Secfo Journeyman Vol. 4

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  • 1/80 Questions

    How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

    • Less than one century
    • Less than two centuries
    • Within the last 50 years
    • More than two centuries
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About This Quiz

SecFo Journeyman Vol. 4 explores key security processes and procedures in military operations, focusing on integrated defense, legal reviews, risk analysis, and incident reporting.

Secfo Journeyman Vol. 4 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 6

    • 12

    • 18

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be safely evacuated within a day. Evacuating them within this time frame ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.

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  • 3. 

    What Desired Effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?

    • Anticipate

    • Deter

    • Detect

    • Warn

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect
    Explanation
    Lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television collectively contribute to the detection of potential threats or unauthorized activities. These measures are designed to identify any suspicious behavior or security breaches that may occur. By implementing these systems, organizations can quickly identify and respond to any potential risks, ensuring the safety and security of their premises and assets.

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  • 4. 

    Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?

    • United Nations

    • World Health Organization

    • North Atlantic Treaty Organization

    • International Refugee Organization

    Correct Answer
    A. United Nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that promotes international cooperation and addresses global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide membership of countries and plays a crucial role in maintaining peace and stability, coordinating humanitarian efforts, and facilitating dialogue among nations. The United Nations is recognized as the foremost global organization and its impact and influence on global affairs make it the most notable IGO.

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  • 5. 

    What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?

    • Throw hand grenades

    • Look for the enemy and return fire

    • Immediately return fire and assault the enemy

    • Immediately return fire and take a covered position

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately return fire and take a covered position
    Explanation
    When caught in an assault, the first course of action should be to immediately return fire and take a covered position. This response is the most logical and effective way to protect oneself and gain an advantage in the situation. By returning fire, it can deter the attacker and potentially neutralize the threat. Taking a covered position ensures that the individual is shielded from further harm and allows for better assessment of the situation and potential next steps.

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  • 6. 

    In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?

    • Roll

    • High Crawl

    • Low Crawl

    • Spider Crawl

    Correct Answer
    A. High Crawl
    Explanation
    In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required but the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is employed. The high crawl involves moving forward by keeping the body off the ground, supporting the weight on the hands and knees, and moving one limb at a time. This technique allows for a faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing the risk of being detected or targeted by the enemy. The high crawl is a commonly used movement technique in military and tactical situations.

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  • 7. 

    To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on

    • Safe

    • Fire

    • Semi

    • Burst

    Correct Answer
    A. Safe
    Explanation
    To perform a transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, it is necessary to first place the rifle on "Safe" mode. This ensures that the firearm is in a safe and non-firing position, reducing the risk of accidental discharge. By placing the rifle on "Safe," the user can then safely and securely transition to their handgun while keeping the rifle in a controlled state.

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  • 8. 

    How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify?

    • 10 meters

    • 100 meters

    • 1,000 meters

    • 10,000 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 meters
    Explanation
    A six-digit refined grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you want to identify. The more digits in a grid coordinate, the more precise the location it represents. In this case, a six-digit coordinate provides a level of accuracy that narrows down the location to within 100 meters.

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  • 9. 

    The first step in risk analysis is asset

    • Risk assessment

    • Threat assessment

    • Criticality assessment

    • Vulnerability assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Criticality assessment
    Explanation
    The first step in risk analysis is criticality assessment. This involves identifying and evaluating the critical assets within an organization or system. By assessing the criticality of assets, organizations can prioritize their risk management efforts and allocate resources accordingly. Criticality assessment helps in determining the potential impact of a risk event on the organization's operations, reputation, and overall objectives. It allows organizations to focus on protecting the most important assets and mitigating risks effectively.

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  • 10. 

    What does the color yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?

    • Less than 33 percent available

    • Less than 66 percent available

    • Greater than 33 percent available

    • Greater than 66 percent available

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater than 33 percent available
    Explanation
    The color yellow in a LACE report indicates that more than 33 percent of something is available.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • Standoff

    • Penetration

    • Chemical, biological

    • Information operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Penetration
    Explanation
    Penetration attacks involve an insider threat. This type of attack occurs when someone with authorized access to an organization's systems or information intentionally misuses their privileges to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Insiders may exploit their knowledge of the system's vulnerabilities to bypass security measures, steal sensitive data, or disrupt operations. Therefore, penetration attacks are a significant concern for organizations as they involve individuals who already have access to critical resources and can cause significant damage if their actions go undetected.

