2AX7X Vol 2 Ure Correct Answers Not A Timed Test

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  • 1/100 Questions

      Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer
    • Group commander
    • Unit training manager
    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) of chief
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7 Level CDC's 2AX7X volume 2 URE correct answers not a timed test

2AX7X Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?                                   

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3. The reason is that XB3 is the correct combination of expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) that must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock. The other options (XF3, XD2, XD1) do not have the correct combination of ERRC codes required for bench stock placement.

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  • 3. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?    

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and provides a list of all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report helps track the supply of these parts and ensures that they are prioritized for immediate attention and action.

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  • 4. 

    Training detachments(TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM

    • Air combat command (ACC)

    • Air training command (ATC)

    • Air reserve command (AFRC)

    • Air education and training command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air education and training command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for recruiting, training, and educating the Air Force personnel. It oversees the basic military training, technical training, and professional military education for all Air Force members. As TDs are involved in training activities, it makes sense for them to be assigned to the command that is specifically responsible for training and education within the Air Force.

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  • 5. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section. This is because their role primarily involves overseeing and implementing measures to improve the quality of products. They are responsible for conducting audits, inspections, and tests to ensure that products meet the required standards and specifications. They also analyze data and feedback to identify areas for improvement and develop strategies to enhance product quality. Therefore, being assigned to the Quality Assurance section aligns with their responsibilities and objectives.

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  • 6. 

      The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course                

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and balance

    • Maintenance orientation

    • General technical order system

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is normally used to teach the maintenance orientation training course.

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  • 7. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • Chief master sergeant (CMSgt)

    • Senior master sergeant (SMSgt)

    • Master sergeant (MSgt)

    • Technical sergeant (TSgt)

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeant (MSgt)
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MXG/CC can be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X." This ensures that only experienced and qualified individuals have the authority to make such a decision, as the MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and the MSgt rank signifies a certain level of expertise and leadership in the field.

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  • 8. 

      Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetaion

    • Stain on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator on its own. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be used as signs to identify pollution.

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  • 9. 

    During “Red Ball” maintenance it is important that expediter have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to

    • Verify time change parts

    • Check supply delivery priorities

    • reduce the time needed to research parts

    • Provide contact information for key personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. reduce the time needed to research parts
    Explanation
    During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a quick reference list (QRL) available helps in reducing the time needed to research parts. This means that the expediter can quickly access the necessary information about the required parts without spending too much time searching for them. This efficiency is crucial in ensuring that the maintenance process is carried out smoothly and without unnecessary delays. By having a QRL, the expediter can easily find the information they need, saving time and allowing for a faster completion of the maintenance tasks.

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  • 10. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-remark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?                                   

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date, as long as they are still serviceable. This means that if the item is still in good condition and can continue to be used safely, it can be re-marked with a new expiration date to extend its shelf life. This allows for better inventory management and ensures that usable items are not wasted or discarded prematurely.

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  • 11. 

      An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone-depleting substance would be submitted as an urgent technical order (TO) change priority because it involves the safety and environmental concerns. It is important to address and implement these changes as quickly as possible to minimize any potential harm or damage caused by the hazardous materials or ozone-depleting substances.

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  • 12. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60days the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?    

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After an individual returns from being TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their training recertification after returning.

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  • 13. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all documents numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Report

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, Daily Document Report
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Report (D04) is the correct answer because it provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This report is specifically designed to track the supply chain and document processing activities on a daily basis. The other options listed are not relevant to supply tracking or document processing.

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  • 14. 

      Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

    • Manuals

    • Istructions

    • Policy Directives

    • Technical Orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Orders
    Explanation
    Technical Orders are a type of AF publication that provide detailed instructions for the operation, maintenance, and repair of specific equipment or systems. These orders are typically issued by the Air Force Materiel Command and are not meant to be modified by local units. Therefore, units cannot make local modifications to Technical Orders. Manuals, Instructions, and Policy Directives, on the other hand, may be subject to local modifications or adaptations based on the specific needs and circumstances of the unit.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waiver or deviations?

    • Telephone

    • Signed letter

    • Organizational e-mail

    • Defense Massage System

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
    Explanation
    The question asks for a communication method that is not approved for issuing approved technical order (TO) waiver or deviations. The options include telephone, signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Massage System. Out of these options, telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing TO waiver or deviations. This means that using telephone to issue TO waiver or deviations is not allowed or accepted.

