CDC 3M071B : Trivia Quiz On Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol!

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  • 1/64 Questions

    Which of the following is not provided by the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) to support operations?

    • Current policies
    • Planning factors
    • Global Force Management (GFM) forces
    • Concept of operations
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About This Quiz

The trivia quiz below is designed to test one's understanding of CDC 3m071bReadiness, Mortuary, And Protocol. It is perfect for seeing how knowledgeable you are about plans that are out in place before and after a mission is done. Take the quiz, and 'let's see how well you understood the course. Take the quiz as many times as you wish.

CDC 3M071B : Trivia Quiz On Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Operational commanders will accept a reduced level of service for how many days?

    • 5

    • 15

    • 20

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Operational commanders will accept a reduced level of service for 30 days. This means that they are willing to compromise on the quality or quantity of services provided for a period of 30 days. This could be due to various reasons such as budget constraints, resource limitations, or strategic decisions. During this time, the commanders prioritize other objectives or allocate resources differently to meet the operational requirements.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following will integrate all base-level actions to support operational plans?

    • In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP).

    • War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    • Joint support plan (JSP).

    • 3M Annex

    Correct Answer
    A. In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP).
    Explanation
    The In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to integrate all base-level actions to support operational plans. The IGESP outlines the necessary resources, personnel, and logistics required to support expeditionary operations from a garrison or home base. It ensures that all base-level actions are coordinated and aligned with the operational plans, providing the necessary support for successful missions. The other options, such as the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP), Joint support plan (JSP), and 3M Annex, may have their own roles and purposes but do not specifically integrate all base-level actions for operational plans.

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  • 4. 

    Which part of the in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) identifies resources?

    • Part 1

    • Part 2.

    • Services annex

    • Joint support plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 1
    Explanation
    Part 1 of the in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) is the part that identifies resources.

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  • 5. 

    Which section of the in-garrison expeditionary support Plan (IGESP) allocated resources?

    • Part 1.

    • Part 2.

    • Services annex

    • Joint support plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 2.
    Explanation
    Part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary support Plan (IGESP) is the section that allocates resources. This section outlines how resources will be distributed and utilized during the expeditionary support operation. It provides a detailed plan for allocating manpower, equipment, supplies, and other necessary resources to ensure the success of the mission.

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  • 6. 

    What agency supervises food sources for deployed units?

    • Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • United States Army Veterinary Command (USVETCOM).

    • Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Army Veterinary Command (USVETCOM).
    Explanation
    The United States Army Veterinary Command (USVETCOM) is responsible for supervising food sources for deployed units. This agency ensures that the food provided to deployed units meets safety and health standards. They work to prevent foodborne illnesses and ensure that the food supply is safe for consumption by military personnel.

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  • 7. 

    When deployed which ration type does not require cooks?

    • Meal ready to eat (MRE).

    • Unitized group ration (UGE).

    • A-Ration

    • B-Rations

    Correct Answer
    A. Meal ready to eat (MRE).
    Explanation
    Meal Ready to Eat (MRE) is a ration type that does not require cooks when deployed. MREs are pre-packaged meals that are ready to eat and do not need any additional preparation or cooking. They are designed to provide all the necessary nutrients and sustenance for military personnel in the field, without the need for cooking facilities or personnel. MREs are convenient, lightweight, and can be easily transported and consumed without the need for additional resources or equipment.

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  • 8. 

    What is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in the Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

    • Force requirement number (FRN).

    • Unitized group ration (UGR).

    • Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • Unit line number (ULN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit line number (ULN).
    Explanation
    The Unit Line Number (ULN) is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in the Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES). This means that the ULN is used to track and manage specific units within the JOPES system, allowing for effective planning and execution of military operations. The other options, such as Force Requirement Number (FRN), Unitized Group Ration (UGR), and Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD), are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not serve as the primary data element for controlling and identifying entries in JOPES.

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  • 9. 

    Which time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operational plan (OPLAN)?

    • Requirements driven.

    • Capabilities driven.

    • Ratified

    • Balance and certified.

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements driven.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Requirements driven." In an operational plan (OPLAN), the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with the requirements of the plan. This means that the deployment of forces is determined based on the specific needs and objectives outlined in the plan. The TPFDD is developed in accordance with these requirements, ensuring that the necessary resources and capabilities are allocated to support the plan's implementation.

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  • 10. 

    How many keys make up the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 9

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) consists of 9 keys.

