2AX7X Vol 2 Ure Correct Answers Not A Timed Test

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1.
  Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).

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2AX7X Quizzes & Trivia

7 Level CDC's 2AX7X volume 2 URE correct answers not a timed test

2. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?                                   

Explanation

The correct answer is XB3. The reason is that XB3 is the correct combination of expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) that must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock. The other options (XF3, XD2, XD1) do not have the correct combination of ERRC codes required for bench stock placement.

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3.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
   

Explanation

The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and provides a list of all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report helps track the supply of these parts and ensures that they are prioritized for immediate attention and action.

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4. Training detachments(TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for recruiting, training, and educating the Air Force personnel. It oversees the basic military training, technical training, and professional military education for all Air Force members. As TDs are involved in training activities, it makes sense for them to be assigned to the command that is specifically responsible for training and education within the Air Force.

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5. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section. This is because their role primarily involves overseeing and implementing measures to improve the quality of products. They are responsible for conducting audits, inspections, and tests to ensure that products meet the required standards and specifications. They also analyze data and feedback to identify areas for improvement and develop strategies to enhance product quality. Therefore, being assigned to the Quality Assurance section aligns with their responsibilities and objectives.

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6.
  The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The block training method is normally used to teach the maintenance orientation training course.

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7. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MXG/CC can be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X." This ensures that only experienced and qualified individuals have the authority to make such a decision, as the MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and the MSgt rank signifies a certain level of expertise and leadership in the field.

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8.
  Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator on its own. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be used as signs to identify pollution.

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9. During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediter have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to

Explanation

During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a quick reference list (QRL) available helps in reducing the time needed to research parts. This means that the expediter can quickly access the necessary information about the required parts without spending too much time searching for them. This efficiency is crucial in ensuring that the maintenance process is carried out smoothly and without unnecessary delays. By having a QRL, the expediter can easily find the information they need, saving time and allowing for a faster completion of the maintenance tasks.

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10. Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-remark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?                                   

Explanation

Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date, as long as they are still serviceable. This means that if the item is still in good condition and can continue to be used safely, it can be re-marked with a new expiration date to extend its shelf life. This allows for better inventory management and ensures that usable items are not wasted or discarded prematurely.

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11.
  An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?

Explanation

An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone-depleting substance would be submitted as an urgent technical order (TO) change priority because it involves the safety and environmental concerns. It is important to address and implement these changes as quickly as possible to minimize any potential harm or damage caused by the hazardous materials or ozone-depleting substances.

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12.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60days the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
   

Explanation

After an individual returns from being TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their training recertification after returning.

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13. Which supply tracking document provides information on all documents numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The Daily Document Report (D04) is the correct answer because it provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This report is specifically designed to track the supply chain and document processing activities on a daily basis. The other options listed are not relevant to supply tracking or document processing.

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14.
  Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

Explanation

Technical Orders are a type of AF publication that provide detailed instructions for the operation, maintenance, and repair of specific equipment or systems. These orders are typically issued by the Air Force Materiel Command and are not meant to be modified by local units. Therefore, units cannot make local modifications to Technical Orders. Manuals, Instructions, and Policy Directives, on the other hand, may be subject to local modifications or adaptations based on the specific needs and circumstances of the unit.

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15. Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waiver or deviations?

Explanation

The question asks for a communication method that is not approved for issuing approved technical order (TO) waiver or deviations. The options include telephone, signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Massage System. Out of these options, telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing TO waiver or deviations. This means that using telephone to issue TO waiver or deviations is not allowed or accepted.

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16.
  What Maintenace Standarization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assesment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standarization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection is conducted to ensure that the task has been completed to the required quality standards. It involves checking the work done by the technician to verify its accuracy and compliance with maintenance standards. The purpose of this assessment is to maintain and improve the overall quality of maintenance tasks performed by technicians.

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17. The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is                                   

Explanation

A maintenance recovery team member must be given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest after working for a maximum total initial duty time, which includes home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival. The correct answer is 16 because this is the maximum total initial duty time that allows for the required 8 hours of uninterrupted rest.

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18. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?                                   

Explanation

An equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment consists of 9 digits.