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  • 16. 

      What Maintenace Standarization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assesment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Management Inspection

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standarization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection is conducted to ensure that the task has been completed to the required quality standards. It involves checking the work done by the technician to verify its accuracy and compliance with maintenance standards. The purpose of this assessment is to maintain and improve the overall quality of maintenance tasks performed by technicians.

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  • 17. 

    The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is                                   

    • 14

    • 16

    • 18

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 16
    Explanation
    A maintenance recovery team member must be given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest after working for a maximum total initial duty time, which includes home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival. The correct answer is 16 because this is the maximum total initial duty time that allows for the required 8 hours of uninterrupted rest.

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  • 18. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?                                   

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment consists of 9 digits.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual’s training records

    • Specialty training standard

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It is a standardized document that provides a comprehensive record of an individual's training and qualifications. It includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and on-the-job training. Using this form as the cover folder helps to organize and maintain an individual's training records in a systematic and easily accessible manner.

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  • 20. 

      What training phase has these four sup-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and training detachment qualification training

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The four sub-phases mentioned in the question indicate that the training phase being referred to is the MAJCOM mandatory phase. This phase includes multiple sub-phases such as multiphase, freeflow, and training detachment qualification training.

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  • 21. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?                                   

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenace operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The agency responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems is the Maintenance supply liaison. This role involves coordinating and facilitating communication between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available to support maintenance activities. The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for identifying and resolving any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring that maintenance operations can proceed smoothly.

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  • 22. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and resources are available for the mission and can be properly tracked and managed within the base's supply system.

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  • 23. 

    Which Precious Metal Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?                                   

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.

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  • 24. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft when it is unattended. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or any potential threats to the aircraft. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, the owner or user can promptly identify and address any security issues that may arise during their absence.

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  • 25. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance Flight

    • Quality Assurance section

    • Engine Manangement section

    • Maintenace Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because the Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance and operational procedures are carried out correctly and in compliance with regulations. The FOD monitor is an important tool in preventing damage to the aircraft's wings caused by foreign objects, such as debris on the runway. By placing the FOD monitor within the Quality Assurance section, it ensures that regular inspections and monitoring of the aircraft's wings can be conducted to minimize the risk of FOD damage.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered rquisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in exendable, excess, and surplus percious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in exendable, excess, and surplus percious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in exendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty does not typically fall under the responsibilities of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?                                   

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Standard" because "Standard" is not a technical order (TO) change priority category. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all valid TO change priority categories.

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  • 28. 

    Manpower authorization are                                   

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorization refers to the process of obtaining approval and funding for a certain number of employees or staff members. In this context, the correct answer is "funded" because it indicates that the authorization includes the necessary financial resources to support the employment of the authorized manpower.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?                                   

    • Nearest military installation

    • Local law enforcement

    • Aircraft commander

    • Local fire chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. They have the authority and control over the aircraft and its contents, including classified equipment. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the aircraft and its cargo, including any classified equipment. They will take necessary measures to secure the equipment and coordinate with appropriate authorities for further assistance if needed.

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  • 30. 

      Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    Urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to indicate the urgency level of a supply request. In this case, the supply request is for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare. The UJCs that are used for this type of supply request are AR or BR.

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  • 31. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing occurs once every month, allowing the MXG/CC to stay updated on the training progress and status of the maintenance group. This regular briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is well-informed and able to make informed decisions regarding the training and readiness of the maintenance group.

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  • 32. 

      An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • I

    • II

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IIB. In order to assume duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training.

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  • 33. 

      “Red Ball” maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

    • Priority actions

    • A sense of urgency

    • Specific local procedures

    • An approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver

    Correct Answer
    A. An approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver
    Explanation
    A "Red Ball" maintenance situation refers to a critical maintenance issue that requires immediate attention. The priority actions, a sense of urgency, and specific local procedures are all necessary components for addressing a "Red Ball" situation. However, an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver is not required in this case. This waiver is not relevant to the urgency and priority of the maintenance situation.

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  • 34. 

    Which maintenace squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenace group's (MXG's) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction?

    • Fabrication Flgiht

    • Accessories Flight

    • Maintenance Flight

    • Aerispace Ground Equipment Flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Flight
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Maintenance Group's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction. This means that the Maintenance Flight is responsible for overseeing and managing the CDDAR program within the Maintenance Group. They are in charge of ensuring that the program is properly implemented and followed, and they are the go-to office for any inquiries or issues related to the program.

