Command Post Journeyman Ure

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  • 1/168 Questions

    (006) What are the categories of Air Force publications?

    • Nondirective and depatmental
    • Sirective and departmental
    • Directive and nondirective
    • Departmental and field
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About This Quiz

This Command Post Journeyman URE quiz assesses knowledge crucial for command post operations. It covers training requirements, examination standards, and certification processes, ensuring readiness and competency in command and control duties.

Command Post Journeyman Ure - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (009) When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified paragraphs, how must the classification be stamped on the top and bottom of that page?

    • Secret

    • Top Secret

    • Confidential

    • Unclassified

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret
    Explanation
    The classification must be stamped as "Top Secret" on the top and bottom of the page because the highest level of classification takes precedence over lower levels.

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  • 3. 

    (001) What training actions are required when controllers have not perfromed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 days?

    • Receive formal and initial training

    • Receice refresher training and be receertified

    • Take writen and performance evaluations

    • Review the controller information file (CIF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Receice refresher training and be receertified
    Explanation
    When controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 days, they need to receive refresher training and be recertified. This is necessary to ensure that they are up to date with any changes or updates in procedures, protocols, and technology that may have occurred during their absence. Refresher training helps controllers refresh their knowledge and skills, allowing them to perform their duties effectively and safely. Being recertified ensures that they meet the required standards and are qualified to resume their command and control responsibilities.

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  • 4. 

    (004) The folder used as a training record is called an AF Form?

    • 723

    • 755

    • 623

    • 855

    Correct Answer
    A. 623
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 623. This is because the question is asking for the folder used as a training record, and the AF Form 623 is specifically designed for that purpose.

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  • 5. 

    (005) When a publicatoin is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is reffered to as

    • Basic

    • Revised

    • Obsolete

    • Rescinded

    Correct Answer
    A. Revised
    Explanation
    When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as "revised." This means that changes have been made to the original publication, either to update information or improve its content. The revised publication is intended to replace the previous version and provide the most up-to-date and accurate information to the readers.

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  • 6. 

    (008) What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could resonably be expected to cause serious damage to national serurity?

    • Top Secret

    • Secret

    • Confidential

    • For official use only (FOUO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Secret
    Explanation
    The unauthorized disclosure of Secret classified information could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security. This level of classification is higher than Confidential and For Official Use Only (FOUO), indicating that the information is more sensitive and its exposure could pose a greater risk to the country's security. While Top Secret is the highest level of classification, Secret information is still considered highly sensitive and its unauthorized disclosure could have significant consequences.

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  • 7. 

    (010) What method is used to limit disclosure of classified infromation to only the specific classifed information needed?

    • Rank or posidtion

    • Classidied markings

    • The "need to know (NTK)" rule

    • USAF ecchange badge procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. The "need to know (NTK)" rule
    Explanation
    The "need to know (NTK)" rule is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed. This means that individuals are only granted access to classified information if they have a legitimate need for it in order to carry out their duties or responsibilities. This helps to prevent unnecessary access to classified information and reduce the risk of unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 8. 

    (016) what action is required when conducting an inventory of communicatoins security (COMSEC) material?

    • Check the items sued fo rteh shift only

    • Physically check the accountable critical items only

    • Make a daliy inventory by checking with the previous shift

    • Physically locate each item listed on the inventory before you check it off

    Correct Answer
    A. Physically locate each item listed on the inventory before you check it off
    Explanation
    When conducting an inventory of communications security (COMSEC) material, it is necessary to physically locate each item listed on the inventory before checking it off. This ensures that all the items are accounted for and present. Simply checking the items used for the shift only or the accountable critical items may lead to inaccuracies and missing items. Making a daily inventory by checking with the previous shift may also miss any discrepancies or items that were not properly accounted for. Therefore, physically locating each item is the most effective way to ensure a thorough and accurate inventory.

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  • 9. 

    (030) Which proword states, "proceed with your message"

    • GO

    • OVER

    • PROCEED

    • GO AHEAD

    Correct Answer
    A. GO AHEAD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "GO AHEAD". This proword is used to instruct the transmitting station to proceed with their message. It indicates that the receiving station is ready to receive the message and is waiting for the transmitting station to start transmitting.

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  • 10. 

