2T251 Volume 2

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 2343

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2T251 Quizzes & Trivia

CDC'S


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Challenging shipments that do not meet applicable airlift requirements.

    • B. 

      Clearing shipments and initiating TDR as necessary.

    • C. 

      Ensuring a shipment is complete and removing RFID tags.

    • D. 

      Planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement.

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is not a purpose of the advance TCMD?
    • A. 

      It provides notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.

    • B. 

      It allows APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment.

    • C. 

      It allows cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information.

    • D. 

      It provides a way to process a shipment through the ACA.

  • 3. 
    What is another name for a receiver?
    • A. 

      A transshipper.

    • B. 

      A consignee.

    • C. 

      A consignor.

    • D. 

      A vendor.

  • 4. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags?
    • A. 

      The CSB.

    • B. 

      The transshipper.

    • C. 

      The receiver.

    • D. 

      The shipper.

  • 5. 
    When is a shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?
    • A. 

      When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field.

    • B. 

      When the CCP has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the APOE.

    • C. 

      When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the DTS.

    • D. 

      When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice.

  • 6. 
    How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      16.

    • C. 

      17.

    • D. 

      18.

  • 7. 
    You perform a soft reset on the HHT by pressing
    • A. 

      Alpha + Function + Backlight keys.

    • B. 

      Contrast + Delete + Enter keys.

    • C. 

      Shift + Escape + Send keys.

    • D. 

      Ctrl + Alt = Delete keys.

  • 8. 
    What two types of information are entered on the TCMD?
    • A. 

      Temporary data and permanent data.

    • B. 

      Secondary data and trailer data.

    • C. 

      Prime data and secondary data.

    • D. 

      Prime data and trailer data

  • 9. 
    Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation explains how to fill out a TCMD block-by-block?
    • A. 

      Appendix L.

    • B. 

      Appendix M.

    • C. 

      Appendix 0.

    • D. 

      Appendix P.

  • 10. 
    What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?
    • A. 

      The specific method of transportation for each segment of movement.

    • B. 

      The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.

    • C. 

      Whether shipments have one or more outsized dimensions.

    • D. 

      How the shipment is packaged.

  • 11. 
    Which position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment?
    • A. 

      The first position.

    • B. 

      The 16th position.

    • C. 

      The 17th position.

    • D. 

      The last position.

  • 12. 
    Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
    • A. 

      TP-1.

    • B. 

      TP-2.

    • C. 

      TP-3.

    • D. 

      TP-4.

  • 13. 
    Which TP is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?
    • A. 

      TP-1.

    • B. 

      TP-2.

    • C. 

      TP-3.

    • D. 

      TP-4.

  • 14. 
    How many days must TP-4 cargo remain at an aerial port before the air terminal manager (ATM) can decide to send it through surface modes or upgrade it to TP-2?
    • A. 

      15 days.

    • B. 

      20 days.

    • C. 

      30 days.

    • D. 

      45 days.

    • E. 

      P2q3

    • F. 

      Pq

    • G. 

      P2q2

    • H. 

      P3q2

  • 15. 
    The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the
    • A. 

      GMT hour code and the ETA code.

    • B. 

      GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • C. 

      ETA code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • D. 

      Three-digit Julian date.

  • 16. 
    When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for
    • A. 

      Correct NSNs.

    • B. 

      Appropriate markings and labels.

    • C. 

      Signs of damage and pilferage.

    • D. 

      Matching documentation.

  • 17. 
    Identification markings and labels tell you
    • A. 

      Where the shipment came from and where it is going.

    • B. 

      How to handle a shipment.

    • C. 

      How to refuse a shipment.

    • D. 

      What the shipment is.

  • 18. 
    You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 19. 
    You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal
    • A. 

      When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking.

    • B. 

      When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.

    • C. 

      When the shipper delivers the cargo.

    • D. 

      Always; no exceptions.

  • 20. 
    Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1387.

    • B. 

      SF Form 364.

    • C. 

      SF Faint 361.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 33.

  • 21. 
    After the CSB/ACA corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33 to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?
    • A. 

      Initial both copies and retain them for their files.

    • B. 

      Retain one copy for their files and discard the original.

    • C. 

      Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected, and file them both.

    • D. 

      Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected, and file the original.

  • 22. 
    What must you annotate on both copies of the TCMD when receipting for a shipment?
    • A. 