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  • 12. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • Department of State

    • Department of Justice

    • Department of Defense

    • Federal Bureau of Investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for coordinating and implementing the country's foreign policy. As part of its role, the Department of State works closely with other countries and international organizations to address and respond to terrorist threats and incidents that occur abroad. This includes sharing intelligence, providing support to affected countries, and coordinating efforts to prevent future attacks. The Department of State's primary focus on diplomacy and international relations makes it the appropriate agency to lead in addressing terrorist incidents outside the US.

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  • 13. 

    What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal or medical services?

    • Passive Supporter

    • Active Supporters

    • Hardcore Leadership

    • Active operational cadre

    Correct Answer
    A. Active Supporters
    Explanation
    Active Supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists through means such as financial support, intelligence gathering, legal aid, or medical services. They play a crucial role in enabling terrorist activities by providing necessary resources and support. Unlike Active operational cadre who directly participate in violent acts, Active Supporters contribute indirectly to the terrorist cause. Hardcore Leadership refers to individuals who hold influential positions within terrorist organizations and play a key role in planning and executing attacks.

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  • 14. 

    What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?

    • Threat Level I

    • Threat Level II

    • Threat Level III

    • Threat Level IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat Level I
    Explanation
    Threat Level I is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities.

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  • 15. 

    What threat level consists of guerilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

    • Threat Level I

    • Threat Level II

    • Threat Level III

    • Threat Level IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat Level II
    Explanation
    Threat Level II consists of guerilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units. This threat level indicates a higher level of danger as it involves more organized and skilled adversaries who employ unconventional tactics. These forces are capable of launching surprise attacks and carrying out asymmetric warfare, posing a significant threat to security and stability.

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  • 16. 

    What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

    • Bribery

    • Coercion

    • Persuasion

    • Encouragement

    Correct Answer
    A. Coercion
    Explanation
    Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion refers to the use of force or threats to intimidate or manipulate others into complying with their demands. In situations where persuasion or encouragement fails to gain the desired cooperation, insurgents may turn to coercion as a means to achieve their objectives. This can involve various forms of violence, intimidation, or blackmail to compel locals into supporting or not obstructing their activities.

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  • 17. 

    Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?

    • Flight

    • Squadron

    • Command post

    • Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. This organization is specifically tasked with coordinating and managing the defense and security operations of a military base. As part of their duties, they establish and enforce measures to control and regulate the movement of personnel, vehicles, and equipment within the base. This includes assigning graphic control measures, such as signage, barriers, and markings, to ensure the orderly and safe flow of traffic and operations on the base.

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  • 18. 

    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of

    • Air

    • Light

    • Terrain

    • Atmospheric pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Light
    Explanation
    The performance of the AN/PVS-14 depends on the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and capabilities are influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. In low-light conditions, the AN/PVS-14 will likely perform better compared to situations with bright or excessive light. The device is designed to enhance visibility and provide clear images in low-light scenarios, making light a crucial factor in determining its performance.

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  • 19. 

    When should security forces (SF) perform checks of their individual issued items?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Bi-monthly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items daily to ensure that all equipment is present, in working order, and ready for use. Daily checks help identify any missing or malfunctioning items, allowing for timely replacements or repairs. Regular inspections also promote accountability and readiness within the security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond effectively to any security threats or emergencies.

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  • 20. 

    Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt?

    • Front of vehicle

    • Remain in vehicle

    • Left side of vehicle

    • Right side of vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain in vehicle
    Explanation
    During a short halt, drivers are advised to remain in their vehicles. This is because it is safer for the driver to stay inside the vehicle rather than standing outside. By staying inside, the driver can quickly respond to any unexpected situations or hazards that may arise. Additionally, remaining in the vehicle provides protection from the weather and other external factors. It also helps to maintain control over the vehicle and prevents any unauthorized access or theft.

