Command Post Journeyman Ure

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1. (006) What are the categories of Air Force publications?

Explanation

The categories of Air Force publications are directive and nondirective. Directive publications provide specific guidance and instructions for carrying out tasks and procedures. They are mandatory and must be followed by all personnel. Nondirective publications, on the other hand, provide information, guidance, and suggestions, but do not impose mandatory requirements. They serve as references and are used to enhance understanding and improve performance.

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About This Quiz
Command Post Journeyman Ure - Quiz

This Command Post Journeyman URE quiz assesses knowledge crucial for command post operations. It covers training requirements, examination standards, and certification processes, ensuring readiness and competency in command and control duties.

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2. (009) When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified paragraphs, how must the classification be stamped on the top and bottom of that page?

Explanation

The classification must be stamped as "Top Secret" on the top and bottom of the page because the highest level of classification takes precedence over lower levels.

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3. (001) What training actions are required when controllers have not perfromed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 days?

Explanation

When controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 days, they need to receive refresher training and be recertified. This is necessary to ensure that they are up to date with any changes or updates in procedures, protocols, and technology that may have occurred during their absence. Refresher training helps controllers refresh their knowledge and skills, allowing them to perform their duties effectively and safely. Being recertified ensures that they meet the required standards and are qualified to resume their command and control responsibilities.

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4. (004) The folder used as a training record is called an AF Form?

Explanation

The correct answer is 623. This is because the question is asking for the folder used as a training record, and the AF Form 623 is specifically designed for that purpose.

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5. (005) When a publicatoin is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is reffered to as

Explanation

When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as "revised." This means that changes have been made to the original publication, either to update information or improve its content. The revised publication is intended to replace the previous version and provide the most up-to-date and accurate information to the readers.

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6. (008) What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could resonably be expected to cause serious damage to national serurity?

Explanation

The unauthorized disclosure of Secret classified information could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security. This level of classification is higher than Confidential and For Official Use Only (FOUO), indicating that the information is more sensitive and its exposure could pose a greater risk to the country's security. While Top Secret is the highest level of classification, Secret information is still considered highly sensitive and its unauthorized disclosure could have significant consequences.

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7. (010) What method is used to limit disclosure of classified infromation to only the specific classifed information needed?

Explanation

The "need to know (NTK)" rule is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed. This means that individuals are only granted access to classified information if they have a legitimate need for it in order to carry out their duties or responsibilities. This helps to prevent unnecessary access to classified information and reduce the risk of unauthorized disclosure.

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8. (016) what action is required when conducting an inventory of communicatoins security (COMSEC) material?

Explanation

When conducting an inventory of communications security (COMSEC) material, it is necessary to physically locate each item listed on the inventory before checking it off. This ensures that all the items are accounted for and present. Simply checking the items used for the shift only or the accountable critical items may lead to inaccuracies and missing items. Making a daily inventory by checking with the previous shift may also miss any discrepancies or items that were not properly accounted for. Therefore, physically locating each item is the most effective way to ensure a thorough and accurate inventory.

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9. (030) Which proword states, "proceed with your message"

Explanation

The correct answer is "GO AHEAD". This proword is used to instruct the transmitting station to proceed with their message. It indicates that the receiving station is ready to receive the message and is waiting for the transmitting station to start transmitting.

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10. (031) The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the command post (CP) is to

Explanation

The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the command post (CP) is to ensure communications equipment is operational at all times. By conducting regular checks, the CP can identify any issues or malfunctions with the equipment and address them promptly. This helps to maintain effective communication within the CP and ensures that vital emergency actions (EA) traffic is not delayed. Additionally, it allows for timely troubleshooting and repairs, minimizing any potential disruptions in communication during critical operations.

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11. (209)  To what log entries do you gie special emphasis when briefing controllers who are just coming on duty?

Explanation

When briefing controllers who are just coming on duty, special emphasis is given to log entries that may require further action. This is because these entries indicate potential issues or tasks that need to be addressed by the controllers. By highlighting these entries, the briefing ensures that the controllers are aware of any pending actions or important information that they need to follow up on during their shift.

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12. (004) For active duty, within how many calendars days after your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orentation briefing?

Explanation

Upon arriving at a new duty station for active duty, one should expect a work center orientation briefing within 60 calendar days. This briefing is crucial as it provides important information and guidance about the work environment, policies, procedures, and expectations in the new work center. It helps the individual to familiarize themselves with their new surroundings, understand their roles and responsibilities, and integrate into the new work environment efficiently.

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13. (008) What are the two groups of official information?

Explanation

The correct answer is classified and unclassified. Classified information refers to information that has been designated as sensitive and requires protection from unauthorized disclosure. Unclassified information, on the other hand, does not require such protection and can be freely shared. These two groups represent the main categories of official information, with classified information being the most sensitive and requiring the highest level of security measures.

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14. (008) What classified inforamtion's unathuhorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security ?

Explanation

Top Secret information's unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. This level of classification is reserved for information that, if disclosed, could potentially harm national security to the highest degree. It includes information that, if obtained by unauthorized individuals or entities, could pose a significant threat to the country's interests, such as military plans, intelligence sources, or sensitive diplomatic negotiations. The unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information could compromise ongoing operations, endanger lives, or provide adversaries with critical information that could undermine national defense.

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15. (022) What is the minimum classification of a computer password theat permits access to Secret informatoins?

Explanation

The minimum classification of a computer password that permits access to Secret information is Secret. This means that in order to access Secret information, the password must have a classification level of Secret or higher.

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16. (210)  What are the four phases in the emergency management cycle?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery." In the emergency management cycle, the first phase is mitigation, which involves taking actions to prevent or reduce the impact of disasters. The second phase is preparedness, which involves developing plans and resources to respond effectively to emergencies. The third phase is response, which involves implementing the plans and resources to address the immediate effects of the disaster. The final phase is recovery, which involves restoring the affected community to its pre-disaster state and implementing measures to prevent future disasters.

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17. (213)  Which phase of emergency response consists of firefighting security, and medical treatment forces?

Explanation

The response phase of emergency response consists of firefighting, security, and medical treatment forces. This phase is characterized by the immediate actions taken to address the emergency situation and mitigate its impact. It involves mobilizing resources, coordinating efforts, and implementing emergency plans and protocols to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals affected by the emergency. During this phase, emergency responders work to contain and control the situation, provide medical assistance to the injured, and ensure the security of the affected area.

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18. (217) What type of flight assistance consists of assistance provided a pilot prior to the timean aircraft becomes airborne?

Explanation

Preflight assistance refers to the assistance provided to a pilot before the aircraft takes off. This assistance includes various tasks such as flight planning, weather briefing, aircraft inspection, and preflight checks. It ensures that the pilot is well-prepared and the aircraft is in proper condition for a safe flight. Therefore, the correct answer is "Preflight".

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19. (225) Which operational report's inital voice report is due within 5 minutes after the sendar learns of the event?

Explanation

The correct answer is PINNACLE NUCFLASH. PINNACLE NUCFLASH is an operational report that requires an initial voice report to be submitted within 5 minutes after the sender learns of the event. This suggests that PINNACLE NUCFLASH is a time-sensitive report that requires immediate action or response.

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20. (005) The term used to describe a publicatiuon as it is originally issued is called

Explanation

A basic publication refers to a publication that is originally issued without any changes or revisions. It is the initial version of a publication before any updates or modifications are made. This term is used to describe the original form of a publication when it is first released to the public.

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21. (013) When a security incident has occurred, who must take custody of and portect the classidied information involved until it can be released to an oppropriately cleared official?

Explanation

When a security incident occurs, the person who discovers the incident or violation is responsible for taking custody of and protecting the classified information involved until it can be released to an appropriately cleared official. This individual is in the best position to secure the information and ensure its integrity until it can be properly handled by the appropriate authorities.

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22. (014) What rule must be followed when reproducing classified infromation is to reproduce

Explanation

When reproducing classified information, the rule that must be followed is to reproduce a minimum consistent with mission requirements. This means that only the necessary number of copies should be made based on what is needed for the specific mission or purpose. Making additional copies beyond what is necessary increases the risk of unauthorized access or dissemination of classified information. Therefore, reproducing the minimum number of copies ensures the security and protection of the classified information.

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23. (021) What connects computers and peripheral devices for sharing of hardware or information?

Explanation

A network is the correct answer because it is a system that connects computers and peripheral devices, allowing them to share hardware resources and exchange information. Networks can be wired or wireless and enable devices to communicate with each other, access shared files and printers, and connect to the internet.

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24. (027) What facility activates the secondary crash alarm circuit?

Explanation

Base operations is the correct answer because they are responsible for coordinating and managing all activities on an airfield or military base. This includes monitoring and activating the secondary crash alarm circuit, which is an important safety measure in the event of a crash or emergency situation. The secondary crash alarm circuit is designed to alert emergency responders and initiate a rapid response to any incidents on the base. Therefore, base operations play a crucial role in activating this circuit and ensuring a timely and effective response to emergencies.

