Secfo Journeyman Vol. 4

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1. How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

Explanation

The correct answer is "More than two centuries." This is because the US military has been involved in defeating insurgencies for over 200 years. From the early days of the American Revolution to recent conflicts in Iraq and Afghanistan, the US military has faced various insurgencies and has been called upon to counter them. This demonstrates a long history of dealing with insurgent threats and adapting military strategies to combat them.

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About This Quiz
Secfo Journeyman Vol. 4 - Quiz

SecFo Journeyman Vol. 4 explores key security processes and procedures in military operations, focusing on integrated defense, legal reviews, risk analysis, and incident reporting.

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2. What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?

Explanation

When caught in an assault, the first course of action should be to immediately return fire and take a covered position. This response is the most logical and effective way to protect oneself and gain an advantage in the situation. By returning fire, it can deter the attacker and potentially neutralize the threat. Taking a covered position ensures that the individual is shielded from further harm and allows for better assessment of the situation and potential next steps.

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3. In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?

Explanation

In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required but the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is employed. The high crawl involves moving forward by keeping the body off the ground, supporting the weight on the hands and knees, and moving one limb at a time. This technique allows for a faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing the risk of being detected or targeted by the enemy. The high crawl is a commonly used movement technique in military and tactical situations.

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4. Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?

Explanation

The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that promotes international cooperation and addresses global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide membership of countries and plays a crucial role in maintaining peace and stability, coordinating humanitarian efforts, and facilitating dialogue among nations. The United Nations is recognized as the foremost global organization and its impact and influence on global affairs make it the most notable IGO.

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5. How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify?

Explanation

A six-digit refined grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you want to identify. The more digits in a grid coordinate, the more precise the location it represents. In this case, a six-digit coordinate provides a level of accuracy that narrows down the location to within 100 meters.

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6. To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on

Explanation

To perform a transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, it is necessary to first place the rifle on "Safe" mode. This ensures that the firearm is in a safe and non-firing position, reducing the risk of accidental discharge. By placing the rifle on "Safe," the user can then safely and securely transition to their handgun while keeping the rifle in a controlled state.

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7. What Desired Effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?

Explanation

Lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television collectively contribute to the detection of potential threats or unauthorized activities. These measures are designed to identify any suspicious behavior or security breaches that may occur. By implementing these systems, organizations can quickly identify and respond to any potential risks, ensuring the safety and security of their premises and assets.

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8. Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be safely evacuated within a day. Evacuating them within this time frame ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.

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9. Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

Explanation

Penetration attacks involve an insider threat. This type of attack occurs when someone with authorized access to an organization's systems or information intentionally misuses their privileges to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Insiders may exploit their knowledge of the system's vulnerabilities to bypass security measures, steal sensitive data, or disrupt operations. Therefore, penetration attacks are a significant concern for organizations as they involve individuals who already have access to critical resources and can cause significant damage if their actions go undetected.

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10. Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for coordinating and implementing the country's foreign policy. As part of its role, the Department of State works closely with other countries and international organizations to address and respond to terrorist threats and incidents that occur abroad. This includes sharing intelligence, providing support to affected countries, and coordinating efforts to prevent future attacks. The Department of State's primary focus on diplomacy and international relations makes it the appropriate agency to lead in addressing terrorist incidents outside the US.

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11. What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

Explanation

Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion refers to the use of force or threats to intimidate or manipulate others into complying with their demands. In situations where persuasion or encouragement fails to gain the desired cooperation, insurgents may turn to coercion as a means to achieve their objectives. This can involve various forms of violence, intimidation, or blackmail to compel locals into supporting or not obstructing their activities.

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12. What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal or medical services?

Explanation

Active Supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists through means such as financial support, intelligence gathering, legal aid, or medical services. They play a crucial role in enabling terrorist activities by providing necessary resources and support. Unlike Active operational cadre who directly participate in violent acts, Active Supporters contribute indirectly to the terrorist cause. Hardcore Leadership refers to individuals who hold influential positions within terrorist organizations and play a key role in planning and executing attacks.

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13. The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of

Explanation

The performance of the AN/PVS-14 depends on the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and capabilities are influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. In low-light conditions, the AN/PVS-14 will likely perform better compared to situations with bright or excessive light. The device is designed to enhance visibility and provide clear images in low-light scenarios, making light a crucial factor in determining its performance.

