2s0x1 EOC 5 Lvl- 2012yr

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1. A 13 character alpha numeric number associated with a specific item is called ________________

Explanation

A 13 character alpha numeric number associated with a specific item is called NSN, stock number, Stock Number, or National Stock Number.

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About This Quiz
2s0x1 EOC 5 Lvl- 2012yr - Quiz

This quiz, titled '2S0X1 EOC 5 LVL- 2012yr', assesses knowledge in materiel management within the Air Force. It covers duties, responsibilities, and systems understanding, crucial for the 2S career field. The quiz is designed for learners aiming to enhance their proficiency in military logistics.

2. (009) How many characters make up a national stock number?

Explanation

A national stock number is a 13-digit code used to identify and classify items of supply in the military supply chain. Each digit in the code represents a specific piece of information, such as the country code, the federal supply group, the class, and the item number. Therefore, the correct answer is 13, as it takes 13 characters to make up a national stock number.

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3. (009) What two entities make up the national stock number?

Explanation

The national stock number is made up of two entities: the Federal Supply Class (FSC) and the National Item Identification Number (NIIN). The FSC is a four-digit code that categorizes items into broad classes based on their characteristics and intended use. The NIIN is a nine-digit code that uniquely identifies each item within its FSC. Therefore, option b is correct as it correctly identifies the two entities that make up the national stock number.

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4. When Customer Service receives a request for supplies, it prepares an AF Form____, Issue/Turn-in Request,

Explanation

The correct answer is 2005 because the question states that when Customer Service receives a request for supplies, it prepares an AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request. This indicates that the AF Form 2005 is the specific form used for this purpose.

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5. . What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for weapons?

Explanation

All supply transaction documentation for weapons must include the serial number of the weapon involved. This is important for tracking and identifying specific weapons in case of any issues or investigations. The serial number serves as a unique identifier for each weapon and helps maintain accurate records of their movement and usage.

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6. (601) Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

Explanation

A spotter should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading. A spotter is responsible for guiding the driver and ensuring that they have a clear path and can safely maneuver the vehicle. They communicate with the driver using hand signals or a two-way radio to provide directions and assist in avoiding any obstacles or hazards. The spotter's role is crucial in preventing accidents and ensuring the successful and safe offloading of the vehicle.

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7. 602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

Explanation

MICAP stands for "Mandatory Interchangeability of Classified Assets Program." This program ensures that critical military assets are readily available for use by different units and services. Therefore, processing MICAP receipts before all others is necessary to prioritize the procurement and distribution of these essential assets.

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8. 008) How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual?

Explanation

In AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 would be identified as 020203.

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9. When you receive a reject, what should you do first?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that when receiving a reject, the first step should be to ensure that all the data has been entered correctly. This implies that there may have been an error or mistake in the data input, which could be the cause of the rejection. By double-checking the accuracy of the entered information, one can identify and correct any errors, increasing the chances of a successful submission or approval.

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10. 012) Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding the management code and phrase?

Explanation

Management notices can be readily identified by the letters "MGT" preceding the management code and phrase. This indicates that the notice is related to management and allows for easy recognition and categorization of the notices.

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11. ELog21 is the Air Force transformation campaign plan to improve logistics to meet both the current and future threat environment.

Explanation

The given statement states that "eLog21 is the Air Force transformation campaign plan to improve logistics to meet both the current and future threat environment." The answer "True" indicates that this statement is correct. It suggests that eLog21 is indeed a campaign plan designed by the Air Force to enhance logistics capabilities in order to address both present and future threats.

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12. (007) What Materiel Management System process is activated if assets are insufficient to satisfy the requirement on the requested item?

Explanation

If the assets are insufficient to satisfy the requirement on the requested item, the Materiel Management System process that is activated is the "Due-out" process. This process involves recording and tracking the items that are requested but not yet received or issued. It helps in ensuring that the requested items are properly accounted for and can be tracked until they are received and issued to the requester. The "Due-out" process helps in maintaining visibility and control over the items that are in the process of being fulfilled.

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13. 008) How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual?

Explanation

In AFMAN 23-110, hyperlinks are identified by blue text. This means that any text that appears in blue color within the manual is a hyperlink. Hyperlinks are clickable links that direct the user to another location within the manual or to external resources. By using blue text, the manual makes it easy for users to identify and access additional information or related content.

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14. List the two types of open storage areas

Explanation

The two types of open storage areas are unimproved and improved. Unimproved storage areas refer to spaces that are not developed or enhanced, lacking any infrastructure or organization. On the other hand, improved storage areas are those that have been modified or designed to optimize storage efficiency, often equipped with shelves, racks, or other organizational systems. Both types offer different levels of organization and accessibility for storing various items.

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15. 006) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron flight is responsible for stocking, storing, issuing, managing, inventorying, inspecting, and shipping DOD supplies and equipment?

Explanation

Materiel Management is the correct answer because this flight is responsible for all aspects of supply chain management, including stocking, storing, issuing, managing, inventorying, inspecting, and shipping DOD supplies and equipment. They ensure that the necessary supplies and equipment are available when needed and maintain accurate inventory records. The command section is responsible for overall leadership and management, while the mission readiness and sustainment flights have different responsibilities within the logistics readiness squadron.

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16. What type of receipts must be processed before all others?

Explanation

MICAP receipts must be processed before all others because MICAP stands for "Mission Capable" and refers to items that are needed for immediate use in order to maintain mission readiness. These receipts are given the highest priority as they are essential for the smooth functioning of operations. Processing MICAP receipts first ensures that critical items are available when needed and minimizes any potential disruptions to the mission.

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17. Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items

Explanation

Segregated, specialized holding areas are necessary for items such as hazardous materials or pilferable items due to safety or security reasons. These items pose potential risks or can be easily stolen, so it is important to store them in dedicated areas to minimize the chances of accidents or unauthorized access. By keeping them separate, it ensures that proper protocols and precautions can be followed to ensure the safety and security of both the items and the people handling them.

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18. 603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

Explanation

The receiving in-checker is responsible for inspecting items upon receipt. If they suspect any tampering or damage to the items, they will send them to the materiel management inspector. The materiel management inspector is trained to assess the condition of the items and determine if they are still usable or if they need to be returned to the supplier. The warehouse and cargo movement representative are not specifically mentioned in relation to handling suspected tampered items.

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19. (615) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called

Explanation

Honeycombing refers to the practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space. This term is commonly used in logistics and warehousing to describe inefficient storage methods where empty spaces are left between items, resulting in wasted or underutilized storage capacity. Cross stacking, mezzanine storage, and potential vacant space do not specifically refer to this concept of inefficient storage.

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20. (004) What source of supply consists of vendors from the local community?

Explanation

Local purchase is the correct answer because it refers to the procurement of goods or services from vendors within the local community. This source of supply involves purchasing items directly from local suppliers, which can help support the local economy and foster community relationships. Local purchase is often preferred when the required items are readily available from local vendors and can be obtained quickly and conveniently.

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21. Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD?

Explanation

The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) has the responsibility for providing supply support throughout the Department of Defense (DOD). As the primary logistics support agency for the DOD, DLA is responsible for procuring, storing, and distributing a wide range of supplies, including food, fuel, uniforms, medical supplies, and equipment. DLA plays a critical role in ensuring that the DOD has the necessary supplies and resources to support military operations and readiness.

