Command Post Journeyman Ure

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 144
Questions: 168 | Attempts: 144

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

5 level CDC URE


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Who must train all individuals initial training?

    • A.

      Training noncommissioned officer (NCO)

    • B.

      A primary trainer

    • C.

      Chief of the command post (CP)

    • D.

      The trainee's shift supervisor

    Correct Answer
    B. A primary trainer
    Explanation
    A primary trainer is responsible for conducting the initial training of all individuals. They are the ones who are designated to provide the necessary guidance and instruction to ensure that trainees acquire the essential skills and knowledge required for their roles. This implies that the primary trainer plays a crucial role in equipping individuals with the foundational training they need to succeed in their positions.

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  • 2. 

    (001) What type of training is conducted on a scheduled basis in a classroom environment?

    • A.

      Self-study

    • B.

      Refresher

    • C.

      Formal

    • D.

      Initail

    Correct Answer
    C. Formal
    Explanation
    Formal training refers to a structured and organized type of training that is conducted in a classroom environment. It follows a set curriculum and is typically led by an instructor or trainer. This type of training is scheduled in advance and is designed to provide learners with a comprehensive understanding of a particular subject or skill. It may include lectures, presentations, group discussions, and practical exercises. Formal training is different from self-study or refresher training, as it offers a more structured and guided learning experience.

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  • 3. 

     (001) What is the minimum passing score for command post (CP) examinations?

    • A.

      60

    • B.

      70

    • C.

      80

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    D. 90
    Explanation
    The minimum passing score for command post (CP) examinations is 90. This means that in order to pass the CP examinations, a candidate must score at least 90 out of 100.

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  • 4. 

    (001) What training actions are required when controllers have not perfromed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 days?

    • A.

      Receive formal and initial training

    • B.

      Receice refresher training and be receertified

    • C.

      Take writen and performance evaluations

    • D.

      Review the controller information file (CIF)

    Correct Answer
    B. Receice refresher training and be receertified
    Explanation
    When controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 days, they need to receive refresher training and be recertified. This is necessary to ensure that they are up to date with any changes or updates in procedures, protocols, and technology that may have occurred during their absence. Refresher training helps controllers refresh their knowledge and skills, allowing them to perform their duties effectively and safely. Being recertified ensures that they meet the required standards and are qualified to resume their command and control responsibilities.

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  • 5. 

    (002) Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?

    • A.

      Commander

    • B.

      Training manager

    • C.

      Director of operations

    • D.

      Cheif of the command post (CP)

    Correct Answer
    C. Director of operations
    Explanation
    The director of operations certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational activities within the command, including the certification process for controllers. They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that controllers meet the necessary requirements and standards for their positions. The director of operations plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and efficiency of air traffic control operations at the MAJCOM level.

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  • 6. 

    (002) What type of training results in controller certificcatoin?

    • A.

      Formal

    • B.

      Refresher

    • C.

      Recurring

    • D.

      Examination

    Correct Answer
    B. Refresher
    Explanation
    Refresher training is the type of training that results in controller certification. Refresher training is designed to update and reinforce the knowledge and skills of controllers who are already certified. It helps controllers stay current with changes in regulations, procedures, and technology. By participating in refresher training, controllers can maintain their certification and ensure they are equipped to perform their duties effectively and safely.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Who determins the criteria used to certifiy or decertify controllers?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • B.

      Command post (CP) managers

    • C.

      CP Superintendent

    • D.

      CP noncommissioned officers in charge (NCOIC) of training

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM)
    Explanation
    Major command (MAJCOM) determines the criteria used to certify or decertify controllers. MAJCOM is responsible for setting the standards and guidelines for controller certification and decertification. They have the authority to establish the criteria based on their operational needs, safety requirements, and regulatory guidelines. This ensures that controllers meet the necessary qualifications and skills to perform their duties effectively and safely.

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  • 8. 

    (003) What document helps you ensure effective training at the appropriate point in your career?

    • A.

      1C3X1 career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • B.

      AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • C.

      AFI 10-207, Command and Control

    • D.

      Unit initail training plan

    Correct Answer
    A. 1C3X1 career field education and training plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The 1C3X1 career field education and training plan (CFETP) helps ensure effective training at the appropriate point in your career. CFETPs are comprehensive documents that outline the training requirements and career progression for a specific career field. They provide guidance on the necessary training courses, certifications, and experience needed to advance in the career field. By following the CFETP, individuals can ensure they are receiving the appropriate training at each stage of their career to develop the necessary skills and knowledge for success.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Controllers must maintain an appropriate 1C3X1 skill level bised on their?

    • A.

      Duty posistion and grade

    • B.

      Duty posistion

    • C.

      Assignment

    • D.

      Grade

    Correct Answer
    D. Grade
    Explanation
    Controllers must maintain an appropriate 1C3X1 skill level based on their grade. This means that their level of expertise and knowledge should align with their rank or level within the organization. The higher their grade, the more advanced their skills should be in order to effectively perform their duties.

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  • 10. 

    (003) What character of your Air Force specialty code (AFSC) idendifies your career field family?

    • A.

      First

    • B.

      Second

    • C.

      Third

    • D.

      Fourth

    Correct Answer
    B. Second
    Explanation
    The second character of your Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies your career field family.

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  • 11. 

    (004) For active duty, within how many calendars days after your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orentation briefing?

    • A.

      60

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    Upon arriving at a new duty station for active duty, one should expect a work center orientation briefing within 60 calendar days. This briefing is crucial as it provides important information and guidance about the work environment, policies, procedures, and expectations in the new work center. It helps the individual to familiarize themselves with their new surroundings, understand their roles and responsibilities, and integrate into the new work environment efficiently.

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  • 12. 

    (004) The folder used as a training record is called an AF Form?

    • A.

      723

    • B.

      755

    • C.

      623

    • D.

      855

    Correct Answer
    C. 623
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 623. This is because the question is asking for the folder used as a training record, and the AF Form 623 is specifically designed for that purpose.

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  • 13. 

    (005) The term used to describe a publicatiuon as it is originally issued is called

    • A.

      An obsolete publication

    • B.

      A rescinded publication

    • C.

      A revised publication

    • D.

      A basic publication

    Correct Answer
    D. A basic publication
    Explanation
    A basic publication refers to a publication that is originally issued without any changes or revisions. It is the initial version of a publication before any updates or modifications are made. This term is used to describe the original form of a publication when it is first released to the public.

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  • 14. 

    (005) When a publicatoin is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is reffered to as

    • A.

      Basic

    • B.

      Revised

    • C.

      Obsolete

    • D.

      Rescinded

    Correct Answer
    B. Revised
    Explanation
    When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as "revised." This means that changes have been made to the original publication, either to update information or improve its content. The revised publication is intended to replace the previous version and provide the most up-to-date and accurate information to the readers.

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  • 15. 

    (006) What are the categories of Air Force publications?

    • A.

      Nondirective and depatmental

    • B.

      Sirective and departmental

    • C.

      Directive and nondirective

    • D.

      Departmental and field

    Correct Answer
    C. Directive and nondirective
    Explanation
    The categories of Air Force publications are directive and nondirective. Directive publications provide specific guidance and instructions for carrying out tasks and procedures. They are mandatory and must be followed by all personnel. Nondirective publications, on the other hand, provide information, guidance, and suggestions, but do not impose mandatory requirements. They serve as references and are used to enhance understanding and improve performance.

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  • 16. 

    (006) Which publications provide essential procedural guidance neccessary to imp;iment Air Force police in the fied?

    • A.

      Air Force pamphlets (AFP)

    • B.

      Air Force instructions (AFI)

    • C.

      Air Force policy directives (AFPD)

    • D.