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14. The first step in risk analysis is asset

Explanation

The first step in risk analysis is criticality assessment. This involves identifying and evaluating the critical assets within an organization or system. By assessing the criticality of assets, organizations can prioritize their risk management efforts and allocate resources accordingly. Criticality assessment helps in determining the potential impact of a risk event on the organization's operations, reputation, and overall objectives. It allows organizations to focus on protecting the most important assets and mitigating risks effectively.

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15. What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?

Explanation

Threat Level I is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities.

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16. Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt?

Explanation

During a short halt, drivers are advised to remain in their vehicles. This is because it is safer for the driver to stay inside the vehicle rather than standing outside. By staying inside, the driver can quickly respond to any unexpected situations or hazards that may arise. Additionally, remaining in the vehicle provides protection from the weather and other external factors. It also helps to maintain control over the vehicle and prevents any unauthorized access or theft.

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17. What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

Explanation

A valley is a stretched out groove in the land that is usually formed by streams and rivers. It is a low-lying area between two higher points, such as hills or mountains. Valleys are often characterized by a U-shaped or V-shaped cross-section and can vary in size and depth. They play a crucial role in the hydrological cycle, as they provide a pathway for water to flow from higher elevations to lower elevations. Valleys also serve as important habitats for various plants and animals.

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18. What threat level consists of guerilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

Explanation

Threat Level II consists of guerilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units. This threat level indicates a higher level of danger as it involves more organized and skilled adversaries who employ unconventional tactics. These forces are capable of launching surprise attacks and carrying out asymmetric warfare, posing a significant threat to security and stability.

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19. What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?

Explanation

A depression is a terrain feature that refers to a low point in the ground or a sinkhole. It is characterized by a concave shape, where the land dips or sinks below the surrounding area. Depressions can be formed through various geological processes such as erosion, subsidence, or the collapse of underground caves. They can range in size from small hollows to large basins, and are often associated with the accumulation of water, creating wetlands or lakes.

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20. Which DAGR mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?

Explanation

The Standby mode in DAGR reduces power usage but does not track satellites. In this mode, the device is essentially in a low-power state where it conserves energy by not actively searching for or tracking satellites. This mode is useful when the device is not needed for immediate navigation and can be put on standby to save battery power.

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21. What does the color yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?

Explanation

The color yellow in a LACE report indicates that more than 33 percent of something is available.

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22. Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. This organization is specifically tasked with coordinating and managing the defense and security operations of a military base. As part of their duties, they establish and enforce measures to control and regulate the movement of personnel, vehicles, and equipment within the base. This includes assigning graphic control measures, such as signage, barriers, and markings, to ensure the orderly and safe flow of traffic and operations on the base.

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23. When should security forces (SF) perform checks of their individual issued items?

Explanation

Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items daily to ensure that all equipment is present, in working order, and ready for use. Daily checks help identify any missing or malfunctioning items, allowing for timely replacements or repairs. Regular inspections also promote accountability and readiness within the security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond effectively to any security threats or emergencies.

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24. What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense?

Explanation

The correct answer is ID Risk Management. Integrated defense refers to the process of combining various security measures and strategies to protect an organization's assets from potential threats. ID Risk Management involves identifying and assessing potential risks, implementing controls and mitigation strategies, monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of these measures, and continuously improving the organization's defense capabilities. This process ensures a comprehensive and coordinated approach to managing risks and safeguarding the organization's assets.

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25. Which terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

Explanation

Operational capability focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This factor assesses the group's ability to carry out attacks successfully and the resources available to them. It takes into consideration their access to weapons, training, funding, and technological expertise. By evaluating the operational capability, security agencies can better understand the potential threat posed by a terrorist group and devise appropriate countermeasures.

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26. To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

Explanation

To avoid any negative impact on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the ambassador. The ambassador represents the highest diplomatic authority of a country and is responsible for handling diplomatic relations and negotiations with other nations. By involving the ambassador, commanders can ensure that sovereignty issues are properly addressed and resolved in a diplomatic and official manner, maintaining good relations between countries and minimizing any potential disruption to operations.