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  • 11. 

    Which is not one of the population bases that unit type code (UTC) are build on?

    • 275

    • 550

    • 1100

    • 2200

    Correct Answer
    A. 2200
  • 12. 

    At what deployment period will three unitized group rations (UGR) be served each day?

    • D0–4

    • D5–14

    • D15–29

    • D30+

    Correct Answer
    A. D15–29
    Explanation
    Three unitized group rations (UGR) will be served each day during the deployment period of D15–29. This means that from day 15 to day 29, there will be a consistent serving of three UGRs daily.

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  • 13. 

    What is the wartime flight feeding planning factor?

    • 70 percent of patients in medical facility

    • 80 percent of convalescent

    • 90 percent of base population

    • 100 percent of base population

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 percent of base population
    Explanation
    The wartime flight feeding planning factor refers to the percentage of the base population that needs to be accounted for when planning for food supply during wartime. In this case, the correct answer is 100 percent of the base population, which means that food needs to be planned for and provided for every individual in the base population during wartime.

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  • 14. 

    What percentage of team members must receive home station training (HST) on vehicle operations?

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
  • 15. 

    Services combat training (SCT) for deployable unit type codes (UTC) should occur

    • 8 days before departure

    • 8 days after arriving at the deployed location

    • 90–180 days before departure

    • 90–180 days after arriving at the deployed location

    Correct Answer
    A. 90–180 days before departure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90-180 days before departure. Services combat training for deployable unit type codes should occur several months before departure to ensure that the unit is adequately prepared for their mission. This allows sufficient time for training, evaluation, and any necessary adjustments or additional training before deployment. Training closer to the departure date may not provide enough time for proper preparation and could result in a less effective and efficient unit.

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  • 16. 

    What is the fundamental premise of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?

    • Integrity.

    • Accuracy.

    • Timliness.

    • Statistical data

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity.
    Explanation
    The fundamental premise of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting is integrity. This means that the report should be honest, reliable, and trustworthy, providing accurate and unbiased information about the status of resources and training. Integrity ensures that the report is not influenced by personal biases or external pressures, and that the data presented is transparent and can be relied upon for decision-making purposes.

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  • 17. 

    Chief of staff, United States Air Force (CSAF) use Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) to assess organizationally.

    • Integrity.

    • Accuracy.

    • Timliness.

    • Effectiveness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Effectiveness.
    Explanation
    The Chief of Staff, United States Air Force (CSAF) uses the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) to assess the effectiveness of the organization. SORTS allows the CSAF to evaluate how well the Air Force is utilizing its resources and training to achieve its goals and objectives. It helps in identifying any areas that need improvement or adjustments to enhance the overall effectiveness of the organization.

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  • 18. 

    What unit type code (UTC) supports initial deployment to a bare base (BB)?

    • RFSR1.

    • RFSR7.

    • RFSRJ.

    • RFSRF.

    Correct Answer
    A. RFSR1.
    Explanation
    RFSR1 is the correct answer because it is the unit type code (UTC) that supports initial deployment to a bare base (BB). The other options, RFSR7, RFSRJ, and RFSRF, do not have the necessary capabilities or designations to support initial deployment to a bare base.

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  • 19. 

    What unit type code (UTC) supports port mortuary operations?

    • RFSR1

    • RFSR7

    • RFSRJ

    • RFSRF

    Correct Answer
    A. RFSRJ
    Explanation
    The unit type code (UTC) RFSRJ supports port mortuary operations.

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  • 20. 

    After the start of the open-the-air base, at what day will generate the mission force module (FM) be in place?

    • 0

    • 2

    • 4

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    After the start of the open-the-air base, the mission force module (FM) will be in place on the 4th day.

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  • 21. 

    What day after an operational location is established will the robust-the-base force module (FM) be in place?

    • 14

    • 20

    • 25

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After an operational location is established, the robust-the-base force module (FM) will be in place on the 30th day.

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  • 22. 

    How often will the war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group meet?

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    • When needed

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    The war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group will meet semiannually, meaning twice a year. This suggests that the group will convene on a regular basis to review and discuss the war fighting requirements. Meeting semiannually allows for a balanced frequency of meetings, providing enough time for progress and updates between each meeting while ensuring regular communication and collaboration within the group.

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  • 23. 

    How often will the readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM) meet?