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25. Numbers are transmitted

Explanation

Numbers are transmitted "digit by digit" means that each individual digit of a number is sent separately. This method ensures that each digit is accurately transmitted and received without any confusion or errors. It is a precise and efficient way of transmitting numerical information.

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26.  (001) What is the minimum passing score for command post (CP) examinations?

Explanation

The minimum passing score for command post (CP) examinations is 90. This means that in order to pass the CP examinations, a candidate must score at least 90 out of 100.

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27. (206)     Which phase of a major accident or natural disaster consist of actions taken after emergency actions have been implemented and lifesaving actions have been completed?

Explanation

The phase of a major accident or natural disaster that consists of actions taken after emergency actions have been implemented and lifesaving actions have been completed is called the recovery phase. During this phase, efforts are focused on restoring normalcy, repairing infrastructure, providing assistance to affected individuals and communities, and rebuilding. This phase aims to help the affected areas recover and regain stability after the initial emergency response.

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28. (006) Which publications provide essential procedural guidance neccessary to imp;iment Air Force police in the fied?

Explanation

Air Force instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force police in the field. AFIs are official documents that outline specific procedures, policies, and regulations that must be followed by Air Force personnel. These instructions provide detailed guidance on various topics, including operational procedures, security protocols, and law enforcement practices. They serve as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel to ensure consistency and adherence to established procedures in the field.

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29. (009) How should file folders containg classified material be marked?

Explanation

File folders containing classified material should be marked with the highest classification of any document kept in the folder. This ensures that the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the information is clearly indicated on the folder, allowing for proper handling and storage. By marking the folder with the highest classification, it helps prevent unauthorized access and ensures that the appropriate security measures are taken to protect the classified material.

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30. (011) Which form is used to record daily security checks?

Explanation

Standard Form 701 is used to record daily security checks.

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31. (018) Which entry control technique is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control?

Explanation

Personal recognition is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control because it allows for a more personalized and individualized approach to entry control. In this technique, the person in charge of entry control is able to personally recognize and identify each individual, ensuring that only authorized individuals are allowed access. This method is effective when there are fewer people to manage and when a higher level of security and accuracy is required. It eliminates the need for additional documentation or badges, making it a convenient and efficient solution for smaller groups.

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32. (206)     Which defense readiness condition exercise term drects maximum readiness?

Explanation

The correct answer is COCKED PISTOL. In military terminology, the defense readiness condition exercise term "COCKED PISTOL" refers to the highest level of readiness. It indicates that the military forces are fully prepared and ready to respond to any potential threat or attack. This term implies that the forces are on high alert and ready to take immediate action if necessary.

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33. (215) The purpose of the alternate and emergancy airfield display is to provide infromation needed to recover aircraft at alternate fields

Explanation

The purpose of the alternate and emergency airfield display is to provide information needed to recover aircraft during emergency situations. This display is specifically designed to assist pilots in identifying and accessing alternate airfields in case of emergencies such as engine failures, fuel shortages, or other critical situations that may require immediate landing. It provides crucial information about the location, condition, and available resources of nearby airfields, enabling pilots to make informed decisions and safely recover their aircraft during emergencies.

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34. (215) What action should controllers take when they receive weather information that could effect flying operations?

Explanation

When controllers receive weather information that could affect flying operations, they should update the status displays and advise all interested agencies. This ensures that all relevant parties are aware of the changes in weather conditions and can make informed decisions regarding flying operations. By updating the status displays, controllers provide a visual representation of the current weather situation, allowing pilots and other personnel to assess the potential impact on their operations. Advising all interested agencies ensures that everyone involved is kept informed and can take appropriate actions based on the updated information.

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35. (001) What type of training is conducted on a scheduled basis in a classroom environment?

Explanation

Formal training refers to a structured and organized type of training that is conducted in a classroom environment. It follows a set curriculum and is typically led by an instructor or trainer. This type of training is scheduled in advance and is designed to provide learners with a comprehensive understanding of a particular subject or skill. It may include lectures, presentations, group discussions, and practical exercises. Formal training is different from self-study or refresher training, as it offers a more structured and guided learning experience.

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36. (003) What document helps you ensure effective training at the appropriate point in your career?

Explanation

The 1C3X1 career field education and training plan (CFETP) helps ensure effective training at the appropriate point in your career. CFETPs are comprehensive documents that outline the training requirements and career progression for a specific career field. They provide guidance on the necessary training courses, certifications, and experience needed to advance in the career field. By following the CFETP, individuals can ensure they are receiving the appropriate training at each stage of their career to develop the necessary skills and knowledge for success.

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37. (007) How often should a slef-inspection be conducted for an active duty command post (CP) ans Air Force Reserve Component (ARC) CP?

Explanation

A self-inspection should be conducted for an active duty command post (CP) every 6 months and for an Air Force Reserve Component (ARC) CP every 12 months. This ensures that the CP is regularly assessed and any issues or deficiencies can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Regular self-inspections help to maintain operational readiness and ensure that all necessary procedures and protocols are being followed effectively.

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38. (017) What type of security area temporarily places nonfederal lands under the control of the Separtment of Defense (DOD)?

Explanation

A National defense area is a type of security area that temporarily places nonfederal lands under the control of the Department of Defense (DOD). This is done to ensure the security and protection of critical military assets or activities. These areas are established to restrict access to unauthorized personnel and to allow the DOD to effectively carry out its operations without any interference or threat.

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39. (018) Which AF form can be used as a vistior register log to control cistior entry and ecit from the command post (CP)

Explanation

The AF form 1109 can be used as a visitor register log to control visitor entry and exit from the command post (CP). This form allows the CP personnel to keep track of who enters and leaves the CP, ensuring security and accountability. It serves as a record of visitor information, including their name, organization, purpose of visit, and the date and time of entry and exit. By using the AF form 1109, the CP can effectively monitor and control visitor access to maintain the security of the facility.

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40. (019) How long must a force protection condition (FPCON) implemented in response to an emergency action meddage (EAM) be sustained?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Until canceled by the originating (or higher) authority." This means that a force protection condition (FPCON) implemented in response to an emergency action message (EAM) must be sustained until it is canceled by the authority that issued it or a higher-ranking authority. This ensures that the necessary security measures and precautions remain in place for as long as they are deemed necessary to address the emergency situation.

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41. (032) What action must you take when you receice an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication?

Explanation

When you receive an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication, the appropriate action to take is to rechallenge. This means that you need to repeat the authentication process and ask the person to provide the correct response. This ensures that the authentication is accurate and secure.

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42. For exercises and war operations, detailed and comprehensive weather coverage is usually provided by

Explanation

A weather forecaster that is assigned to the battle staff team is responsible for providing detailed and comprehensive weather coverage for exercises and war operations. They have the expertise and knowledge to analyze weather patterns and provide accurate forecasts, which are crucial for planning and executing military operations. Their role is to ensure that commanders and decision-makers have the necessary information to make informed decisions regarding the timing and feasibility of operations based on weather conditions.

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43. (221) The 0 degree line of latitude is known as

Explanation

The correct answer is the equator. The equator is the line of latitude that is located at 0 degrees and divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. It is the longest line of latitude and is known for its hot and tropical climate.

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44. (214) What agency monitors a crewmember's training and proficiency?

Explanation

Aircrew operations is the correct answer because they are responsible for monitoring a crewmember's training and proficiency. This agency ensures that crewmembers receive the necessary training and maintain their proficiency in order to safely perform their duties. They oversee the crew's training programs, track their progress, and provide ongoing assessments to ensure that they meet the required standards. By monitoring training and proficiency, aircrew operations plays a crucial role in maintaining the competency and readiness of crewmembers.

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45. (011) What standard form is used to record the opening and closing of safes containing classified materials?

Explanation

Standard form 702 is used to record the opening and closing of safes containing classified materials. This form helps to maintain a record of who accessed the safe and when, ensuring accountability and security of the classified materials.

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46. (016) Which item is not a required communications security (COMSEC) emergency action (EA) plan for facilities inside the continental United States?

Explanation

A COMSEC emergency action (EA) plan is designed to ensure the security of communications in the event of an emergency. It includes procedures for responding to various threats such as fire, bomb threats, and natural disasters. However, "hostile actions" are not typically considered a required component of a COMSEC EA plan for facilities inside the continental United States. Hostile actions may refer to acts of terrorism or military attacks, which are typically addressed through separate security protocols and plans.

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47. (020) When should individuals that work with nuclear weapons receive nuclear surety training?

Explanation

Individuals who work with nuclear weapons should receive nuclear surety training both initially and annually. Initially, this training is crucial to ensure that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle nuclear weapons safely and securely. This training covers topics such as the proper handling procedures, security protocols, and emergency response measures. However, since the field of nuclear weapons is constantly evolving, it is essential for individuals to receive annual training to stay updated on any changes in procedures, technology, or security measures. This helps to maintain a high level of proficiency and ensure the continued safety and security of nuclear weapons.