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22. Which volume and part of AFMAN 23-110 is used most by materiel management personnel?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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23. (022) What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?

Explanation

The purpose of the shipment-suspense program is to ensure that an item has been shipped. This program is designed to hold an item until it is confirmed that it has been shipped. It helps to track the progress of shipments and ensures that they are not lost or misplaced during the shipping process. By using the shipment-suspense program, companies can have better control over their inventory and ensure that all items are properly shipped to their intended destinations.

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24. (805) Which hand-held terminal function allows the user to place items into the warehouse location?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Put Away." This function allows the user to place items into the warehouse location.

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25. (008) What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual?

Explanation

AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, is a comprehensive document that provides guidance on supply chain management in the United States Air Force. It is organized into various subdivisions to facilitate easy navigation and reference. The largest subdivision in this manual is a volume. Volumes are typically used to group related sections, parts, or chapters together, making it easier for readers to locate specific information within the manual. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Volume.

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26. (010) How many major types of inquiries are there in the Materiel Management System?

Explanation

The correct answer is four because the question asks about the number of major types of inquiries in the Materiel Management System, and the answer options provide four different numbers. Therefore, the correct answer must be the option that states "Four."

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27. (204) Who is responsible for ensuring that all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a mission capability (MICAP) requisition to the source of supply?

Explanation

Both Material Management and Maintenance are responsible for ensuring that all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a mission capability (MICAP) requisition to the source of supply. This means that both departments need to work together to exhaust all available resources before requesting additional supplies from the source of supply.

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28. What PC program is used to manage mobility bags?

Explanation

MICAS is the PC program used to manage mobility bags. The other options, SBSS, ESS, and ADLS, are not specifically designed for this purpose. Therefore, MICAS is the correct answer.

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29. (618) Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

Explanation

Exception codes are used to identify items that pose a health hazard. The codes 8, 9, and M are specifically used to identify health hazard items. Therefore, the correct answer is 8, 9, or M.

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30. __________ Is the program that was created to promote a better understanding of the whole supply system

Explanation

The correct answer is "Wholesale logistics program, Whole sale Logistics Program, Wholesale Logistics Program." These three options are all variations of the same program name, indicating that it is a program specifically designed to promote a better understanding of the entire supply system in the wholesale industry. The use of the term "wholesale" suggests that the program is focused on the wholesale sector rather than retail or other sectors.

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31. 006) What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Deployment and Distribution. This is because the Deployment and Distribution flight within the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all wing deployment operations, as well as the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property. They provide centralized command and control, planning, and execution for these activities.

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32. (014) Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or

Explanation

The correct answer is d. an approved supplement. This means that in order to schedule the production of all materiel management computer system reports and listings, there must be an approved supplement that supports this requirement. This supplement could be in the form of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request, or any other approved document that outlines the specific requirement for scheduling production. Without an approved supplement, the production scheduling cannot be supported.

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33. (023) What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction?

Explanation

The transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction is 1AM.

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34. What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?

Explanation

The correct answer, DEMAND LEVEL, refers to a type of stock level that is determined based on past demands from users. This means that the inventory is managed and replenished according to the historical demand patterns of customers. By analyzing past demand data, businesses can estimate the quantity of stock needed to satisfy future customer requirements and ensure that they have enough inventory to meet demand without excess or shortage.

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35. What TRIC is used to load a new stock number?

Explanation

The TRIC FIL is used to load a new stock number.

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36. Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

Explanation

The receiving in-checker does not need to check the warehouse location. This is because the warehouse location is typically predetermined and known by the receiving in-checker. The other checks, such as NSN (National Stock Number), unit of issue, and quantity, are necessary to ensure that the correct items are received in the correct quantities.

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37. (811) In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other application formats?

Explanation

The function in Discoverer that allows you to transfer data to other application formats is "Export." This feature allows users to save data from Discoverer reports in various file formats such as Excel, CSV, PDF, or HTML, making it easier to share and analyze the data in other applications.

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38. (003) Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Effect One: Enterprise view. This effect ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. It emphasizes the importance of taking a holistic approach to logistics, considering the needs and requirements of the entire organization rather than just individual units or departments. By adopting an enterprise view, the Air Force can optimize its logistics operations and ensure that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently.

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39. (011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Abbreviated format (Option A). The question is asking for the option that displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system. The term "abbreviated format" aligns with the requirement, making it the correct answer.

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40. (012) Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?

Explanation

The program in the Materiel Management System that takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction is the "Reject" program. This program is responsible for identifying and handling errors in the system, ensuring that incorrect or invalid transactions are not processed further. It helps maintain data integrity and prevents faulty transactions from affecting the overall system functionality.

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41. (012) Within how many workdays should all Materiel Management System rejects normally be processed?

Explanation

Materiel Management System rejects should normally be processed within 1 workday. This means that any rejected items or materials should be addressed and resolved within a day of being identified. This ensures that any issues or problems with the rejected items are quickly resolved and does not cause any delays or disruptions in the overall materiel management process.

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42. (020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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43. (216) Shelf life assets are tracked in the Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) by

Explanation

Shelf life assets, which are items with a limited lifespan, are tracked in the Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) by their contract/lot number. This number helps to identify and manage these assets, ensuring that they are used or disposed of before their expiration date. Tracking shelf life assets by contract/lot number allows for efficient inventory management and helps to prevent the use of expired or ineffective items.

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44. (004) Local manufacture is a term that describes an item

Explanation

Local manufacture refers to the process of creating an item on a military base by a maintenance activity. This means that the item is not sourced from another branch of service or purchased using the government purchase card. Instead, it is fabricated or produced on the base itself by the maintenance activity.

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45. (010) Which action code on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management System is used to obtain specific information?

Explanation

The action code "Record retrieval" on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management System is used to obtain specific information about the item. This action allows users to retrieve detailed records and data related to the item, such as its description, specifications, pricing, availability, and any other relevant information. By selecting this action code, users can access the specific information they need for their purposes, such as making purchasing decisions or managing inventory.

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46. (012) Which product of the Materiel Management System is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

Explanation

D818 is the correct answer because it is the product of the Materiel Management System that is specifically used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner.

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47. Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations?

Explanation

Readiness acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations.

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48. (404) When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?

Explanation

The custodian authorization/custody receipt listing serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This listing is a document that authorizes a custodian to be responsible for specific property items and serves as proof of custody. It ensures accountability and helps in tracking the movement and location of the property. The other options, such as the allowance source code listing, consolidated transaction register, and consolidated inventory document register, do not specifically serve as custody receipts.

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49. What CD-ROM research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

Explanation

FEDLOG is the correct answer because it is a CD-ROM research system that allows users to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. It is commonly used in military logistics to access information about federal supply classes, national stock numbers, and part numbers. FEDLOG provides a comprehensive database that enables users to efficiently manage inventory and track stock availability.

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50. (420) What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group information?

Explanation

The computer system that provides interchangeable and substitute group information is D043B.

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51. (013) Who determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?

Explanation

Individual flight chiefs and terminal security monitors are responsible for determining who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informing the computer operations terminal security manager about the authorized TRICs for each user identification (user ID). They have the knowledge and authority to assign these responsibilities based on the specific roles and responsibilities of each individual within the organization. The logistics manager, computer operations supervisor, and accountable officer may have other important roles within the organization, but they are not directly responsible for determining and authorizing the processing of controlled TRICs by individual users.

