1.
Who is solely responsible for drawing and returning subsistence after each meal period?
Correct Answer
B. Senior cook
Explanation
The senior cook is solely responsible for drawing and returning subsistence after each meal period. This means that they are in charge of obtaining the necessary ingredients and supplies for the next meal, as well as making sure any leftover food is properly stored or disposed of. This task requires organization, attention to detail, and knowledge of food safety protocols. The line cook, grill cook, and server may have their own responsibilities during meal service, but the senior cook has the specific responsibility for managing subsistence.
2.
When does the shift leader review the waste log to make sure all waste is authorized?
Correct Answer
B. Before it is processed
Explanation
The shift leader reviews the waste log before it is processed to ensure that all waste is authorized. This is done to prevent any unauthorized waste from being processed and to maintain proper documentation and control over waste management. Reviewing the waste log before processing allows the shift leader to identify any discrepancies or issues and take appropriate action to address them.
3.
Normally, who are primary users of the dining hall
Correct Answer
D. Enlisted members.
Explanation
Enlisted members are the primary users of the dining hall. This is because enlisted members are the lower-ranking personnel in the military, and dining halls typically cater to the needs of enlisted personnel. Civilian employees, retirees, and officers may also use the dining hall, but enlisted members are considered the main users.
4.
Who is the approval authority for civilians and officers to use the dining facility?
Correct Answer
D. Installation commander
Explanation
The installation commander is the approval authority for civilians and officers to use the dining facility. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the installation, they have the authority to make decisions regarding the use and access of facilities on the base. This includes granting approval for individuals to use the dining facility, ensuring that it is properly managed and utilized by those who have the appropriate authorization. The installation commander's role is crucial in maintaining order and ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately within the installation.
5.
When are Department of Defense (DOD) meal rates published?
Correct Answer
D. Annually.
Explanation
The Department of Defense (DOD) publishes meal rates on an annual basis. This means that the rates for meals are updated and released once every year.
6.
Which items are not purchased with a proportional charge for meals?
Correct Answer
A. Food.
Explanation
Food is not purchased with a proportional charge for meals because it is the main component of a meal and is typically included in the overall cost of the meal. In contrast, supplies, cups, and paper plates are additional items that may be purchased separately and may have their own separate charges.
7.
What is the primary milk used in dining facilities?
Correct Answer
D. 1%.
Explanation
The primary milk used in dining facilities is 1% milk. This is a type of milk that has had most of the fat content removed, leaving it with only 1% fat. This makes it a healthier option compared to whole milk, which has a higher fat content. Skim milk and 2% milk are also lower in fat compared to whole milk, but 1% milk specifically is the primary milk used in dining facilities.
8.
What is the minimum number of fresh fruit that must be available during the lunch and dinner
meals?
Correct Answer
B. 6
Explanation
To ensure that there is enough fresh fruit available during both lunch and dinner meals, a minimum of 6 fruits must be available. This is because each meal requires at least one fruit, and since there are two meals in total, 6 fruits would be the minimum number needed.
9.
Who or what agency is the approval authority for adding new items to the AF Core Catalog.
Correct Answer
B. HQ AFSVA
Explanation
HQ AFSVA, which stands for Headquarters Air Force Services Activity, is the approval authority for adding new items to the AF Core Catalog. This means that any new items that need to be added to the catalog must receive approval from HQ AFSVA before they can be included.
10.
Which management tool is used as guidance for flight meal preparation and service?
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System Menu Preface
Explanation
The Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System Menu Preface is used as guidance for flight meal preparation and service. This tool provides a preface to the menu system used in the Air Force to ensure that meals are prepared and served according to the required standards. It helps in maintaining consistency and quality in the meals served during flights.
11.
Bite size meals are consumed by aircrews wearing what?
Correct Answer
C. Oxygen masks.
Explanation
Aircrews wear oxygen masks while consuming bite size meals because they often operate at high altitudes where the air is thin and oxygen levels are low. The masks provide a constant supply of oxygen to the aircrews, ensuring their safety and well-being during the flight. Helmets, FLAK vests, and flight suits are not directly related to the consumption of bite size meals and do not serve the same purpose as oxygen masks in high altitude environments.
