) What do you call the amount of time a part waits on the shelf to be repaired?
- Scheduled maintenance workflow stoppage
- Delayed maintenance
- Awaiting parts
- Backlog
Correct Answer

A. Delayed maintenance

Explanation

Delayed maintenance refers to the amount of time a part waits on the shelf to be repaired. This term implies that the maintenance is not being carried out immediately, resulting in a delay in the repair process. It suggests that the part is not being attended to promptly, which can lead to inefficiencies and potential disruptions in the workflow.

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38.

(022) What Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form do you fill out to provide the repair shop information concerning a broken item?
- 1574.
- 1348–2.
- 1348–1.
- 350.
Correct Answer

A. 350.

Explanation

The correct answer is 350. This is because the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form 350 is used to provide the repair shop with information regarding a broken item. This form is specifically designed for reporting and tracking maintenance and repair actions within the Air Force.

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39.

(022) What document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the standard base supply system (SBSS)?
- Priority monitor report
- Daily document register
- Urgency of need designator
- Awaiting parts validation list
Correct Answer

A. Daily document register

Explanation

The Daily Document Register is a document that allows organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the standard base supply system (SBSS). It serves as a means for tracking and monitoring the flow of documents within the organization, providing a comprehensive record of all documents processed. This register helps ensure that all necessary documents are accounted for and allows for easy reference and review of document numbers.

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40.

(023) What form is submitted on support equipment to identify obsolete equipment and the estimated age when, because of wear and tear, it is considered not feasible to repair?
- AFTO Form 22.
- AFTO Form 95.
- AFTO Form 245.
- AFTO Form 375.
Correct Answer

A. AFTO Form 375.

Explanation

AFTO Form 375 is submitted on support equipment to identify obsolete equipment and the estimated age when it is considered not feasible to repair due to wear and tear.

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41.

(023) Who designs, develops, tests, approves, and standardizes equipment for Air Force use around munitions?
- Quality assurance (QA).
- Munitions material handling equipment (MMHE) focal point.
- Ogden Air Logistics Center (ALC).
- USAF Armament Control Point.
Correct Answer

A. Munitions material handling equipment (MMHE) focal point.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Munitions Material Handling Equipment (MMHE) focal point. This role is responsible for designing, developing, testing, approving, and standardizing equipment that is used by the Air Force for handling munitions. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the equipment meets the necessary standards and requirements for safe and efficient handling of munitions. The MMHE focal point is an important position within the Air Force's munitions operations.

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42.

(024) Who determines if an item has additional Air Force (AF) utility before forwarding to the Munitions Material Handling Equipment (MMHE) focal point?
- MAJCOM functional manager.
- Production superintendant.
- Wing weapons manager.
- Quality assurance.
Correct Answer

A. MAJCOM functional manager.

Explanation

The MAJCOM functional manager determines if an item has additional Air Force (AF) utility before forwarding it to the Munitions Material Handling Equipment (MMHE) focal point. This means that the MAJCOM functional manager is responsible for assessing the item and determining if it can be used for other purposes within the Air Force.

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43.

(025) What are the three types of deficiency reports (DR)?
- Category (CAT) I, CAT I (mishap) deficiency reporting, and CAT II.
- Major, intermediate, and minor.
- Preliminary, interim, and final.
- Class A, Class B, and Class C.
Correct Answer

A. Category (CAT) I, CAT I (mishap) deficiency reporting, and CAT II.

Explanation

The correct answer is Category (CAT) I, CAT I (mishap) deficiency reporting, and CAT II. These three types of deficiency reports are used to categorize and prioritize the severity of the reported deficiencies. Category I refers to deficiencies that may cause death, severe injury, or major damage to equipment or property. CAT I (mishap) deficiency reporting specifically refers to deficiencies that have caused or could potentially cause a mishap. CAT II refers to deficiencies that may cause minor injury or damage to equipment or property.

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44.

(025) What category (CAT) of deficiency reports (DR) must you forward to the screening point within three workdays?
- Mishap.
- CAT II.
- CAT B.
- CAT I (Mishap).
Correct Answer

A. CAT II.

Explanation

CAT II deficiency reports must be forwarded to the screening point within three workdays.

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45.

(025) During a deficiency report’s screening, who normally holds the exhibit pending shipment?
- Quality assurance (QA) section.
- Reporting organization.
- Base supply personnel.
- Wing safety personnel.
Correct Answer

A. Quality assurance (QA) section.

Explanation

During a deficiency report's screening, the Quality assurance (QA) section normally holds the exhibit pending shipment. This is because the QA section is responsible for ensuring the quality and compliance of products or materials. Holding the exhibit pending shipment allows the QA section to thoroughly inspect and evaluate the exhibit to determine if it meets the required standards before it is shipped.

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46.

(026) Which condition would require a report of discrepancy (ROD)?
- Shortages valued under $100.
- Suitable substitute items are received.
- Wrong parts were ordered to complete an urgent job.
- Shipping document of item in excess of $100 shows different condition than item.
Correct Answer

A. Shipping document of item in excess of $100 shows different condition than item.

Explanation

If the shipping document of an item in excess of $100 shows a different condition than the actual item, it would require a report of discrepancy (ROD). This means that there is a discrepancy between the condition stated on the shipping document and the actual condition of the item received. This could indicate a mistake or error in the shipping process, and a report would need to be made to address and rectify the issue.

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47.