      Air Force doctrine documents (AFDD)

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force instructions (AFI)
    Explanation
    Air Force instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force police in the field. AFIs are official documents that outline specific procedures, policies, and regulations that must be followed by Air Force personnel. These instructions provide detailed guidance on various topics, including operational procedures, security protocols, and law enforcement practices. They serve as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel to ensure consistency and adherence to established procedures in the field.

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  • 17. 

    (007) How often should a slef-inspection be conducted for an active duty command post (CP) ans Air Force Reserve Component (ARC) CP?

    • A.

      6 months, 12 months

    • B.

      12 months, 18 months

    • C.

      12 months, 20 months

    • D.

      12 months, 24 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months, 12 months
    Explanation
    A self-inspection should be conducted for an active duty command post (CP) every 6 months and for an Air Force Reserve Component (ARC) CP every 12 months. This ensures that the CP is regularly assessed and any issues or deficiencies can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Regular self-inspections help to maintain operational readiness and ensure that all necessary procedures and protocols are being followed effectively.

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  • 18. 

    (008) What are the two groups of official information?

    • A.

      Classified and sensitive but unclassified (SBU) informattion

    • B.

      SBU information and for official use only (FOUO)

    • C.

      Unclassified and FOUO

    • D.

      Classified and unclassified

    Correct Answer
    D. Classified and unclassified
    Explanation
    The correct answer is classified and unclassified. Classified information refers to information that has been designated as sensitive and requires protection from unauthorized disclosure. Unclassified information, on the other hand, does not require such protection and can be freely shared. These two groups represent the main categories of official information, with classified information being the most sensitive and requiring the highest level of security measures.

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  • 19. 

    (008) What are the categories of classified inforamtion?

    • A.

      Top Secert, Secret, and confidential

    • B.

      Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified

    • C.

      Top Secret, Secret, confidential, and sensitive but unclassified (SBU)

    • D.

      Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, special category (SEPCAT), ans for official use only (FOUO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secert, Secret, and confidential
    Explanation
    The categories of classified information are Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential. These categories are used to classify information based on its level of sensitivity and the potential harm that could result from its unauthorized disclosure. Top Secret is the highest level of classification and is used for information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. Secret is the next level, followed by Confidential, which is used for information that could cause damage to national security if disclosed without authorization.

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  • 20. 

    (008) What classified inforamtion's unathuhorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security ?

    • A.

      Top Secret

    • B.

      Secret

    • C.

      Confidential

    • D.

      For official use only

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret
    Explanation
    Top Secret information's unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. This level of classification is reserved for information that, if disclosed, could potentially harm national security to the highest degree. It includes information that, if obtained by unauthorized individuals or entities, could pose a significant threat to the country's interests, such as military plans, intelligence sources, or sensitive diplomatic negotiations. The unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information could compromise ongoing operations, endanger lives, or provide adversaries with critical information that could undermine national defense.

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  • 21. 

    (008) What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could resonably be expected to cause serious damage to national serurity?

    • A.

      Top Secret

    • B.

      Secret

    • C.

      Confidential

    • D.

      For official use only (FOUO)

    Correct Answer
    B. Secret
    Explanation
    The unauthorized disclosure of Secret classified information could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security. This level of classification is higher than Confidential and For Official Use Only (FOUO), indicating that the information is more sensitive and its exposure could pose a greater risk to the country's security. While Top Secret is the highest level of classification, Secret information is still considered highly sensitive and its unauthorized disclosure could have significant consequences.

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  • 22. 

    (008) Official information that does not require the application of seruity safeguards, but the disclosure of which may be subject to control for other reasons, is the defenition of

    • A.

      Confidentail information

    • B.

      Cryptographic information

    • C.

      Controlled unclassified

    • D.

      Secert information not requiring a receipt

    Correct Answer
    C. Controlled unclassified
    Explanation
    Controlled unclassified information refers to official information that does not require security safeguards but may still be subject to control for other reasons. This means that even though the information does not need to be protected with security measures, its disclosure may still be restricted or controlled for various purposes.

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  • 23. 

    (009) Where is the overall classification of a document conspicuosly indicated? 

    • A.