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  • 21. 

    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

    • Hill

    • Saddle

    • Valley

    • Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Valley
    Explanation
    A valley is a stretched out groove in the land that is usually formed by streams and rivers. It is a low-lying area between two higher points, such as hills or mountains. Valleys are often characterized by a U-shaped or V-shaped cross-section and can vary in size and depth. They play a crucial role in the hydrological cycle, as they provide a pathway for water to flow from higher elevations to lower elevations. Valleys also serve as important habitats for various plants and animals.

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  • 22. 

    What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?

    • Hill

    • Saddle

    • Valley

    • Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Depression
    Explanation
    A depression is a terrain feature that refers to a low point in the ground or a sinkhole. It is characterized by a concave shape, where the land dips or sinks below the surrounding area. Depressions can be formed through various geological processes such as erosion, subsidence, or the collapse of underground caves. They can range in size from small hollows to large basins, and are often associated with the accumulation of water, creating wetlands or lakes.

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  • 23. 

    Which DAGR mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?

    • Fix

    • Average

    • Standby

    • Continuous

    Correct Answer
    A. Standby
    Explanation
    The Standby mode in DAGR reduces power usage but does not track satellites. In this mode, the device is essentially in a low-power state where it conserves energy by not actively searching for or tracking satellites. This mode is useful when the device is not needed for immediate navigation and can be put on standby to save battery power.

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  • 24. 

    What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense?

    • ID Threat Risk

    • ID Principles of Risk

    • ID Risk Management

    • ID Principles of Critical

    Correct Answer
    A. ID Risk Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ID Risk Management. Integrated defense refers to the process of combining various security measures and strategies to protect an organization's assets from potential threats. ID Risk Management involves identifying and assessing potential risks, implementing controls and mitigation strategies, monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of these measures, and continuously improving the organization's defense capabilities. This process ensures a comprehensive and coordinated approach to managing risks and safeguarding the organization's assets.

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  • 25. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon component is an example of a nuclear weapon

    • Accident

    • Incident

    • Mistake

    • Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon component can be classified as an accident because it implies an unintentional and unexpected event. It suggests that the action of discarding the weapon was not planned or intended, but rather occurred due to an unforeseen circumstance or malfunction. This categorization as an accident indicates that it was not a deliberate act or part of any planned operation, but rather an unintended occurrence with potentially severe consequences.

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  • 26. 

    Which terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

    • Activity

    • Intentions

    • Operational capability

    • Operational environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational capability
    Explanation
    Operational capability focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This factor assesses the group's ability to carry out attacks successfully and the resources available to them. It takes into consideration their access to weapons, training, funding, and technological expertise. By evaluating the operational capability, security agencies can better understand the potential threat posed by a terrorist group and devise appropriate countermeasures.

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  • 27. 

    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

    • Significant

    • Moderate

    • High

    • Low

    Correct Answer
    A. Significant
    Explanation
    The threat level assessment of "Significant" indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This suggests that there is a high risk of such attacks occurring, posing a significant threat to the safety and security of the United States.

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  • 28. 

    What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

    • Activity

    • Intentions

    • Operational capability

    • Operational environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational capability
    Explanation
    Operational capability refers to the level of skill, resources, and expertise possessed by a terrorist group to carry out attacks. This factor focuses on the attack methods used by the group and their ability to enhance effectiveness through measures such as state sponsorship and the ingenious use of technology. It assesses the group's capacity to plan, coordinate, and execute attacks successfully, taking into account their access to weapons, training, funding, and support networks. By considering the operational capability of a terrorist group, analysts can gauge the potential impact and scale of their attacks.

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  • 29. 

    How many random antiterrorism measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?

    • At least one

    • At least two

    • At least three

    • At least four

    Correct Answer
    A. At least three
    Explanation
    At least three random antiterrorism measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily to ensure adequate security and protection against potential terrorist threats. This means that a minimum of three measures should be implemented each day to enhance safety and minimize the risk of terrorist activities.

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  • 30. 