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48. (028) What types of radios are requirmed in command psots (CP) that are involved in the control or coordinatoin of aircraft ooperations?

Explanation

Ultraghigh/very high frequency (UHF/VHF) radios are required in command posts (CP) involved in the control or coordination of aircraft operations. These radios operate within the UHF/VHF frequency range, which is commonly used for aviation communications. They allow for reliable and clear communication between the command post and aircraft, ensuring effective control and coordination of operations. Other types of radios mentioned, such as land mobile radios (LMR), high-frequency (HF) radios, and frequency modulation (FM) radios, may have their own uses but are not specifically required for the control or coordination of aircraft operations in command posts.

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49. (209)  Who is responsible for ensuring that command post checklists are developed and maintained?

Explanation

Command post managers are responsible for ensuring that command post checklists are developed and maintained. As the individuals in charge of overseeing the operations and activities of the command post, it is their duty to establish and update the necessary checklists to ensure smooth and efficient functioning. This responsibility falls under their purview as they are the ones who have the knowledge and understanding of the specific requirements and procedures of the command post.

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50. (012) How often should classified material be destroyed?

Explanation

Classified material should be destroyed when it has served its purpose to ensure that sensitive information does not fall into the wrong hands. This helps to maintain the confidentiality and security of classified information. Destroying the material promptly after its purpose has been fulfilled reduces the risk of unauthorized access or disclosure. By destroying the material when it is no longer needed, organizations can effectively manage and protect classified information.

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51. (027) What facility activates the primary crash alarm circuit?

Explanation

The control tower activates the primary crash alarm circuit. This is because the control tower is responsible for monitoring and controlling all aircraft movements on the airfield. In the event of a crash or emergency, the control tower needs to be immediately alerted so that they can initiate the necessary response and coordinate with emergency services. By activating the primary crash alarm circuit, the control tower ensures that they are promptly notified of any incidents on the airfield.

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52. (208)  What system is used throughout the Air Force for alert notification and recall?

Explanation

Pyramid alerting is the system used throughout the Air Force for alert notification and recall. This system is specifically designed to efficiently and effectively notify and recall personnel in emergency situations. It involves a hierarchical approach where alerts are sent out in a pyramid-like structure, starting with the highest-ranking officials and gradually cascading down to lower-level personnel. This ensures that everyone receives the necessary information and can respond accordingly in a timely manner.

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53. (216) Which vision obstruction is caused by the exahust gases of aircraft when the temperature is -20F or solder asn winds are calm?

Explanation

When the temperature is -20F and winds are calm, the exhaust gases of aircraft can cause ice fog. Ice fog occurs when the water vapor in the exhaust gases condenses and freezes, forming tiny ice crystals that remain suspended in the air. This creates a dense fog-like condition with reduced visibility, making it difficult for pilots and other individuals to see clearly.

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54. (215) Which item is not a controller use fo rthe daily flyin gschedule?

Explanation

The item "Future referance and resource managenent" is not a controller used for the daily flying schedule. This item seems to be unrelated to the immediate tasks of coordinating, monitoring flying operations, and updating command post displays. It likely refers to a different aspect of aviation management, such as long-term planning or resource allocation.

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55. (218) Which reponse is the intial stage that implements a limited communications check with the facilities in the area that a missing aircraft may have been seen?

Explanation

A preliminary communications search is the initial stage that implements a limited communications check with the facilities in the area that a missing aircraft may have been seen. This involves reaching out to nearby facilities and organizations to gather any information or sightings of the missing aircraft. It is a crucial step in the search and rescue process as it helps narrow down the search area and gather initial leads.

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56. (009) When would the originator declassify classified inforamtion?

Explanation

The originator would declassify classified information when the information no longer has an effect on national security. This means that the information is no longer considered sensitive or a threat to the security of the country. Declassifying the information allows for its release, potentially through the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), which promotes transparency and public access to government information. It is not necessary for the information to be destroyed before declassification, but rather it should no longer be needed or have an impact on national security.

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57. (009) What program operates to furnish official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to slassified information?

Explanation

The USAF Personnel Security Program operates to provide official assurance that a person can be considered trustworthy for access to classified information. This program focuses on evaluating the background, character, and loyalty of individuals to determine their eligibility for access to sensitive information. It includes conducting thorough background checks, interviews, and investigations to assess the trustworthiness and reliability of individuals. By implementing this program, the USAF ensures that only individuals with a proven track record of trustworthiness are granted access to classified information, thereby maintaining national security.

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58. (014) Preventing adversaverial exploitation of critical operational infromation to preserve military capabilities is done using operations security (OPSEC)

Explanation

The correct answer is measures. Measures are actions or steps taken to prevent adversarial exploitation of critical operational information in order to preserve military capabilities. These measures can include protocols, procedures, and safeguards put in place to protect sensitive information from falling into the wrong hands. By implementing effective measures, military organizations can maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their operational information, ensuring that it is not exploited by adversaries.

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59. (020) Who is the final personnel reliability program certifying authority?

Explanation

The final personnel reliability program certifying authority is the Commander. This individual holds the ultimate responsibility for certifying personnel under the program. They have the authority to ensure that all requirements are met and that individuals are reliable and fit for duty. The Commander's decision is final and holds significant weight in determining the certification status of personnel.

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60. (022) hat is the proceddure called when a computer verifies the user has a right to access the system?

Explanation

Authentication is the process by which a computer verifies that a user has the right to access the system. It involves confirming the identity of the user, typically through the use of a username and password or other credentials. This ensures that only authorized individuals are granted access to the system and helps to protect against unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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61. (024) Which command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system characteristic is achieved when informatoin can be exchanged satisfactorily between diferent C4 systems ans their users?

Explanation

Interoperability is the correct answer because it refers to the ability of different command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems to exchange information effectively. When C4 systems and their users can satisfactorily exchange information, it means they are interoperable, allowing for seamless communication and collaboration between different systems and users. This characteristic is crucial for efficient and coordinated operations in military and other complex environments.

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62. (027) What sytem uses a FORTEZZA plus card to provide security?

Explanation

The FORTEZZA plus card is used in the Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) system to provide security. The STE system is a secure communication system that allows users to encrypt and decrypt classified information. The FORTEZZA plus card is a cryptographic device that provides authentication and encryption capabilities, ensuring the secure transmission of sensitive data. Therefore, the correct answer is Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

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63. (201)  The authority that a military commander lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rand or assignment is

Explanation

Command refers to the authority that a military commander lawfully exercises over subordinates. It involves giving orders, making decisions, and ensuring that those under their command follow instructions. This authority is derived from the rank or assignment of the commander and is essential for maintaining discipline, coordination, and effectiveness within the military hierarchy. Control, direction, and jurisdiction may be related to aspects of command, but they do not encompass the full scope of authority and responsibility that command entails.

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64. (207)  At what organizational level does the command post alerting network interface with intracommand communications?

Explanation

The correct answer is MAJCOM. MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is an organizational level within the United States Air Force. The command post alerting network interfaces with intracommand communications at the MAJCOM level. This means that the command post at the MAJCOM level is responsible for receiving and transmitting alerts and communications within the command.

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65. (008) What are the categories of classified inforamtion?

Explanation

The categories of classified information are Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential. These categories are used to classify information based on its level of sensitivity and the potential harm that could result from its unauthorized disclosure. Top Secret is the highest level of classification and is used for information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. Secret is the next level, followed by Confidential, which is used for information that could cause damage to national security if disclosed without authorization.

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66. (217) The principle of flight following (kepping track of aircraft) is postive control of aircraft through knowing the aircraft''s

Explanation

The principle of flight following involves maintaining positive control over an aircraft by continuously monitoring its location and status. This means keeping track of where the aircraft is at all times and being aware of its current condition or situation. By knowing the location and status of the aircraft, pilots and air traffic controllers can ensure its safety and efficiency during the flight.

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67. (001) Who must train all individuals initial training?

Explanation

A primary trainer is responsible for conducting the initial training of all individuals. They are the ones who are designated to provide the necessary guidance and instruction to ensure that trainees acquire the essential skills and knowledge required for their roles. This implies that the primary trainer plays a crucial role in equipping individuals with the foundational training they need to succeed in their positions.

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68. (009) How is the classificatoin of infromation in the subject line indicated?

Explanation

The classification of information in the subject line is indicated by the use of a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the subject.

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69. (010) How long after a Top Secret document has been destroyed, transferred, downgraded, or declassified must you maintain theTop Secret access record and cover sheet

Explanation

After a Top Secret document has been destroyed, transferred, downgraded, or declassified, it is necessary to maintain the Top Secret access record and cover sheet for a period of two years. This ensures that there is a record of who had access to the document and helps to maintain accountability and security.

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70. (032) What is the primary authentication document used by the Air Force?

Explanation

The TRIAD authentication system is the primary authentication document used by the Air Force.