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27. What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

Explanation

The threat level assessment of "Significant" indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This suggests that there is a high risk of such attacks occurring, posing a significant threat to the safety and security of the United States.

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28. What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

Explanation

Operational capability refers to the level of skill, resources, and expertise possessed by a terrorist group to carry out attacks. This factor focuses on the attack methods used by the group and their ability to enhance effectiveness through measures such as state sponsorship and the ingenious use of technology. It assesses the group's capacity to plan, coordinate, and execute attacks successfully, taking into account their access to weapons, training, funding, and support networks. By considering the operational capability of a terrorist group, analysts can gauge the potential impact and scale of their attacks.

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29. An azimuth is defined as a

Explanation

An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line. It is used to determine the direction of an object or point in relation to a reference point. By measuring the angle from the north base line in a clockwise direction, one can accurately determine the azimuth and navigate in a specific direction.

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30. When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS?

Explanation

The principle of "Release" is not one of the principles of STRESS when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points. The other principles, which are included in STRESS, may involve searching the individuals, tagging them for identification purposes, and safeguarding their well-being and security. However, the process of releasing them is not mentioned as a principle in this context.

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31. How many random antiterrorism measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?

Explanation

At least three random antiterrorism measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily to ensure adequate security and protection against potential terrorist threats. This means that a minimum of three measures should be implemented each day to enhance safety and minimize the risk of terrorist activities.

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32. What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

Explanation

The desired effect achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring they are trained and qualified on arming and use of force, is to defend. This type of planning allows for a coordinated and unified defense against potential threats by utilizing all available resources and ensuring that friendly forces are prepared to effectively respond and protect themselves.

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33. The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon component is an example of a nuclear weapon

Explanation

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon component can be classified as an accident because it implies an unintentional and unexpected event. It suggests that the action of discarding the weapon was not planned or intended, but rather occurred due to an unforeseen circumstance or malfunction. This categorization as an accident indicates that it was not a deliberate act or part of any planned operation, but rather an unintended occurrence with potentially severe consequences.

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34. Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a

Explanation

A nongovernmental organization (NGO) is defined as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that NGOs are independent entities that are not controlled by the government and operate on their own. They are also not driven by profit motives but rather focus on providing services or addressing social issues for the betterment of society.

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35. Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

Explanation

Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicator for the enemy to avoid because it makes the target stand out and be easily distinguishable from its surroundings. When there is a high contrast between the target and the background, it becomes harder for the enemy to blend in or camouflage themselves effectively. This makes it easier for the enemy to spot and engage the target, increasing the chances of detection and potential harm to the enemy.

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36. What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?

Explanation

An index contour line shows an increase in elevation when going from a lower to upper contour line. This means that the land is getting higher as you move from one contour line to the next. The index contour line is usually labeled with the elevation value, indicating the change in height between the contour lines.

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37. Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

Explanation

The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. They are legally trained and provide legal advice to the Installation Commander. They ensure that all procedures and protocols are in compliance with the law and meet the necessary legal requirements.

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38. Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This means that these individuals are at a higher level of risk and need to be evacuated more urgently than those in lower priority categories. Evacuating them within 4 hours ensures their safety and reduces the potential for harm or further danger.

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39. How many days are the majority of security forces unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of security forces unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days.

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40. Selection of team movement techniques is based on

Explanation

The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader needs to assess the probability of encountering the enemy and determine the urgency or requirement for quick movement. By considering these factors, the team can choose the appropriate movement technique that allows them to maintain control, minimize the risk of enemy engagement, and achieve their patrol objectives efficiently.

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41. What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?

Explanation

The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This means that when the ground appears to slope upward, objects may appear farther away than they actually are. This can be misleading for the observer, as it may cause them to underestimate the actual distance to the objects in question.

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42. Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?

Explanation

Crew-served weapons operators primarily use alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as heavy machine guns or mortars, require a team of operators to effectively operate them. These weapons are usually heavy and require stability and precision to aim and fire accurately. Alternate fighting positions allow the crew-served weapons operators to take cover and engage the enemy from different locations, providing them with better tactical advantage and reducing the risk of being easily targeted by the enemy.

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43. What is the most common means of giving fire commands?