      Your full name, rank, Social Security number, signature, and the time and date you received the cargo.

    • B. 

      The GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival.

    • C. 

      The pieces, weight and cube of the shipment and the carrier driver's name.

    • D. 

      Your initials and the date you received the cargo.

  • 23. 
    When the SET is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the
    • A. 

      Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and DI code.

    • B. 

      TAC, project code, and type pack code.

    • C. 

      Expedited handling indicators and the RDD.

    • D. 

      Air commodity and special handling code.

  • 24. 
    Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo?
    • A. 

      2 hours.

    • B. 

      6 hours.

    • C. 

      12 hours.

    • D. 

      18 hours.

  • 25. 
    You finalize the receipt of a shipment by
    • A. 

      Completing a DD Form 1907 and having load planning personnel sign for the shipment.

    • B. 

      Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.

    • C. 

      Loading the shipment onto a K-loader and taking it out to the aircraft.

    • D. 

      Turning it over to the appropriate pallet build-up agency.

  • 26. 
    An over shipment is a shipment that
    • A. 

      Arrived at the air terminal but was removed due to suspicion of pilferage.

    • B. 

      Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive in the air terminal.

    • C. 

      Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.

    • D. 

      Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for initialing an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?
    • A. 

      CSB/ACA.

    • B. 

      ATOC Duty Officer.

    • C. 

      TMO/air freight.

    • D. 

      SF duty officer.

  • 28. 
    You leave intransit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie down or RFID tags when the pallets
    • A. 

      Are destined for more than one location.

    • B. 

      Are destined for a single location.

    • C. 

      Arrived with no manifests.

    • D. 

      Are terminating.

  • 29. 
    Terminating cargo release letters are effective for how long from the date they are authenticated by the organizational commander?
    • A. 

      Two years.

    • B. 

      One year.

    • C. 

      Six months.

    • D. 

      Three months.

  • 30. 
    Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?
    • A. 

      Accomplished the SDDG.

    • B. 

      Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft.

    • C. 

      Packages hazardous materials to prepare for shipment.

    • D. 

      Inspects hazardous materials internally and externally.

  • 31. 
    All personnel who operate, handle, transport, or load missiles, explosives, or nuclear weapons must receive which type of training and how often?
    • A. 

      Technical specialist training; biannually.

    • B. 

      Technical specialist training; annually.

    • C. 

      Weapons safety training; biannually.

    • D. 

      Weapons safety training; annually.

  • 32. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?
    • A. 

      Class 1.

    • B. 

      Class 2.

    • C. 

      Class 3.

    • D. 

      Class 4.

  • 33. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?
    • A. 

      Class 1.

    • B. 

      Class 2.

    • C. 

      Class 3.

    • D. 

      Class 4.

  • 34. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?
    • A. 

      Class 4.

    • B. 

      Class 5.

    • C. 

      Class 6.

    • D. 

      Class 7.

  • 35. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of miscellaneous hazardous materials?
    • A. 

      Class 6.

    • B. 

      Class 7.

    • C. 

      Class 8.

    • D. 

      Class 9.

  • 36. 
    How should hazardous materials be positioned on a pallet or in the back of a vehicle?
    • A. 

      So the labels of the same class are facing the same direction.

    • B. 

      There are no requirements for the positioning of labels.

    • C. 

      So the labels are hidden from public view.

    • D. 

      So the labels are clearly visible.

  • 37. 
    What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments?
    • A. 

      AMC Form 1015.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 1033.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1387-2.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1385.

  • 38. 
    How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at aircraft?
    • A. 

      Cargo loading end and both sides only.

    • B. 

      Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.

    • C. 

      Front and rear only and at entry points.

    • D. 

      Front only and at entry points.

  • 39. 
    Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?
    • A. 

      Class 1.3.

    • B. 

      Class 1.6.

    • C. 

      Class 2.1.

    • D. 

      Class 2.2.

  • 40. 
    Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?
    • A. 

      Class 1.1.

    • B. 

      Class 1.2.

    • C. 

      Class 2.1.

    • D. 

      Class 4.3.

  • 41. 
    When a load contains class 1.1, class 1.2, and class 1.3 materials, which placard will you use?
    • A. 

      DANGEROUS.

    • B. 

      Class 1.3.

    • C. 

      Class 1.2.

    • D. 

      Class 1.1.

  • 42. 
    In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles
    • A. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.

    • B. 

      Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • C. 

      Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.

    • D. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.