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    • When needed

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    The readiness, training, education, and manpower team (RTEAM) will meet semiannually, which means they will meet twice a year. This frequency allows the team to regularly assess and address any readiness, training, education, and manpower issues within the organization. Meeting semiannually ensures that the team stays up to date and can make necessary adjustments as needed.

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  • 24. 

    Which is not a benefit allotted by mortuary expenses?

    • Casket.

    • Register book

    • Advertisement

    • Hardwood flag case

    Correct Answer
    A. Advertisement
    Explanation
    Mortuary expenses typically cover costs related to funeral arrangements and burial. While a casket, register book, and hardwood flag case are all items commonly included in mortuary expenses, advertisement is not typically considered a benefit covered by these expenses. Advertisement refers to promoting or publicizing a product or service, which is not directly related to the funeral or burial process.

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  • 25. 

    Which mortuary program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

    • Current death

    • Concurrent return

    • Temporary interment

    • Wartime mortuary affairs

    Correct Answer
    A. Concurrent return
    Explanation
    Concurrent return is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict. This means that the deceased are transported back to their home countries or designated burial sites as soon as possible, allowing for timely and respectful burial or cremation. This method ensures that the remains are not left unattended or subjected to prolonged storage in a foreign location. It also allows for the grieving process to begin promptly for the families of the deceased.

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  • 26. 

    Who administers the Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP)?

    • Family liaison officer (FLO).

    • Protective service officer

    • Mortuary officer

    • General officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Family liaison officer (FLO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Family liaison officer (FLO). The FLO is responsible for administering the Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP). They provide support and assistance to the families of deceased Air Force members, helping them navigate through the process of receiving benefits and resources. The FLO acts as a point of contact for the family, offering emotional support and guidance during a difficult time. They work closely with other agencies and organizations to ensure that the family's needs are met and that they receive the necessary support and services.

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  • 27. 

    Who will appoint the family liaison officer to assist the deceased member’s family communicate with other support agencies?

    • Mortuary officer

    • Family liaison officer

    • MAJCOM commander

    • Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander will appoint the family liaison officer to assist the deceased member's family communicate with other support agencies. This is because the installation commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure that the needs of the deceased member's family are met and that they receive the necessary support during their time of grief. The family liaison officer will act as a point of contact for the family and will help facilitate communication and coordination with other support agencies.

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  • 28. 

    Which transport method is not authorized for the movement of member’s remains?

    • Commercial aircraft

    • Hearse or service car

    • Government aircraft

    • Personal vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal vehicle
    Explanation
    Personal vehicles are not authorized for the movement of member's remains. This is because personal vehicles may not have the necessary facilities or equipment to properly handle and transport human remains, such as refrigeration or appropriate storage containers. Additionally, using personal vehicles may not comply with legal regulations or requirements for the transportation of human remains. Therefore, other authorized methods such as commercial aircraft, hearse or service car, and government aircraft should be used instead.

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  • 29. 

    How many escorts are authorized for final shipment of deceased member’s remains if the two places are not located in the same locale?

    • One

    • Two

    • As many as requested

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    When the two places are not located in the same locale, only one escort is authorized for the final shipment of a deceased member's remains. This means that only one person is allowed to accompany the remains during transportation to ensure that everything is handled properly and according to regulations.

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  • 30. 

    What form is used as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas?

    • Form 57, Mortuary Guide

    • AF Form 970, Statement of Disposition of Remains

    • DD form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains

    • DD form 2065, Death Certificate

    Correct Answer
    A. DD form 2065, Death Certificate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD form 2065, Death Certificate. This form is used as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas. It serves as an official document that certifies the fact, cause, and details of the individual's death. This form is typically completed by a medical professional or authorized personnel and is an important legal record for various purposes such as insurance claims, estate settlements, and repatriation of remains.

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  • 31. 

    Who will close the mortuary case file?

    • Mortuary officer

    • Family liaison officer (FLO).

    • Summary courts officer (SCO).

    • Escort

    Correct Answer
    A. Mortuary officer
    Explanation
    The mortuary officer is responsible for handling and managing the mortuary case file. They are in charge of all the administrative tasks related to the mortuary, including the documentation and organization of the case file. This includes keeping track of the deceased person's personal information, medical records, and any other relevant documents. The mortuary officer ensures that all necessary paperwork is completed and filed appropriately, and they are the ones who ultimately close the mortuary case file once all the required procedures and paperwork have been completed.

