2r051 Edit Code 5 Volume 4 - Study Guide / Answers

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2r051 Edit Code 5 Volume 4 - Study Guide / Answers - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (601) Which of the following is not a level of maintenance?

    • A.

      Base.

    • B.

      Depot.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base. The question asks to identify which option is not a level of maintenance. Base maintenance is indeed a level of maintenance, involving the repair and maintenance of equipment at a centralized location. Depot, intermediate, and organizational maintenance are also levels of maintenance, each with their own specific roles and responsibilities in the maintenance and repair process.

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  • 2. 

    (601) What is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs?

    • A.

      Base.

    • B.

      Depot.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    B. Depot.
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs. Depot maintenance involves extensive repairs and overhauls that cannot be performed at lower levels of maintenance. It typically includes the repair or replacement of major components and systems, as well as extensive testing and refurbishment. This level of maintenance is usually carried out at specialized facilities, such as depots, where there are specialized equipment, tools, and skilled personnel available to handle complex repairs.

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  • 3. 

    (602) Which maintenance category consists of time compliance technical order (TCTO) actions which can be accomplished with the skills possessed by a unit?

    • A.

      Off-equipment, Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • B.

      On-equipment, AFMC.

    • C.

      Off-equipment, operating command.

    • D.

      On-equipment, operating command.

    Correct Answer
    D. On-equipment, operating command.
    Explanation
    On-equipment, operating command is the correct answer because it refers to maintenance actions that can be performed by the unit itself, using the skills and resources available within the unit. This means that the maintenance can be done without the need for external support or assistance from higher-level maintenance organizations such as Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

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  • 4. 

    (602) Which maintenance category consists of those tasks that cannot be done on the end item but are within the capability of the skills and equipment possessed by a unit?

    • A.

      On-equipment, Air Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • B.

      Off-equipment, AFMC.

    • C.

      On-equipment, operating command.

    • D.

      Off-equipment, operating command.

    Correct Answer
    D. Off-equipment, operating command.
    Explanation
    Off-equipment, operating command is the correct answer because it refers to those maintenance tasks that cannot be performed on the end item itself but can be done by the unit using their own skills and equipment. This means that the maintenance tasks are carried out by the unit outside of the equipment, rather than directly on the equipment itself. This category allows the unit to handle maintenance tasks that do not require specialized equipment or expertise from higher-level maintenance organizations.

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  • 5. 

    (603) Which maintenance category includes correcting discrepancies discovered during flight?

    • A.

      Unscheduled.

    • B.

      Preventive.

    • C.

      Debriefing.

    • D.

      Scheduled.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unscheduled.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unscheduled". Unscheduled maintenance refers to the maintenance activities that are performed to correct any discrepancies or issues that are discovered during a flight. This type of maintenance is not planned in advance and is usually carried out to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft. It may involve repairs, troubleshooting, or replacements of components or systems that are found to be malfunctioning or damaged during the flight.

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  • 6. 

    (604) “To minimize the length of time that an aircraft is out of commission due to a scheduled inspection” is the objective of what inspection concept?

    • A.

      Isochronal.

    • B.

      Periodic.

    • C.

      Phased.

    • D.

      Depot.

    Correct Answer
    C. Phased.
    Explanation
    The objective of the inspection concept mentioned in the question is to minimize the length of time that an aircraft is out of commission due to a scheduled inspection. The term "phased" refers to a type of inspection that is conducted on a regular basis, usually at predetermined intervals, to ensure the continued airworthiness of the aircraft. This type of inspection is typically planned and scheduled in such a way that it can be completed within a shorter timeframe, minimizing the downtime of the aircraft.

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  • 7. 

    (605) All aircraft, no matter what inspection concept applies, are required to have how many calendar inspections?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
    Explanation
    All aircraft, regardless of the inspection concept being used, are required to have two calendar inspections.

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  • 8. 

    (605) Which inspection status is affected by the 30 or 90 day inspection?

    • A.

      Preflight.

    • B.

      Thruflight.

    • C.

      Hourly postflight.

    • D.

      Home station check.