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  • 35. 

    A unit manpower document (UDM) does not

    • Show the AF specialty code(AFSC)required for a particular position

    • Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    A. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "show the name of person assigned to a particular position." A unit manpower document (UDM) is a document that provides information about the manpower requirements for a particular unit. It includes details such as the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a position, detailed information about each manpower requirement, and the required grade for a position. However, it does not include the name of the person assigned to a particular position as this information can change frequently due to personnel changes.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

    • Silver

    • Copper

    • Iridium

    • Rhodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Copper
    Explanation
    The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.

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  • 37. 

      If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required notifying?  

    • Quality and Resources Flight

    • Programs and Recources Flight

    • Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)

    • Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D). PS&D is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and documentation of serially controlled items. Therefore, they need to be notified if a serially controlled item is cannibalized. The Quality and Resources Flight, Programs and Resources Flight, and Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA) may have other responsibilities related to maintenance and resources, but they are not specifically mentioned as the authority required to be notified in this situation.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on an Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?                                   

    • US Army

    • US Air Force

    • Federal Aviation Administration

    • National Transportation Safety Board

    Correct Answer
    A. National Transportation Safety Board
    Explanation
    The National Transportation Safety Board is not a member of the Joint Council on an Aging Aircraft (JCAA).

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  • 39. 

    Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?

    • MXG Commander

    • MXG Superintendent

    • MXG Vice Commander

    • MXG Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG Commander
    Explanation
    The MXG Commander appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer. This individual is responsible for overseeing the ASIP project within the MXG and ensuring the structural integrity of the aircraft. They work closely with the MXG Commander to implement and manage the ASIP program effectively.

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  • 40. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?                                   

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that the FOD manager is promptly informed about any potential damage caused by foreign objects on the wing, allowing them to take appropriate action to mitigate further risks and address the issue.

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  • 41. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all know hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?

    • Operations officer

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center. This is because the section supervisor is directly responsible for the safety and well-being of the personnel under their supervision. They have a thorough understanding of the work center and the specific hazards associated with it, making them the most suitable person to develop and implement the training plan. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and involvement in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the section supervisor.

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  • 42. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office account for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This means that they are in charge of keeping track of and maintaining these assets while they are being used. The Flight Service Center (FSC) may handle other logistics tasks, but not specifically SPRAM assets. The Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) is responsible for managing equipment but not necessarily SPRAM assets. The Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) deals with the disposal of excess or surplus equipment, which is not the same as managing SPRAM assets.

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  • 43. 

    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spare?                                    

    • F

    • D

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spare is F.

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  • 44. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade

    • Squadron operations officer

    • MAJCOM functional manager

    • Squadron commander (SQ/CC)

    • Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC holds the authority to grant exceptions and allow individuals to perform tasks that are typically reserved for higher-ranking personnel.

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  • 45. 

    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

    • Evaluate training

    • Select training strategies

    • Determine training needs

    • Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves identifying the specific skills and knowledge gaps that exist within the organization or among the employees. By determining the training needs, the organization can develop targeted training programs to address these gaps and improve overall performance and productivity. This step is crucial in ensuring that the training provided aligns with the specific needs of the employees and the organization as a whole.

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  • 46. 

      Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • Flight commander/Chief

    • Maintenance Group commander

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

    • Operations Officer/maintenacne superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
    Explanation
    The final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming is the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

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  • 47. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • Operation Officer

    • Aircraft Section flight chief

    • Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities for the aircraft. They are the central hub for communication and coordination between supply personnel, maintenance personnel, and other relevant departments. Therefore, it is logical that they would be the ones to be notified when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB.

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  • 48. 

      Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather study?

    • Support facilities

    • Support equipment

    • Operations requirements

    • Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather study is operations requirements. Weather conditions can have a significant impact on the operations of a logistics system, including transportation, storage, and distribution. Therefore, understanding and incorporating weather study into the operations requirements is crucial for effective logistics planning and decision-making.

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  • 49. 

      Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron Commander

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves overseeing the management and accountability of equipment within the squadron. The Squadron Commander is in a position of authority and has the authority to make such appointments. The section supervisor, flight commander/chief, and operations officer/maintenance superintendent may have input or recommendations, but the final decision lies with the Squadron Commander.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 16, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    JetMech
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