    What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

    • Warn

    • Defeat

    • Delay

    • Defend

    Correct Answer
    A. Defend
    Explanation
    The desired effect achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring they are trained and qualified on arming and use of force, is to defend. This type of planning allows for a coordinated and unified defense against potential threats by utilizing all available resources and ensuring that friendly forces are prepared to effectively respond and protect themselves.

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  • 31. 

    To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

    • Senators

    • Governors

    • Ambassador

    • Congressman

    Correct Answer
    A. Ambassador
    Explanation
    To avoid any negative impact on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the ambassador. The ambassador represents the highest diplomatic authority of a country and is responsible for handling diplomatic relations and negotiations with other nations. By involving the ambassador, commanders can ensure that sovereignty issues are properly addressed and resolved in a diplomatic and official manner, maintaining good relations between countries and minimizing any potential disruption to operations.

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  • 32. 

    When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS?

    • Search

    • Tag

    • Release

    • Safeguard

    Correct Answer
    A. Release
    Explanation
    The principle of "Release" is not one of the principles of STRESS when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points. The other principles, which are included in STRESS, may involve searching the individuals, tagging them for identification purposes, and safeguarding their well-being and security. However, the process of releasing them is not mentioned as a principle in this context.

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  • 33. 

    An azimuth is defined as a

    • Vertical line measured up or down

    • Diagonal angle measured clockwise for the centerline

    • Horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line

    • Horizontal angle measured counter clockwise from south base line

    Correct Answer
    A. Horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line
    Explanation
    An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line. It is used to determine the direction of an object or point in relation to a reference point. By measuring the angle from the north base line in a clockwise direction, one can accurately determine the azimuth and navigate in a specific direction.

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  • 34. 

    Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

    • Staff Judge Advocate

    • Installation Commander

    • Defense Force Commander

    • Air Force Office of Investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff Judge Advocate
    Explanation
    The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. They are legally trained and provide legal advice to the Installation Commander. They ensure that all procedures and protocols are in compliance with the law and meet the necessary legal requirements.

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  • 35. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This means that these individuals are at a higher level of risk and need to be evacuated more urgently than those in lower priority categories. Evacuating them within 4 hours ensures their safety and reduces the potential for harm or further danger.

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  • 36. 

    Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a

    • Government supported, self-governing, not-for-profit organization

    • Government supported, self-governing, for profit organization

    • Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization

    • Private, self-governing, for profit organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization
    Explanation
    A nongovernmental organization (NGO) is defined as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that NGOs are independent entities that are not controlled by the government and operate on their own. They are also not driven by profit motives but rather focus on providing services or addressing social issues for the betterment of society.

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  • 37. 

    Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

    • Sound

    • Movement

    • Regularity of outline

    • Contrast with the background

    Correct Answer
    A. Contrast with the background
    Explanation
    Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicator for the enemy to avoid because it makes the target stand out and be easily distinguishable from its surroundings. When there is a high contrast between the target and the background, it becomes harder for the enemy to blend in or camouflage themselves effectively. This makes it easier for the enemy to spot and engage the target, increasing the chances of detection and potential harm to the enemy.

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  • 38. 

    What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?

    • Fading in elevation

    • Increase in elevation

    • Decrease in elevation

    • No change in elevation

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase in elevation
    Explanation
    An index contour line shows an increase in elevation when going from a lower to upper contour line. This means that the land is getting higher as you move from one contour line to the next. The index contour line is usually labeled with the elevation value, indicating the change in height between the contour lines.

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  • 39. 

    How many days are the majority of security forces unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The majority of security forces unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days.

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  • 40. 

    Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?

    • Sniper

    • Rifleman

    • Grenadier

    • Crew-served weapons operator

    Correct Answer
    A. Crew-served weapons operator
    Explanation
    Crew-served weapons operators primarily use alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as heavy machine guns or mortars, require a team of operators to effectively operate them. These weapons are usually heavy and require stability and precision to aim and fire accurately. Alternate fighting positions allow the crew-served weapons operators to take cover and engage the enemy from different locations, providing them with better tactical advantage and reducing the risk of being easily targeted by the enemy.

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  • 41. 

    What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?