  • 43. 
    In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, if the material is not listed or there is a blank space in the table, that means these articles
    • A. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.

    • B. 

      Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • C. 

      Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.

    • D. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.

  • 44. 
    How many fire extinguishers, at a minimum, must be available for use at any location where explosives are handled?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      One.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      Three.

  • 45. 
    How many fire extinguishers must a vehicle contain while transporting explosives?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      One.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      Three.

  • 46. 
    Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?
    • A. 

      On the right side only, as long as it is compatible.

    • B. 

      Anywhere, as long as it is compatible.

    • C. 

      Forward on non-jettisonable cargo.

    • D. 

      Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.

  • 47. 
    During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft will be
    • A. 

      Grounded.

    • B. 

      Cleaned.

    • C. 

      Braced.

    • D. 

      Vented.

  • 48. 
    Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?
    • A. 

      AMC Form 1033.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1497-2.

    • C. 

      AMC Form 1015.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1387-2.

  • 49. 
    If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form(s) must shippers complete?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1387-2, AMC Form 1033, and AMC Form 1015.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1387-2 and AMC Form 1033.

    • C. 

      AMC Form 1033 only.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1387-2.

  • 50. 
    What is DCS material?
    • A. 

      Money or gold bullion shipments that require high security and courier escort.

    • B. 

      Biological defense and refrigeration shipments that require courier escort.

    • C. 

      Highly classified national security shipments that require courier escort.

    • D. 

      Human remains shipments that require courier escort.

  • 51. 
    You stow HR shipments on the aircraft with the
    • A. 

      Head higher than the feet and the feet towards the nose of the aircraft.

    • B. 

      Feet higher than the head and the head towards the nose of the aircraft.

    • C. 

      Head higher than the feet and the head towards the nose of the aircraft.

    • D. 

      Feet higher than the head and the feet towards the nose of the aircraft.

  • 52. 
    What is the maximum number of HR transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 53. 
    You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1532-1.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 36.

    • C. 

      AMC Form 106.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1033.

  • 54. 
    When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the
    • A. 

      TCN and register number.

    • B. 

      TCN, weight, and cube.

    • C. 

      Register number and the RDD.

    • D. 

      Register number and the TP.

  • 55. 
    You have received a terminating piece of AMC MICAP cargo with a receipt time of 0815 GMT. What is the latest time it must be available to the consignee?
    • A. 

      0825 local time.

    • B. 

      0830 local time.

    • C. 

      0845 GMT.

    • D. 

      0900 GMT.

  • 56. 
    You work at an air terminal without an ACA or a CSB and receive a call from a Navy customer who wants to green sheet some Navy equipment. Who will initiate green sheet action for this customer when it is necessary to meet a shipment's RDD.
    • A. 

      The ATOC outbound controller.

    • B. 

      The air terminal operations officer.

    • C. 

      The squadron commander.

    • D. 

      The air freight officer.

  • 57. 
    An 8,000 pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet, and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
    • A. 

      5,000 pounds.

    • B. 

      7,500 pounds.

    • C. 

      10,000 pounds.

    • D. 

      25,000 pounds.

  • 58. 
    You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. How many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Winching pallets is not authorized.

    • B. 

      One.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      Three.

  • 59. 
    Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?
    • A. 

      A 38-inch high pallet weighing 6,500 pounds.

    • B. 

      An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.

    • C. 

      A 94-inch high pallet weighing 10,500 pounds.

    • D. 

      A 100-inch high pallet weighing 12,150 pounds.

  • 60. 
    While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable RFID tags still attached to the nets. What must you do with these unserviceable tags?
    • A. 

      Throw them away and log them on the 463L asset report.

    • B. 

      Leave them on the nets for the next consignee to return.

    • C. 

      Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair.

    • D. 

      Return them to the shipper for repair.

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      AMC Form 8001, AMC Key Asset and Equipment Report.

    • B. 

      AF IMT 4069, Tie Down Equipment Checklist.

    • C. 

      Pallet and Net Monitor Local Custodial Log.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

  • 62. 
    You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy, and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?
    • A. 

      Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator.

    • B. 

      Movement indicator and SET.

    • C. 

      Movement indicator and type package.

    • D. 

      Weight and SET.

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      AMC Form 1015, HazMat Inspection and Acceptance Checklist and DD Form 2275, Pallet Identifier.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record and DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record and AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice and DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      3/4 inch.

    • B. 

      One inch.