12.
A high-protein, low residue meal would not be given to aircrew because of the
Correct Answer
D. Flight lasting only four hours
Explanation
A high-protein, low residue meal would not be given to aircrew because of the flight lasting only four hours. This is because a high-protein meal takes longer to digest and can cause discomfort or fatigue during a short flight. It is more suitable for longer flights where the body requires sustained energy.
13.
Transportation working capital industrial fund (TWCF) funds are used to provide what to
passengers?
Correct Answer
B. Complimentary snacks and beverages
Explanation
TWCF funds are used to provide passengers with complimentary snacks and beverages during their flight.
14.
How often does the United States Air Force (USAF) amended food code require self inspections
of dining facilities to be done?
Correct Answer
B. Weekly.
Explanation
The correct answer is Weekly. The United States Air Force (USAF) amended food code requires self inspections of dining facilities to be done on a weekly basis. This regular inspection frequency ensures that the facilities maintain high standards of food safety and hygiene. It allows for timely identification and resolution of any potential issues or violations, ensuring the well-being of the personnel consuming the food.
15.
Where is the primary location/source for on-base catering?
Correct Answer
D. AF Clubs.
Explanation
The primary location/source for on-base catering is AF Clubs. This is because AF Clubs typically have dedicated facilities and staff to cater events and provide food services on military bases. Dining facilities, snack bars, and BX/PX (Base Exchange/Post Exchange) are also common on military bases, but they may not have the same level of resources or focus on catering services as AF Clubs.
16.
Who is the approval authority to allow civilians access to the dining facility during
emergency situation?
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander
Explanation
The installation commander is the approval authority to allow civilians access to the dining facility during an emergency situation. They have the overall authority and responsibility for the installation and its operations, including making decisions regarding access to facilities in emergency situations.
17.
Who is the clearance authority for food service personnel to return to food operation after an illness?
Correct Answer
A. Medical doctor
Explanation
A medical doctor is the clearance authority for food service personnel to return to food operation after an illness. This is because a medical doctor is qualified and trained to assess the health condition of an individual and determine if they are fit to resume their duties in a food service operation. They have the expertise to evaluate the risk of transmitting any contagious diseases or infections and make an informed decision regarding the individual's ability to safely handle food.
18.
When sanitizing serving line equipment, when must personnel clean cutting boards?
Correct Answer
C. After each use of the item
Explanation
Personnel must clean cutting boards after each use of the item when sanitizing serving line equipment. This is important to prevent cross-contamination and ensure food safety. Cleaning the cutting boards after each use helps remove any food residue or bacteria that may be present, reducing the risk of contamination for future use.
19.
When sanitizing dining room equipment, personnel must clean beverage dispensers
Correct Answer
D. Daily.
Explanation
The correct answer is daily. Sanitizing dining room equipment, including beverage dispensers, should be done on a daily basis to ensure cleanliness and prevent the growth of bacteria or other contaminants. This is important to maintain a safe and hygienic dining environment for customers. Cleaning the equipment before and after meal preparation may not be sufficient to prevent the buildup of germs throughout the day. Additionally, incorporating it into a weekly sanitation checklist may not provide adequate frequency for proper sanitation. Therefore, daily cleaning is the most appropriate and effective approach.
20.
Individuals can contract a communicable disease by
Correct Answer
D. Consuming undercooked meats
Explanation
Consuming undercooked meats can lead to the contraction of a communicable disease because raw or undercooked meats may contain harmful bacteria or parasites that can cause infections in humans. Cooking meats thoroughly helps to kill these pathogens and make the meat safe to consume. However, if meats are not cooked properly, the bacteria or parasites may survive and cause illness when ingested. Therefore, consuming undercooked meats increases the risk of contracting a communicable disease.
21.
What is the minimal safe internal cooking temperature for cooked poultry and stuffed meats
and stuffing?