    (031) The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the command post (CP) is to

    • Check controller response time

    • Estanblish th eneed for the equipment

    • Ensure vitial emergancy actions (EA) traffic is not delayed

    • Ensure communications equipment is opoerattional at all times

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure communications equipment is opoerattional at all times
    Explanation
    The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the command post (CP) is to ensure communications equipment is operational at all times. By conducting regular checks, the CP can identify any issues or malfunctions with the equipment and address them promptly. This helps to maintain effective communication within the CP and ensures that vital emergency actions (EA) traffic is not delayed. Additionally, it allows for timely troubleshooting and repairs, minimizing any potential disruptions in communication during critical operations.

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  • 11. 

    (209)  To what log entries do you gie special emphasis when briefing controllers who are just coming on duty?

    • Location of key personnel

    • Controller checklist actions

    • Entries that may require further action

    • Entries that deal with weapons control and transfer

    Correct Answer
    A. Entries that may require further action
    Explanation
    When briefing controllers who are just coming on duty, special emphasis is given to log entries that may require further action. This is because these entries indicate potential issues or tasks that need to be addressed by the controllers. By highlighting these entries, the briefing ensures that the controllers are aware of any pending actions or important information that they need to follow up on during their shift.

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  • 12. 

    (004) For active duty, within how many calendars days after your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orentation briefing?

    • 60

    • 80

    • 90

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    Upon arriving at a new duty station for active duty, one should expect a work center orientation briefing within 60 calendar days. This briefing is crucial as it provides important information and guidance about the work environment, policies, procedures, and expectations in the new work center. It helps the individual to familiarize themselves with their new surroundings, understand their roles and responsibilities, and integrate into the new work environment efficiently.

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  • 13. 

    (008) What are the two groups of official information?

    • Classified and sensitive but unclassified (SBU) informattion

    • SBU information and for official use only (FOUO)

    • Unclassified and FOUO

    • Classified and unclassified

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified and unclassified
    Explanation
    The correct answer is classified and unclassified. Classified information refers to information that has been designated as sensitive and requires protection from unauthorized disclosure. Unclassified information, on the other hand, does not require such protection and can be freely shared. These two groups represent the main categories of official information, with classified information being the most sensitive and requiring the highest level of security measures.

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  • 14. 

    (008) What classified inforamtion's unathuhorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security ?

    • Top Secret

    • Secret

    • Confidential

    • For official use only

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret
    Explanation
    Top Secret information's unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. This level of classification is reserved for information that, if disclosed, could potentially harm national security to the highest degree. It includes information that, if obtained by unauthorized individuals or entities, could pose a significant threat to the country's interests, such as military plans, intelligence sources, or sensitive diplomatic negotiations. The unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information could compromise ongoing operations, endanger lives, or provide adversaries with critical information that could undermine national defense.

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  • 15. 

    (022) What is the minimum classification of a computer password theat permits access to Secret informatoins?

    • Secret

    • Top Secret

    • Unclassified

    • Confidential

    Correct Answer
    A. Secret
    Explanation
    The minimum classification of a computer password that permits access to Secret information is Secret. This means that in order to access Secret information, the password must have a classification level of Secret or higher.

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  • 16. 

    (005) The term used to describe a publicatiuon as it is originally issued is called

    • An obsolete publication

    • A rescinded publication

    • A revised publication

    • A basic publication

    Correct Answer
    A. A basic publication
    Explanation
    A basic publication refers to a publication that is originally issued without any changes or revisions. It is the initial version of a publication before any updates or modifications are made. This term is used to describe the original form of a publication when it is first released to the public.

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  • 17. 

    (013) When a security incident has occurred, who must take custody of and portect the classidied information involved until it can be released to an oppropriately cleared official?

    • The security police

    • The security manager

    • Any responsible individual

    • The person who discovers the incident or violation

    Correct Answer
    A. The person who discovers the incident or violation
    Explanation
    When a security incident occurs, the person who discovers the incident or violation is responsible for taking custody of and protecting the classified information involved until it can be released to an appropriately cleared official. This individual is in the best position to secure the information and ensure its integrity until it can be properly handled by the appropriate authorities.

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  • 18. 

    (014) What rule must be followed when reproducing classified infromation is to reproduce

    • One copy only

    • Two copies only

    • A minimum consistent with mission requirements

    • Extra copoies in case the copier has a malfuction

    Correct Answer
    A. A minimum consistent with mission requirements
    Explanation
    When reproducing classified information, the rule that must be followed is to reproduce a minimum consistent with mission requirements. This means that only the necessary number of copies should be made based on what is needed for the specific mission or purpose. Making additional copies beyond what is necessary increases the risk of unauthorized access or dissemination of classified information. Therefore, reproducing the minimum number of copies ensures the security and protection of the classified information.