    • C. 

      On inch and are raised up 3/4 inch.

    • D. 

      3/4 inch and are raised up one inch.

  • 65. 
    How much of an aisleway must you create on the usable surface of a pallet loaded in the wheel well area of a C-130?
    • A. 

      4 inches.

    • B. 

      6 inches.

    • C. 

      8 inches.

    • D. 

      18 inches.

  • 66. 
    You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a C/B?
    • A. 

      A single pallet.

    • B. 

      A three-pallet train.

    • C. 

      A shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long.

    • D. 

      A small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds.

  • 67. 
    Calculate the CBFFE for a multi-pallet train with information in figure CE2.
    • A. 

      66 inches.

    • B. 

      67 inches.

    • C. 

      149 inches.

    • D. 

      150 inches.

  • 68. 
    Calculate the CBFFE for a multi-axle vehicle with information in figure CE3.
    • A. 

      88 inches.

    • B. 

      93 inches.

    • C. 

      94 inches.

    • D. 

      107 inches.

  • 69. 
    At a minimum, how much ramp services experience should load planning personnel have?
    • A. 

      3 months.

    • B. 

      6 months.

    • C. 

      12 months.

    • D. 

      24 months.

  • 70. 
    At a minimum, what hazardous materials qualification must load planners have?
    • A. 

      Technical specialist.

    • B. 

      Handler.

    • C. 

      Inspector.

    • D. 

      Packer.

  • 71. 
    The KC-10 has two basic configurations for load planning. When seat kits are installed, how many pallet positions are available for cargo?
    • A. 

      16.

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      20.

    • D. 

      22.

  • 72. 
    What is the maximum height allowed for the belly pallets of a B-747?
    • A. 

      50 inches.

    • B. 

      60 inches.

    • C. 

      65 inches.

    • D. 

      68 inches.

  • 73. 
    You are working load planning and your supervisor tasked you to conduct inventory. Which areas of the air terminal will you inventory?
    • A. 

      Special cargo and mail.

    • B. 

      Terminating cargo and mail.

    • C. 

      Outbound cargo and mail.

    • D. 

      Hazardous and explosive cargo.

  • 74. 
    How much weight an aircraft can carry is called the
    • A. 

      LEMAC.

    • B. 

      MAC.

    • C. 

      RDL.

    • D. 

      ACL.

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      DD Form 2130-XX series load plans.

    • B. 

      AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification.

    • D. 

      DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance Clearance Form F - Transport.

  • 76. 
    What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo?
    • A. 

      Safety of flight.

    • B. 

      Loadmaster preference.

    • C. 

      Ease of onload at the onload station.

    • D. 

      Ease of offload at the downline station.

  • 77. 
    You need to manually manifest cargo. Which form would you use?
    • A. 

      AALPS load plans.

    • B. 

      AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.

    • C. 

      DD Form 2130-XX series load plans.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest.

  • 78. 
    Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest?
    • A. 

      AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice.

    • B. 

      DD Form 2130-XX series load plan.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document.

  • 79. 
    Which forklift is designed for operating on rough terrain?
    • A. 

      4K.

    • B. 

      6K.

    • C. 

      10K.

    • D. 

      10K AT.

  • 80. 
    You are driving a forklift; when is it safe to raise or lower a load on the fork tines?
    • A. 

      Only after you have ensured there is no one near the tines.

    • B. 

      Only after you have secured the pallet to the tines.

    • C. 

      Only after you have come to a complete stop.

    • D. 

      Anytime.

  • 81. 
    When parking a forklift, how do you position the tines?
    • A. 

      There are no requirements for positioning the tines when parking a forklift.

    • B. 

      Tilt the mast all the way back and lower the tines to the ground.

    • C. 

      Tilt the mast all the way forward and lower the tines to the ground.

    • D. 

      Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat.

  • 82. 
    What is the 40K loader winch's capacity in both low and high range modes, respectively?
    • A. 

      2,000/5,000 pounds.

    • B. 

      2,500/8,000 pounds.

    • C. 

      5,000/10,000 pounds.

    • D. 

      7,500/15,000 pounds.

  • 83. 
    Which cab controls on the 60K-loader are used to operate the deck functions when on/offloading cargo?
    • A. 

      The circuit breaker panel.

    • B. 

      The deck pitch control box.

    • C. 

      The deck and conveyor control panel.

    • D. 

      The primary deck control indicator light.