Correct Answer
A. 165ºF
Explanation
The minimal safe internal cooking temperature for cooked poultry and stuffed meats and stuffing is 165ºF. This temperature is recommended to ensure that any harmful bacteria present in the meat are killed and to prevent foodborne illnesses. Cooking poultry and stuffed meats to this temperature helps to ensure that they are safe to consume.
22.
The hazard analysis and critical control point (HACCP) plan must include a training plan
for whom?
Correct Answer
A. Employee and supervisors
Explanation
The HACCP plan must include a training plan for both employees and supervisors. This is important because all individuals involved in the process need to be trained on the proper procedures and protocols to ensure food safety. Employees need to understand how to handle food safely and follow the critical control points outlined in the plan. Supervisors, on the other hand, need to have a thorough understanding of the plan and be able to effectively train and supervise employees to ensure compliance. Therefore, both employees and supervisors need to be included in the training plan.
23.
The continuous preparation of food in successive steps during the entire serving period is
called
Correct Answer
A. Progressive cookery
Explanation
Progressive cookery refers to the method of continuously preparing food in successive steps throughout the entire serving period. This approach allows for a constant flow of food production, ensuring that dishes are always available and fresh for service. It is commonly used in restaurants and catering establishments to efficiently manage the preparation and serving of meals.
24.
The term for a predetermined quantity or number of servings of food that is to be prepared
at selected time intervals is
Correct Answer
B. Batch preparation
Explanation
Batch preparation refers to the process of preparing a predetermined quantity or number of servings of food at selected time intervals. This method is commonly used in commercial kitchens or large-scale cooking operations to ensure efficiency and consistency in food production. By preparing food in batches, chefs can save time and streamline the cooking process, allowing them to serve a larger number of customers or guests. This approach also helps in managing inventory and reducing waste. Therefore, batch preparation is the correct term for this concept.
25.
Sauté literally means what?
Correct Answer
A. Jump
Explanation
The word "sauté" comes from the French word "sauter" which means "to jump." In cooking, sautéing refers to the technique of quickly frying food in a small amount of oil or fat over high heat. The term "jump" is used metaphorically to describe the action of tossing or flipping the food in the pan while cooking.
26.
Searing food prevent the loss of what?
Correct Answer
A. Water.
Explanation
Searing food involves cooking it quickly at a high temperature, which helps to seal in the juices and create a flavorful crust on the outside. This process helps to prevent the loss of water from the food, as the high heat quickly evaporates any moisture on the surface. By retaining the water content, searing helps to keep the food moist and juicy. Therefore, searing prevents the loss of water in the food.
27.
What is the main difference between broiling and grilling?
Correct Answer
C. Gravity.
Explanation
The main difference between broiling and grilling is not related to time, temperature, or pan size. Broiling involves cooking food directly under high heat, while grilling involves cooking food on a grill or grate over an open flame or heat source. Gravity is not a factor in the difference between these cooking methods.
28.
What is the major drawback in using commercial steamers?
Correct Answer
D. Difficulty in inspecting the food during cooking resulting in overcooking
Explanation
The major drawback in using commercial steamers is the difficulty in inspecting the food during cooking, which can result in overcooking. This is because the food is enclosed in the steamer and cannot be easily accessed or checked on while it is cooking. As a result, it is challenging to monitor the cooking progress and make adjustments if necessary, leading to the risk of overcooking the food.
29.
Where in the meat should you insert a thermometer for optimal temperature reading?
Correct Answer
B. Center of the meat, without contacting the bone
Explanation
To obtain an accurate temperature reading, it is best to insert the thermometer into the center of the meat. This ensures that the thermometer is measuring the internal temperature of the meat, which is the most reliable indicator of doneness. It is important to avoid contacting the bone as it can give a false reading and not accurately reflect the temperature of the meat.
30.
What is the maximum temperature for rare beef?
Correct Answer
D. 130°F.
Explanation
The maximum temperature for rare beef is 130°F. This is because rare beef is cooked to an internal temperature of 130°F, which allows the meat to remain tender and juicy while still being safe to eat. Cooking beef to a higher temperature would result in a more well-done steak, which may be drier and less tender.
31.