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52. (205) Which report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination, or change to a mission capability (MICAP) condition?

Explanation

The correct answer is MICAP report (B9*). This report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination, or change to a mission capability (MICAP) condition. The B9* code specifically refers to the MICAP report, indicating that it is the appropriate report to use in this situation.

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53. (213) The decision to transfer Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) rests with the host and the

Explanation

The decision to transfer Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) rests with the gaining MAJCOM. This means that the Major Command that is receiving the MRSP is responsible for deciding whether or not to accept the transfer. The losing MAJCOM may initiate the transfer, but the final decision lies with the gaining MAJCOM. The losing Accountable Officer and gaining Accountable Officer may be involved in the transfer process, but they do not have the ultimate decision-making authority.

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54. (216) Mobility bags (MOBAGS) can be built ahead of time and stored using what concept?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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55. 601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that

Explanation

The receiving function representative must ensure that all containers are accounted for before accepting a shipment. This means that they need to check that all the containers that were supposed to be included in the shipment are actually present. This is important because if any containers are missing, it could indicate that there has been a mistake or that some items have been lost or stolen. By ensuring that all containers are accounted for, the receiving function representative can help to maintain the integrity and accuracy of the shipment process.

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56. The three ALC (air logistic centers) are.....

Explanation

The correct answer is Ogden, Warner Robins, and Oklahoma City. These three locations are referred to as ALCs, which stands for air logistic centers. ALCs are responsible for providing maintenance, repair, and supply support for specific aircraft or weapon systems. These centers play a crucial role in ensuring the readiness and operational capability of the Air Force.

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57. (003) In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?

Explanation

In the context of Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) and its integrated processes, technology is not considered a resource. Resources typically refer to tangible assets or capabilities that are utilized to support and enhance logistics operations. Financial resources involve the allocation and management of funds, acquisition resources involve the procurement and management of goods and services, and infrastructure resources refer to the physical facilities and structures required for logistics activities. In contrast, technology is a tool or enabler that supports and enhances the utilization of these resources but is not considered a resource itself.

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58. (007) Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?

Explanation

Miscellaneous file maintenance is the correct answer because this process involves updating various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. It includes making changes, additions, or deletions to these files to ensure accurate and up-to-date information. The process may also involve verifying data integrity and resolving any discrepancies or errors found in the files.

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59. (010) What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the Materiel Management System to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

Explanation

The releveling flag "r" is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the Materiel Management System to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag helps to gather and display all the necessary information related to the stock number, such as current stock levels, demand forecasts, and any pending orders or backorders. By using the "r" flag, users can quickly access a comprehensive overview of the stock number's status and make informed decisions regarding inventory management and procurement.

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60. (012) Which chapter in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, volume 2, part 2, identifies the action required to correct the Materiel Management System rejects created during processing?

Explanation

Chapter Seven in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, volume 2, part 2, identifies the action required to correct the Materiel Management System rejects created during processing.

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61. (201) What one position alpha code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Demand code. The demand code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control. This code helps in determining the quantity and timing of stock replenishment based on demand patterns and usage rates. It plays a crucial role in ensuring that the right amount of stock is available at the right time to meet operational requirements.

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62. Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets?

Explanation

The ERRCDs XD/XF identify SPRAM assets.

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63. (630) What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?

Explanation

Color tape is used to identify the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire. This marking system allows for easy identification and tracking of the tire's age. By using different colors for different years, maintenance personnel can quickly determine if a tire is within its recommended lifespan and needs to be replaced. This helps ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft during operation.

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64. 1. What publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management?

Explanation

AFI 36-2101 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically outlines the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management. AFI 110-230, AFI 23-110, and AFI 36-210 are not relevant to materiel management duties and responsibilities.

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65. (001) The duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or specialty are described in AFMAN 36-

Explanation

The correct answer is 2101. The explanation for this answer is that AFMAN 36-2101 is the manual that describes the duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or specialty. It provides detailed information about the specific tasks and requirements for individuals in different career fields within the Air Force. This manual serves as a guide for Air Force personnel to understand their roles and responsibilities in their respective career fields.

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66. 002) The purpose of the Air Force logistics career broadening program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and

Explanation

The purpose of the Air Force logistics career broadening program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and perspectives. This means that the program aims to provide individuals with different viewpoints and outlooks on the materiel management system, allowing them to gain a comprehensive understanding of it. By considering various perspectives, individuals can develop a more well-rounded understanding of the system and make more informed decisions.

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67. (002) What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected Materiel Management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC. These two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected Materiel Management noncommissioned officers (NCO). The DLA is responsible for providing worldwide logistics support to the military services and other government agencies, while the AFMC is responsible for providing materiel management support to the Air Force. Together, they offer the necessary training and experience for NCOs in the field of wholesale logistics.

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68. How far back can users query CTH records?

Explanation

Users can query CTH records for a minimum of 1 year or more. This means that they can access and retrieve CTH records that date back at least 1 year or further.

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69. 014) The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday?

Explanation

The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler on the 15th workday.

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70. (017) A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected

Explanation

A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected in the next scheduled release. This means that the issue identified in the report will be addressed and resolved in the next planned update or release of the computer system. This ensures that the processing of the system is not interrupted, and the correction is implemented in a controlled and scheduled manner.

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71. (022) What transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?

Explanation

The transaction identification code used to update the shipment-suspense detail is SSC.

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72. (207) Which listing is an important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of due in from maintenance (DIFM) assets?

Explanation

D23 is the correct answer because it is the listing that serves as an important tool for monitoring the status and maintaining visibility of due in from maintenance (DIFM) assets. This suggests that D23 provides a comprehensive overview of the assets that are currently in maintenance and allows for effective tracking and management of their status.

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73. Which bag contains general-support items?

Explanation

Bag a contains general-support items.

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74. (406) What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?

Explanation

The correct answer is Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46). This is the computer listing used to reconcile communications security and weapons assets. It is likely that this listing provides a detailed record of all weapons and communications security equipment, allowing for accurate tracking and reconciliation of these assets.

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75. (605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

Explanation

The correct answer is to circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it. This action is necessary in order to clearly indicate the mistake and provide the correct information. By circling the incorrect quantity, it is easily identifiable and by putting the correct quantity above it, it ensures that the correct information is recorded and can be easily referenced. This process helps to maintain accuracy and clarity in the receipt document.

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76. (612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization? 

Explanation

When planning a warehouse layout, minimizing work areas is important in order to increase storage space and utilization. Work areas are areas dedicated to activities such as packing, sorting, and loading/unloading, which take up valuable space that could otherwise be used for storage. By reducing the size and number of work areas, more space can be allocated for storage, leading to increased storage capacity and efficiency in the warehouse.

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77. (626) How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

Explanation

Type II shelf-life items should be scheduled for serviceability testing 15 to 45 days prior to the expiration date. This allows enough time to conduct the necessary testing and make any repairs or replacements before the items expire. Scheduling the testing too early may result in wasted resources if the items are still serviceable, while scheduling it too close to the expiration date may not leave enough time for any necessary actions to be taken. Therefore, the optimal timeframe for scheduling serviceability testing is within 15 to 45 days prior to the expiration date.

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78. 005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?

Explanation

Class V of supply consists of ammunition. This class includes all types of ammunition, explosives, mines, and associated components. It is responsible for the procurement, storage, and distribution of these items to support military operations. Class V is crucial for maintaining combat readiness and ensuring that the necessary ammunition is available for use by the military forces.