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71. (201)  The authority that a commander exercises over part of the activities of subordinates or other organizations is

Explanation

Control refers to the authority that a commander has over the activities of subordinates or other organizations. It involves the power to direct, regulate, and oversee these activities in order to achieve the desired objectives. Control allows the commander to maintain discipline, ensure compliance with orders, and make adjustments as necessary to meet the mission requirements. It is an essential aspect of effective leadership and is crucial for maintaining unity of effort and achieving success in military operations.

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72. (206)     Emergency action procedures are primarily used for

Explanation

Emergency action procedures are primarily used for national survival situations. National survival situations refer to emergencies that threaten the survival and security of a nation as a whole. These emergencies can include natural disasters, such as hurricanes or earthquakes, or man-made disasters, such as terrorist attacks or nuclear accidents. In these situations, emergency action procedures are implemented to ensure the safety and well-being of the population, as well as to coordinate and mobilize resources for response and recovery efforts.

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73. (214) What orginization is equipped to handel small or large aircraft emergancies and crashes?

Explanation

The fire station is equipped to handle small or large aircraft emergencies and crashes. Fire stations are typically equipped with specialized equipment and trained personnel to respond to emergencies, including aircraft incidents. They have the necessary resources and expertise to handle situations involving aircraft, such as extinguishing fires, rescuing passengers, and providing medical assistance.

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74. (003) What character of your Air Force specialty code (AFSC) idendifies your career field family?

Explanation

The second character of your Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies your career field family.

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75. (030) Waht are the methods of calling used in radio communications?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Full and abbreviated." In radio communications, there are two main methods of calling used: full and abbreviated. Full calling involves using the complete or full name or identification of the station being called, while abbreviated calling involves using a shortened or abbreviated form of the name or identification. Both methods are commonly used depending on the specific communication needs and protocols in place.

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76. (206)     Use a separate events logs for exercises to

Explanation

Using a separate event log for exercises helps to prevent unnecessary lengthy entries in the actual log. By keeping exercise-related information in a separate log, the actual log can remain concise and focused on relevant operational activities. This allows for easier readability and quicker access to important information when needed. Additionally, separating exercise logs helps to maintain the integrity and security of classified information by keeping it separate from non-classified exercise data.

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77. (211)  Within the National Response Plan, the Commander of State military forces is the

Explanation

The correct answer is Governor. Within the National Response Plan, the Commander of State military forces is the Governor. This means that during a crisis or emergency situation, the Governor has the authority to deploy and command the state's military forces to respond to the situation. The Governor is responsible for coordinating and directing the state's response efforts, working closely with other state agencies, emergency management personnel, and federal authorities to ensure an effective and coordinated response.

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78. (013) What best describes an incident that involves the misuse or improper handling of classified material but does not fall in the category of aviolation?

Explanation

An incident involving the misuse or improper handling of classified material that does not fall into the category of a violation is referred to as a security infraction. This term is used to describe a situation where there has been a breach or failure to adhere to the proper protocols and procedures for handling classified information, but it does not necessarily imply intentional or malicious intent. It may include accidental disclosure, negligence, or lack of proper training or awareness.

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79. (219) What agency is responsible for positioning an aircraft for landing?

Explanation

Radar approach control is responsible for positioning an aircraft for landing. They use radar technology to provide guidance and instructions to the pilot during the approach and landing phase of the flight. They ensure safe separation between aircraft and provide accurate positioning information to ensure a smooth and controlled landing.

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80. (222) The most important middle phase of the three phases of the process of the collecting and displaying data is

Explanation

The correct answer is analyzing because it is the phase where the collected data is examined and interpreted to draw meaningful insights and conclusions. This phase involves organizing and summarizing the data, identifying patterns and trends, and applying various statistical techniques to analyze the data. Analyzing the data is crucial as it helps in understanding the underlying patterns and relationships, making informed decisions, and identifying areas for improvement or further investigation.

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81. (009) In a classified document, how is the classification level of subparagraphs indicated?

Explanation

In a classified document, the classification level of subparagraphs is indicated by placing the classification symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number. This means that each subparagraph will have its own classification symbol to indicate its level of classification.

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82. (011) Containers used to store classified informatoin are identified by

Explanation

Containers used to store classified information are identified by affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicuous location on the outside. This allows for easy identification and tracking of the container, ensuring that it is properly handled and stored. Marking the highest classification of the material on the outside or inside the drawer may not be sufficient for identification purposes, as it does not provide a unique identifier for the container.

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83. (011) When a built-in combination lock is taken out of service, what should you reset the combonation to?

Explanation

When a built-in combination lock is taken out of service, the combination should be reset to 50-25-50. This is because resetting the combination to a new set of numbers ensures that the lock is secure and cannot be easily opened by someone who knows the previous combination. By choosing a new combination, the lock owner can maintain the security of their belongings or the area that the lock is protecting.

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84. (019) What force portection condition (FPCON) is issued as a localized warning and appiles in th eimmediate area where a terrorits attack occurred?

Explanation

Delta is the correct answer because it is the force protection condition (FPCON) that is issued as a localized warning and applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred. FPCON Delta indicates a high risk of terrorist activity and requires the implementation of extensive security measures to protect personnel and facilities.

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85. (026) What Air Mobility Command's (AMC) force-level automated system that supports the Tanker Airlift Control Center's (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Decision Support System (GDSS). GDSS is an automated system used by Air Mobility Command (AMC) to support the Tanker Airlift Control Center's (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management. It provides real-time situational awareness, planning, and decision support capabilities to manage and control airlift operations. GDSS enables the coordination and synchronization of aircraft, crews, and cargo to ensure efficient and effective airlift missions.

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86.  (203)  Joint forces are established on a

Explanation

Joint forces are established on a geographic or functional basis. This means that joint forces can be organized and deployed either based on geographical location or based on their specific functions or capabilities. The decision on how to establish joint forces depends on various factors such as the nature of the mission, the available resources, and the desired level of coordination and integration between different military branches or units. By establishing joint forces on a geographic or functional basis, military planners can ensure effective and efficient utilization of resources and enhance interoperability among different components of the joint force.

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87. (221) The referance line on an aeronatical chart normally identified with Zulu (unverisal coordinated) time is the

Explanation

The reference line on an aeronautical chart that is normally identified with Zulu (universal coordinated) time is the prime meridian. The prime meridian is the line of longitude that passes through Greenwich, London, and is used as the starting point for measuring longitude. Zulu time, also known as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), is a standard time reference used in aviation to ensure consistency and coordination across different time zones. Therefore, the prime meridian is the correct answer as it is the reference line associated with Zulu time on aeronautical charts.

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88. (224) Reports within the Ait force Operational Reporting system that contain information on a combat loss are classifird a minimum of

Explanation

The reports within the Air Force Operational Reporting system that contain information on a combat loss are classified as a minimum of "Secret." This classification indicates that the information is sensitive and should only be accessed by individuals with the appropriate clearance level. It is important to maintain the confidentiality of such reports to protect national security and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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89. (015) Who assigns accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications security (COMSEC) material

Explanation

The originating agency is responsible for assigning accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications security (COMSEC) material. This means that the agency that creates or generates the COMSEC material is the one that determines the specific ALC that will be assigned to it.

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90. (016) What are the primary factors considered when devloping an emerganvy action (EA) plan to protect communications security (COMSEC) material?

Explanation

When developing an Emergency Action (EA) plan to protect Communications Security (COMSEC) material, the primary factors considered are the facility and location. This means that the plan takes into account the specific facility where the COMSEC material is stored and the location of that facility. These factors are crucial in ensuring that the plan addresses the unique security requirements and vulnerabilities associated with the facility and its geographical location. By considering the facility and location, the EA plan can effectively mitigate risks and protect the COMSEC material in case of an emergency situation.

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91. (220) Tactical call signs have a suffix with a number in the series

Explanation

Tactical call signs typically have a suffix with a number in the range of 01 to 99. This range allows for a sufficient number of call signs to be assigned without becoming overly complex or difficult to manage. By limiting the range to two digits, it ensures that call signs can be easily communicated and understood in various tactical situations. Additionally, using a two-digit suffix allows for quick identification and differentiation between different units or teams.

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92. (002) Who determins the criteria used to certifiy or decertify controllers?

Explanation

Major command (MAJCOM) determines the criteria used to certify or decertify controllers. MAJCOM is responsible for setting the standards and guidelines for controller certification and decertification. They have the authority to establish the criteria based on their operational needs, safety requirements, and regulatory guidelines. This ensures that controllers meet the necessary qualifications and skills to perform their duties effectively and safely.

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93. (226) What at a minimum must be the security classified level of SORTS information for multiple units?

Explanation

The minimum security classified level of SORTS information for multiple units must be Secret. This means that the information must be protected and only accessible to individuals with the appropriate security clearance. Secret classification is higher than Confidential and Unclassified, but lower than Top Secret, indicating that the information is sensitive and requires a higher level of security measures to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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94. (212)  Which base support agency/group provides the key function that includes analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander concerning potential FPCON changes?