What is the maximum temperature for well done beef?
Correct Answer
A. 170°F.
Explanation
The correct answer is 170°F. This is the maximum temperature for well done beef. Cooking beef to this temperature ensures that it is fully cooked and there is no pink or redness left in the meat. Cooking beef to a higher temperature can result in it becoming dry and overcooked.
32.
What is the main purpose of garnishing food?
Correct Answer
C. Decorate
Explanation
The main purpose of garnishing food is to decorate it. Garnishes are used to enhance the visual appeal of a dish, making it more visually appealing and appetizing. While garnishes can sometimes add flavor or texture to a dish, their primary function is to make the food more visually appealing and aesthetically pleasing.
33.
To use any garnish item, it must be
Correct Answer
C. Edible
Explanation
The given answer states that in order to use any garnish item, it must be edible. This means that the garnish item should be safe for consumption and not pose any health risks to the person consuming the dish. Using inedible garnish items could potentially harm individuals who consume the dish, so it is important to ensure that the garnish is edible before using it.
34.
Which type of meat should be carved in the kitchen prior to serving?
Correct Answer
D. Poultry
Explanation
Poultry should be carved in the kitchen prior to serving because it is important to ensure that poultry is cooked thoroughly to prevent foodborne illnesses. By carving it in the kitchen, the chef can check if the meat is cooked properly and remove any parts that may not be fully cooked. This also allows for better presentation of the dish when it is served to the guests.
35.
Which action is not a principle of progressive cooking?
Correct Answer
D. Cook all entrée items before the start of the meal
Explanation
Cooking all entrée items before the start of the meal is not a principle of progressive cooking. Progressive cooking involves preparing items in small batches throughout the meal, opening items only when needed, and not completing all food items before serving begins. By cooking all entrée items before the start of the meal, it goes against the idea of preparing items in small batches and serving fresh, hot food to the guests.
36.
What factor is not a cause of plate waste?
Correct Answer
D. Proper cooking temps
Explanation
Proper cooking temperatures are not a cause of plate waste. Plate waste refers to the food that is left uneaten on a plate after a meal. Poor portion control, unpopular dishes, and improper servings can all contribute to plate waste as they may result in larger portions than what people can consume or dishes that are not liked by the individuals. However, proper cooking temperatures do not directly impact plate waste as it is more related to the taste, portion size, and presentation of the food.
37.
Which section in the Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System (AFCFSRS) shows
the recipe number and portion size?
Correct Answer
A. A
Explanation
Section A in the Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System (AFCFSRS) shows the recipe number and portion size.
38.
The Air Force Corporate Food Service Accounting System (AFCFSAS) accounts for
dollars spent at what level?
Correct Answer
B. Installation.
Explanation
The Air Force Corporate Food Service Accounting System (AFCFSAS) accounts for dollars spent at the installation level. This means that the system tracks and manages the financial transactions related to food services specifically at the installation level within the Air Force. The AFCFSAS would not be responsible for accounting for dollars spent at the squadron, MAJCOM, or headquarters levels, as these are different levels within the Air Force organizational structure.
39.
To which document do you attach the cashiers’ miscellaneous log at the end of each day?
Correct Answer
A. Production log.
Explanation
At the end of each day, the cashiers attach the cashiers' miscellaneous log to the production log. This is done to ensure that all the transactions and miscellaneous activities of the cashiers are properly recorded and accounted for in the production log. The production log serves as a comprehensive record of all the activities and transactions that occurred during the day, including sales, inventory usage, and any other relevant information. By attaching the cashiers' miscellaneous log to the production log, it allows for easy reference and tracking of all the cashiers' activities and ensures accurate and complete documentation.
40.
Which document is not a Corporate Food Service (CFS) history journal?
Correct Answer
D. Sales
Explanation
Sales is not a Corporate Food Service (CFS) history journal because it does not provide information about the past activities, events, or developments related to the corporate food service. Sales typically refers to the process of selling products or services and does not focus on documenting historical information.
41.
What document do you prepare to report unsatisfactory food products?