Explanation

Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they can be easily understood and followed by individuals in various situations. Visual signals, such as hand signals or flags, can be seen from a distance and are effective in conveying instructions to a group of people. They are particularly useful in situations where other forms of communication, such as sound or radio communications, may not be practical or reliable. Additionally, visual signals can be used in noisy or chaotic environments where verbal instructions may not be heard or understood.

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44. What terrain feature is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge?

Explanation

A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground that typically extends from the side of a ridge. It is a terrain feature that can be found in mountainous or hilly areas. Spur formations are often created by erosion or tectonic activity and can provide natural barriers or obstacles for travel. They can also offer vantage points for observation or defense.

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45. What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes?

Explanation

Offset formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes. In an offset formation, vehicles are positioned diagonally to the direction of travel, creating a barrier that prevents other vehicles from entering the lane being changed. This formation allows for better visibility and coordination among the convoy vehicles, ensuring a safe and efficient lane change.

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46. On the AN/PVS- 14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see the azimuth readings in the monocular?

Explanation

The correct answer is compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see the azimuth readings in the monocular. The compass provides the operator with the direction or bearing, allowing them to navigate and orient themselves in low-light or dark environments. This feature is crucial for military personnel or individuals who rely on night vision devices for navigation and situational awareness.

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47. How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?

Explanation

Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to meet the unique needs and objectives of the particular unit and mission at hand. Factors such as location, weather conditions, and number of personnel assigned may also be taken into consideration, but the primary focus should be on the specific unit and mission requirements to ensure that the inspections are effective and relevant.

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48. Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground?

Explanation

The method that allows you to locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground is called "Intersection". This technique involves identifying two or more known positions or landmarks and then using lines or angles to determine the location where they intersect. By finding the point of intersection, you can pinpoint the unknown location. This method is commonly used in surveying, navigation, and other applications that require determining precise positions on the ground.

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49. What type of fire control measures do security forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use a means to control their defenders?

Explanation

Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures to control their defenders. Direct fire control measures involve the use of direct fire weapons, such as rifles or handguns, to engage and eliminate threats in a precise and targeted manner. This allows the leaders to have immediate control over their defenders and respond quickly to any threats or situations that may arise. Indirect fire control measures, on the other hand, involve the use of artillery or mortars to engage targets from a distance. Sustained fire control measures involve continuous and prolonged firing, while suppressive fire control measures aim to suppress the enemy's ability to engage effectively.

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50. Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages?

Explanation

The Defense Force Commander is responsible for determining what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages. As the highest-ranking officer in the defense force, they have the authority to make decisions regarding staffing and resource allocation. They would take into account the available funding and personnel resources to determine which posts can be left unfilled during shortages.

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51. Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?

Explanation

The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. In this formation, the team members are arranged in a V shape, with the team leader at the front and the other members fanning out to the sides and rear. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and firepower in multiple directions, while also providing flexibility and maneuverability for the team. It is commonly used in offensive and defensive operations, as well as during movement in open terrain.

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52. Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key

Explanation

The given correct answer is "sovereignty issues". Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all locations that involve the movement of goods, people, or military personnel across borders or territories. These locations are subject to the jurisdiction and control of the respective countries or regions they are located in. Therefore, the issue of sovereignty arises as these countries or regions assert their authority over these ports and crossings, ensuring that their laws, regulations, and policies are followed.

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53. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is

Explanation

The more effective means of delivering accurate fire is the aiming point. This is because when marking targets, having a specific point to aim at helps to focus the shooter's attention and improve their accuracy. By aiming at a specific point, the shooter can ensure that their shots are directed towards a specific target, increasing the chances of hitting it accurately. In contrast, spacing, reference point, and range determination are important factors in target acquisition and engagement, but they do not directly contribute to the accuracy of fire delivery.

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54. If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the

Explanation

In situations where countries do not use the English alphabet, it would be impractical for the defense force commander or DOD agencies to set a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names. This is because they may not have the necessary knowledge or expertise in the local language or alphabet. Therefore, it would be more appropriate for non-DoD agencies, who are likely to have a better understanding of the local language and culture, to set the standard for spelling names in such cases.

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55. Which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely?

Explanation

When speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely, the movement technique used is traveling. This technique involves moving quickly and efficiently without taking cover or making frequent stops. It is typically employed when there is a need to cover a large distance in a short amount of time and when there is a low probability of encountering enemy forces. The other movement techniques listed, such as wedge formation, traveling overwatch, and bounding overwatch, are more suitable for situations where contact with an adversary is expected or when a higher level of security is required.

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56. Through which agency will the BDOC up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?

Explanation

The BDOC (Base Defense Operations Center) is responsible for monitoring and responding to security incidents on the site. Therefore, it is logical that the up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents would be reported to the Site security control, as they are the agency in charge of site security.

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57. The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use

Explanation

A ruler is the easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line because it provides a straight edge that can be aligned with the two points being measured. The tick marks on the ruler allow for precise measurements, and the ruler itself is typically marked with units of measurement, such as inches or centimeters, making it easy to determine the exact distance between the two points. A compass is used for drawing circles, a protractor is used for measuring angles, and neither of these tools would be as effective or accurate for measuring distance in a straight line as a ruler.

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58. When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?

Explanation

The bounding overwatch movement technique is used when enemy contact is expected. This technique involves one element of a unit providing covering fire while the other element moves forward in order to maintain constant pressure on the enemy. By using this technique, the unit can effectively engage the enemy while minimizing their own vulnerability.

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59. Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the

Explanation

In a military context, machine gunners strategically fire at groups of five or more targets in a specific sector. The correct answer states that they fire in the secondary sector from farthest to closest. This means that they prioritize shooting at targets that are farthest away and then gradually move towards targets that are closer. This approach allows them to effectively engage multiple targets and potentially suppress enemy forces by targeting those who pose the greatest threat from a distance before dealing with those in closer proximity.

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60. What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads?

Explanation

Staggered convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads because it requires vehicles to travel in a zigzag pattern, with each vehicle positioned in a staggered manner to the left or right of the vehicle in front of it. This formation allows for better visibility and maneuverability, as vehicles can easily change lanes if needed. On single lane roads, this formation would not be possible as there would not be enough space for vehicles to move in a staggered pattern. Therefore, the correct answer is Staggered.

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61. Who signals for rollout after a long halt and movement commences?

Explanation

The correct answer is Convey commander. The convey commander is responsible for signaling the start of movement after a long halt. They oversee the coordination and control of the convoy, ensuring that all vehicles move in a synchronized manner. Their role is crucial in maintaining the safety and efficiency of the convoy during the rollout process.

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62. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Attention?

Explanation

To perform the hand and arm signal for Attention, you need to extend your arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal. Your palm should be facing the front, and you should wave your arm to and from the head several times. This signal is commonly used to get someone's attention or to indicate that you are paying attention to something.

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63. What direction is always the first shadow mark when using the shadow-tip method?

Explanation

The correct answer is West because when using the shadow-tip method, the first shadow mark is always cast in the west direction. This is because the sun rises in the east and moves across the sky towards the west throughout the day. As a result, the shadow cast by an object will initially point towards the west, making it the first shadow mark when using this method.

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64. Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to

Explanation

Leaders establish en route rally points every 400 meters based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility. This distance allows for efficient navigation and communication between units while providing sufficient opportunities for rest and regrouping. Rally points serve as checkpoints where leaders can reassess the situation, ensure the safety and accountability of their troops, and make any necessary adjustments to the mission plan. By establishing rally points every 400 meters, leaders can maintain control and cohesion within their units during movement.

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65. What is the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver's (DAGR) primary function?

Explanation

The primary function of the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) is to navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information. This means that the DAGR is designed to help users determine their location and navigate through different terrains by using pre-set waypoints as reference points. It does not operate in ground facilities, air, sea, and land vehicles, perform waypoint calculations, data transfer and targeting, or determine jamming sources, gun laying, and man overboard.

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66. What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called?

Explanation

The index mark is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured. It serves as a reference point for aligning angles and determining their measurements. The index mark is usually a small notch or dot located at the center of the protractor, allowing for accurate and consistent angle measurements.

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67. Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP)?

Explanation

The installation commander is responsible for approving each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP). As the highest-ranking officer on the installation, the commander has the authority and knowledge to evaluate and approve the plan. They are familiar with the specific needs and requirements of the installation and can ensure that the plan aligns with the overall defense strategy. The commander's approval is crucial to ensure that the IDP is implemented effectively and in line with the installation's objectives and priorities.

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68. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Line Formation?

Explanation

To perform the hand and arm signal for Line Formation, you need to extend your arms parallel to the ground. This means that you should stretch both arms out straight and level with the ground. This signal indicates to others that they should form a straight line or maintain a straight formation.

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69. What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?

Explanation

Units must develop a common operating picture about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain. This means that they need to have a comprehensive understanding of these factors in order to effectively operate in the AOR. By developing a common operating picture, units can ensure that all personnel have the same knowledge and awareness, enabling them to make informed decisions and adapt their strategies accordingly. This understanding of the AOR's religious customs, local leaders, culture, and terrain is crucial for successful operations and building relationships with the local population.

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70. Contour lines are the most common method of showing

Explanation

Contour lines are used to represent relief and elevation on a standard topographic map. These lines connect points of equal elevation, allowing the reader to visualize the shape and steepness of the land. By closely spaced lines, we can identify steep slopes, while widely spaced lines indicate gentle slopes. Contour lines also help in identifying features such as ridges, valleys, and hills on a map. Therefore, the correct answer is relief and elevation on a standard topographic map.

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71. What are the two types of ambushes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Point and area." In ambush tactics, a point ambush is when the attackers focus their fire on a specific target or point, while an area ambush is when the attackers spread out and engage the enemy over a larger area. These two types of ambushes allow for different strategies and approaches depending on the situation and objectives of the attackers.

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72. What types of reconnaissance patrols involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector?

Explanation

Zone reconnaissance patrols involve a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector. This type of patrol focuses on gathering comprehensive intelligence about a specific area, allowing for a thorough understanding of the terrain, enemy positions, and potential obstacles. By conducting a zone reconnaissance, military forces can effectively plan and execute operations in the designated sector with a higher level of situational awareness and preparedness.

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73. The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) provides the user position,

Explanation

The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) provides the user with velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities. This means that it can determine the speed at which the user is moving, provide accurate time information, and assist in navigating to desired locations. The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the capabilities of the DAGR.

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74. What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

Explanation

An intergovernmental organization is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments. It is a type of agency that facilitates cooperation and coordination among member states on various issues of common interest, such as economic development, security, or environmental protection. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, World Bank, and European Union. These organizations provide a platform for member states to discuss and address global challenges collectively, promoting international cooperation and diplomacy.

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75. You can find the sheet name of the map in the

Explanation

The correct answer is "center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin". This answer suggests that the sheet name of the map can be found in the center of the top margin and also on the lower left area margin. This implies that the sheet name is displayed in two different locations on the map.

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76. Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map?

Explanation

Resection is the method that allows you to determine your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map. This technique involves taking bearings to known landmarks or features from your current location and then plotting those bearings on the map. By drawing lines back along those bearings, you can determine the intersection point, which represents your position on the map. This method is commonly used in navigation and orienteering to locate oneself accurately on a map.

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77. What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols?

Explanation

The most common types of reconnaissance patrols are area, route, and zone. Area patrols are conducted to gather information about a specific area, such as terrain features and enemy presence. Route patrols are conducted along a specific route to gather information about obstacles, enemy activity, and potential ambush sites. Zone patrols are conducted to gather information about a larger area, usually an assigned sector, and focus on observing and reporting enemy activity within that zone. These types of patrols are essential for gathering intelligence and maintaining situational awareness in a given area of operations.

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78. What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?

Explanation

The first step in navigating using terrain association is to orient your map. This involves aligning the map with the actual terrain and landmarks in order to accurately read and interpret the map. By orienting the map, you can determine the direction of travel and plan your route accordingly. This step is crucial in order to navigate effectively and avoid getting lost.

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79. To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from

Explanation

To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from left to right; bottom to top. This means that you start from the left side of the map and move towards the right, and then move from the bottom of the map towards the top. This order ensures that you accurately locate the coordinate on the map and align it with the corresponding grid lines.

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80. During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the overwatching team?

Explanation

During bounding overwatch, the bounding team should not move more than 150 meters forward of the overwatching team. This is to ensure that the bounding team stays within a reasonable distance for support and protection from the overwatching team. Moving too far ahead may leave the bounding team vulnerable to enemy attacks and reduce the effectiveness of the overwatching team in providing cover and assistance.

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