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  • 19. 

    (021) What connects computers and peripheral devices for sharing of hardware or information?

    • Network

    • Computer Pool

    • System software

    • Applicatoin software

    Correct Answer
    A. Network
    Explanation
    A network is the correct answer because it is a system that connects computers and peripheral devices, allowing them to share hardware resources and exchange information. Networks can be wired or wireless and enable devices to communicate with each other, access shared files and printers, and connect to the internet.

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  • 20. 

    (027) What facility activates the secondary crash alarm circuit?

    • Fie station

    • Control tower

    • Command post (CP)

    • Base operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Base operations
    Explanation
    Base operations is the correct answer because they are responsible for coordinating and managing all activities on an airfield or military base. This includes monitoring and activating the secondary crash alarm circuit, which is an important safety measure in the event of a crash or emergency situation. The secondary crash alarm circuit is designed to alert emergency responders and initiate a rapid response to any incidents on the base. Therefore, base operations play a crucial role in activating this circuit and ensuring a timely and effective response to emergencies.

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  • 21. 

    Numbers are transmitted

    • In sets

    • In groups

    • Digit by digit

    • Phrase by phrase

    Correct Answer
    A. Digit by digit
    Explanation
    Numbers are transmitted "digit by digit" means that each individual digit of a number is sent separately. This method ensures that each digit is accurately transmitted and received without any confusion or errors. It is a precise and efficient way of transmitting numerical information.

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  • 22. 

    (210)  What are the four phases in the emergency management cycle?

    • Response, mitigation, reaction time, preparedness

    • Recovery, preparedness, mitigation, and security

    • Mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery

    • Mitigation, response, preparedness, and security

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery." In the emergency management cycle, the first phase is mitigation, which involves taking actions to prevent or reduce the impact of disasters. The second phase is preparedness, which involves developing plans and resources to respond effectively to emergencies. The third phase is response, which involves implementing the plans and resources to address the immediate effects of the disaster. The final phase is recovery, which involves restoring the affected community to its pre-disaster state and implementing measures to prevent future disasters.

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  • 23. 

    (213)  Which phase of emergency response consists of firefighting security, and medical treatment forces?

    • Notification phase

    • Withdrawal phase

    • Recovery phase

    • Response phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Response phase
    Explanation
    The response phase of emergency response consists of firefighting, security, and medical treatment forces. This phase is characterized by the immediate actions taken to address the emergency situation and mitigate its impact. It involves mobilizing resources, coordinating efforts, and implementing emergency plans and protocols to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals affected by the emergency. During this phase, emergency responders work to contain and control the situation, provide medical assistance to the injured, and ensure the security of the affected area.

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  • 24. 

    (217) What type of flight assistance consists of assistance provided a pilot prior to the timean aircraft becomes airborne?

    • Search and rescue

    • Postfkight

    • Preflight

    • Inflight

    Correct Answer
    A. Preflight
    Explanation
    Preflight assistance refers to the assistance provided to a pilot before the aircraft takes off. This assistance includes various tasks such as flight planning, weather briefing, aircraft inspection, and preflight checks. It ensures that the pilot is well-prepared and the aircraft is in proper condition for a safe flight. Therefore, the correct answer is "Preflight".

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  • 25. 

    (225) Which operational report's inital voice report is due within 5 minutes after the sendar learns of the event?

    • PINNACLE NUDETSUM

    • PINNACLE NUCFLASH

    • Faded Giant

    • Bent Spear

    Correct Answer
    A. PINNACLE NUCFLASH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PINNACLE NUCFLASH. PINNACLE NUCFLASH is an operational report that requires an initial voice report to be submitted within 5 minutes after the sender learns of the event. This suggests that PINNACLE NUCFLASH is a time-sensitive report that requires immediate action or response.

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  • 26. 

     (001) What is the minimum passing score for command post (CP) examinations?

    • 60

    • 70

    • 80

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    The minimum passing score for command post (CP) examinations is 90. This means that in order to pass the CP examinations, a candidate must score at least 90 out of 100.

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  • 27. 

    (006) Which publications provide essential procedural guidance neccessary to imp;iment Air Force police in the fied?