Correct Answer
A. Unsatisfactory material report (UMR).
Explanation
To report unsatisfactory food products, a document called the Unsatisfactory Material Report (UMR) is prepared. This report is specifically designed to document and communicate any issues or concerns with the quality or safety of food products. It allows for a systematic and formalized process to address and rectify any problems with the food, ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to maintain food safety standards.
42.
What form does the public health inspector use to document food that is unfit for
consumption?
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 3516
Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 3516. This form is used by public health inspectors to document food that is unfit for consumption. It is a standardized form that allows inspectors to record details about the food, such as the reason for its unfitness, the location where it was found, and any corrective actions taken. By using this form, inspectors can ensure that proper documentation is maintained and appropriate actions are taken to protect public health.
43.
What is the proper storage temperature for meats and poultry?
Correct Answer
D. 32°–36°F
Explanation
Meats and poultry should be stored at a temperature range of 32°–36°F. This temperature range is considered ideal for preventing the growth of bacteria and maintaining the freshness and quality of the meat. Storing meat at temperatures below 40°F helps to slow down the growth of bacteria, reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. Therefore, the correct answer is 32°–36°F.
44.
What is the proper storage temperature for the dry storage area?
Correct Answer
D. 50°–68°F.
Explanation
The proper storage temperature for the dry storage area is 50°–68°F. This temperature range is suitable for storing dry goods, as it helps to prevent the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms. Temperatures below 50°F can cause certain items to freeze, while temperatures above 68°F can lead to spoilage and degradation of the products. Therefore, maintaining a temperature between 50°–68°F ensures the quality and safety of the stored items.
45.
Who decides if a special physical inventory needs to be conducted?
Correct Answer
C. Food service officer (FSO).
Explanation
The Food service officer (FSO) is responsible for overseeing the food service operations and ensuring compliance with regulations and policies. They have the authority to make decisions regarding special physical inventory, which involves conducting a thorough count and assessment of food inventory. The FSO is knowledgeable about inventory management and can determine when a special inventory is necessary, such as in cases of suspected theft or significant discrepancies in inventory records.
46.
In a non-automated dining facility, which form do you use to transfer subsistence to another
dining facility?
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 3516
Explanation
AF Form 3516 is the correct answer because it is the form used to transfer subsistence to another dining facility in a non-automated dining facility. The other forms listed (AF Form 977, DD Form 988, and DD Form 1119-1) are not specifically used for this purpose.
47.
When you are unable to solve a problem with the prime vendor (PV) account manager, who
do you contact for assistance?
Correct Answer
D. DPSC account manager
Explanation
If you are unable to solve a problem with the prime vendor (PV) account manager, you would contact the DPSC account manager for assistance. The DPSC account manager is responsible for managing the Defense Personal Property System (DPSP) and can provide support and guidance in resolving any issues or concerns related to the PV account. They have the necessary knowledge and authority to address and resolve problems that may arise with the PV account manager.
48.
What is the standard order delivery time for subsistence you order through the prime vendor
program?
Correct Answer
D. 48 HRS
Explanation
The standard order delivery time for subsistence ordered through the prime vendor program is 48 hours. This means that it takes 48 hours for the ordered items to be delivered to the customer.
49.
After receiving an order from the prime vendor (PV), storeroom personnel must send the
receipts to the accountant within how many hours?
Correct Answer
B. 24
Explanation
After receiving an order from the prime vendor, the storeroom personnel are required to send the receipts to the accountant within 24 hours. This ensures timely and accurate record-keeping of the received items and helps in maintaining the financial transactions of the organization.
50.
When accepting a substitution for an item you ordered that is not available, you must
consider which product characteristics?
Correct Answer
D. Type, quality, and size
Explanation
When accepting a substitution for an item you ordered that is not available, you must consider the type, quality, and size of the substitute. These characteristics are important as they determine whether the substitute will meet your needs and preferences. The type of the substitute ensures that it serves the same purpose as the original item, while the quality ensures that it meets your standards. The size is crucial to ensure that the substitute fits your requirements and specifications. Considering these characteristics will help you make an informed decision when accepting a substitution.