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79. Freeze code______  prevents further transaction processing against the item record during the time you are researching and preparing input for the RVP action.

Explanation

The correct answer is Q. The freeze code Q prevents further transaction processing against the item record during the time you are researching and preparing input for the RVP action. This means that while the freeze code Q is active, no additional transactions can be made on the item record, allowing the user to focus on researching and preparing for the RVP action without any interruptions or changes to the item record.

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80. In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested?

Explanation

DIFM items are normally requested in a quantity of one.

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81. When the request is for an item that requires higher than base level approval, the property custodian must prepare an _________________

Explanation

When the request is for an item that requires higher than base level approval, the property custodian must prepare an AF Form 601. This form is used to document and track the request for items that require additional approval beyond the base level. It ensures that the proper authorization is obtained before the item is issued or transferred.

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82. (607) Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?

Explanation

Materiel management inspectors are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account. These individuals have the knowledge and expertise to assess the condition of the property and ensure that it meets the required standards. They are responsible for conducting inspections, identifying any issues or damages, and making recommendations for repairs or replacements. By having specialized training and experience in materiel management, these inspectors are best equipped to determine the condition of property for the supply account.

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83. Which bag contains CWDE?

Explanation

The bag that contains CWDE is bag C.

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84. (401) Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity?

Explanation

The Equipment accountability office serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity. This office is responsible for ensuring that all equipment is properly accounted for and authorized for use. They review and authorize the acquisition, disposal, and transfer of equipment, ensuring that it is properly documented and accounted for. The Equipment accountability office plays a crucial role in maintaining the accountability and integrity of the base's equipment inventory.

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85. (639) Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

Explanation

Cost is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated. While operational deficiencies, workload breakdown, and general layout are all important factors to consider in order to ensure safety, cost does not directly contribute to the elimination of unsafe incidents. Safety should always be the top priority, and cost considerations should not compromise safety measures.

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86. (008) How often is AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?

Explanation

AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is released every three months. This regular publishing schedule allows for regular updates and revisions to be made to the manual to ensure that it remains up-to-date and accurate. By publishing the manual quarterly, the Air Force can provide its personnel with the most current information and guidance on supply procedures and practices.

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87. (210) What is the source of data Supply uses to process turnaround transactions?

Explanation

The source of data Supply uses to process turnaround transactions is AFTO Form 350.

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88. What is the main advantage of using the D043A over FEDLOG?

Explanation

The main advantage of using the D043A over FEDLOG is that the D043A is updated in real time. This means that any changes or updates to the D043A database are immediately reflected and available to users. This ensures that the information provided by the D043A is always current and accurate, allowing users to make informed decisions based on the most up-to-date data. In contrast, FEDLOG may not provide real-time updates, which could result in outdated or incorrect information being used.

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89. (418) An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator?

Explanation

An expendable item is identified by the code "X" used in the first position of an ERRC designator. This code indicates that the item is not expected to be repaired or recovered once it has been used or expended.

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90. (419) What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record?

Explanation

The maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record is 32. This means that the field can accommodate up to 32 characters of text to describe the item.

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91. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for

Explanation

Materiel management specialists are responsible for various tasks such as researching and identifying materiel requirements, preparing and analyzing reports, and evaluating procedures and policy data. However, they are not responsible for providing support to maintenance activities. The correct answer, therefore, is performing materiel management systems control functions.

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92. 005) Which class of supply includes weapons?

Explanation

Class II supplies include weapons.

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93. 011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Stock number. Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, selecting records using the stock number and transaction date allows for a specific and targeted inquiry. This means that only the records related to the specified stock number and transaction date will be retrieved, making it easier to track and analyze specific transactions.

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94. 018) What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?

Explanation

Special studies are the analysis method that is typically used to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem. Unlike trend analysis, which focuses on identifying patterns and trends over a period of time, special studies are conducted to address a specific issue or question. Problem analysis is a broader term that encompasses various methods used to identify and solve problems, while document analysis involves examining written records and documents to gain insights. Special studies, on the other hand, are specifically designed to provide in-depth analysis and recommendations for a particular situation or requirement.

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95. What methods can be used for submitting supplies?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hand carried; mailed; or transmitted by radio, telephone, terminal, or e-mail." This answer suggests that there are multiple methods available for submitting supplies, including hand carrying them, mailing them, transmitting them by radio, telephone, terminal, or e-mail. This indicates that the organization or system in question allows for various means of submitting supplies, providing flexibility and convenience for the users.

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96. Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

Explanation

When the on-hand quantity reaches zero, it means that there are no more items available in stock. In this case, the due-in detail record, which contains information about incoming inventory, becomes irrelevant and can be deleted. Deleting the record helps to keep the inventory management system up to date and accurate, as it removes unnecessary information that is no longer needed for tracking purposes.

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97. (402) The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

Explanation

The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.

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98. (411) An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?

Explanation

An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by the document identification code "AO*". This code is used to indicate that the requisition is automatically generated and sent to the source of supply without any manual intervention. It helps in streamlining the procurement process and ensures that the required items are automatically ordered when needed.

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99. (617) Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal because the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fulfill an issue request. This means that the warehouse is refusing to provide the requested quantity of the item.

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100. (202) Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?

Explanation

The management notice I004 is the correct answer because it is a result of issue processing and reflects the status of issue, kill, or backorder quantity.

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101. 211) What TRIC is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received?

Explanation

ISU is not an option for processing after disposition instructions for an unserviceable asset have been received.

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102. (410) Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen—do not ship?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. The shipment exception code used for assets frozen and not to be shipped is 1.

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103. (617) Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?

Explanation

The phrase "SERV BAL = 0" requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location. This means that you need to confirm that there are no serviceable items available in that particular location.

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104. (634) An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than

Explanation

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when there is a discrepancy between the recorded balance and the recounted quantity. In this case, the dollar value of the adjustment needs to be at least less than $100. This means that if the difference between the recorded balance and the recounted quantity is greater than $100, an automatic adjustment will not occur.

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105. 007) Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the Materiel Management System?

Explanation

The process of administration is not one of the four major supply processes in the Materiel Management System. The four major processes are item accounting, file maintenance, accounting and finance, and administration. Administration refers to the overall management and coordination of the system, rather than a specific supply process.

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106. Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeables and substitutes?

Explanation

The due-out process in accounting provides the total asset position of the item record requested, including interchangeables and substitutes. This process tracks the movement of items from the organization's inventory to external parties or other internal departments. By keeping a record of due-outs, the accounting department can accurately determine the current asset position and ensure that all items are properly accounted for.

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107. (201) When preparing an issue request, which copy of what form is used by the point of submission as a control register for determining the next available document serial number?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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108. (203) What Materiel Management System output notifies the core automated maintenance system (CAMS) of changes in due-out status?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1SH. The 1SH output in Materiel Management System notifies the core automated maintenance system (CAMS) of changes in due-out status. This means that when there are changes in the status of items that are due to be sent out for maintenance, the 1SH output will inform the CAMS system about these changes.

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109. (402) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies nonequipment authorization inventory data equipment items?

Explanation

The ERRCD "NF1" identifies nonequipment authorization inventory data equipment items. This code indicates that the item is not considered equipment and does not require authorization.

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110. (624) How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?

Explanation

Electronic sensitive devices are identified on the item record using the Type cargo code 3. This code specifically designates items that are electronic sensitive devices. The other options, IEX code 3, IEX code 4, and Type cargo code 4, do not specifically indicate electronic sensitive devices. Therefore, the correct answer is Type cargo code 3.

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111. (634) When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?

Explanation

When researching a physical overage, the maximum number of months from the current date to go to the last inventory adjustment is 12. This means that you would look back up to 12 months from the current date to find the most recent inventory adjustment.

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112. (804) At a minimum, what Microsoft® Windows operating system is required for flashing a handheld terminal?95.

Explanation

The correct answer is 95. This is because the question asks for the minimum Windows operating system required for flashing a handheld terminal. Windows 95 is the earliest version of Windows that is mentioned as an option in the given choices.

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113. (401) The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between

Explanation

The correct answer is the Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders. This is because the EAO is responsible for managing and maintaining equipment accountability, while organization commanders have a direct responsibility for the equipment assigned to their units. Therefore, both parties need to agree on the selection of property custodians to ensure proper accountability and management of equipment.

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114. (403) Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?

Explanation

The correct answer is Prepost. Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This suggests that the TIN is processed in advance, prior to the actual pick-up of the property.

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115. 415) Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. D18 and R01. These two listings, D18 and R01, are used to perform due-out review and validation.

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116. What happens to the suspense file copy of an SDR when a reply is received?

Explanation

When a reply is received for an SDR, the suspense file copy is destroyed. This means that the copy of the SDR that was kept in the suspense file is no longer needed and is therefore disposed of. This is likely done to ensure that there is no confusion or duplication of records, as the reply has already been received and the information has been processed.

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117. (610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?

Explanation

Unresolved supply discrepancy reports are forwarded to the MAJCOM (Major Command) when additional help is needed. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating supply operations within a specific geographic area or functional area. They have the authority and resources to provide the necessary assistance and guidance in resolving supply discrepancies effectively.

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118. (613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

Explanation

A single capital letter is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location. This designator helps to distinguish between different levels within the warehouse, making it easier to locate and retrieve items. Using a single capital letter allows for a simple and efficient labeling system that can be easily understood and followed by warehouse staff.

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119. 622) Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Using organization." The using organization is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes. This means that the organization that generates or uses the hazardous waste is responsible for properly disposing of it and covering the expenses associated with its disposal. This includes following all relevant regulations and guidelines for the safe and environmentally-friendly disposal of hazardous materials.

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120. 017) When the Materiel Management System does not process or update transactions as it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?

Explanation

When the Materiel Management System does not process or update transactions correctly, the problem is reported to Headquarters, Operations, and Sustainment Systems Group using AF Form 1815.

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121. (021) What materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?

Explanation

The correct answer is D04. The D04 materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database.

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122. 209) What term is used to describe selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair?

Explanation

Depot-level reparables refer to selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair. This means that these items are sent to a depot or repair facility for repairs, rather than being repaired at a lower level such as a shop or equipment level.

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123. (213) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to assign a deployment flag on a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) detail?

Explanation

The correct answer is FKD. The FKD transaction identification code is used to assign a deployment flag on a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) detail. This code indicates that the spares package is ready for deployment and can be used in a mobility operation.

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124. (413) Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on which Air Force form?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1667. This is because supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items is reported on Air Force form 1667.

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125. (416) How often is FEDLOG updated?

Explanation

FEDLOG is updated quarterly. This means that the information in FEDLOG is refreshed every three months. This regular update ensures that the data in FEDLOG is accurate and up-to-date for users who rely on it for various purposes. Updating FEDLOG quarterly allows for timely and relevant information to be available to users, enabling them to make informed decisions based on the most current data.

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126. 605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Serviceable/undamaged items." Receipt discrepancies typically refer to discrepancies or issues that arise when receiving items, such as misidentified items, quantity discrepancies, or issues with documentation. Serviceable/undamaged items do not fall under the category of receipt discrepancies as they do not involve any discrepancies or issues with the items themselves.

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127. (611) What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Explanation

The major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage is the limited use of Material Handling Equipment (MHE). Unimproved open storage lacks proper infrastructure and organization, making it difficult to efficiently use MHE for moving and storing goods. This can result in slower operations, increased labor costs, and potential damage to the goods being handled.

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128. (614) Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?10

Explanation

The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory. This means that the validations must be finished within 10 working days from when the cycle inventory begins. It is important for the storage activity to complete these validations in a timely manner to ensure accuracy and efficiency in the inventory management process.

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129. (638) The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the following exceptkeep the length and number of moves to a minimum.

Explanation

The principle of "preposition materiel" includes several guidelines for efficient material handling. These guidelines include positioning containers to facilitate picking up, not obstructing other materiel movements, and using conveyors to reduce accidents and prevent damage. However, the principle does not specifically mention keeping the length and number of moves to a minimum. This means that while it is generally desirable to minimize the length and number of moves in material handling, it is not explicitly included in the principle of "preposition materiel".

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130. How many categories are supplies grouped in?

Explanation

The correct answer is Ten. This means that supplies are grouped into ten different categories.

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131. 016) How frequently should you schedule surveillance visit?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Annually. Scheduling surveillance visits annually ensures that regular inspections and assessments are conducted to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the surveillance system. This frequency allows for timely identification of any potential risks or issues and allows for appropriate corrective actions to be taken. Quarterly or semiannual visits may be too frequent and could be burdensome, while scheduling visits as required may lead to inconsistent monitoring and oversight. Therefore, annual surveillance visits strike a balance between regular monitoring and practicality.

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132. (215) What code reflected in the operations plan (OPlan) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit type code (UTC). In the operations plan (OPlan) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD), the unit type code (UTC) is used to define the number of passengers and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking. The UTC provides specific information about the type of unit and its capabilities, allowing for effective planning and allocation of resources during military operations.

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133. _____ is one of the most significant functions—if not the most important—supporting an LRS.

Explanation

Stock control is one of the most significant functions supporting an LRS. Effective stock control ensures that the right amount of inventory is available at the right time to meet customer demand. It involves monitoring stock levels, tracking inventory movement, and implementing strategies to optimize stock turnover. Without proper stock control, an LRS may face issues such as stockouts, excess inventory, increased costs, and customer dissatisfaction. Therefore, stock control plays a crucial role in ensuring smooth operations and customer satisfaction in an LRS.

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134. (412) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Exception/other. This status is used when there are out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, or other conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition exactly as requested. It indicates that there is a deviation from the normal process due to unforeseen circumstances.

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135. (213) What support Aircraft Sustainability Model (ASM) is used to calculate the number of spare parts for other than wartime?

Explanation

The support Aircraft Sustainability Model (ASM) is used to calculate the number of spare parts for other than wartime. The correct answer is b. Peacetime and combined support. This means that the ASM takes into account the needs and requirements of both peacetime operations and combined support efforts. It considers the specific demands and challenges of maintaining and sustaining aircraft during non-wartime situations, ensuring that an adequate number of spare parts are available to support ongoing operations and readiness.

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136. (605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

Explanation

The responsibility to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item lies with the inspector. Inspectors are trained professionals who are responsible for ensuring the quality and accuracy of items. They carefully examine and inspect the items to ensure that they meet the required standards and specifications. In the case of a misidentified item, the inspector would be responsible for recognizing the mistake and taking the necessary steps to verify its true identity. This could involve comparing the item with the correct specifications, conducting further tests or investigations, or seeking clarification from relevant parties.