(026) Which of the following is not a function of a report of survey (ROS)?
- Investigate if the cause of loss, damage, or destruction of property was attributable to an individual’s negligence or abuse.
- Provide the Air Force statistical data to determine trends in pilferage and/or destruction of government property.
- Assess monetary liability against individuals who have lost, damaged, or destroyed government property.
- Provide documentation which can be used to support the adjustment of accountable records.
Correct Answer

A. Provide the Air Force statistical data to determine trends in pilferage and/or destruction of government property.

Explanation

The report of survey (ROS) is not used to provide statistical data to determine trends in pilferage and/or destruction of government property. Instead, it is used to investigate the cause of loss, damage, or destruction of property, assess monetary liability against individuals responsible for the loss or damage, and provide documentation to support the adjustment of accountable records.

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48.

(027) What will happen if you submit an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) IMT Form 22, Technical Manual Change Recommendation and Reply for a typographical error?
- It will be approved.
- It will not be approved.
- The change will be made in the next revision.
- The change will be made in the next change supplement.
Correct Answer

A. It will not be approved.

Explanation

If you submit an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) IMT Form 22, Technical Manual Change Recommendation and Reply for a typographical error, it will not be approved.

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49.

(027) You submit all time compliance technical order (TCTO) deficiencies as what type of action reports?
- Urgent.
- Routine.
- Standard.
- Emergency.
Correct Answer

A. Urgent.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Urgent" because time compliance technical order (TCTO) deficiencies need to be addressed promptly in order to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the equipment or system. Urgent action reports are used to prioritize and expedite the resolution of these deficiencies.

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2w1 7 Level CDC Pretest 2 Of 2

(014) The time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is used to ________

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(014) Each base assigned as a beddown location or assigned responsibility to support forces for the operation plan (OPLAN) must develop a

(014) Which source provides unit commanders a clear definition of their respective unit’s wartime capability, based upon the authorized manpower and materiel strength of the unit?

(015) What document provides an all-inclusive tasking for aircraft and munitions?

(015) A weapons expediter uses the generation flow plan for ________

(016) What material(s) can be used as the core of the 463L pallet?

(016) What are the usable dimensions of the 436L pallet?

(016) Which of the following would prevent a 436L pallet from being used?

Full-time weapons safety personnel must be qualified in their Air Force specialty code (AFSC) or civil service equivalent in the maintenance or operation of nuclear weapons, missiles, or non nuclear munitions and successfully complete __________

(017) Who must perform annual reviews of explosives location maps maintained by civil engineering?

(017) Who identifies the locations for handling hung ordnance and gun-clearing operations, including arm and de-arm areas?

(018) What publication sets the guidelines for safely storing explosives?

(018) What is a measurement of the amount of explosive filler in a given munitions?

(018) The term “quantity-distance (Q-D)” refers to the

(018) What area requires an explosive site plan (ESP)?

(018) What generally addresses quantity-distance (Q-D) relationships and authorizes civil engineering planning activities to continue working on a site plan?

(019) Who normally keeps a current list of personnel qualified for a safety investigation board (SIB)?

(019) Historically, who ensures the independence and integrity of safety investigation boards (SIB)?

(008) What level of maintenance is performed on- or off-equipment at a major repair facility?

(009) What inspection concept is designed to translate flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods and is usually expressed in days?

(009) Who is responsible for ensuring the isochronal inspection calendar periods are properly established to meet maintenance engineering requirements?

(009) What inspection system is used to inspect individual areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond the scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements listed in the -6?

(012) What is the official major command (MAJCOM) developed document showing the base-by-base munitions or tanks racks and pylons (TRAP) requirements?

(013) What is contained in the design operations capability (DOC)?

(013) What system is used to report the status of a unit's resources and training so the commanders can track the readiness of their force structure on a daily basis?

(017) What contains all necessary information to properly site and construct a potential explosion site (PES)?

(018) What is the minimum rank of the president of a safety investigation board (SIB) involving ground, explosive, or aircraft safety in a Class-A on-duty mishap?

(020) What funds are used to reimburse the stock fund for your squadron’s purchases?

(020) What is one sure way you can undermine the supply system?

(020) Stock levels for bench stock are based on

(020) What does supply do when a bench stock part usage is low for a long period of time?

(020) What supply guideline is the most abused?

(021) What describes the items and quantities of equipment required to perform the missions and duties of Air Force organizations and individual specialists?

(021) What section of supply handles the processing of the AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request, for items on your units allowance standard (AS)?

(022) What does the 2 designate in the expendability, recoverability, reparability cost designator (ERRCD) “XD2”?

(022) What computer-generated detail is used at base level by both supply and the maintenance activities to keep track of repair cycle assets?

(022) What do you call the amount of time a part waits on the shelf to be repaired?

(022) What Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form do you fill out to provide the repair shop information concerning a broken item?

(022) What document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the standard base supply system (SBSS)?

(023) What form is submitted on support equipment to identify obsolete equipment and the estimated age when, because of wear and tear, it is considered not feasible to repair?

(023) Who designs, develops, tests, approves, and standardizes equipment for Air Force use around munitions?

(024) Who determines if an item has additional Air Force (AF) utility before forwarding to the Munitions Material Handling Equipment (MMHE) focal point?

(025) What are the three types of deficiency reports (DR)?

(025) What category (CAT) of deficiency reports (DR) must you forward to the screening point within three workdays?

(025) During a deficiency report’s screening, who normally holds the exhibit pending shipment?

(026) Which condition would require a report of discrepancy (ROD)?

(026) Which of the following is not a function of a report of survey (ROS)?

(027) What will happen if you submit an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) IMT Form 22, Technical Manual Change Recommendation and Reply for a typographical error?

(027) You submit all time compliance technical order (TCTO) deficiencies as what type of action reports?