    Correct Answer
    D. Home station check.
    Explanation
    The 30 or 90 day inspection affects the Home station check. This inspection is conducted every 30 days for aircraft that fly less than 30 hours a month or every 90 days for aircraft that fly more than 30 hours a month. It includes a thorough inspection of the aircraft to ensure its airworthiness and to identify any maintenance or repair needs. This inspection is usually performed at the home station or base of operations.

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  • 9. 

    (606) What changes to baseline computer programs are normally announced by a time compliance technical order (TCTO)?

    • A.

      Price-only.

    • B.

      Software-only.

    • C.

      Hardware-only.

    • D.

      Contractor-specific.

    Correct Answer
    B. Software-only.
    Explanation
    When baseline computer programs undergo changes, these changes are typically announced through a time compliance technical order (TCTO). The TCTO specifically addresses software-only modifications, indicating that only the software component of the computer program is being altered. This suggests that the hardware and contractor-specific aspects remain unchanged. Therefore, the correct answer is software-only.

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  • 10. 

    (607) What is the number of authorized basic time compliance technical order (TCTO) categories?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    There are three authorized basic time compliance technical order (TCTO) categories.

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  • 11. 

    (607) What are the authorized types of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs)?

    • A.

      Safety, routine, and urgent.

    • B.

      Immediate, safety, and urgent.

    • C.

      Immediate, routine, and safety.

    • D.

      Immediate, routine, and urgent.

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate, routine, and urgent.
    Explanation
    The authorized types of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are immediate, routine, and urgent. Immediate TCTOs are issued when the condition could result in injury or death, routine TCTOs are issued for non-emergency situations, and urgent TCTOs are issued when the condition could result in damage to equipment or systems.

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  • 12. 

    (607) To permit simultaneous release of two or more time compliance technical orders (TCTO) requiring work in the same general area, procuring activities are authorized to withhold the release of non-safety routine action TCTOs for a maximum of...

    • A.

      30 days.

    • B.

      60 days.

    • C.

      90 days.

    • D.

      120 days.

    Correct Answer
    C. 90 days.
    Explanation
    Procuring activities are authorized to withhold the release of non-safety routine action TCTOs for a maximum of 90 days in order to allow for the simultaneous release of two or more time compliance technical orders (TCTO) requiring work in the same general area. This allows for efficient coordination and completion of the necessary work.

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  • 13. 

    (608) Which logistics indicator shows a unit’s ability to keep equipment in a ready status?

    • A.

      System reliability.

    • B.

      Airframe capability.

    • C.

      Base level repair capability.

    • D.

      Maintenance scheduling effectiveness.

    Correct Answer
    A. System reliability.
    Explanation
    System reliability is the correct answer because it refers to the ability of a unit to keep equipment in a ready status. This indicator measures the effectiveness and efficiency of the system in terms of preventing failures, minimizing downtime, and ensuring that equipment is available and operational when needed. It reflects the unit's ability to maintain and sustain its equipment, ensuring that it is ready for use at all times.

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  • 14. 

    (608) The data to calculate system capability rates is obtained from

    • A.

      The major command (MAJCOM).

    • B.

      The weekly maintenance plan.

    • C.

      Materiel supply liaison.

    • D.

      Debriefing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Debriefing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is debriefing. Debriefing is the process of gathering information and feedback after a task or mission has been completed. In the context of calculating system capability rates, debriefing would involve collecting data and insights from individuals involved in the maintenance and operation of the system. This information can provide valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the system, which can then be used to calculate its capability rates. Obtaining data from the major command, the weekly maintenance plan, or the materiel supply liaison may not provide the same level of detailed and specific information as debriefing.

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  • 15. 

    (609) If repair is not authorized at base level who forwards the item to contract maintenance or Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) depot?

    • A.

      Supply.

    • B.

      Workcenter.

    • C.

      Maintenance analysis.

    • D.

      Plans and scheduling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply.
    Explanation
    If repair is not authorized at the base level, the item is forwarded to supply. Supply is responsible for managing and distributing resources, including repair and maintenance items. They would be the appropriate department to handle the forwarding of the item to contract maintenance or the AFMC depot for further repair and maintenance.

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  • 16. 

    (609) What action taken codes are used to compute base repair capability rates?

    • A.

      A, F, G, K, L, V, Z.

    • B.

      A, F, G, K, L, B, P.

    • C.

      A, F, G, K, L, Z.

    • D.

      A, F, B, G, K, L.

    Correct Answer
    C. A, F, G, K, L, Z.
    Explanation
    The action taken codes A, F, G, K, L, and Z are used to compute base repair capability rates. These codes likely represent different types of actions taken in the repair process, such as assessing the problem (A), performing repairs (F), conducting inspections (G), managing parts and materials (K), performing maintenance tasks (L), and other miscellaneous actions (Z). By using these specific codes, the base repair capability rates can be accurately calculated based on the different actions taken during the repair process.

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  • 17. 

    (610) When computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates weights are usually assigned to show

    • A.

      The degree of importance of a task.

    • B.

      The sequence of task accomplishment.

    • C.

      How many tasks are scheduled next month.

    • D.

      How many tasks were scheduled last month.

    Correct Answer
    A. The degree of importance of a task.
    Explanation
    Weights are usually assigned when computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates to show the degree of importance of a task. This means that tasks that are more important or critical to the maintenance process will be given higher weights, while less important tasks will be given lower weights. This allows for a more accurate assessment of the effectiveness of the maintenance scheduling process, as it takes into account the relative importance of each task.

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  • 18. 

    (611) Delayed discrepancies are referred to as

    • A.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting defer (AWD).

    • B.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM).

    • C.

      Awaiting defer (AWD) or awaiting maintenance (AWM).

    • D.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting deferred discrepancy (ADD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM).
    Explanation
    Delayed discrepancies are referred to as awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM) because these are the two most common reasons for a delay in resolving a discrepancy. Awaiting parts refers to a situation where the necessary parts or components to fix the discrepancy are not available, causing a delay in the maintenance process. Awaiting maintenance, on the other hand, indicates that the discrepancy requires further maintenance work or repairs before it can be resolved. Both of these scenarios can result in a delay in addressing the discrepancy and getting the system back to normal operation.

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  • 19. 

    (611) If they are not able to schedule or combine deferred discrepancies with more extensive maintenance actions, maintenance schedulers should?

    • A.

      Defer the discrepancies for 5 calendar days.

    • B.

      Defer the discrepancies for 7 calendar days.

    • C.

      Routinely schedule the aircraft to work the delays.

    • D.

      Defer the discrepancies until there are more discrepancies to work.

    Correct Answer
    C. Routinely schedule the aircraft to work the delays.
    Explanation
    Maintenance schedulers should routinely schedule the aircraft to work the delays if they are not able to schedule or combine deferred discrepancies with more extensive maintenance actions. This means that instead of deferring the discrepancies for a specific number of days or waiting for more discrepancies to accumulate, the schedulers should prioritize and allocate time for the aircraft to address the delays and resolve the discrepancies as soon as possible.

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  • 20. 

    (612) What mission capability status code is the sum of not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) and reflects total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply?

    • A.

      Fully mission capable (FMC).

    • B.

      Partial mission capable (PMC).

    • C.

      Not mission capable both (NMCB).

    • D.

      Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS). This mission capability status code reflects the total number of aircraft that are not mission capable due to supply issues. It includes both not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) aircraft. Therefore, TNMCS accurately represents the total number of aircraft that have limitations on their mission capabilities due to supply problems.

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  • 21. 

    (613) What deviation category is used when an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather?

    • A.

      Local.

    • B.

      Chargeable.

    • C.

      Nonchargeable.

    • D.

      Higher headquarters.

    Correct Answer
    C. Nonchargeable.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather, it falls under the nonchargeable deviation category. This means that the cancellation is not counted as a fault or responsibility of the pilot or the aircraft operator. Instead, it is considered an external factor beyond their control, such as bad weather conditions. Therefore, the cancellation does not result in any charges or penalties for the pilot or the aircraft operator.

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  • 22. 

    (613) The total number of cancellations can be obtained from the

    • A.

      Daily Flying Schedule.

    • B.

      Operational Event Report.

    • C.

      Monthly Maintenance Plan.

    • D.

      Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR).

    Correct Answer
    D. Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR).
    Explanation
    The Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR) provides information on the total number of cancellations. It is a comprehensive report that tracks and analyzes the utilization of resources and accomplishments within a specific period. This report would include data on flight cancellations, allowing for an accurate count of the total number of cancellations. The other options mentioned, such as the Daily Flying Schedule, Operational Event Report, and Monthly Maintenance Plan, may provide useful information but are not specifically focused on cancellations.

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  • 23. 

    (613) When computing for the Flying Scheduling Effectiveness rate, what is subtracted from the total number of scheduled sorties?

    • A.

      Total deviations.

    • B.

      Number of cancelled takeoffs.

    • C.

      Total chargeable deviations only.

    • D.

      Total nonchargeable deviations only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Total deviations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Total deviations." When computing the Flying Scheduling Effectiveness rate, the total number of scheduled sorties is subtracted by the total deviations. This means that any deviations from the scheduled sorties, whether they are chargeable or nonchargeable, are taken into account when calculating the effectiveness rate. The number of cancelled takeoffs, total chargeable deviations, and total nonchargeable deviations are not subtracted from the total number of scheduled sorties.

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  • 24. 

    (613) Which command uses the departure reliability rate?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • C.

      Air Force Space Command.

    • D.

      Air Force Materiel Command.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Mobility Command (AMC).
    Explanation
    The command that uses the departure reliability rate is the Air Mobility Command (AMC). This command is responsible for providing rapid global mobility and logistical support to the United States Air Force. The departure reliability rate is a measure of how often aircraft depart on time, and it is used by the AMC to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of their operations.

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  • 25. 

    (613) When used for the departure reliability rate, the standard for on-time departure is within

    • A.

      10 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    • B.

      14 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    • C.

      20 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    • D.

      24 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    Correct Answer
    B. 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time.
    Explanation
    The standard for on-time departure when used for the departure reliability rate is within 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time. This means that if a flight departs within 14 minutes of its scheduled departure time, it is considered to be on time. Any departure that occurs after the 14-minute mark would be considered a delay.

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  • 26. 

    (614) When we compute utilization under the flying hour program, the two ways we compute for the utilization (UTE) rate are?

    • A.

      Sortie and hourly.

    • B.

      Program and actual.

    • C.

      Effective and ineffective.

    • D.

      Authorized and chargeable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sortie and hourly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sortie and hourly". When computing utilization under the flying hour program, the two ways we compute the utilization rate are based on the number of sorties (missions or flights) and the number of hours flown. Sortie refers to the actual number of missions or flights completed, while hourly refers to the total number of hours flown. Both measures are used to determine the level of utilization of aircraft or equipment in the flying hour program.

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  • 27. 

    (614) What is the definition of aircraft availability?

    • A.

      The historical percentage of sorties lost to causes outside of unit control.

    • B.

      The percentage of a fleet in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status.

    • C.

      The percentage of a fleet not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status.

    • D.

      A measure of the health of the air mobility system and reflects the percentage of on-time departures.

    Correct Answer
    C. The percentage of a fleet not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status.
    Explanation
    Aircraft availability refers to the percentage of a fleet that is not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status. This means that the aircraft is available and ready for use, and not undergoing maintenance or repairs that would render it unable to perform its mission. This measure is important in assessing the readiness and effectiveness of an air fleet.

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  • 28. 

    (614) What report is used to calculate aircraft availability?

    • A.

      Fix Time Report (FTR).

    • B.

      Equipment Status Report (TRIC: ESR).

    • C.

      Aerospace Vehicle Status Report (TRIC: AVS).

    • D.

      Accomplishment Utilization Report (TRIC: AUR).

    Correct Answer
    C. Aerospace Vehicle Status Report (TRIC: AVS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Aerospace Vehicle Status Report (TRIC: AVS). The AVS report is used to calculate aircraft availability. This report provides information on the status of aerospace vehicles, including their availability for use. It helps track the operational readiness of aircraft and allows for effective planning and scheduling of maintenance and repairs. The AVS report is an essential tool in managing and ensuring the availability of aircraft for missions and operations.