  • 84. 
    Which K-loader has a deck range up to 225 inches and allows adjustable pallet guides to accomodate pallets on the 88- or 108-inch side?
    • A. 

      25K.

    • B. 

      40K.

    • C. 

      60K Twiner.

    • D. 

      NGSL Halvorsen.

  • 85. 
    You are working on a load crew. At which deck height are you required to wear a fall restraint harness?
    • A. 

      4 feet.

    • B. 

      5 feet.

    • C. 

      8 feet.

    • D. 

      11 feet.

  • 86. 
    You are bridging two 60K-loaders to accelerate loading operations and you need to transfer all your pallets from one to the other. Which of the following best describes how to do this?
    • A. 

      Place a spotter on the transferring K-loader to monitor wing-tip clearances and vapor emissions.

    • B. 

      Place a spotter on the K-loader to unchain the rolling stock and monitor wing-tip clearances and vapor emissions.

    • C. 

      Lower both K-loaders and place a spotter on the left side of the loader to monitor the transfer and guide the operators.

    • D. 

      Lower both K-loaders and place a spotter on the right side of the loader to monitor the transfer and guide the operators.

  • 87. 
    You are conducting a before-operation inspection of a K-loader. Which action will you complete?
    • A. 

      Ensure the brakes and mechanical parts are operating properly.

    • B. 

      Review the AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, for open discrepancies.

    • C. 

      Check all the lights and instrument panel.

    • D. 

      Listen for unusual noises.

  • 88. 
    You are performing a before-operation inspection on a 4K forklift. You must open the hood to check for which items?
    • A. 

      Damage and leaking muffler and exhaust system.

    • B. 

      Security of the battery terminals.

    • C. 

      Serviceability of the fire extinguisher.

    • D. 

      Serviceability of the tow connections.

  • 89. 
    You are performing a during-operation inspection on a 10K forklift. Which fluid level will you check?
    • A. 

      Oil.

    • B. 

      Brake.

    • C. 

      Transmission.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic.

  • 90. 
    You are inspecting a 40K-loader. During which part of the inspection will you check the steering and steering wheel for free play and excessive wear?
    • A. 

      Before operation.

    • B. 

      During operation.

    • C. 

      After operation.

    • D. 

      Only maintenance personnel can check these items.

  • 91. 
    You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways. Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways?
    • A. 

      Approach shoring.

    • B. 

      Parking shoring.

    • C. 

      Sleeper shoring

    • D. 

      Bridge shoring.

  • 92. 
    You are loading a trailer on a C-5 that is very long, very tall, and has extremely low ground clearances. In order to reduce the ramp angle this vehicle must travel during the onload, which type of shoring would you use?
    • A. 

      Approach shoring.

    • B. 

      Parking shoring.

    • C. 

      Sleeper shoring.

    • D. 

      Bridge shoring.

  • 93. 
    How do you secure rolling stock to a K-loader?
    • A. 

      Forward and aft with pallet locks, stops and supplemental restraint.

    • B. 

      Forward, aft and lateral with chains and devices.

    • C. 

      Forward and aft with chains and devices.

    • D. 

      Forward and aft with straps.

  • 94. 
    Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft?
    • A. 

      The bridge plates and auxiliary loading ramps.

    • B. 

      Load team personnel and stabilizer struts.

    • C. 

      The cargo winch and snatch blocks.

    • D. 

      The rollers, locks, and rails.

  • 95. 
    You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?
    • A. 

      Clear zone.

    • B. 

      Spotter zone.

    • C. 

      Loading zone.

    • D. 

      Engine operations zone.

  • 96. 
    You are spotting a 60K in to an aircraft. How many feet minimum from the aircraft must you stop the vehicle operator for preliminary alignment?
    • A. 

      5 feet.

    • B. 

      10 feet.

    • C. 

      15 feet.

    • D. 

      25 feet.

  • 97. 
    You are loading passengers on a C-17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a minimum?
    • A. 

      10 inches.

    • B. 

      20 inches.

    • C. 

      30 inches.

    • D. 

      40 inches.

  • 98. 
    How many 25,000-pound chains would you use to restrain a piece of cargo weighing 17,700 pounds for vertical direction when the cargo is restrained to the floor of a C-5?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 99. 
    Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      When the cargo load team chief tells them to.

    • C. 

      When a jetway or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the same side of the aircraft.

    • D. 

      When a jetway or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft.