2AX7X 2013 Volume 2

1. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is

12 hrs

13 hrs

14 hrs

15 hrs

2. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?

Operations officer

Group commander

Unit training manager

Maintenance training flight commander or chief

3. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which majcom?

Air combat command

Air training command

Air reserve command

Air education and training command

4. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

14 hrs

15 hrs

16 hrs

18 hrs

5. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

TSgt

MSgt

SMSgt

CMSgt

6. TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

Access to distance learning courseware

Access to special certification roster criteria listings

Visibility of available formal training courses AF-wide

Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

7. The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance training flight (mtf) training course?

And 7lvl course

Weight and balance

Maintenance orientation

General technical order system

8. What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Special inspection

Personnel evaluation

Management inspection

Quality verification inspection

9. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

QA

Engine management

Maintenance data system analysis

MOC

10. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacipated. provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

15

30

45

60

11. The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

Maintenance flight

QA section

Engine management section

MOC

12. Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within

8 hrs

16 hrs

24 hrs

32 hrs

13. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

Xf3

Xd2

Xd1

Xb3

14. What maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder eval while the technician performs a task?

Quality verification inspection

Managment inspection

Personnel eval

Special inspection

15. How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?

Monthly

Quarterly

Semiannually

Annually

16. Manpower authorizations are

Funded

Unfunded

Both funded and unfunded

17. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

Afto form 20, caution tag

Dd form 1574, serviceable tag-material

Dd form 1577-1 unserviceable tag

Dd form 1577-2, unserviceable tag (repairable)

18. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Oil sheen on standing water

Stressed vegetation

Stains on ground

Cloudy water

19. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

15

30

45

60

20. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program?

Bolt

Panel

Safety pin

Explosive munitions

21. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

Audio visual center

Engineering data service center

AF primary standards laboratory

Communication and information system

22. Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander of the

Maintenance squadron

Logistics readiness squadron

Aircraft maintenance squadron

Maintenance operations squadron

23. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

8

9

10

11

24. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

Aircraft commander

Host installation commander

Operations group commander

Mission support group commander

25. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts requests?

Customer

Maintenance supply support

Maintenance supply liason

LRS customer service

26. When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel notify the

Operations officer

Aircraft section flight chief

Maintenance operations center (MOC)

AMU P&S dedicated scheduler

27. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

30

60

90

120

28. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Maintenance supply liason

Maintenance supply support

Maintenance operations center

Maintenance data system analysis

29. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

D18, priority monitor report

D04, daily document register

M-24, organization effectiveness report

D23, repair cycle asset managment list

30. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

1

3

2b

2a

31. Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?

Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

Advising supervisors on supply managenment documents

Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

32. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

IA or JA

AR or BR

AA or AM

BM or CM

33. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing and effective maintenance recovery operation?

AFTTP 3-21.1, aircraft maintenance

AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution

AFI 33-103, requirements development and processing

AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance managment

34. The wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD mananger within how many hours of a FOD incident?

8

12

24

48

35. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Section supervisor

Squadron commander

Flight commander/chief

Operations officer/maintenance superintendent

36. Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

A

C

G

P

37. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment, installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Hour

2 hours

3 hours

4 hours

38. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

D18, priority monitor report

D04, daily document register

M-24, organization effectiveness report

D23, repair cycle asset managment list

39. When a unit has received an unsat maintenance standardization and eval team rating (MSET), the MXG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

30

60

90

120

40. Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

Air aborts

Late takeoffs

Ground aborts

Aircraft status changes

41. Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

Urgent

Routine

Standard

Emergency

42. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

1

2

3

4

43. Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Flight service center (FSC)

Equipment liason office (ELO)

Command equipment management office (CEMO)

Defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO)

44. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

A4MT

A4YE

A4U

A4BM

45. In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected dowtimes, and training update info?

Open suspenses

System upgrades

Application problems

Changes to your user roles

46. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

Weapons loading operations

Radiographic inspections

Fuel system repair

Aircraft on jacks

47. How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (scr)

Annually

Semi-annually

Quarterly

Monthly

48. Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

1

2

3

4

49. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

Operations officer

Section supervisor

Squadron commander

Squadron safety monitor

50. Who is the QA chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed?

Wing inspector general

Majcom inpector general

MXG/CD

QA OIC/SUPT

51. Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?

Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

Resolving TO availability problems

52. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held

Weekly

Monthly

Quarterly

Semiannually

53. Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation?

MXG vice commander

MXG impoundment release authority

Applicable impoundment authority

Applicable squadron commander

54. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

DR

Supply discrepancy report

Maintenance cross-tell report

PQDR

55. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

D18, priority monitor report

D04, daily document register

M-24, organization effectiveness report

D2, repair cycle asset managment list

56. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through aetc mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment courses?

Maintenance qualification

Maintenance refresher

On-the-job

Ancillary

57. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is required to notify

QA

Programs and resources flight

Maintenance managment analysis

PS&D

58. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

MXS operations officer/MX SUPT

MXG commander

MXG vice commander

MXG superintendent

59. Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Originator

Action point

Screening point

Originating point

60. Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

MXG commander

MXG superintendent

MXG deputy commander

Maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

61. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

Af imt 453, report of survey register

Af imt 1185, statement of record data

Dd form 362, statement of charges/cash collection voucher

Dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss

62. In regards to the modification managment program, which agency serves as the operators interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

AF mobility command

QA

IG

Lead command

63. What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies?

Maintenance supply liason

Maintenance operations center

Maintenance management analysis

Plans, scheduling, and documentation

64. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Flight commander/chief

Maintenance group commander

LRS chief inspector

MX operations officer (MOO)/ maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

65. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

LRS flight service center

MXG QA

MXG maintenance data system analysis

LRS material management element

66. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Afi 10-206, operational reporting

Afi 10-2510, USAF emergency notification signals

Afi 91-224, ground safety investigations and reports

Afi 91-221, weapons safety investigations and reports

67. Who is the office of primary responsibility for developement of wing procedures for control and managment of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Wing commander

Wing vice commander

Maintenance group commander

Maintenance group deputy commander

68. Who has the responsibility for overall DR program managment for the submitting organizatioin or group?

Originator

Action point

Screening point

Originating point

69. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

Annually

Semiannually

Quarterly

Montly

70. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

LRS commander

MXG deputy commander

Mission support group commander

MXG commander

2AX7X 2013 Volume 2

1. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?

3. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which majcom?

4. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

5. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

6. TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

7. The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance training flight (mtf) training course?

8. What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

9. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

10. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacipated. provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

11. The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

12. Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within

13. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

14. What maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder eval while the technician performs a task?

15. How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?

16. Manpower authorizations are

17. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

18. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

19. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

20. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program?

21. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

22. Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander of the

23. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

24. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

25. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts requests?

26. When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel notify the

27. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

28. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

29. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

30. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

31. Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?

32. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

33. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing and effective maintenance recovery operation?

34. The wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD mananger within how many hours of a FOD incident?

35. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

36. Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

37. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment, installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

38. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

39. When a unit has received an unsat maintenance standardization and eval team rating (MSET), the MXG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

40. Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

41. Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

42. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

43. Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

44. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

45. In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected dowtimes, and training update info?

46. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

47. How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (scr)

48. Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

49. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

50. Who is the QA chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed?

51. Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?

52. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held

53. Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation?

54. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

55. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

56. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through aetc mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment courses?

57. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is required to notify

58. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

59. Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

60. Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

61. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

62. In regards to the modification managment program, which agency serves as the operators interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

63. What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies?

64. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

65. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

66. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

67. Who is the office of primary responsibility for developement of wing procedures for control and managment of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

68. Who has the responsibility for overall DR program managment for the submitting organizatioin or group?

69. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

70. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?