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  • 29. 

    (614) What factor represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control?

    • A.

      Abort.

    • B.

      Spare.

    • C.

      Attrition.

    • D.

      Utilization.

    Correct Answer
    C. Attrition.
    Explanation
    Attrition represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control. This means that attrition refers to the loss of scheduled sorties due to factors beyond the control of the unit, such as equipment failure, weather conditions, or other unforeseen circumstances. This factor is important to consider when analyzing the efficiency and effectiveness of a unit's operations.

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  • 30. 

    (614) In determining the spare factor, what do you compare to the number of historical sorties scheduled?

    • A.

      Number of flyable aircraft.

    • B.

      Number of non-flyable aircraft.

    • C.

      Number of 1st sortie logistics losses.

    • D.

      Number of 2nd sortie logistics losses.

    Correct Answer
    C. Number of 1st sortie logistics losses.
    Explanation
    The spare factor is determined by comparing the number of 1st sortie logistics losses to the number of historical sorties scheduled. This means that the spare factor is based on the number of logistical losses that occur during the first sortie, which is the first mission or flight of an aircraft. By comparing these losses to the number of historical sorties scheduled, the spare factor can be calculated to determine the level of spare aircraft or resources needed to account for these losses.

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  • 31. 

    (614) Which of the following is not a factor used for computing manhour per flying hour?

    • A.

      Flying hours.

    • B.

      Operating hours.

    • C.

      On-equipment manhours.

    • D.

      Off-equipment manhours.

    Correct Answer
    B. Operating hours.
    Explanation
    Operating hours is not a factor used for computing manhour per flying hour. Manhour per flying hour is a metric used to measure the amount of man-hours required to support each hour of aircraft flight. It takes into account factors such as flying hours (the actual time the aircraft is in flight), on-equipment manhours (the time spent on maintenance while the aircraft is in service), and off-equipment manhours (the time spent on maintenance while the aircraft is not in service). Operating hours, on the other hand, refers to the total time the aircraft is in operation, including both flying and non-flying hours. Since manhour per flying hour specifically focuses on the time spent on maintenance during flight, operating hours are not considered in this calculation.

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  • 32. 

    (614) What is the first position of the work unit code (WUC) for general support work included in the computation for manhours per flying hour?

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    A. 0
    Explanation
    The first position of the work unit code (WUC) for general support work included in the computation for manhours per flying hour is 0.

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  • 33. 

    (615) What code is used in the computation of the break rate?

    • A.

      Fix code 3.

    • B.

      Cap code 3.

    • C.

      Landing code 3.

    • D.

      Not reparable this station (NRTS) code 3.

    Correct Answer
    C. Landing code 3.
    Explanation
    The code used in the computation of the break rate is "Landing code 3." This suggests that the break rate is calculated based on the number of landings made.

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  • 34. 

    (615) Which rate is used to measure speed of repair and equipment maintainability?

    • A.

      Fix rate.

    • B.

      Break rate.

    • C.

      Utilization rate.

    • D.

      Mission capable rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fix rate.
    Explanation
    The fix rate is used to measure the speed of repair and equipment maintainability. This rate represents the efficiency at which repairs are made and equipment is returned to a fully functional state. A higher fix rate indicates a faster repair process and better maintainability of equipment.

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  • 35. 

    (615) When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, what maintenance status code is entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      Partial mission capable (PMC).

    • B.

      Fully mission capable (FMC).

    • C.

      Not mission capable (NMC).

    • D.

      Cap code 3.

    Correct Answer
    C. Not mission capable (NMC).
    Explanation
    When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, it means that the aircraft is not mission capable. Therefore, the maintenance status code entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) would be "Not mission capable (NMC)".

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  • 36. 

    (615) What are the three time frames used in the fix rate formula?

    • A.

      2, 4, or 8 hours.

    • B.

      4, 6, or 8 hours.

    • C.

      4, 8, or 10 hours.

    • D.

      4, 8, or 12 hours.

    Correct Answer
    D. 4, 8, or 12 hours.
    Explanation
    The fix rate formula uses three time frames: 4, 8, or 12 hours.