    • Air Force pamphlets (AFP)

    • Air Force instructions (AFI)

    • Air Force policy directives (AFPD)

    • Air Force doctrine documents (AFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force instructions (AFI)
    Explanation
    Air Force instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force police in the field. AFIs are official documents that outline specific procedures, policies, and regulations that must be followed by Air Force personnel. These instructions provide detailed guidance on various topics, including operational procedures, security protocols, and law enforcement practices. They serve as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel to ensure consistency and adherence to established procedures in the field.

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  • 28. 

    (009) How should file folders containg classified material be marked?

    • File folders should always be marked Secret

    • With the highest classifiactoin of any document kept in the folder

    • File foldres should not be marked with a security classificatoin

    • The same classificatoin as the safe or cabinet in which the folder is filed

    Correct Answer
    A. With the highest classifiactoin of any document kept in the folder
    Explanation
    File folders containing classified material should be marked with the highest classification of any document kept in the folder. This ensures that the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the information is clearly indicated on the folder, allowing for proper handling and storage. By marking the folder with the highest classification, it helps prevent unauthorized access and ensures that the appropriate security measures are taken to protect the classified material.

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  • 29. 

    (011) Which form is used to record daily security checks?

    • Standard Form 701

    • Standard Form 702

    • Air Force Form 310

    • Air Force Form 145

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form 701
    Explanation
    Standard Form 701 is used to record daily security checks.

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  • 30. 

    (018) Which entry control technique is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control?

    • Entry authority list (EAL)

    • Personal recognition

    • Single badge procedures

    • Exchange badge procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal recognition
    Explanation
    Personal recognition is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control because it allows for a more personalized and individualized approach to entry control. In this technique, the person in charge of entry control is able to personally recognize and identify each individual, ensuring that only authorized individuals are allowed access. This method is effective when there are fewer people to manage and when a higher level of security and accuracy is required. It eliminates the need for additional documentation or badges, making it a convenient and efficient solution for smaller groups.

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  • 31. 

    (206)     Which defense readiness condition exercise term drects maximum readiness?

    • FAST PACE

    • DOUBLE TAKE

    • ROUND HOUSE

    • COCKED PISTOL

    Correct Answer
    A. COCKED PISTOL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is COCKED PISTOL. In military terminology, the defense readiness condition exercise term "COCKED PISTOL" refers to the highest level of readiness. It indicates that the military forces are fully prepared and ready to respond to any potential threat or attack. This term implies that the forces are on high alert and ready to take immediate action if necessary.

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  • 32. 

    (206)     Which phase of a major accident or natural disaster consist of actions taken after emergency actions have been implemented and lifesaving actions have been completed?

    • Response

    • Recovery

    • Evacuation

    • Notification

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    The phase of a major accident or natural disaster that consists of actions taken after emergency actions have been implemented and lifesaving actions have been completed is called the recovery phase. During this phase, efforts are focused on restoring normalcy, repairing infrastructure, providing assistance to affected individuals and communities, and rebuilding. This phase aims to help the affected areas recover and regain stability after the initial emergency response.

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  • 33. 

    (001) What type of training is conducted on a scheduled basis in a classroom environment?

    • Self-study

    • Refresher

    • Formal

    • Initail

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal
    Explanation
    Formal training refers to a structured and organized type of training that is conducted in a classroom environment. It follows a set curriculum and is typically led by an instructor or trainer. This type of training is scheduled in advance and is designed to provide learners with a comprehensive understanding of a particular subject or skill. It may include lectures, presentations, group discussions, and practical exercises. Formal training is different from self-study or refresher training, as it offers a more structured and guided learning experience.

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  • 34. 

    (003) What document helps you ensure effective training at the appropriate point in your career?

    • 1C3X1 career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • AFI 10-207, Command and Control

    • Unit initail training plan

    Correct Answer
    A. 1C3X1 career field education and training plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The 1C3X1 career field education and training plan (CFETP) helps ensure effective training at the appropriate point in your career. CFETPs are comprehensive documents that outline the training requirements and career progression for a specific career field. They provide guidance on the necessary training courses, certifications, and experience needed to advance in the career field. By following the CFETP, individuals can ensure they are receiving the appropriate training at each stage of their career to develop the necessary skills and knowledge for success.

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  • 35. 

    (007) How often should a slef-inspection be conducted for an active duty command post (CP) ans Air Force Reserve Component (ARC) CP?