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137. (806) What process verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse?

Explanation

The process of "Put Away" verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse. This process involves taking the item from its initial location and placing it in its designated storage area. By completing this process, the user ensures that the item is stored in the correct location, allowing for easy retrieval and accurate inventory management.

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138. Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field?

Explanation

The MAJCOM Functional Manager handles all enlisted issues for a major command in the 2S career field. This role is responsible for coordinating and managing the career field's activities within the command, including personnel assignments, training, and career development. They work closely with the Chief Enlisted Manager, Career Field Manager, and Commander to ensure the effective functioning of the career field and address any issues or concerns that may arise.

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139. (019) What transaction identification code input is created from the transaction exception 7 issue document?

Explanation

The transaction identification code input that is created from the transaction exception 7 issue document is a Special requisition (SPR).

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140. (206) Which due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail record indicates an issue to Maintenance?

Explanation

The correct answer is FIRM. In the context of a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail record, the term "FIRM" indicates an issue to Maintenance. This means that there is a problem or concern that needs to be addressed by the maintenance department. The other options, CREDIT, ISSUE, and MEMO, do not specifically indicate an issue to Maintenance.

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141. (403) What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

Explanation

The correct answer is E. The activity code used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins is E.

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142. (410) What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

Explanation

The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.

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143. (417) Which code in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions?

Explanation

The Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SMR) code in an Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions. This code helps identify the level of maintenance required for a particular part or component, the methods and resources needed to support that maintenance, and instructions for the disposition of the part after maintenance or repair. It is a crucial component of the IPB system that ensures effective and efficient maintenance operations.

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144. (633) What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?Annotated 1GP notice.Inventory count record.

Explanation

The Annotated 1GP notice is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file.

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145. In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed?

Explanation

The information on an inquiry output is displayed in a narrative format. This means that the information is presented in a written or spoken form, providing a detailed account or description of the subject matter. It may include relevant details, explanations, and possibly even a storyline to convey the information effectively. This format allows for a more comprehensive and descriptive representation of the data or content being presented.

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146. How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for issue requests?

Explanation

Two copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for issue requests. This is important because it ensures that there is a record of the issue request and allows for proper tracking and accountability of the items being requested. One copy is typically kept by the requester and the other copy is kept by the issuing authority. Having two copies helps to prevent any confusion or discrepancies in the future.

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147. 208) Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level repair?

Explanation

The action taken code "1" indicates that an item is not authorized for base level repair.

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148. (606) What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record?

Explanation

The correct answer is "+". In TEX code, the "+" symbol is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record. This symbol indicates that the item should be added to the organization's inventory.

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149. What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?

Explanation

The code used to obtain repair cycle data is 5.

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150. 023) What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action does not contain a freeze code?

Explanation

If an item record requiring reverse-post action does not contain a freeze code, the code assigned would be Q.

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151. 213) Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary?

Explanation

MRSP assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for 60 days before resupply is necessary. These assets are specifically allocated to ensure that the weapon system remains operational and capable of fulfilling its mission for an extended period without requiring additional resources or resupply. This allows for increased mobility and flexibility in deployment scenarios, as well as reducing the need for frequent resupply missions.

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152. (213) For long-term deployments, what input transfers accountability of selected equipment items?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 1ET/FME. This input transfers accountability of selected equipment items for long-term deployments.

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153. How are the bulk area holding bays identified in the receiving area?

Explanation

The bulk area holding bays in the receiving area are identified by a three-digit alphanumeric location. This means that each bay is assigned a unique code consisting of three characters, which can be a combination of letters and numbers. This system helps in efficiently organizing and locating the bulk area holding bays, making it easier for personnel to navigate and manage the inventory.

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154. (613) What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location?

Explanation

When deleting a warehouse location, the letter or symbol entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field is "*".

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155. (820) Which directory contains commonly used programs, compilers, and other processors?

Explanation

The directory "System" contains commonly used programs, compilers, and other processors. This directory is typically where essential system files and utilities are stored. It is a central location for important software components that are necessary for the functioning of the operating system and other applications.

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156. 021) What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?

Explanation

A consolidated transaction register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes. This register helps in keeping track of all the transactions that have taken place, allowing for efficient and accurate management of materials. It provides a comprehensive overview of the transactions, making it easier to analyze and make informed decisions regarding inventory management.

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157. (204) Which organization contacts sources of supply directly to obtain status, lateral support, or other assistance?

Explanation

LSC, or Logistics Support Cell, contacts sources of supply directly to obtain status, lateral support, or other assistance. This means that LSC is responsible for reaching out to suppliers to gather information about the availability and current status of supplies, as well as to request support or assistance if needed.

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158. What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?

Explanation

The basis of issue is the element within an allowance standard that establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization. It determines the quantity of items that are authorized to be issued based on factors such as the purpose, need, and capability of the recipient. The basis of issue ensures that the right amount of items is distributed to meet the requirements and objectives of the individual, activity, or organization.

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159. (408) When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

Explanation

When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, the adjusted minimum level that should be used is A. This means that the minimum level of stock required is adjusted based on factors such as lead time, demand variability, and desired service level. Using the adjusted minimum level ensures that there is enough stock on hand to meet demand and avoid stockouts, while also minimizing excess inventory and associated costs.

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160. (409) Readiness-based level details are identified by

Explanation

Readiness-based level details are identified by "type detail L, activity code A" because the question is asking for the correct identification of readiness-based level details. The correct identification is specified as type detail L, which means the type detail is L. Additionally, the correct identification requires the activity code to be A. Therefore, the correct answer is "type detail L, activity code A."

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161. (412) What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition?

Explanation

The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has cancelled a requisition.

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162. (419) For internal records what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields?

Explanation

The transaction identification code (TRIC) FCU is used to change the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack fields in internal records, except for local purchase (LP) items.

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163. (810) What is the process of arranging data into meaningful order so that you can analyze it more effectively?Calculating.

Explanation

Sorting is the process of arranging data into a meaningful order, which allows for more effective analysis. By sorting data, it becomes easier to identify patterns, trends, and outliers, making it simpler to draw insights and make informed decisions. Calculating refers to performing mathematical operations, conditioning refers to preparing data for analysis, and arranging is a general term that does not specifically imply meaningful order. Therefore, sorting is the most appropriate answer.

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164. (816) Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flight line base level user?

Explanation

The correct answer is TRACKER. TRACKER is a system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, specifically focusing on the flight line base level user. It is likely a software or database system that allows users to track and manage their requisitions efficiently, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are readily available at the flight line.

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165. (015) In materiel management, you will primarily deal with which divisions of the Air Force supply management activity group?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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166. How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?

Explanation

Document control maintains a copy of the D04 on disk for a period of 2 years. This means that the document will be stored and accessible for any necessary reference or retrieval purposes for a duration of 2 years. After this time, it may be archived or deleted based on the organization's policies and requirements.

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167. 022) What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?

Explanation

R40 is the correct answer because it is the listing used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details. This means that when there are shipments that are overdue or have not been delivered on time, the R40 listing is used to keep track of these delinquent shipments and manage the necessary actions to resolve the issue.

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168. What are the two areas usually found in a refrigerated warehouse or stockroom?