    • Greater distance

    • Shorter distance

    • Equal distance

    • Real distance

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater distance
    Explanation
    The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This means that when the ground appears to slope upward, objects may appear farther away than they actually are. This can be misleading for the observer, as it may cause them to underestimate the actual distance to the objects in question.

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  • 42. 

    What is the most common means of giving fire commands?

    • Sound

    • Visual signals

    • Airman-initiated

    • Radio communications

    Correct Answer
    A. Visual signals
    Explanation
    Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they can be easily understood and followed by individuals in various situations. Visual signals, such as hand signals or flags, can be seen from a distance and are effective in conveying instructions to a group of people. They are particularly useful in situations where other forms of communication, such as sound or radio communications, may not be practical or reliable. Additionally, visual signals can be used in noisy or chaotic environments where verbal instructions may not be heard or understood.

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  • 43. 

    Selection of team movement techniques is based on

    • The ability of the team leader to control the team

    • Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

    • Patrol objectives

    • The enemy threat

    Correct Answer
    A. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
    Explanation
    The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader needs to assess the probability of encountering the enemy and determine the urgency or requirement for quick movement. By considering these factors, the team can choose the appropriate movement technique that allows them to maintain control, minimize the risk of enemy engagement, and achieve their patrol objectives efficiently.

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  • 44. 

    What type of fire control measures do security forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use a means to control their defenders?

    • Direct

    • Indirect

    • Sustained

    • Suppressive

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct
    Explanation
    Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures to control their defenders. Direct fire control measures involve the use of direct fire weapons, such as rifles or handguns, to engage and eliminate threats in a precise and targeted manner. This allows the leaders to have immediate control over their defenders and respond quickly to any threats or situations that may arise. Indirect fire control measures, on the other hand, involve the use of artillery or mortars to engage targets from a distance. Sustained fire control measures involve continuous and prolonged firing, while suppressive fire control measures aim to suppress the enemy's ability to engage effectively.

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  • 45. 

    On the AN/PVS- 14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see the azimuth readings in the monocular?

    • Compass

    • Tethering cord

    • De-mist shield

    • Sacrificial window

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass
    Explanation
    The correct answer is compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see the azimuth readings in the monocular. The compass provides the operator with the direction or bearing, allowing them to navigate and orient themselves in low-light or dark environments. This feature is crucial for military personnel or individuals who rely on night vision devices for navigation and situational awareness.

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  • 46. 

    How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?

    • Location

    • Weather conditions

    • Number of personnel assigned

    • Specific unit and mission requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific unit and mission requirements
    Explanation
    Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to meet the unique needs and objectives of the particular unit and mission at hand. Factors such as location, weather conditions, and number of personnel assigned may also be taken into consideration, but the primary focus should be on the specific unit and mission requirements to ensure that the inspections are effective and relevant.

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  • 47. 

    What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes?

    • File

    • Offset

    • Staggered

    • Inverted (T)

    Correct Answer
    A. Offset
    Explanation
    Offset formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes. In an offset formation, vehicles are positioned diagonally to the direction of travel, creating a barrier that prevents other vehicles from entering the lane being changed. This formation allows for better visibility and coordination among the convoy vehicles, ensuring a safe and efficient lane change.

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  • 48. 

    What terrain feature is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge?

    • Cut

    • Spur

    • Cliff

    • Draw

    Correct Answer
    A. Spur
    Explanation
    A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground that typically extends from the side of a ridge. It is a terrain feature that can be found in mountainous or hilly areas. Spur formations are often created by erosion or tectonic activity and can provide natural barriers or obstacles for travel. They can also offer vantage points for observation or defense.

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  • 49. 

    Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground?

    • Resection

    • Intersection

    • Modified resection

    • Straightedge method

    Correct Answer
    A. Intersection
    Explanation
    The method that allows you to locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground is called "Intersection". This technique involves identifying two or more known positions or landmarks and then using lines or angles to determine the location where they intersect. By finding the point of intersection, you can pinpoint the unknown location. This method is commonly used in surveying, navigation, and other applications that require determining precise positions on the ground.

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  • Jan 22, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 30, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Jon.proiet6

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