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  • 32. 

    Who will complete the DD From 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains?

    • Family liaison officer (FLO).

    • Summary courts officer (SCO).

    • Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).

    • Person authorized direct disposition (PADD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance Evaluator (QAE) will complete the DD From 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains. This form is used to document the preparation and final disposition of a deceased individual's remains. The QAE is responsible for ensuring that all procedures and protocols related to the handling and disposition of remains are followed correctly. They will review the form to ensure that all necessary information is included and that the correct procedures were followed.

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  • 33. 

    Who provides a complete quality control program to assure requirements are met?

    • Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).

    • Mortuary Officer (MO).

    • Contractor

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor
    Explanation
    A contractor is the correct answer because they are responsible for providing a complete quality control program to ensure that all requirements are met. Contractors are hired to carry out specific tasks or projects and are typically held accountable for the quality of their work. They are expected to implement measures and processes to ensure that the project meets the required standards and specifications. This includes conducting quality control inspections, tests, and audits to identify and rectify any deficiencies or non-compliance. The contractor's role is crucial in ensuring that the project meets the necessary quality standards.

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  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses?

    • Headquarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ/AFSVA).

    • MAJCOM/SV

    • Mortuary officer

    • Resource Management Flight Chief (RMFC).

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM/SV
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM/SV (Major Command/Services) is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses. This role falls under the jurisdiction of the MAJCOM, which is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple subordinate units within the Air Force. The SV (Services) component specifically deals with mortuary affairs and is therefore responsible for developing the financial plan in order to manage and allocate funds for mortuary expenses.

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  • 35. 

    The Government Purchase Card (GPC) may be used for what type of expense?

    • Primary.

    • Secondary.

    • Advertisement.

    • Other.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary.
    Explanation
    The Government Purchase Card (GPC) may be used for primary expenses. This means that it can be used for essential and necessary expenses that directly support the government's mission or operations. Primary expenses typically include items such as office supplies, equipment, and services required for daily operations. The GPC is not intended for secondary expenses, which are typically non-essential or discretionary in nature. Advertisement expenses, on the other hand, are usually covered by separate funding sources and are not considered primary expenses.

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  • 36. 

    Who may waive funeral honors?

    • Mortuary officer

    • Major command

    • Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • Secretary of Defense (SeCDEF).

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of Defense (SeCDEF).
    Explanation
    The Secretary of Defense (SeCDEF) may waive funeral honors. This means that the Secretary of Defense has the authority to exempt individuals from receiving funeral honors, which are typically provided to military service members as a final tribute. The other options listed, such as the Mortuary officer, Major command, and Headquarters Air Force (HAF), do not have the same level of authority to waive funeral honors.

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  • 37. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the honor guard program?

    • Mortuary officer

    • Group commander

    • Wing commander

    • Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander has overall responsibility for the honor guard program. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the program, ensuring that it operates effectively and meets the required standards. They have the authority to make decisions and allocate resources to support the honor guard program. The installation commander is responsible for setting the goals and objectives of the program, as well as ensuring that it aligns with the overall mission and values of the installation.

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  • 38. 

    Who makes the final determination as to the positive identification of remains and the cause and manner of death?

    • 3M personnel

    • Medical personnel

    • Medical examiner

    • Commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical examiner
    Explanation
    The final determination of the positive identification of remains and the cause and manner of death is made by the medical examiner. Medical examiners are trained professionals who specialize in determining the cause and manner of death through autopsies and other forensic examinations. They have the expertise and authority to make accurate and conclusive determinations in these matters.

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  • 39. 

    What DD form is used to inventory personal belongings?

    • 2065, Death Certificate

    • 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains

    • 1076, Record of Personal Effects of Deceased Personnel

    • 898, Record Data (Deceased and Missing Personnel).

    Correct Answer
    A. 1076, Record of Personal Effects of Deceased Personnel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1076, Record of Personal Effects of Deceased Personnel. This form is used to inventory the personal belongings of deceased personnel. It is important to keep a record of these belongings for various purposes such as settling the estate, returning the items to the family, or for insurance claims. This form helps in accurately documenting and tracking the personal effects of the deceased individual.

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  • 40. 

    How many members are on the installation search and recovery team?

    • 4

    • 7

    • 11

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 11
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 11. This means that there are 11 members on the installation search and recovery team.

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  • 41. 