    • 6 months, 12 months

    • 12 months, 18 months

    • 12 months, 20 months

    • 12 months, 24 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months, 12 months
    Explanation
    A self-inspection should be conducted for an active duty command post (CP) every 6 months and for an Air Force Reserve Component (ARC) CP every 12 months. This ensures that the CP is regularly assessed and any issues or deficiencies can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Regular self-inspections help to maintain operational readiness and ensure that all necessary procedures and protocols are being followed effectively.

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  • 36. 

    (017) What type of security area temporarily places nonfederal lands under the control of the Separtment of Defense (DOD)?

    • Priority A area

    • Restricted area

    • National defense area

    • Close-in secuiry area

    Correct Answer
    A. National defense area
    Explanation
    A National defense area is a type of security area that temporarily places nonfederal lands under the control of the Department of Defense (DOD). This is done to ensure the security and protection of critical military assets or activities. These areas are established to restrict access to unauthorized personnel and to allow the DOD to effectively carry out its operations without any interference or threat.

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  • 37. 

    (018) Which AF form can be used as a vistior register log to control cistior entry and ecit from the command post (CP)

    • 1109

    • 1199a

    • 1199b

    • 1565

    Correct Answer
    A. 1109
    Explanation
    The AF form 1109 can be used as a visitor register log to control visitor entry and exit from the command post (CP). This form allows the CP personnel to keep track of who enters and leaves the CP, ensuring security and accountability. It serves as a record of visitor information, including their name, organization, purpose of visit, and the date and time of entry and exit. By using the AF form 1109, the CP can effectively monitor and control visitor access to maintain the security of the facility.

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  • 38. 

    (019) How long must a force protection condition (FPCON) implemented in response to an emergency action meddage (EAM) be sustained?

    • 24 hours

    • 72 hours

    • Until canceled by the major command (MAJCOM)

    • Until canceled by the orignating (or higher) authority

    Correct Answer
    A. Until canceled by the orignating (or higher) authority
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Until canceled by the originating (or higher) authority." This means that a force protection condition (FPCON) implemented in response to an emergency action message (EAM) must be sustained until it is canceled by the authority that issued it or a higher-ranking authority. This ensures that the necessary security measures and precautions remain in place for as long as they are deemed necessary to address the emergency situation.

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  • 39. 

    (032) What action must you take when you receice an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication?

    • Go to the next authentication table

    • Terminate communications

    • State, "Standby"

    • Rechallenge

    Correct Answer
    A. Rechallenge
    Explanation
    When you receive an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication, the appropriate action to take is to rechallenge. This means that you need to repeat the authentication process and ask the person to provide the correct response. This ensures that the authentication is accurate and secure.

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  • 40. 

    (215) The purpose of the alternate and emergancy airfield display is to provide infromation needed to recover aircraft at alternate fields

    • During airborne exercises

    • During emergancy situations

    • After completion of training fkights

    • After completetion of cross-coumtry fights

    Correct Answer
    A. During emergancy situations
    Explanation
    The purpose of the alternate and emergency airfield display is to provide information needed to recover aircraft during emergency situations. This display is specifically designed to assist pilots in identifying and accessing alternate airfields in case of emergencies such as engine failures, fuel shortages, or other critical situations that may require immediate landing. It provides crucial information about the location, condition, and available resources of nearby airfields, enabling pilots to make informed decisions and safely recover their aircraft during emergencies.

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  • 41. 

    (215) What action should controllers take when they receive weather information that could effect flying operations?

    • Update the system reports

    • Advise the commander and staff of the changes

    • Advise only key personnel and interested agenices

    • Update the status displays and advise all interested agencies

    Correct Answer
    A. Update the status displays and advise all interested agencies
    Explanation
    When controllers receive weather information that could affect flying operations, they should update the status displays and advise all interested agencies. This ensures that all relevant parties are aware of the changes in weather conditions and can make informed decisions regarding flying operations. By updating the status displays, controllers provide a visual representation of the current weather situation, allowing pilots and other personnel to assess the potential impact on their operations. Advising all interested agencies ensures that everyone involved is kept informed and can take appropriate actions based on the updated information.

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  • 42. 

    (011) What standard form is used to record the opening and closing of safes containing classified materials?

    • 700

    • 701

    • 702

    • 703

    Correct Answer
    A. 702
    Explanation
    Standard form 702 is used to record the opening and closing of safes containing classified materials. This form helps to maintain a record of who accessed the safe and when, ensuring accountability and security of the classified materials.

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  • 43. 

    (016) Which item is not a required communications security (COMSEC) emergency action (EA) plan for facilities inside the continental United States?