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  • 37. 

    (615) The total abort rate is a combination of

    • A.

      Air and ground abort.

    • B.

      Air abort, late takeoff, and ground abort.

    • C.

      Air abort, total deviations, and ground abort.

    • D.

      Air abort, ground abort, and maintenance cancellation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and ground abort.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is air and ground abort. This means that the total abort rate includes both air aborts and ground aborts. Air abort refers to the situation where an aircraft aborts its takeoff or landing due to a problem or emergency in the air. Ground abort, on the other hand, refers to the situation where an aircraft aborts its takeoff before it becomes airborne due to a problem or emergency on the ground. By considering both air and ground aborts, the total abort rate provides a comprehensive measure of the number of aborted flights due to various reasons.

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  • 38. 

    (615) A repeat discrepancy occurs how many sorties after a problem is originally reported?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    A repeat discrepancy occurs one sortie after a problem is originally reported. This means that after the initial report of a problem, the issue reoccurs or is noticed again during the very next sortie or flight.

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  • 39. 

    (615) High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of

    • A.

      Available aircraft.

    • B.

      Available spare parts.

    • C.

      Qualified supervisors.

    • D.

      Thorough troubleshooting.

    Correct Answer
    D. Thorough troubleshooting.
    Explanation
    High repeat and recur rates refer to the frequency at which a particular issue or problem reoccurs. If there is a lack of thorough troubleshooting, it means that the root cause of the problem is not being identified and addressed effectively. This can lead to the problem persisting and recurring frequently. Therefore, the correct answer is thorough troubleshooting.

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  • 40. 

    (615) Base supply uses which rate to indicate depot support?

    • A.

      Break.

    • B.

      Utilization.

    • C.

      Mission capable.

    • D.

      Cannibalization.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cannibalization.
    Explanation
    Base supply uses the rate of cannibalization to indicate depot support. Cannibalization refers to the practice of taking parts or equipment from one item to repair or support another item. When base supply indicates depot support through cannibalization, it means that parts or equipment are being taken from one depot to support another depot in need. This helps ensure that the necessary resources are available to maintain mission capability and support operations effectively.

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  • 41. 

    (616) Mean time to repair (MTTR) is expressed in

    • A.

      Seconds.

    • B.

      Minutes.

    • C.

      Hours.

    • D.

      Days.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hours.
    Explanation
    Mean time to repair (MTTR) is a metric used to measure the average time it takes to repair a system or component after a failure. It is commonly expressed in hours because it provides a more detailed and precise measurement compared to larger units such as days or minutes. Expressing MTTR in hours allows for better tracking and analysis of repair times, enabling organizations to identify areas for improvement and optimize their maintenance processes.

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  • 42. 

    (616) Which computation provides you with the average equipment operating time before a failure occurs?

    • A.

      Fix rate.

    • B.

      Break rate.

    • C.

      Man-hour per flying hour.

    • D.

      Mean time between failure (MTBF).

    Correct Answer
    D. Mean time between failure (MTBF).
    Explanation
    Mean time between failure (MTBF) is a measure of the average time that a piece of equipment operates before experiencing a failure. It is commonly used to assess the reliability of equipment and predict its maintenance needs. In this context, MTBF provides the average equipment operating time before a failure occurs, making it the correct answer to the question. Fix rate, break rate, and man-hour per flying hour are not specifically related to the average operating time before failure.

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  • 43. 

    (616) In the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) what is the maximum number of days allowed for calculating the mean time between failure (MTBF)?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      180.

    Correct Answer
    D. 180.
    Explanation
    In the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), the maximum number of days allowed for calculating the mean time between failure (MTBF) is 180. This means that when analyzing the data in IMDS, the system will consider a maximum of 180 days to calculate the average time between failures.

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  • 44. 

    (616) Which mission performance indicator is used to measure the average time between failures of mission-essential systems?

    • A.

      Mean time to repair (MTTR).

    • B.

      Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF).

    • C.

      Mean time between downing events (MTBDE).

    • D.

      Mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF)". This performance indicator measures the average time between critical failures of mission-essential systems. It provides an understanding of the reliability and availability of these systems by calculating the average time between failures that have a significant impact on the mission. This information is crucial for assessing the overall performance and effectiveness of the systems in meeting mission requirements.

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  • 45. 

    (616) What maintenance events are included when computing for the mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA)?

    • A.

      Scheduled only.

    • B.

      Unscheduled only.

    • C.

      Both scheduled and unscheduled.

    • D.

      On-equipment and off-equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both scheduled and unscheduled.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both scheduled and unscheduled." When computing for the mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA), both scheduled and unscheduled maintenance events are included. Scheduled maintenance refers to planned maintenance activities that are performed on a regular basis, such as routine inspections or preventive maintenance. Unscheduled maintenance, on the other hand, refers to unexpected or unplanned maintenance actions that are performed due to equipment failure or breakdown. By considering both types of maintenance events, the MTBMA provides a comprehensive measure of the average time between any maintenance actions, whether planned or unplanned.

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  • 46. 

    (616) Which of the following gives the average time for end items and is an indication of component overall performance?

    • A.

      Mean time to repair (MTTR).

    • B.

      Mean time between failure (MTBF).

    • C.

      Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF).

    • D.

      Mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA).
    Explanation
    MTBMA is the average time between maintenance actions, which includes both preventive and corrective maintenance. It gives an indication of the overall performance of the components because it takes into account the time between any type of maintenance action. This metric helps to assess the reliability and availability of the components, as it measures the average time they can operate without requiring maintenance. Therefore, MTBMA provides valuable insights into the overall performance of the components and their ability to function without interruptions due to maintenance needs.

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  • 47. 

    (617) The two cornerstones of maintenance metrics are fleet availability and

    • A.

      Maintenance capability.

    • B.

      Deployment execution.

    • C.

      Program execution.

    • D.

      Airlift capability.

    Correct Answer
    C. Program execution.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is program execution. Program execution is one of the cornerstones of maintenance metrics because it refers to the effective implementation and management of maintenance programs. This includes the planning, scheduling, and execution of maintenance tasks to ensure that they are carried out in a timely and efficient manner. By measuring program execution, organizations can evaluate the effectiveness of their maintenance processes and identify areas for improvement. Fleet availability and maintenance capability are also important metrics, but they are not specifically mentioned as cornerstones in this question.

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  • 48. 

    (617) Which of these is a lagging indicator under fleet availability?

    • A.

      Mission capable rate.

    • B.

      Code 3 break rate.

    • C.

      8-hour fix rate.

    • D.

      Air abort rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission capable rate.
    Explanation
    A lagging indicator is one that measures the outcome or result of a process or event. In the context of fleet availability, the mission capable rate is a lagging indicator because it reflects the percentage of time that a fleet is able to perform its intended missions. It measures the effectiveness of maintenance and operational practices in ensuring that the fleet is available for use. The other options, such as code 3 break rate, 8-hour fix rate, and air abort rate, are not lagging indicators as they measure different aspects of fleet availability and maintenance performance.

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  • 49. 

    (618) Which fix rate time interval is reported for all aircraft other than fighters?

    • A.

      Four.

    • B.

      Eight.

    • C.

      Twelve.

    • D.

      Fourteen.

    Correct Answer
    C. Twelve.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is twelve because the question is asking for the fix rate time interval reported for all aircraft other than fighters. This means that fighters have a different fix rate time interval, while all other aircraft have a fix rate time interval of twelve.

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  • 50. 

    (618) By consolidating feasible cannibalizations (CANN) to a few aircraft when practical, maintenance can keep which mission capable rate low?

    • A.

      Fully mission capable (FMC).

    • B.

      Partial mission capable (PMC).

    • C.

      Total not mission capable both (TNMCB).

    • D.

      Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).
    Explanation
    By consolidating feasible cannibalizations to a few aircraft when practical, maintenance can keep the Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS) rate low. This means that by taking parts from a few aircraft to repair others, the supply of spare parts is effectively managed, reducing the number of aircraft that are unable to perform their missions due to lack of necessary supplies. Therefore, the TNMCS rate is kept low.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Natepahlow
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