    How many days after completion of a search and recovery (S&R) operation are allowed for the mortuary officer to turn in the after-action report?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After a search and recovery operation, the mortuary officer is allowed 30 days to turn in the after-action report. This report is a comprehensive document that outlines the details and findings of the operation, including any challenges faced, lessons learned, and recommendations for improvement. The 30-day time frame allows the officer enough time to gather and analyze all the necessary information before submitting the report.

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  • 42. 

    Who determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction?

    • The commander

    • The protocol officer in charge (OIC).

    • The Secretary of Defense

    • The Air Force Senior Leader Management Office

    Correct Answer
    A. The commander
    Explanation
    The commander determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction. As the person in charge, the commander has the authority to designate individuals as distinguished visitors based on their importance or significance. This decision is typically made in consultation with the protocol officer in charge (OIC) and other relevant individuals, but ultimately it is the commander who has the final say in determining who receives the DV distinction.

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  • 43. 

    What does tradition calls to be displayed at all military ceremonies?

    • Flags.

    • Formations.

    • Esprit de corps

    • Military bearing

    Correct Answer
    A. Flags.
    Explanation
    Tradition calls for flags to be displayed at all military ceremonies. Flags hold great symbolic significance in the military and represent the nation, unit, or branch of service. They are an essential part of ceremonies, representing honor, pride, and respect. Displaying flags at military ceremonies is a way to pay tribute to the sacrifices and achievements of the military and to instill a sense of patriotism and unity among the troops and spectators.

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  • 44. 

    When carried in a marching procession with another flag or flags, what is the location of the US Flag?

    • To the Flags Right

    • To the marchers left

    • In line higher than all other flags

    • Two steps ahead of all others

    Correct Answer
    A. To the Flags Right
    Explanation
    The US Flag is carried to the right of the other flag or flags in a marching procession. This means that when marching, if there are multiple flags being carried, the US Flag will be positioned on the right side of the formation.

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  • 45. 

    Who determines precedence among foreign representatives

    • There is no official precedence

    • The US Department of State

    • The White House protocol officer

    • The Director, Administration and Management

    Correct Answer
    A. The US Department of State
    Explanation
    The US Department of State determines precedence among foreign representatives. As the primary agency responsible for conducting foreign relations, the Department of State plays a crucial role in managing diplomatic protocols and establishing the order of precedence for foreign representatives. This ensures that appropriate diplomatic courtesies and protocols are observed during official events and engagements involving foreign dignitaries.

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  • 46. 

    What is the first factor used when determining precedence among officers on active duty?

    • Rank.

    • Date of rank

    • Total active federal military service

    • Their position on the permanent promotion list

    Correct Answer
    A. Rank.
    Explanation
    Rank is the first factor used when determining precedence among officers on active duty. This means that the higher the rank, the higher the precedence. Rank is a key indicator of seniority and authority within the military hierarchy, and it plays a crucial role in determining the order in which officers are given assignments, responsibilities, and promotions. It is a fundamental aspect of military structure and ensures a clear chain of command and effective decision-making.

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  • 47. 

    Who sits to the right of the hostess (or host at an all male event)?

    • Interpreter.

    • Protocol officer

    • The most junior guest

    • The most senior guest

    Correct Answer
    A. The most senior guest
    Explanation
    The most senior guest sits to the right of the hostess or host at an all male event. This is because the most senior guest is usually given the seat of honor, which is traditionally to the right of the host.

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  • 48. 

    What are receiving lines frequently used for in the Air Force?

    • Meet an inspection team

    • Official weddings and parties

    • Greet a new commander and spouse

    • Congratulating annual award winners.

    Correct Answer
    A. Greet a new commander and spouse
    Explanation
    Receiving lines are frequently used in the Air Force to greet a new commander and their spouse. This allows the members of the Air Force to formally welcome and introduce themselves to the new commander and their spouse. It is a way to show respect and establish a positive relationship with the new leadership.

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  • 49. 

    What is used to follow up a telephone invitation to a military event?

    • E-mail reminder.

    • Proper formal invitation

    • Written confirmation letter

    • Written “to remind” invitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Written “to remind” invitation
    Explanation
    A written "to remind" invitation is used to follow up a telephone invitation to a military event. This type of invitation serves as a reminder to the recipient about the event details and encourages them to attend. It is a formal way of ensuring that the recipient does not forget about the invitation and provides them with written documentation of the event.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 12, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Aftk13

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