Explanation

In a refrigerated warehouse or stockroom, there are typically two areas: chill space and freeze space. Chill space refers to an area where the temperature is kept cool but above freezing, usually between 32°F and 45°F. This area is used to store perishable items that need to be kept chilled but not frozen. Freeze space, on the other hand, is an area where the temperature is below freezing, typically around 0°F or lower. This space is used to store frozen goods that need to be kept at a constant frozen temperature to maintain their quality and safety.

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169. (619) What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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170. (620) What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

Explanation

AF-EMIS stands for Air Force Environmental Management Information System. It is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information. This system provides comprehensive and up-to-date information on hazardous materials, their handling, storage, and disposal, as well as guidance on pollution prevention practices. AF-EMIS is a valuable resource for Air Force personnel to ensure compliance with environmental regulations and to minimize the impact of their operations on the environment.

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171. Where can you find allowance standards?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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172. (621) What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

Explanation

The Quality Status List is published by DLA and it provides data on products that have been tested or condemned. This list helps in maintaining the quality standards of products and ensures that only tested and approved items are used. The Quick Reference List, Condemned Item List, and Defense Referral List do not specifically provide information on tested or condemned products, making them incorrect options.

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173. (816) The core of asset management is the

Explanation

The correct answer is Stock Control System. Asset management involves tracking and managing various assets, such as stocks, in order to optimize their use and ensure their availability. A stock control system is a crucial component of asset management as it helps in monitoring and controlling the inventory levels, tracking stock movements, and ensuring efficient stock replenishment. It enables businesses to have accurate and up-to-date information about their stock levels, which is essential for effective decision-making and cost control. Therefore, a stock control system is an integral part of asset management.

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174. 820) Which interactive processing facility command changes the name of the workspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "NAME." This command is used in the interactive processing facility to change the name of the workspace.

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175. (212) Which input is used for initial stockage and replenishment of a supply point?MSI

Explanation

The correct answer is ISU. The ISU (In-Service Unit) is used for the initial stockage and replenishment of a supply point. It is a mobile storage unit that can be deployed to various locations to provide necessary supplies and equipment. The ISU helps ensure that the supply point has enough stock to meet the demands and requirements of the operation.

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176. 411) Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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177. What condition does a green tag identify?

Explanation

A green tag identifies unserviceable items that can be economically repaired or restored for use.

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178. What condition tag is used to identify unserviceable materiel that is uneconomical to repair (condemned)?

Explanation

DD Form 1577 is the correct answer because it is the condition tag used to identify unserviceable materiel that is uneconomical to repair (condemned). DD Form 1571 is used for unserviceable materiel that is reparable, DD Form 1570 is used for unserviceable materiel that is reparable but uneconomical to repair, and DD Form 1576 is used for unserviceable materiel that is reparable and economical to repair. Therefore, DD Form 1577 specifically identifies condemned materiel that cannot be repaired.

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179. Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?

Explanation

To access the receipt processing screen, you need to enter the system designator and due-in document number on the receipt inquiry screen. This information is necessary to identify and locate the specific receipt that needs to be processed. The system designator helps in determining the type of document being received, while the due-in document number provides a unique identifier for the receipt.

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180. (644) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets

Explanation

The item manager is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets. They are in charge of managing the entire lifecycle of the items, from acquisition to disposal, ensuring that they are properly maintained, repaired, and replaced as needed to support the mission. The AFMC item management team, LRS commander, and DLA may play supporting roles in this process, but the primary responsibility lies with the item manager.

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181. _______are three-position alphanumeric codes used to identify special projects

Explanation

Project codes are three-position alphanumeric codes used to identify special projects. These codes serve as unique identifiers for specific projects and help in organizing and categorizing them. They are used to differentiate between different projects and allow for easy tracking and management. Project codes are essential in ensuring that special projects are properly identified and can be easily referenced when needed.

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182. (406) When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?

Explanation

When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, you would send a DSM (Document Suspense Maintenance) report to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base. This report helps to document and track any changes in the base's weapon inventory, ensuring accurate record-keeping and accountability.

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183. (407) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Requisition objective (RO). Requisition objective is a stock leveling term that represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It helps in determining the optimal amount of inventory to keep in order to meet demand and avoid stockouts or excess inventory. Economic order quantity (EOQ) is a different concept that calculates the optimal order quantity to minimize total inventory costs. Condemned quantity (NCQ) and safety-level quantity (SLQ) are not relevant to the given question.

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184. 809) The Standard Asset Tracking System (SATS) and the Materiel Management System interface input session

Explanation

The correct answer is that the Standard Asset Tracking System (SATS) sends the SATS-generated Materiel Management System transactions to the Materiel Management System. This means that SATS generates the transactions and then sends them to the Materiel Management System for further processing. This allows for seamless integration and communication between the two systems, ensuring that the necessary data is updated and shared accurately.

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185. Whose responsibility is it to establish and implement an effective program for returning serviceable XB3 materiel to the supply system?

Explanation

The accountable officer is responsible for establishing and implementing an effective program for returning serviceable XB3 materiel to the supply system. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the process for returning the materiel is efficient and meets the necessary standards. They are accountable for the proper handling and management of the materiel, making sure that it is returned in a serviceable condition and can be reused or redistributed within the supply system.

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186. (607) What three things are used to identify an item?

Explanation

The three things used to identify an item are reference number, stock number, and item description. These three pieces of information provide a unique identification for the item, allowing it to be easily located and distinguished from other items. The reference number helps to categorize and track the item, the stock number is a specific identifier for the item within a particular inventory, and the item description provides additional details about the item's characteristics and purpose.

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187. 607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?

Explanation

The purpose of the AF Form 2032 is to update inspection data. This form is used to record and track the results of inspections conducted on various items or equipment. By updating inspection data on this form, it allows for the monitoring and maintenance of the inspected items, ensuring they are in proper working condition and meet required standards.

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188. At least how many individual options does Standard Asset Tracking System (SATS) have built-in within the reports list?

Explanation

The Standard Asset Tracking System (SATS) has a minimum of 25 individual options built-in within the reports list.

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189. How many SMAGs are there within DOD?

Explanation

There are five SMAGs within DOD.

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190. (019) What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?

Explanation

Transaction exception 6 is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service.

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191. (410) What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?

Explanation

The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the return is due to the item being damaged during the shipping process.

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192. (414) Which materiel management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

Explanation

The materiel management program that identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR) is NGV587.

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193. (609) Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?

Explanation

The correct answer is Inspector. An inspector is responsible for scheduling and carrying out an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage. This involves regularly inspecting the items to ensure they are stored properly and in good condition. The inspector's role is crucial in maintaining the quality and integrity of the stored items.

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194. 802) The type of hand-held terminal that uses a Symbol Technologies Hand Held Fuzzy Logic Scanner is the Intermec Janus

Explanation

The correct answer is 2010. This is because the question states that the hand-held terminal uses a Symbol Technologies Hand Held Fuzzy Logic Scanner, and the Intermec Janus is the type of hand-held terminal that fits this description.

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195. How many organizations make up the AFGLSC?

Explanation

The AFGLSC is made up of three organizations.

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196. (010) Which record retrieval code in the Materiel Management System gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?

Explanation

Record retrieval code 4 in the Materiel Management System provides the transaction history when processing an inquiry.

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197. 608) For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?

Explanation

An FCH TRIC is used for changes related to identity. This means that it is used when there is a need to update or modify the personal information or identification details of an individual or entity. It could involve changes in name, address, contact information, or any other identifying data. The FCH TRIC helps in ensuring that the updated information is accurately recorded and maintained in the system.

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198. (628) At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished

Explanation

On-the-shelf TCTO items are inspected at least once a month to ensure compliance with TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) requirements. This regular inspection helps to ensure that the necessary actions and tasks specified in the TCTO are being carried out correctly and on time. It allows for timely identification and resolution of any non-compliance issues, ensuring that the TCTO items are maintained in accordance with the required standards.

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199. (629) The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

Explanation

The receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item must include the model of the item and the name and address of the manufacturer. This information is necessary for tracking and identifying the item in case of any issues or claims. The manufacturer's name and address is important for contacting them for support or warranty-related matters. The model helps in identifying the specific product for which the warranty or guaranty is being provided.

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200. What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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A 13 character alpha numeric number associated with a specific item is...
(009) How many characters make up a national stock number?
(009) What two entities make up the national stock number?
When Customer Service receives a request for supplies, it prepares an...
. What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for...
(601) Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for...
602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others?
008) How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3...
When you receive a reject, what should you do first?
012) Management notices can be readily identified by what letters...
ELog21 is the Air Force transformation campaign plan to improve...
(007) What Materiel Management System process is activated if assets...
008) How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply...
List the two types of open storage areas
006) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron flight is responsible for...
What type of receipts must be processed before all others?
Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such...
603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the
(615) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of...
(004) What source of supply consists of vendors from the local...
Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support...
Which volume and part of AFMAN 23-110 is used most by materiel...
(022) What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?
(805) Which hand-held terminal function allows the user to place items...
(008) What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23–110, USAF...
(010) How many major types of inquiries are there in the Materiel...
(204) Who is responsible for ensuring that all local resources are...
What PC program is used to manage mobility bags?
(618) Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
__________ Is the program that was created to promote a better...
006) What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides...
(014) Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system...
(023) What is the transaction identification code for an automated...
What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?
What TRIC is used to load a new stock number?
Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
(811) In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to...
(003) Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect...
(011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which...
(012) Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of...
(012) Within how many workdays should all Materiel Management System...
(020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed...
(216) Shelf life assets are tracked in the Mobility Inventory Control...
(004) Local manufacture is a term that describes an item
(010) Which action code on an item record inquiry in the Materiel...
(012) Which product of the Materiel Management System is used to...
Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to...
(404) When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a...
What CD-ROM research system can be used to cross relate part numbers...
(420) What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute...
(013) Who determines who will process controlled transaction...
(205) Which report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply...
(213) The decision to transfer Mobility readiness spares package...
(216) Mobility bags (MOBAGS) can be built ahead of time and stored...
601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function...
The three ALC (air logistic centers) are.....
(003) In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's...
(007) Which maintenance process updates various basic and support...
(010) What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation...
(012) Which chapter in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, volume...
(201) What one position alpha code is used to indicate how the...
Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets?
(630) What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft...
1. What publication describes the general duties and responsibilities...
(001) The duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field...
002) The purpose of the Air Force logistics career broadening program...
(002) What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience...
How far back can users query CTH records?
014) The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is...
(017) A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system...
(022) What transaction identification code is used to update the...
(207) Which listing is an important tool for monitoring status and...
Which bag contains general-support items?
(406) What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to...
(605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage...
(612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be...
(626) How many days prior to the expiration date should type II...
005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
Freeze code______  prevents further transaction processing...
In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested?
When the request is for an item that requires higher than base level...
(607) Which materiel management individuals are authorized to...
Which bag contains CWDE?
(401) Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization...
(639) Which of the following is not a factor to consider when...
(008) How often is AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?
(210) What is the source of data Supply uses to process turnaround...
What is the main advantage of using the D043A over FEDLOG?
(418) An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first...
(419) What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive...
(001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
005) Which class of supply includes weapons?
011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which...
018) What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time...
What methods can be used for submitting supplies?
Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
(402) The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request...
(411) An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified...
(617) Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
(202) Which management notice is a result of issue processing and...
211) What TRIC is not an option for processing after dispositions...
(410) Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen—do...
(617) Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to...
(634) An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the...
007) Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in...
Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the...
(201) When preparing an issue request, which copy of what form is used...
(203) What Materiel Management System output notifies the core...
(402) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost...
(624) How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item...
(634) When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number...
(804) At a minimum, what Microsoft® Windows operating system is...
(401) The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement...
(403) Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking...
415) Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and...
What happens to the suspense file copy of an SDR when a reply is...
(610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to...
(613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a...
622) Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous...
017) When the Materiel Management System does not process or update...
(021) What materiel management register lists information from the...
209) What term is used to describe selected XD items that are...
(213) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to assign a...
(413) Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on...
(416) How often is FEDLOG updated?
605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt...
(611) What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open...
(614) Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory...
(638) The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the...
How many categories are supplies grouped in?
016) How frequently should you schedule surveillance visit?
(215) What code reflected in the operations plan (OPlan) or time...
_____ is one of the most significant functions—if not the...
(412) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue...
(213) What support Aircraft Sustainability Model (ASM) is used to...
(605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of...
(806) What process verifies that the user has placed an item in the...
Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career...
(019) What transaction identification code input is created from the...
(206) Which due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail record indicates an...
(403) What activity code is used to process equipment authorization...
(410) What document identification code indicates a denial to a...
(417) Which code in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides...
(633) What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense...
In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed?
How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for issue requests?
208) Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base...
(606) What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB...
What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?
023) What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post...
213) Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to...
(213) For long-term deployments, what input transfers accountability...
How are the bulk area holding bays identified in the receiving area?
(613) What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location...
(820) Which directory contains commonly used programs, compilers, and...
021) What materiel management register is prepared from transaction...
(204) Which organization contacts sources of supply directly to obtain...
What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of...
(408) When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which...
(409) Readiness-based level details are identified by
(412) What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source...
(419) For internal records what transaction identification code (TRIC)...
(810) What is the process of arranging data into meaningful order so...
(816) Which system provides the user with information on their...
(015) In materiel management, you will primarily deal with which...
How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?
022) What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense...
What are the two areas usually found in a refrigerated warehouse or...
(619) What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and...
(620) What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and...
Where can you find allowance standards?
(621) What list is published by DLA that provides data on products...
(816) The core of asset management is the
820) Which interactive processing facility command changes the name of...
(212) Which input is used for initial stockage and replenishment of a...
411) Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority...
What condition does a green tag identify?
What condition tag is used to identify unserviceable materiel that is...
Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you...
(644) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet...
_______are three-position alphanumeric codes used to identify special...
(406) When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what...
(407) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that...
809) The Standard Asset Tracking System (SATS) and the Materiel...
Whose responsibility is it to establish and implement an effective...
(607) What three things are used to identify an item?
607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?
At least how many individual options does Standard Asset Tracking...
How many SMAGs are there within DOD?
(019) What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded...
(410) What transaction exception code is used to process a return for...
(414) Which materiel management program identifies all claims...
(609) Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance...
802) The type of hand-held terminal that uses a Symbol Technologies...
How many organizations make up the AFGLSC?
(010) Which record retrieval code in the Materiel Management System...
608) For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?
(628) At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to...
(629) The information that must be annotated on the receiving document...
What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?
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