Explanation

The Threat Working Group provides the key function of analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander regarding potential changes to the Force Protection Condition (FPCON). This group is responsible for assessing the level of threat and determining if any adjustments need to be made to ensure the safety and security of the command. They gather and analyze intelligence information, monitor current threats, and provide timely and accurate recommendations to the commander.

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95. (227) What is a major US goal for the United States messge text format system standards?

Explanation

The major US goal for the United States message text format system standards is the allied adoption of USMTF standards. This means that the US aims for other countries to also adopt and use the USMTF standards for their message text format systems. This would promote interoperability and standardization in communication between different countries and organizations.

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96. (008) Official information that does not require the application of seruity safeguards, but the disclosure of which may be subject to control for other reasons, is the defenition of

Explanation

Controlled unclassified information refers to official information that does not require security safeguards but may still be subject to control for other reasons. This means that even though the information does not need to be protected with security measures, its disclosure may still be restricted or controlled for various purposes.

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97. (014) When transferring classified material outside an Air Force installation, what must be identifief on the innder wrapper?

Explanation

When transferring classified material outside an Air Force installation, the classification of the material must be identified on the inner wrapper. This is important to ensure that the material is handled and protected according to its level of sensitivity. By clearly marking the classification on the inner wrapper, it helps prevent unauthorized access or mishandling of the material during transportation.

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98. (015) The accounting legend code (ALC) number listed on accounting reports identifies the

Explanation

The accounting legend code (ALC) number listed on accounting reports identifies the minimum accounting controls required for the material. This means that the ALC number indicates the specific controls and procedures that need to be followed when handling and managing the material in question. It helps ensure that proper accounting practices are followed and that the material is accounted for accurately.

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99. (019) Which opertional report OPREP) is up-channeled when the installation commander implements a change to the local terrorits force protection condition (FPCON) level?

Explanation

When the installation commander implements a change to the local terrorist force protection condition (FPCON) level, the operational report that is up-channeled is BEELINE.

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100. (025) What command and control (C2) system mission is to aid unit commanders and their staff in planning, execution, and reporting phases of their assigined peace and wartime missions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Theaterbattle management core systes unit level (TBMCS-UL). This command and control (C2) system mission is to aid unit commanders and their staff in planning, execution, and reporting phases of their assigned peace and wartime missions.

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101. (027) The defense Switched Network (DSN) system is basically a

Explanation

The Defense Switched Network (DSN) system is a long-distance telephone system. This means that it is designed to provide communication over long distances, allowing military personnel to make phone calls to other locations that may be far away. The DSN system is specifically used by the defense sector and is built to ensure secure and reliable communication for military purposes. It is not a secure paging system, wide-band communications system, or secure-voice communications system, as these serve different purposes and functionalities.

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102. (028) Which secure radoi system is used mostly in theater operations?

Explanation

VINSON is the correct answer because it is a secure radio system that is commonly used in theater operations. The KL-43 is a secure voice encryption device used for secure communications, but it is not specifically designed for theater operations. The Defense Switched Network (DSN) is a global voice and data network used by the Department of Defense, but it is not a secure radio system. The Secure Telephone Unit Version III (STU-III) is a secure telephone system, but it is not a radio system and may not be suitable for theater operations.

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103. (030) What proword should be used before transmitting numerals or numbers?

Explanation

The proword "FIGURES" should be used before transmitting numerals or numbers. This is because in radio communication, it is important to distinguish between spoken numbers and other types of information. By using the proword "FIGURES," the sender indicates that they are about to transmit numerical information. This helps the receiver to understand and interpret the message correctly.

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104. (032) Which statio may issue the first challenge a nd reply authentication?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only the called station." This means that the station receiving the call is the one that has the authority to issue the first challenge and reply authentication. The other options, such as "Usually the called station" or "The station making the call," suggest that it could be either the called station or the calling station, but the correct answer specifies that it is only the called station that can issue the challenge and reply authentication.

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105. (206)     What is the primary instrument for transferring forces and establishing support relationships between commanders?

Explanation

A deployment order is the primary instrument for transferring forces and establishing support relationships between commanders. It is a formal directive that outlines the specific details and instructions for the movement and positioning of military personnel and equipment. This order ensures that commanders have the necessary resources and support in place to carry out their missions effectively. It helps coordinate and synchronize the efforts of different units and enables commanders to establish support relationships with other units or organizations involved in the operation.

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106. (219) The International Civil Avation Organization ia a part of the

Explanation

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations. It was established to promote the safe and orderly development of international civil aviation. The ICAO sets international standards and regulations for aviation safety, security, efficiency, and environmental protection. It also provides technical assistance and training to member states to help them implement these standards. As a part of the United Nations, the ICAO works towards achieving global cooperation and coordination in the field of civil aviation.

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107. (029) You should speak clearly and sidtinctly, but not too loudly, when using

Explanation

When using high frequency (HF) radios, it is important to speak clearly and distinctly, but not too loudly. HF radios operate on a frequency range that allows for long-range communication, but they are also susceptible to atmospheric interference and noise. Speaking clearly and distinctly ensures that your message is understood by the receiver, while not speaking too loudly helps to minimize background noise and interference.

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108. (029) When using a radio, approximately how many words per minute should you speak?

Explanation

When using a radio, it is recommended to speak at a rate of approximately 100 words per minute. This pace allows for clear and concise communication, ensuring that the message is easily understood by the recipient. Speaking too fast can lead to misunderstandings and confusion, while speaking too slow may cause delays in relaying important information. Therefore, maintaining a speed of 100 words per minute strikes a balance between efficiency and clarity in radio communication.

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109. (030) One of the prime prerequisites for good voice communications is using

Explanation

Good voice communications require the use of standard phraseology. This means using specific words and phrases that have been established and standardized for clear and effective communication. By using standard phraseology, individuals can ensure that their messages are understood accurately and efficiently. This is particularly important in situations where there may be language barriers or high levels of background noise. Using standard phraseology helps to eliminate confusion and misinterpretation, making it an essential prerequisite for good voice communications.

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110. (206)     President Carter’s 1979 executive order merged many of the separate disaster related responsibilities into the

Explanation

President Carter’s 1979 executive order merged many of the separate disaster related responsibilities into the Federal Emergency Management Agency. This means that the responsibilities and functions related to managing and responding to disasters were consolidated and placed under the authority of the Federal Emergency Management Agency. This decision was likely made in order to streamline and improve the coordination and effectiveness of disaster management efforts at the federal level.

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111. (210)  What Act authorizes the President to issue a major disaster declaration to speed a wide range of federal aid to states determined to be overwhelmed by hurricanes or other catastrophes?

Explanation

The Stafford Act authorizes the President to issue a major disaster declaration to provide federal aid to states that are overwhelmed by hurricanes or other catastrophes. This act allows for the quick and efficient allocation of resources and assistance to affected areas in order to support recovery efforts.

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112. (221) How many miles does each degree of latitude represent?

Explanation

Each degree of latitude represents approximately 60 nautical miles. Latitude lines are imaginary horizontal lines that run parallel to the equator, and they are used to measure distance north or south of the equator. The Earth's circumference is divided into 360 degrees of latitude, so if we divide the total distance around the Earth (approximately 21,600 nautical miles) by 360, we get approximately 60 nautical miles per degree of latitude.

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113. (225) Which report is used to report an accident involving weapons that does not rosk the outbreak of nuclear war?

Explanation

The correct answer is PINNACLE Broken Arrow. A Broken Arrow report is used to report an accident involving nuclear weapons that does not pose the risk of a nuclear war. It is a term used by the United States military to describe an accident involving nuclear weapons, components, or systems, but without the risk of nuclear detonation. The report is used to document and investigate such incidents to prevent future accidents and ensure the safety and security of nuclear weapons.

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114. (216) What intensity of turbulence can cause an sircraft to be momentarily out of control?

Explanation

Severe turbulence can cause an aircraft to be momentarily out of control. This type of turbulence is characterized by violent and unpredictable air movements, which can result in sudden changes in altitude, pitch, and roll. It can also cause structural damage to the aircraft if not handled properly. Moderate, medium, and light turbulence may cause discomfort and slight disruptions in flight, but they are unlikely to result in the aircraft being momentarily out of control.

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115. (202)  Which type of command is made up of forces from more than one nation?

Explanation

A combined command is made up of forces from more than one nation. This type of command involves the coordination and integration of military forces from different countries to achieve a common objective. It allows for the pooling of resources, expertise, and capabilities, enhancing the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the operation. Combined commands are often established in multinational military operations or alliances, such as NATO, where member nations contribute their forces to work together in a unified manner.

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116. Bulence that causses a washboard-like bumpiness that sometimes buffets an aircraft we know as

Explanation

Clear-air turbulence refers to the bumpy and unpredictable air movements that occur in the absence of any visible clouds or weather disturbances. It can be caused by variations in wind speed and direction at different altitudes, resulting in a turbulent flow of air. This type of turbulence is particularly dangerous because it is difficult to detect and can occur unexpectedly, posing a risk to aircraft and passengers.

