2T251 Volume 2
CDC'S
- 1.
A shipper is responsible for
- A.
Challenging shipments that do not meet applicable airlift requirements.
- B.
Clearing shipments and initiating TDR as necessary.
- C.
Ensuring a shipment is complete and removing RFID tags.
- D.
Planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement.
Correct Answer
D. Planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement. -
- 2.
Which of the following is not a purpose of the advance TCMD?
- A.
It provides notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.
- B.
It allows APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment.
- C.
It allows cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information.
- D.
It provides a way to process a shipment through the ACA.
Correct Answer
C. It allows cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information. -
- 3.
What is another name for a receiver?
- A.
A transshipper.
- B.
A consignee.
- C.
A consignor.
- D.
A vendor.
Correct Answer
B. A consignee. -
- 4.
Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags?
- A.
The CSB.
- B.
The transshipper.
- C.
The receiver.
- D.
The shipper.
Correct Answer
C. The receiver. -
- 5.
When is a shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?
- A.
When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field.
- B.
When the CCP has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the APOE.
- C.
When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the DTS.
- D.
When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice.
Correct Answer
A. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field. -
- 6.
How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?
- A.
15.
- B.
16.
- C.
17.
- D.
18.
Correct Answer
C. 17. -
- 7.
You perform a soft reset on the HHT by pressing
- A.
Alpha + Function + Backlight keys.
- B.
Contrast + Delete + Enter keys.
- C.
Shift + Escape + Send keys.
- D.
Ctrl + Alt = Delete keys.
Correct Answer
A. Alpha + Function + Backlight keys. -
- 8.
What two types of information are entered on the TCMD?
- A.
Temporary data and permanent data.
- B.
Secondary data and trailer data.
- C.
Prime data and secondary data.
- D.
Prime data and trailer data
Correct Answer
D. Prime data and trailer data -
- 9.
Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation explains how to fill out a TCMD block-by-block?
- A.
Appendix L.
- B.
Appendix M.
- C.
Appendix 0.
- D.
Appendix P.
Correct Answer
B. Appendix M. -
- 10.
What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?
- A.
The specific method of transportation for each segment of movement.
- B.
The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.
- C.
Whether shipments have one or more outsized dimensions.
- D.
How the shipment is packaged.
Correct Answer
B. The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated. -
- 11.
Which position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment?
- A.
The first position.
- B.
The 16th position.
- C.
The 17th position.
- D.
The last position.
Correct Answer
B. The 16th position. -
- 12.
Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
- A.
TP-1.
- B.
TP-2.
- C.
TP-3.
- D.
TP-4.
Correct Answer
C. TP-3. -
- 13.
Which TP is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?
- A.
TP-1.
- B.
TP-2.
- C.
TP-3.
- D.
TP-4.
Correct Answer
D. TP-4. -
- 14.
How many days must TP-4 cargo remain at an aerial port before the air terminal manager (ATM) can decide to send it through surface modes or upgrade it to TP-2?
- A.
15 days.
- B.
20 days.
- C.
30 days.
- D.
45 days.
- E.
P2q3
- F.
Pq
- G.
P2q2
- H.
P3q2
Correct Answer(s)
B. 20 days.
H. P3q2 -
- 15.
The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the
- A.
GMT hour code and the ETA code.
- B.
GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
- C.
ETA code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
- D.
Three-digit Julian date.
Correct Answer
B. GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date. -
- 16.
When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for
- A.
Correct NSNs.
- B.
Appropriate markings and labels.
- C.
Signs of damage and pilferage.
- D.
Matching documentation.
Correct Answer
A. Correct NSNs. -
- 17.
Identification markings and labels tell you
- A.
Where the shipment came from and where it is going.
- B.
How to handle a shipment.
- C.
How to refuse a shipment.
- D.
What the shipment is.
Correct Answer
D. What the shipment is. -
- 18.
You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?
- A.
5.
- B.
10.
- C.
15.
- D.
20.
Correct Answer
B. 10. -
- 19.
You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal
- A.
When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking.
- B.
When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.
- C.
When the shipper delivers the cargo.
- D.
Always; no exceptions.
Correct Answer
B. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot. -
- 20.
Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
- A.
DD Form 1387.
- B.
SF Form 364.
- C.
SF Faint 361.
- D.
AMC Form 33.
Correct Answer
D. AMC Form 33. -
- 21.
After the CSB/ACA corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33 to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?
- A.
Initial both copies and retain them for their files.
- B.
Retain one copy for their files and discard the original.
- C.
Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected, and file them both.
- D.
Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected, and file the original.
Correct Answer
C. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected, and file them both. -
- 22.
What must you annotate on both copies of the TCMD when receipting for a shipment?
- A.
Your full name, rank, Social Security number, signature, and the time and date you received the cargo.
- B.
The GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival.
- C.
The pieces, weight and cube of the shipment and the carrier driver's name.
- D.
Your initials and the date you received the cargo.
Correct Answer
B. The GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival. -
- 23.
When the SET is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the
- A.
Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and DI code.
- B.
TAC, project code, and type pack code.
- C.
Expedited handling indicators and the RDD.
- D.
Air commodity and special handling code.
Correct Answer
C. Expedited handling indicators and the RDD. -
- 24.
Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo?
- A.
2 hours.
- B.
6 hours.
- C.
12 hours.
- D.
18 hours.
Correct Answer
B. 6 hours. -
- 25.
You finalize the receipt of a shipment by
- A.
Completing a DD Form 1907 and having load planning personnel sign for the shipment.
- B.
Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.
- C.
Loading the shipment onto a K-loader and taking it out to the aircraft.
- D.
Turning it over to the appropriate pallet build-up agency.
Correct Answer
B. Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD. -
- 26.
An over shipment is a shipment that
- A.
Arrived at the air terminal but was removed due to suspicion of pilferage.
- B.
Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive in the air terminal.
- C.
Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.
- D.
Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.
Correct Answer
C. Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest. -
- 27.
Who is responsible for initialing an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?
- A.
CSB/ACA.
- B.
ATOC Duty Officer.
- C.
TMO/air freight.
- D.
SF duty officer.
Correct Answer
B. ATOC Duty Officer. -
- 28.
You leave intransit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie down or RFID tags when the pallets
- A.
Are destined for more than one location.
- B.
Are destined for a single location.
- C.
Arrived with no manifests.
- D.
Are terminating.
Correct Answer
B. Are destined for a single location. -
- 29.
Terminating cargo release letters are effective for how long from the date they are authenticated by the organizational commander?
- A.
Two years.
- B.
One year.
- C.
Six months.
- D.
Three months.
Correct Answer
A. Two years. -
- 30.
Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?
- A.
Accomplished the SDDG.
- B.
Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft.
- C.
Packages hazardous materials to prepare for shipment.
- D.
Inspects hazardous materials internally and externally.
Correct Answer
B. Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft. -
- 31.
All personnel who operate, handle, transport, or load missiles, explosives, or nuclear weapons must receive which type of training and how often?
- A.
Technical specialist training; biannually.
- B.
Technical specialist training; annually.
- C.
Weapons safety training; biannually.
- D.
Weapons safety training; annually.
Correct Answer
D. Weapons safety training; annually. -
- 32.
Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?
- A.
Class 1.
- B.
Class 2.
- C.
Class 3.
- D.
Class 4.
Correct Answer
A. Class 1. -
- 33.
Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?
- A.
Class 1.
- B.
Class 2.
- C.
Class 3.
- D.
Class 4.
Correct Answer
C. Class 3. -
- 34.
Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?
- A.
Class 4.
- B.
Class 5.
- C.
Class 6.
- D.
Class 7.
Correct Answer
C. Class 6. -
- 35.
Which hazardous materials class consists of miscellaneous hazardous materials?
- A.
Class 6.
- B.
Class 7.
- C.
Class 8.
- D.
Class 9.
Correct Answer
D. Class 9. -
- 36.
How should hazardous materials be positioned on a pallet or in the back of a vehicle?
- A.
So the labels of the same class are facing the same direction.
- B.
There are no requirements for the positioning of labels.
- C.
So the labels are hidden from public view.
- D.
So the labels are clearly visible.
Correct Answer
D. So the labels are clearly visible. -
- 37.
What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments?
- A.
AMC Form 1015.
- B.
AMC Form 1033.
- C.
DD Form 1387-2.
- D.
DD Form 1385.
Correct Answer
B. AMC Form 1033. -
- 38.
How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at aircraft?
- A.
Cargo loading end and both sides only.
- B.
Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.
- C.
Front and rear only and at entry points.
- D.
Front only and at entry points.
Correct Answer
B. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points. -
- 39.
Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?
- A.
Class 1.3.
- B.
Class 1.6.
- C.
Class 2.1.
- D.
Class 2.2.
Correct Answer
A. Class 1.3. -
- 40.
Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?
- A.
Class 1.1.
- B.
Class 1.2.
- C.
Class 2.1.
- D.
Class 4.3.
Correct Answer
C. Class 2.1. -
- 41.
When a load contains class 1.1, class 1.2, and class 1.3 materials, which placard will you use?
- A.
DANGEROUS.
- B.
Class 1.3.
- C.
Class 1.2.
- D.
Class 1.1.
Correct Answer
D. Class 1.1. -
- 42.
In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles
- A.
Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.
- B.
Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.
- C.
Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.
- D.
Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.
Correct Answer
D. Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together. -
- 43.
In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, if the material is not listed or there is a blank space in the table, that means these articles
- A.
Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.
- B.
Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.
- C.
Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.
- D.
Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.
Correct Answer
B. Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together. -
- 44.
How many fire extinguishers, at a minimum, must be available for use at any location where explosives are handled?
- A.
None.
- B.
One.
- C.
Two.
- D.
Three.
Correct Answer
C. Two. -
- 45.
How many fire extinguishers must a vehicle contain while transporting explosives?
- A.
None.
- B.
One.
- C.
Two.
- D.
Three.
Correct Answer
C. Two. -
- 46.
Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?
- A.
On the right side only, as long as it is compatible.
- B.
Anywhere, as long as it is compatible.
- C.
Forward on non-jettisonable cargo.
- D.
Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.
Correct Answer
D. Aft of non-jettisonable cargo. -
- 47.
During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft will be
- A.
Grounded.
- B.
Cleaned.
- C.
Braced.
- D.
Vented.
Correct Answer
A. Grounded. -
- 48.
Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?
- A.
AMC Form 1033.
- B.
DD Form 1497-2.
- C.
AMC Form 1015.
- D.
DD Form 1387-2.
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 1387-2. -
- 49.
If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form(s) must shippers complete?
- A.
DD Form 1387-2, AMC Form 1033, and AMC Form 1015.
- B.
DD Form 1387-2 and AMC Form 1033.
- C.
AMC Form 1033 only.
- D.
DD Form 1387-2.
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1387-2 and AMC Form 1033. -
- 50.
What is DCS material?
- A.
Money or gold bullion shipments that require high security and courier escort.
- B.
Biological defense and refrigeration shipments that require courier escort.
- C.
Highly classified national security shipments that require courier escort.
- D.
Human remains shipments that require courier escort.
Correct Answer
C. Highly classified national security shipments that require courier escort. -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Feb 18, 2013Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 29, 2012Quiz Created by
HKSCHICO
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A251 Quizzes
- 2A552 Quizzes
- 2A651 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A753 Quizzes
- 2A852 Quizzes
- 2S051 Quizzes
- 2s071 Quizzes
- 3d052 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3d1x3 Quizzes
- 3DX7X Quizzes
- 3e451 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3dx7x Quizzes
- Z3p051 Quizzes
Back to top