      At the top and bottom of each page

    • B.

      On th eoutside of the front and bacl cover only

    • C.

      On the top and bottom on the outside on the front and back cover (if any), on the title page (if any), and on the first page

    • D.

      At the top and bottom of each page containing classified information and on the outside of teh fornt and back cover (if any)

    Correct Answer
    C. On the top and bottom on the outside on the front and back cover (if any), on the title page (if any), and on the first page
    Explanation
    The overall classification of a document is conspicuously indicated on the top and bottom of the outside of the front and back cover (if any), on the title page (if any), and on the first page. This ensures that the classification is clearly visible and easily identifiable to anyone who handles the document.

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  • 24. 

    (009) When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified paragraphs, how must the classification be stamped on the top and bottom of that page?

    • A.

      Secret

    • B.

      Top Secret

    • C.

      Confidential

    • D.

      Unclassified

    Correct Answer
    B. Top Secret
    Explanation
    The classification must be stamped as "Top Secret" on the top and bottom of the page because the highest level of classification takes precedence over lower levels.

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  • 25. 

    (009) In a classified document, how is the classification level of subparagraphs indicated?

    • A.

      By the document's overall classification

    • B.

      By placing the classification symbol at the end of each sentence

    • C.

      Place the classification symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number

    • D.

      Place the classificatoin symbol immediatly follwoing hte subparagraphs that are classified

    Correct Answer
    C. Place the classification symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number
    Explanation
    In a classified document, the classification level of subparagraphs is indicated by placing the classification symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number. This means that each subparagraph will have its own classification symbol to indicate its level of classification.

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  • 26. 

    (009) How is the classificatoin of infromation in the subject line indicated?

    • A.

      The use od a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the dubject

    • B.

      By the overall marking at the top and bottom of hte title page

    • C.

      It is indicated by the document's overall marking

    • D.

      It is indicated by the overall page marking

    Correct Answer
    A. The use od a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the dubject
    Explanation
    The classification of information in the subject line is indicated by the use of a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the subject.

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  • 27. 

    (009) How should file folders containg classified material be marked?

    • A.

      File folders should always be marked Secret

    • B.

      With the highest classifiactoin of any document kept in the folder

    • C.

      File foldres should not be marked with a security classificatoin

    • D.

      The same classificatoin as the safe or cabinet in which the folder is filed

    Correct Answer
    B. With the highest classifiactoin of any document kept in the folder
    Explanation
    File folders containing classified material should be marked with the highest classification of any document kept in the folder. This ensures that the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the information is clearly indicated on the folder, allowing for proper handling and storage. By marking the folder with the highest classification, it helps prevent unauthorized access and ensures that the appropriate security measures are taken to protect the classified material.

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  • 28. 

    (009) When would the originator declassify classified inforamtion?

    • A.

      When the information no longer has an effect on national security

    • B.

      So it can be released through th eFreedom of Inforamtion Act (FOIA)

    • C.

      Only after the information has been destroyed

    • D.

      When th einformation is no longer needed

    Correct Answer
    A. When the information no longer has an effect on national security
    Explanation
    The originator would declassify classified information when the information no longer has an effect on national security. This means that the information is no longer considered sensitive or a threat to the security of the country. Declassifying the information allows for its release, potentially through the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), which promotes transparency and public access to government information. It is not necessary for the information to be destroyed before declassification, but rather it should no longer be needed or have an impact on national security.

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  • 29. 

    (009) What program operates to furnish official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to slassified information?

    • A.

      USAF Physical Security Program

    • B.

      USAF Industrial Security Program

    • C.

      USAF Personnel Security Program

    • D.

      USAF Information Security Program

    Correct Answer
    C. USAF Personnel Security Program
    Explanation
    The USAF Personnel Security Program operates to provide official assurance that a person can be considered trustworthy for access to classified information. This program focuses on evaluating the background, character, and loyalty of individuals to determine their eligibility for access to sensitive information. It includes conducting thorough background checks, interviews, and investigations to assess the trustworthiness and reliability of individuals. By implementing this program, the USAF ensures that only individuals with a proven track record of trustworthiness are granted access to classified information, thereby maintaining national security.

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  • 30. 

    (010) What method is used to limit disclosure of classified infromation to only the specific classifed information needed?

    • A.

      Rank or posidtion

    • B.

      Classidied markings

    • C.

      The "need to know (NTK)" rule

    • D.

      USAF ecchange badge procedure

    Correct Answer
    C. The "need to know (NTK)" rule
    Explanation
    The "need to know (NTK)" rule is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed. This means that individuals are only granted access to classified information if they have a legitimate need for it in order to carry out their duties or responsibilities. This helps to prevent unnecessary access to classified information and reduce the risk of unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 31. 

    (010) How long after a Top Secret document has been destroyed, transferred, downgraded, or declassified must you maintain theTop Secret access record and cover sheet

    • A.

      Two months

    • B.

      Six months

    • C.

      One year

    • D.

      Two years

    Correct Answer
    D. Two years
    Explanation
    After a Top Secret document has been destroyed, transferred, downgraded, or declassified, it is necessary to maintain the Top Secret access record and cover sheet for a period of two years. This ensures that there is a record of who had access to the document and helps to maintain accountability and security.

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  • 32. 

    (010) Accountability for what category of classified material is based upon the limited use of receipts in transmitting the documents between geographically seperated units

    • A.

      For official use only (FOUO)

    • B.

      Confidential

    • C.

      Secret

    • D.

      Top Secret

    Correct Answer
    C. Secret
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Secret. Accountability for Secret classified material is based upon the limited use of receipts in transmitting the documents between geographically separated units. This means that when Secret documents are transferred between units, receipts are used to track and confirm their delivery, ensuring that they are accounted for and properly handled. This level of accountability is not required for lower levels of classified material such as For Official Use Only (FOUO) or Confidential.

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  • 33. 

    (011) Containers used to store classified informatoin are identified by

    • A.

      Marking the highest classificatoin of the material it contains on the outside

    • B.

      Marking the highest classification of the material it containd in the drawer

    • C.

      Affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicous location on the outside

    • D.

      Addixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicous locatoin inside the drawer

    Correct Answer
    C. Affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicous location on the outside
    Explanation
    Containers used to store classified information are identified by affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicuous location on the outside. This allows for easy identification and tracking of the container, ensuring that it is properly handled and stored. Marking the highest classification of the material on the outside or inside the drawer may not be sufficient for identification purposes, as it does not provide a unique identifier for the container.

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  • 34. 

    (011) When a built-in combination lock is taken out of service, what should you reset the combonation to?

    • A.

      10-20-30

    • B.

      25-50-25

    • C.

      30-20-10

    • D.

      50-25-50

    Correct Answer
    D. 50-25-50
    Explanation
    When a built-in combination lock is taken out of service, the combination should be reset to 50-25-50. This is because resetting the combination to a new set of numbers ensures that the lock is secure and cannot be easily opened by someone who knows the previous combination. By choosing a new combination, the lock owner can maintain the security of their belongings or the area that the lock is protecting.

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  • 35. 

    (011) What standard form is used to record the opening and closing of safes containing classified materials?

    • A.

      700

    • B.

      701

    • C.

      702

    • D.

      703

    Correct Answer
    C. 702
    Explanation
    Standard form 702 is used to record the opening and closing of safes containing classified materials. This form helps to maintain a record of who accessed the safe and when, ensuring accountability and security of the classified materials.

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  • 36. 

    (011) Which form is used to record daily security checks?

    • A.

      Standard Form 701

    • B.

      Standard Form 702

    • C.

      Air Force Form 310

    • D.

      Air Force Form 145

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form 701
    Explanation
    Standard Form 701 is used to record daily security checks.

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  • 37. 

    (012) How often should classified material be destroyed?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Quarterly only

    • C.

      When it has served its purpose

    • D.

      Not later than 60 days after it has served it purpose

    Correct Answer
    C. When it has served its purpose
    Explanation
    Classified material should be destroyed when it has served its purpose to ensure that sensitive information does not fall into the wrong hands. This helps to maintain the confidentiality and security of classified information. Destroying the material promptly after its purpose has been fulfilled reduces the risk of unauthorized access or disclosure. By destroying the material when it is no longer needed, organizations can effectively manage and protect classified information.

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  • 38. 

    (012) How long are destruction certificates for Top Secret material maintained?

    • A.

      One Year

    • B.

      Two Years

    • C.

      Five Yeard

    • D.

      10 Years

    Correct Answer
    C. Five Yeard
  • 39. 

    (012) What form is used to document destrution of classified waste?

    • A.

      AF Form 310

    • B.

      AF Form 143

    • C.

      AF From 1565

    • D.

      None, destruction of classified waste does not require documentation

    Correct Answer
    D. None, destruction of classified waste does not require documentation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None, destruction of classified waste does not require documentation." This means that there is no specific form used to document the destruction of classified waste. The destruction of classified waste does not require any formal documentation process.

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  • 40. 

    (013) What best describes an incident that involves the misuse or improper handling of classified material but does not fall in the category of aviolation?

    • A.

      Compromise

    • B.

      Security infractaion

    • C.

      Probable compromise

    • D.

      Possible compromise

    Correct Answer
    B. Security infractaion
    Explanation
    An incident involving the misuse or improper handling of classified material that does not fall into the category of a violation is referred to as a security infraction. This term is used to describe a situation where there has been a breach or failure to adhere to the proper protocols and procedures for handling classified information, but it does not necessarily imply intentional or malicious intent. It may include accidental disclosure, negligence, or lack of proper training or awareness.

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  • 41. 

    (013) When a security incident has occurred, who must take custody of and portect the classidied information involved until it can be released to an oppropriately cleared official?

    • A.

      The security police

    • B.

      The security manager

    • C.

      Any responsible individual

    • D.

      The person who discovers the incident or violation

    Correct Answer
    D. The person who discovers the incident or violation
    Explanation
    When a security incident occurs, the person who discovers the incident or violation is responsible for taking custody of and protecting the classified information involved until it can be released to an appropriately cleared official. This individual is in the best position to secure the information and ensure its integrity until it can be properly handled by the appropriate authorities.

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  • 42. 

    (014) When transferring classified material outside an Air Force installation, what must be identifief on the innder wrapper?

    • A.

      Classification

    • B.

      Downgrading instructoins

    • C.

      Classification and downgrading instructions

    • D.

      Nothing, no markings should be made on the inner wrapper

    Correct Answer
    A. Classification
    Explanation
    When transferring classified material outside an Air Force installation, the classification of the material must be identified on the inner wrapper. This is important to ensure that the material is handled and protected according to its level of sensitivity. By clearly marking the classification on the inner wrapper, it helps prevent unauthorized access or mishandling of the material during transportation.

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  • 43. 

    (014) What rule must be followed when reproducing classified infromation is to reproduce

    • A.

      One copy only

    • B.

      Two copies only

    • C.

      A minimum consistent with mission requirements

    • D.

      Extra copoies in case the copier has a malfuction

    Correct Answer
    C. A minimum consistent with mission requirements
    Explanation
    When reproducing classified information, the rule that must be followed is to reproduce a minimum consistent with mission requirements. This means that only the necessary number of copies should be made based on what is needed for the specific mission or purpose. Making additional copies beyond what is necessary increases the risk of unauthorized access or dissemination of classified information. Therefore, reproducing the minimum number of copies ensures the security and protection of the classified information.

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  • 44. 

    (014) Preventing adversaverial exploitation of critical operational infromation to preserve military capabilities is done using operations security (OPSEC)

    • A.

      Indicators

    • B.

      Measures

    • C.

      Distractors

    • D.

      Vulnerabilities

    Correct Answer
    B. Measures
    Explanation
    The correct answer is measures. Measures are actions or steps taken to prevent adversarial exploitation of critical operational information in order to preserve military capabilities. These measures can include protocols, procedures, and safeguards put in place to protect sensitive information from falling into the wrong hands. By implementing effective measures, military organizations can maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their operational information, ensuring that it is not exploited by adversaries.

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  • 45. 

    (015) Who assigns accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications security (COMSEC) material

    • A.

      Originating agency

    • B.

      COMSEC user

    • C.

      Base COMSEC custodian

    • D.

      COMSEC responsible officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Originating agency
    Explanation
    The originating agency is responsible for assigning accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications security (COMSEC) material. This means that the agency that creates or generates the COMSEC material is the one that determines the specific ALC that will be assigned to it.

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  • 46. 

    (015) The accounting legend code (ALC) number listed on accounting reports identifies the

    • A.

      Effective date for the material

    • B.

      Controlling authority for the material

    • C.

      Minimum accounting controls requiried for the material

    • D.

      Minimum amount of time the material may be maintained

    Correct Answer
    C. Minimum accounting controls requiried for the material
    Explanation
    The accounting legend code (ALC) number listed on accounting reports identifies the minimum accounting controls required for the material. This means that the ALC number indicates the specific controls and procedures that need to be followed when handling and managing the material in question. It helps ensure that proper accounting practices are followed and that the material is accounted for accurately.

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  • 47. 

    (015) What are the accounting legend codes (ALC) used to contol communicatoins security (COMSEC)?

    • A.

      1, 2, and 4

    • B.

      1, 2, and 3

    • C.

      1, 3, and 4

    • D.

      1, 2, 3, and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, and 4
    Explanation
    The accounting legend codes (ALC) used to control communications security (COMSEC) are codes 1, 2, and 4.

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  • 48. 

    (016) The requirements that no lone individual is allowed access to Top Secret keying material is known as

    • A.

      No-lone zone

    • B.

      Product intergrity

    • C.

      Two-person concept

    • D.

      Two-person intergrity

    Correct Answer
    D. Two-person intergrity
    Explanation
    The requirement that no lone individual is allowed access to Top Secret keying material is known as "two-person integrity." This means that at least two authorized individuals must be present and actively involved in the handling and control of the keying material at all times. This measure helps prevent any single person from having unauthorized access or the ability to compromise the security of the material.

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  • 49. 

    (016) what action is required when conducting an inventory of communicatoins security (COMSEC) material?

    • A.

      Check the items sued fo rteh shift only

    • B.

      Physically check the accountable critical items only

    • C.

      Make a daliy inventory by checking with the previous shift

    • D.

      Physically locate each item listed on the inventory before you check it off

    Correct Answer
    D. Physically locate each item listed on the inventory before you check it off
    Explanation
    When conducting an inventory of communications security (COMSEC) material, it is necessary to physically locate each item listed on the inventory before checking it off. This ensures that all the items are accounted for and present. Simply checking the items used for the shift only or the accountable critical items may lead to inaccuracies and missing items. Making a daily inventory by checking with the previous shift may also miss any discrepancies or items that were not properly accounted for. Therefore, physically locating each item is the most effective way to ensure a thorough and accurate inventory.

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  • 50. 

    (016) Which item is not a required communications security (COMSEC) emergency action (EA) plan for facilities inside the continental United States?

    • A.

      Fire

    • B.

      Bomb threat

    • C.

      Hostiale actions

    • D.

      Natural disaster

    Correct Answer
    C. Hostiale actions
    Explanation
    A COMSEC emergency action (EA) plan is designed to ensure the security of communications in the event of an emergency. It includes procedures for responding to various threats such as fire, bomb threats, and natural disasters. However, "hostile actions" are not typically considered a required component of a COMSEC EA plan for facilities inside the continental United States. Hostile actions may refer to acts of terrorism or military attacks, which are typically addressed through separate security protocols and plans.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 08, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Smsgted
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