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117. (226) Status of resources and training system data is used by the Chief of Staff, United States Air Force and subordinate commands in assenssing their

Explanation

The status of resources and training system data is used by the Chief of Staff, United States Air Force and subordinate commands to assess their effectiveness in meeting their responsibilities to organize, train, and equip forces. This means that they use this information to evaluate how well they are fulfilling their duties in terms of organizing, training, and equipping their forces.

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118. (010) Accountability for what category of classified material is based upon the limited use of receipts in transmitting the documents between geographically seperated units

Explanation

The correct answer is Secret. Accountability for Secret classified material is based upon the limited use of receipts in transmitting the documents between geographically separated units. This means that when Secret documents are transferred between units, receipts are used to track and confirm their delivery, ensuring that they are accounted for and properly handled. This level of accountability is not required for lower levels of classified material such as For Official Use Only (FOUO) or Confidential.

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119. (015) What are the accounting legend codes (ALC) used to contol communicatoins security (COMSEC)?

Explanation

The accounting legend codes (ALC) used to control communications security (COMSEC) are codes 1, 2, and 4.

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120. (016) The requirements that no lone individual is allowed access to Top Secret keying material is known as

Explanation

The requirement that no lone individual is allowed access to Top Secret keying material is known as "two-person integrity." This means that at least two authorized individuals must be present and actively involved in the handling and control of the keying material at all times. This measure helps prevent any single person from having unauthorized access or the ability to compromise the security of the material.

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121. (020) the Two-person concept must be enforced in

Explanation

The Two-person concept refers to a security measure where two individuals must be present and actively engaged in a task to prevent unauthorized access or tampering. Enforcing the Two-person concept in "no-loan zones" ensures that these areas, where sensitive or classified information or materials are stored, are adequately protected. This means that no individual can access or handle these items alone, reducing the risk of theft, espionage, or accidental disclosure. Enforcing the Two-person concept in "no-loan zones" helps maintain the integrity and security of the information or materials within those areas.

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122. (225) Which report do we use to notify the Air Force Watch Center of significant activies involving special access programs?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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123. (009) Where is the overall classification of a document conspicuosly indicated? 

Explanation

The overall classification of a document is conspicuously indicated on the top and bottom of the outside of the front and back cover (if any), on the title page (if any), and on the first page. This ensures that the classification is clearly visible and easily identifiable to anyone who handles the document.

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124. (012) What form is used to document destrution of classified waste?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None, destruction of classified waste does not require documentation." This means that there is no specific form used to document the destruction of classified waste. The destruction of classified waste does not require any formal documentation process.

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125. (210)  Which plan or system has the Air Force’s department-specific implementation of National Incident Management System?

Explanation

The Air Force Incident Management System is the correct answer because it specifically mentions the Air Force's department-specific implementation of the National Incident Management System. This suggests that the Air Force has its own system in place to manage incidents, which aligns with the question's context. The other options do not mention the Air Force or its specific implementation of the National Incident Management System.

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126. (223) Message orignators assign the lowest preccendence consistent with the

Explanation

The correct answer is "relative urgency of the message." When message originators assign precedence to a message, they consider the urgency or importance of the message relative to other messages. This means that they prioritize the message based on how urgently it needs to be delivered or acted upon. The other options, such as overall security classification and the level of command receiving the message, are not directly related to determining the precedence of the message.

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127. (223) Which grade of service is used by the denfese message system for command and control messges?

Explanation

The defense message system for command and control messages uses a high grade of service. This implies that the system prioritizes the delivery of these messages and ensures that they are transmitted promptly and reliably. The high grade of service is likely necessary for command and control messages to maintain effective communication and coordination in critical defense operations.

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128. (227) What is a formatted United States message text format system message text composed of?

Explanation

A formatted United States message text format system message text is composed of a predetermined sequence of sets. This means that the message text follows a specific order and arrangement of sets, which are predefined and structured. This ensures consistency and organization in the message format, allowing for easier interpretation and understanding.

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129. (024) Modular syatem designs ans microelectronics give a command, control, communications, ans computer (C4) system more?

Explanation

Modular system designs and microelectronics provide a command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system with more flexibility. This means that the system can be easily adapted or modified to meet changing requirements or conditions. It allows for the integration of different modules or components, making it easier to upgrade or replace specific parts without affecting the entire system. This flexibility enhances the system's overall functionality and performance, ultimately improving its ability to meet the needs of users in various operational environments.

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130. (220) Which system's mission is to provide continuous, rapid, two-way cmmunications between all Department od Defense ground agencies and aircraft?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global high frequency. The mission of the Global high frequency system is to provide continuous, rapid, two-way communications between all Department of Defense ground agencies and aircraft. This system uses high frequency radio waves to transmit and receive signals over long distances, making it suitable for global communication. It is an important tool for maintaining communication and coordination between different military units and ensuring effective command and control.

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131. (222) reporting conducted after completion of the flying day we call

Explanation

Terminal reporting refers to the reporting that is conducted after the completion of the flying day. It is a process where the flight status, operational details, and aircraft/aircrew effectiveness are reported. This type of reporting provides a comprehensive overview of the day's operations and helps in analyzing and evaluating the performance of the aircraft and aircrew.

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132. (002) What type of training results in controller certificcatoin?

Explanation

Refresher training is the type of training that results in controller certification. Refresher training is designed to update and reinforce the knowledge and skills of controllers who are already certified. It helps controllers stay current with changes in regulations, procedures, and technology. By participating in refresher training, controllers can maintain their certification and ensure they are equipped to perform their duties effectively and safely.

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133. (019) What force protectoin condition (FPCON) is decleard when there is a general warning of possible terrorist activity?

Explanation

When there is a general warning of possible terrorist activity, the force protection condition (FPCON) that is declared is Alpha. This means that there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel and facilities, and security measures should be implemented to ensure the safety and security of individuals and assets.

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134. (210)  Within the National Incident Management System, which of the key organizational systems defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management?

Explanation

The Incident Command System (ICS) is a key organizational system within the National Incident Management System (NIMS) that defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management. It provides a standardized approach for managing incidents, establishing clear roles and responsibilities, and ensuring effective coordination among response agencies. The ICS helps to establish a clear chain of command, facilitates communication and information management, and ensures a coordinated response to incidents of all sizes and types.

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135. (003) Controllers must maintain an appropriate 1C3X1 skill level bised on their?

Explanation

Controllers must maintain an appropriate 1C3X1 skill level based on their grade. This means that their level of expertise and knowledge should align with their rank or level within the organization. The higher their grade, the more advanced their skills should be in order to effectively perform their duties.

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136. (206)     The association of a defense readiness condition number or emergency condition with the appropriate exercise term is

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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137. (223) What code identifies a mssage with an IMMEDIATe preccedence?

Explanation

The code "O" identifies a message with an immediate precedence.

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138. (206)      Which alerting system has the capability of transmitting secure record messages from the National Military Command Center to each unified command’s command center?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense improved emergency message automated transmission system replacement command and control terminal. This system has the capability to transmit secure record messages from the National Military Command Center to each unified command's command center.

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139. (019) For which situatoin does the security reporting and alerting system provide a defense?

Explanation

The security reporting and alerting system provides a defense for situations involving widespread coordinated threats. This means that the system is designed to detect and report on multiple threats that are organized and coordinated across a large area or population. In such situations, the system can help to identify and respond to the threats in a timely manner, enhancing the overall security and defense measures. It is important to have a system like this in place to effectively address and mitigate the risks posed by widespread coordinated threats.

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140. (023) Which item is a specific objective os command, control, communications and computer (C4) systems?

Explanation

The item "Properly positing critical information" is a specific objective of command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems. This objective refers to the accurate and efficient placement of important information within the C4 systems, ensuring that it is easily accessible and available to the relevant personnel. By properly positing critical information, C4 systems can enhance communication, decision-making, and overall operational effectiveness.

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141. (219) What agency controls the intial and terminal phases of flight?

Explanation

The control tower is responsible for controlling the initial and terminal phases of flight. It is the central hub where air traffic controllers monitor and manage the movement of aircraft on the ground and in the immediate vicinity of the airport. They coordinate takeoffs, landings, and ensure the safe and efficient flow of air traffic. The control tower plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall safety and smooth operation of flights within the airport's airspace.

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142. (023) What command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system component is used to connect terminal decices?

Explanation

Transmission media is the correct answer because it is the component of command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems that is used to connect terminal devices. Transmission media refers to the physical means through which data is transmitted, such as cables, wires, or wireless signals. It allows for the transfer of data between different devices, enabling communication and connectivity within a C4 system.

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143. (201)  What are the three major elements of a command and control system:

Explanation

The three major elements of a command and control system are the commander, forces, and communications support system. The commander is responsible for making decisions and giving orders, while the forces are the personnel and resources that carry out those orders. The communications support system ensures that information and instructions can be effectively transmitted and received between the commander and the forces.

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144. (017) Which protection level (PL) is assigned to a resource that if compromised would damage the war-fighting capability of the United States

Explanation

Protection Level 3 (PL-3) is assigned to a resource that, if compromised, would damage the war-fighting capability of the United States. This indicates that the resource is of high importance and requires strong security measures to safeguard it. PL-3 ensures that the resource is protected against potential threats and unauthorized access, minimizing the risk of damage to the war-fighting capability of the country.

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145. (223) Strict standardization is required throughout the denfese message system because

Explanation

The correct answer is that the system is automated and used by a wide variety of activities. This explanation is supported by the fact that strict standardization is necessary in order to ensure that all users of the system can effectively communicate with each other. With a wide variety of activities using the system, it is important to have consistent standards in place to avoid confusion and miscommunication.

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146. (214) What base agency provides aircraft clearance and dospatch

Explanation

Airfield management operations provide aircraft clearance and dispatch services. They are responsible for coordinating and managing all activities related to the airfield, including the movement and scheduling of aircraft. This includes ensuring that all necessary clearances are obtained before aircraft can take off or land. The airfield management operations team works closely with air traffic control and other agencies to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the airfield.

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147. (202)  The administrative chain of command runs from the president, through the

Explanation

The correct answer is Secretary of Defense, to the secretaries of the military departments, to the service components. This answer accurately describes the administrative chain of command in the military. The Secretary of Defense is at the top of the chain and oversees the military departments. The secretaries of the military departments then oversee the service components, which are the different branches of the military (Army, Navy, Air Force, etc.). This hierarchical structure ensures effective communication and coordination within the military organization.

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148. (017) Which protection level (PL) is assigned to a resource that if destroyed would caude signifacant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States

Explanation

Protection Level 2 (PL-2) is assigned to a resource that, if destroyed, would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States. This means that the resource is of critical importance and its destruction would have severe consequences for the country's ability to defend itself and carry out military operations effectively. PL-2 indicates a high level of protection and security measures that need to be in place to safeguard this resource.

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149. (002) Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?

Explanation

The director of operations certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational activities within the command, including the certification process for controllers. They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that controllers meet the necessary requirements and standards for their positions. The director of operations plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and efficiency of air traffic control operations at the MAJCOM level.

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150. (012) How long are destruction certificates for Top Secret material maintained?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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151. (206)     Which department is responsible for minimizing the damage and assist in the recovery from terrorist attacks, natural disasters, and other emergencies?

Explanation

The Department of Homeland Security is responsible for minimizing the damage and assisting in the recovery from terrorist attacks, natural disasters, and other emergencies. This department was created after the 9/11 attacks to coordinate and oversee national security efforts, including emergency response and disaster management. It works closely with other federal, state, local, tribal, and territorial agencies to ensure a unified and effective response to emergencies.

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152. (022) Which computer security (COMPUSEC) objective ensures informatoin is not made available to unauthorized individuals?

Explanation

Confidentiality is the computer security objective that ensures information is not made available to unauthorized individuals. This means that sensitive data is protected and only accessible to those who have the proper authorization. By maintaining confidentiality, organizations can prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, and protect the privacy of individuals.

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153. (223) What is the primary Department of Defense lang-haul command and control sommunications system?

Explanation

The Defense Message System is the primary Department of Defense long-haul command and control communications system. It is a secure messaging system that allows for the transmission of classified and sensitive information between military personnel and organizations. The system provides secure and reliable communication capabilities, ensuring that critical messages are delivered in a timely manner.

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154. (220) What distingushed vistor code is assigned to a major general when that individual is flying on a military aircraft?

Explanation

Code 5 is assigned to a major general when they are flying on a military aircraft. This code distinguishes them as a high-ranking officer and grants them certain privileges and access. The other options, Code 2, Code 3, and Code 4, are not specifically assigned to major generals and do not carry the same level of distinction.

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155. Which type of turbulence is caused by obstrutions suvh as buildings, trees, or rough terrain?

Explanation

Mechanical turbulence is caused by obstructions such as buildings, trees, or rough terrain. These obstructions disrupt the smooth flow of air, causing turbulence in the surrounding area. This type of turbulence is commonly experienced near the ground and can be hazardous for aircraft during takeoff or landing.

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156. (211)  The coordination of international activities related to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents and events that pose transborder threats belongs to the

Explanation

The Department of State is responsible for the coordination of international activities related to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents and events that pose transborder threats. As the primary agency for conducting foreign relations, the Department of State is best suited to handle international coordination efforts in order to address these types of incidents and events. The Department of State works closely with other agencies and foreign governments to ensure effective communication, cooperation, and response in order to mitigate the transborder threats posed by such incidents and events.

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157. (202)  The operational chain of command runs from the president, through the

Explanation

The correct answer is Secretary of Defense, to the commanders of the combatant commands. This is because the Secretary of Defense is the civilian head of the Department of Defense and has authority over the military. The commanders of the combatant commands are responsible for the operational readiness and execution of military operations in their respective areas of responsibility. Therefore, the chain of command flows from the Secretary of Defense to these commanders.

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158. (022) What inforamtion operation condition (INFOCON) would be declared when there is an increased ,ilitary vigilance?

Explanation

When there is an increased military vigilance, INFOCON 4 would be declared. This indicates a heightened risk of attack or threat to information systems and networks. It signifies that there is an increased likelihood of hostile activity and that appropriate defensive measures need to be taken to protect sensitive information and maintain operational readiness.

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159. (205)  The 20-month Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle is broken down into how many periods?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because the 20-month Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle is divided into two periods. This suggests that there are two distinct phases or stages within the AEF life cycle.

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160. (022) What information operations condition (INFOCON) would be decleared if greater readiness procedures are implemented?

Explanation

If greater readiness procedures are implemented, the information operations condition (INFOCON) would be declared as INFOCON 3. This means that there is an increase in the risk of an information attack and the need for enhanced security measures. INFOCON 3 indicates a higher state of readiness, where there is a potential threat to information systems and networks, and additional precautions are taken to protect against potential attacks.

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161. (204)  Which commands use ground based radar, airborne radar, satellites, fighter aircraft, proven command structures and intelligence capabilities to enforce control?

Explanation

The US Combined Forces Command/Republic of Korea utilizes ground based radar, airborne radar, satellites, fighter aircraft, proven command structures, and intelligence capabilities to enforce control. This suggests that they have a comprehensive and integrated system in place to monitor and respond to potential threats in their area of operation.

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162. (206)      The voice communications system used to transmit time-critical information from the Joint Chiefs of Staff to each unified command’s command center is

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense improved emergency message automated transmission system replacement command and control terminal. This system is used to transmit time-critical information from the Joint Chiefs of Staff to each unified command's command center. It is a crucial component of communication and coordination between the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the unified commands.

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163. (205)  Which major command researches, develops, tests, acquires and supports every Air Force weapons systems?   

Explanation

Air Mobility Command is responsible for researching, developing, testing, acquiring, and supporting every Air Force weapons system. This command focuses on the mobility and transportation capabilities of the Air Force, ensuring that the necessary equipment and systems are in place to support global operations. They work closely with other major commands to provide the necessary logistics and support for the Air Force's weapons systems.

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164. (212)  What organization is the primary installation level emergency response and provide immediate response to support the local authorities?

Explanation

The correct answer is Installation disaster response force. The installation disaster response force is the primary organization at the installation level that is responsible for providing immediate emergency response and support to local authorities during disasters or emergencies. They are trained and equipped to handle various types of emergencies and work closely with local authorities to ensure a coordinated and effective response. They play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel and assets at the installation.

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165. (203)     Which unified command is responsible for early warning of and defense against missile attacks?

Explanation

Joint Forces Command is responsible for early warning of and defense against missile attacks. This command is specifically focused on the integration and coordination of different branches of the military to ensure effective joint operations. Given the nature of missile attacks, it requires a unified command like Joint Forces Command to bring together various resources and expertise to detect and respond to such threats in a timely and coordinated manner. Strategic Command, Southern Command, and Special Operations Command have different areas of responsibility and are not specifically tasked with early warning and defense against missile attacks.

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166. (212)     Which agency is the point of contact for emergency management and defense support of civil authorities?

Explanation

The Air Staff Operations Center is the agency that serves as the point of contact for emergency management and defense support of civil authorities. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing emergency response efforts and providing support to civilian authorities during times of crisis or disaster.

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167. (206)     Who is responsible for establishing unit personnel alert notification and recall systems?

Explanation

Disaster preparedness officers are responsible for establishing unit personnel alert notification and recall systems. These officers are specifically trained and equipped to handle emergency situations and ensure the safety and well-being of unit personnel. They are responsible for developing and implementing plans and procedures to effectively notify and recall personnel in the event of a disaster or emergency situation. This includes establishing communication channels, setting up alert systems, and coordinating with other relevant authorities. Unit commanders, operations officers, and command post senior controllers may have important roles in emergency response, but the primary responsibility for establishing alert notification and recall systems lies with disaster preparedness officers.

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168. (205)  Which type of wing performs a support function?

Explanation

A specialized wing performs a support function. This means that its main purpose is to provide assistance or aid to other units or organizations within an overall operation. Unlike operational wings, which are directly involved in carrying out the main objectives of the operation, specialized wings focus on providing specialized services or capabilities that support the overall mission. These services can include logistics, intelligence, medical support, or other specialized functions that are essential for the success of the operation.

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(006) What are the categories of Air Force publications?
(009) When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret,...
(001) What training actions are required when controllers have not...
(004) The folder used as a training record is called an AF Form?
(005) When a publicatoin is rewritten and new copies are distributed,...
(008) What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could...
(010) What method is used to limit disclosure of classified...
(016) what action is required when conducting an inventory of...
(030) Which proword states, "proceed with your message"
(031) The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the...
(209)  To what log entries do you gie special emphasis when...
(004) For active duty, within how many calendars days after your...
(008) What are the two groups of official information?
(008) What classified inforamtion's unathuhorized disclosure could...
(022) What is the minimum classification of a computer password theat...
(210)  What are the four phases in the emergency management...
(213)  Which phase of emergency response consists of firefighting...
(217) What type of flight assistance consists of assistance provided a...
(225) Which operational report's inital voice report is due within 5...
(005) The term used to describe a publicatiuon as it is originally...
(013) When a security incident has occurred, who must take custody of...
(014) What rule must be followed when reproducing classified...
(021) What connects computers and peripheral devices for sharing of...
(027) What facility activates the secondary crash alarm circuit?
Numbers are transmitted
 (001) What is the minimum passing score for command post (CP)...
(206)     Which phase of a major accident or...
(006) Which publications provide essential procedural guidance...
(009) How should file folders containg classified material be marked?
(011) Which form is used to record daily security checks?
(018) Which entry control technique is especially valuable where...
(206)     Which defense readiness condition...
(215) The purpose of the alternate and emergancy airfield display is...
(215) What action should controllers take when they receive weather...
(001) What type of training is conducted on a scheduled basis in a...
(003) What document helps you ensure effective training at the...
(007) How often should a slef-inspection be conducted for an active...
(017) What type of security area temporarily places nonfederal lands...
(018) Which AF form can be used as a vistior register log to control...
(019) How long must a force protection condition (FPCON) implemented...
(032) What action must you take when you receice an incorrect response...
For exercises and war operations, detailed and comprehensive weather...
(221) The 0 degree line of latitude is known as
(214) What agency monitors a crewmember's training and proficiency?
(011) What standard form is used to record the opening and closing of...
(016) Which item is not a required communications security (COMSEC)...
(020) When should individuals that work with nuclear weapons receive...
(028) What types of radios are requirmed in command psots (CP) that...
(209)  Who is responsible for ensuring that command post...
(012) How often should classified material be destroyed?
(027) What facility activates the primary crash alarm circuit?
(208)  What system is used throughout the Air Force for alert...
(216) Which vision obstruction is caused by the exahust gases of...
(215) Which item is not a controller use fo rthe daily flyin...
(218) Which reponse is the intial stage that implements a limited...
(009) When would the originator declassify classified inforamtion?
(009) What program operates to furnish official assurance that a...
(014) Preventing adversaverial exploitation of critical operational...
(020) Who is the final personnel reliability program certifying...
(022) hat is the proceddure called when a computer verifies the user...
(024) Which command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system...
(027) What sytem uses a FORTEZZA plus card to provide security?
(201)  The authority that a military commander lawfully exercises...
(207)  At what organizational level does the command post...
(008) What are the categories of classified inforamtion?
(217) The principle of flight following (kepping track of...
(001) Who must train all individuals initial training?
(009) How is the classificatoin of infromation in the subject line...
(010) How long after a Top Secret document has been destroyed,...
(032) What is the primary authentication document used by the Air...
(201)  The authority that a commander exercises over part of the...
(206)     Emergency action procedures are...
(214) What orginization is equipped to handel small or large aircraft...
(003) What character of your Air Force specialty code (AFSC)...
(030) Waht are the methods of calling used in radio communications?
(206)     Use a separate events logs for exercises...
(211)  Within the National Response Plan, the Commander of State...
(013) What best describes an incident that involves the misuse or...
(219) What agency is responsible for positioning an aircraft for...
(222) The most important middle phase of the three phases of the...
(009) In a classified document, how is the classification level of...
(011) Containers used to store classified informatoin are identified...
(011) When a built-in combination lock is taken out of service, what...
(019) What force portection condition (FPCON) is issued as a localized...
(026) What Air Mobility Command's (AMC) force-level automated system...
 (203)  Joint forces are established on a
(221) The referance line on an aeronatical chart normally identified...
(224) Reports within the Ait force Operational Reporting system that...
(015) Who assigns accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications...
(016) What are the primary factors considered when devloping an...
(220) Tactical call signs have a suffix with a number in the series
(002) Who determins the criteria used to certifiy or decertify...
(226) What at a minimum must be the security classified level of SORTS...
(212)  Which base support agency/group provides the key function...
(227) What is a major US goal for the United States messge text format...
(008) Official information that does not require the application of...
(014) When transferring classified material outside an Air Force...
(015) The accounting legend code (ALC) number listed on accounting...
(019) Which opertional report OPREP) is up-channeled when the...
(025) What command and control (C2) system mission is to aid unit...
(027) The defense Switched Network (DSN) system is basically a
(028) Which secure radoi system is used mostly in theater operations?
(030) What proword should be used before transmitting numerals or...
(032) Which statio may issue the first challenge a nd reply...
(206)     What is the primary instrument for...
(219) The International Civil Avation Organization ia a part of the
(029) You should speak clearly and sidtinctly, but not too loudly,...
(029) When using a radio, approximately how many words per minute...
(030) One of the prime prerequisites for good voice communications is...
(206)     President Carter’s 1979 executive...
(210)  What Act authorizes the President to issue a major...
(221) How many miles does each degree of latitude represent?
(225) Which report is used to report an accident involving weapons...
(216) What intensity of turbulence can cause an sircraft to be...
(202)  Which type of command is made up of forces from more than...
Bulence that causses a washboard-like bumpiness that sometimes buffets...
(226) Status of resources and training system data is used by the...
(010) Accountability for what category of classified material is based...
(015) What are the accounting legend codes (ALC) used to contol...
(016) The requirements that no lone individual is allowed access to...
(020) the Two-person concept must be enforced in
(225) Which report do we use to notify the Air Force Watch Center of...
(009) Where is the overall classification of a document...
(012) What form is used to document destrution of classified waste?
(210)  Which plan or system has the Air Force’s...
(223) Message orignators assign the lowest preccendence consistent...
(223) Which grade of service is used by the denfese message system for...
(227) What is a formatted United States message text format system...
(024) Modular syatem designs ans microelectronics give a command,...
(220) Which system's mission is to provide continuous, rapid, two-way...
(222) reporting conducted after completion of the flying day we call
(002) What type of training results in controller certificcatoin?
(019) What force protectoin condition (FPCON) is decleard when there...
(210)  Within the National Incident Management System, which of...
(003) Controllers must maintain an appropriate 1C3X1 skill level bised...
(206)     The association of a defense readiness...
(223) What code identifies a mssage with an IMMEDIATe preccedence?
(206)      Which alerting system has the...
(019) For which situatoin does the security reporting and alerting...
(023) Which item is a specific objective os command, control,...
(219) What agency controls the intial and terminal phases of flight?
(023) What command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system...
(201)  What are the three major elements of a command and control...
(017) Which protection level (PL) is assigned to a resource that if...
(223) Strict standardization is required throughout the denfese...
(214) What base agency provides aircraft clearance and dospatch
(202)  The administrative chain of command runs from the...
(017) Which protection level (PL) is assigned to a resource that if...
(002) Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?
(012) How long are destruction certificates for Top Secret material...
(206)     Which department is responsible for...
(022) Which computer security (COMPUSEC) objective ensures informatoin...
(223) What is the primary Department of Defense lang-haul command and...
(220) What distingushed vistor code is assigned to a major general...
Which type of turbulence is caused by obstrutions suvh as buildings,...
(211)  The coordination of international activities related to...
(202)  The operational chain of command runs from the president,...
(022) What inforamtion operation condition (INFOCON) would be declared...
(205)  The 20-month Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) life...
(022) What information operations condition (INFOCON) would be...
(204)  Which commands use ground based radar, airborne radar,...
(206)      The voice communications system...
(205)  Which major command researches, develops, tests, acquires...
(212)  What organization is the primary installation level...
(203)     Which unified command is responsible for...
(212)     Which agency is the point of contact for...
(206)     Who is responsible for establishing unit...
(205)  Which type of wing performs a support function?
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