    • Fire

    • Bomb threat

    • Hostiale actions

    • Natural disaster

    Correct Answer
    A. Hostiale actions
    Explanation
    A COMSEC emergency action (EA) plan is designed to ensure the security of communications in the event of an emergency. It includes procedures for responding to various threats such as fire, bomb threats, and natural disasters. However, "hostile actions" are not typically considered a required component of a COMSEC EA plan for facilities inside the continental United States. Hostile actions may refer to acts of terrorism or military attacks, which are typically addressed through separate security protocols and plans.

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  • 44. 

    (020) When should individuals that work with nuclear weapons receive nuclear surety training?

    • Initially only

    • Quarterly only

    • Annually only

    • Initially and annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Initially and annually
    Explanation
    Individuals who work with nuclear weapons should receive nuclear surety training both initially and annually. Initially, this training is crucial to ensure that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle nuclear weapons safely and securely. This training covers topics such as the proper handling procedures, security protocols, and emergency response measures. However, since the field of nuclear weapons is constantly evolving, it is essential for individuals to receive annual training to stay updated on any changes in procedures, technology, or security measures. This helps to maintain a high level of proficiency and ensure the continued safety and security of nuclear weapons.

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  • 45. 

    (028) What types of radios are requirmed in command psots (CP) that are involved in the control or coordinatoin of aircraft ooperations?

    • Land mobile radios (LMR)

    • High-frequency (HF) radios

    • Frequency modulation (FM) radios

    • Ultraghigh/very high frequency (UHF/VHF) radios

    Correct Answer
    A. Ultraghigh/very high frequency (UHF/VHF) radios
    Explanation
    Ultraghigh/very high frequency (UHF/VHF) radios are required in command posts (CP) involved in the control or coordination of aircraft operations. These radios operate within the UHF/VHF frequency range, which is commonly used for aviation communications. They allow for reliable and clear communication between the command post and aircraft, ensuring effective control and coordination of operations. Other types of radios mentioned, such as land mobile radios (LMR), high-frequency (HF) radios, and frequency modulation (FM) radios, may have their own uses but are not specifically required for the control or coordination of aircraft operations in command posts.

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  • 46. 

    (209)  Who is responsible for ensuring that command post checklists are developed and maintained?

    • Command post managers

    • Unit training officer

    • Unit commander

    • Duty controllers

    Correct Answer
    A. Command post managers
    Explanation
    Command post managers are responsible for ensuring that command post checklists are developed and maintained. As the individuals in charge of overseeing the operations and activities of the command post, it is their duty to establish and update the necessary checklists to ensure smooth and efficient functioning. This responsibility falls under their purview as they are the ones who have the knowledge and understanding of the specific requirements and procedures of the command post.

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  • 47. 

    For exercises and war operations, detailed and comprehensive weather coverage is usually provided by

    • A command post controller assigned to the contingency support staff team

    • An aircraft pilot or copilot assigned to the contigency support staff team

    • A weather forecaster tha tis assigned to the battle staff team

    • An aircrew member assigned to the command post team

    Correct Answer
    A. A weather forecaster tha tis assigned to the battle staff team
    Explanation
    A weather forecaster that is assigned to the battle staff team is responsible for providing detailed and comprehensive weather coverage for exercises and war operations. They have the expertise and knowledge to analyze weather patterns and provide accurate forecasts, which are crucial for planning and executing military operations. Their role is to ensure that commanders and decision-makers have the necessary information to make informed decisions regarding the timing and feasibility of operations based on weather conditions.

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  • 48. 

    (221) The 0 degree line of latitude is known as

    • The equator

    • The prime meridian

    • The international date line

    • Unverisal coordinated time

    Correct Answer
    A. The equator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the equator. The equator is the line of latitude that is located at 0 degrees and divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. It is the longest line of latitude and is known for its hot and tropical climate.

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  • 49. 

    (214) What agency monitors a crewmember's training and proficiency?

    • Maintenace

    • Ground control

    • Base operations

    • Aircrew operatoins

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircrew operatoins
    Explanation
    Aircrew operations is the correct answer because they are responsible for monitoring a crewmember's training and proficiency. This agency ensures that crewmembers receive the necessary training and maintain their proficiency in order to safely perform their duties. They oversee the crew's training programs, track their progress, and provide ongoing assessments to ensure that they meet the required standards. By monitoring training and proficiency, aircrew operations plays a crucial role in maintaining the competency and readiness of crewmembers.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 10, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 08, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Smsgted
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