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19. Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It is a standardized document that provides a comprehensive record of an individual's training and qualifications. It includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and on-the-job training. Using this form as the cover folder helps to organize and maintain an individual's training records in a systematic and easily accessible manner.

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20.
  What training phase has these four sup-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and training detachment qualification training

Explanation

The correct answer is II. The four sub-phases mentioned in the question indicate that the training phase being referred to is the MAJCOM mandatory phase. This phase includes multiple sub-phases such as multiphase, freeflow, and training detachment qualification training.

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21. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?                                   

Explanation

The agency responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems is the Maintenance supply liaison. This role involves coordinating and facilitating communication between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available to support maintenance activities. The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for identifying and resolving any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring that maintenance operations can proceed smoothly.

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22. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and resources are available for the mission and can be properly tracked and managed within the base's supply system.

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23. Which Precious Metal Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?                                   

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.

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24. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft when it is unattended. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or any potential threats to the aircraft. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, the owner or user can promptly identify and address any security issues that may arise during their absence.

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25. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because the Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance and operational procedures are carried out correctly and in compliance with regulations. The FOD monitor is an important tool in preventing damage to the aircraft's wings caused by foreign objects, such as debris on the runway. By placing the FOD monitor within the Quality Assurance section, it ensures that regular inspections and monitoring of the aircraft's wings can be conducted to minimize the risk of FOD damage.

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26. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in exendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty does not typically fall under the responsibilities of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.

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27. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?                                   

Explanation

The correct answer is "Standard" because "Standard" is not a technical order (TO) change priority category. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all valid TO change priority categories.

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28. Manpower authorization are                                   

Explanation

Manpower authorization refers to the process of obtaining approval and funding for a certain number of employees or staff members. In this context, the correct answer is "funded" because it indicates that the authorization includes the necessary financial resources to support the employment of the authorized manpower.

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29. Who is responsible for immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?                                   

Explanation

The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. They have the authority and control over the aircraft and its contents, including classified equipment. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the aircraft and its cargo, including any classified equipment. They will take necessary measures to secure the equipment and coordinate with appropriate authorities for further assistance if needed.

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30.
  Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

Urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to indicate the urgency level of a supply request. In this case, the supply request is for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare. The UJCs that are used for this type of supply request are AR or BR.

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31. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)

Explanation

The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing occurs once every month, allowing the MXG/CC to stay updated on the training progress and status of the maintenance group. This regular briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is well-informed and able to make informed decisions regarding the training and readiness of the maintenance group.

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32.
  An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Explanation

The correct answer is IIB. In order to assume duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training.

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33.
  "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

Explanation

A "Red Ball" maintenance situation refers to a critical maintenance issue that requires immediate attention. The priority actions, a sense of urgency, and specific local procedures are all necessary components for addressing a "Red Ball" situation. However, an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver is not required in this case. This waiver is not relevant to the urgency and priority of the maintenance situation.

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34. Which maintenace squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenace group's (MXG's) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction?

Explanation

The Maintenance Flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Maintenance Group's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction. This means that the Maintenance Flight is responsible for overseeing and managing the CDDAR program within the Maintenance Group. They are in charge of ensuring that the program is properly implemented and followed, and they are the go-to office for any inquiries or issues related to the program.

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35. A unit manpower document (UDM) does not

Explanation

The correct answer is "show the name of person assigned to a particular position." A unit manpower document (UDM) is a document that provides information about the manpower requirements for a particular unit. It includes details such as the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a position, detailed information about each manpower requirement, and the required grade for a position. However, it does not include the name of the person assigned to a particular position as this information can change frequently due to personnel changes.

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36. Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

Explanation

The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.

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37.
  If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required notifying?
 

Explanation

The correct answer is Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D). PS&D is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and documentation of serially controlled items. Therefore, they need to be notified if a serially controlled item is cannibalized. The Quality and Resources Flight, Programs and Resources Flight, and Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA) may have other responsibilities related to maintenance and resources, but they are not specifically mentioned as the authority required to be notified in this situation.

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38. Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on an Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?                                   

Explanation

The National Transportation Safety Board is not a member of the Joint Council on an Aging Aircraft (JCAA).

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39. Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?

Explanation

The MXG Commander appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer. This individual is responsible for overseeing the ASIP project within the MXG and ensuring the structural integrity of the aircraft. They work closely with the MXG Commander to implement and manage the ASIP program effectively.

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40. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?                                   

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that the FOD manager is promptly informed about any potential damage caused by foreign objects on the wing, allowing them to take appropriate action to mitigate further risks and address the issue.

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41. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all know hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center. This is because the section supervisor is directly responsible for the safety and well-being of the personnel under their supervision. They have a thorough understanding of the work center and the specific hazards associated with it, making them the most suitable person to develop and implement the training plan. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and involvement in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the section supervisor.

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42. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office account for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This means that they are in charge of keeping track of and maintaining these assets while they are being used. The Flight Service Center (FSC) may handle other logistics tasks, but not specifically SPRAM assets. The Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) is responsible for managing equipment but not necessarily SPRAM assets. The Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) deals with the disposal of excess or surplus equipment, which is not the same as managing SPRAM assets.

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43. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spare?                                    

Explanation

The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spare is F.

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44. Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade

Explanation

The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC holds the authority to grant exceptions and allow individuals to perform tasks that are typically reserved for higher-ranking personnel.

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45. Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

Explanation

After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves identifying the specific skills and knowledge gaps that exist within the organization or among the employees. By determining the training needs, the organization can develop targeted training programs to address these gaps and improve overall performance and productivity. This step is crucial in ensuring that the training provided aligns with the specific needs of the employees and the organization as a whole.

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46.
  Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming is the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

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47. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities for the aircraft. They are the central hub for communication and coordination between supply personnel, maintenance personnel, and other relevant departments. Therefore, it is logical that they would be the ones to be notified when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB.

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48.
  Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather study?

Explanation

The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather study is operations requirements. Weather conditions can have a significant impact on the operations of a logistics system, including transportation, storage, and distribution. Therefore, understanding and incorporating weather study into the operations requirements is crucial for effective logistics planning and decision-making.

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49.
  Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves overseeing the management and accountability of equipment within the squadron. The Squadron Commander is in a position of authority and has the authority to make such appointments. The section supervisor, flight commander/chief, and operations officer/maintenance superintendent may have input or recommendations, but the final decision lies with the Squadron Commander.

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50.
  Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors?

Explanation

Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for 6 months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors. This time period allows the individuals to gain sufficient experience and knowledge about the unit's operations and processes, which is essential for effectively carrying out QA inspections. It also ensures that they have a good understanding of the unit's standards and procedures, enabling them to accurately assess and evaluate the quality of the unit's work.

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51. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is Action Point. The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the resolution of the deficiency report, ensuring that it is properly addressed and resolved. The Action Point serves as the main point of contact for both the support point and the submitting organization, facilitating communication and ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to rectify the reported deficiency.

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52. What Maintenace Standarization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assesment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?                                   

Explanation

A Major assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment. This means that the finding is significant and has the potential to cause harm or damage if not addressed. It indicates a serious issue that requires immediate attention and corrective action.

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53. What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?                                   

Explanation

The dollar amount of damage that must be exceeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit is $20,000. This means that any FOD incident causing damage equal to or greater than $20,000 will be considered in calculating the FOD rate for that unit.

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54. All of the following can designate critical tasks that supply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except

Explanation

All of the options provided - MAJCOMs, supervisors, commanders - can designate critical tasks that supply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center. However, unit training managers do not have the authority to designate critical tasks. They are responsible for managing the training programs and ensuring that the necessary training is provided to personnel in accordance with the AFSC requirements, but they do not have the authority to determine which tasks are critical for a specific AFSC.

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55.
  A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

Explanation

The correct answer is "monthly" because a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is typically held once a month. This frequency allows for regular updates and discussions on any staffing concerns within the group. Holding the meeting monthly ensures that there is enough time to address any issues that may arise and allows for effective communication and coordination among the members of the MXG.

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56.
Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspcetor directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
   

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed.

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57. After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team member receive additional academic and hands-on training?

Explanation

Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members must receive additional academic and hands-on training on an annual basis. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques and procedures related to aircraft recovery, and are able to effectively respond to any emergency situations. Regular training also helps to maintain their skills and knowledge, ensuring that they are prepared to handle any challenges that may arise during aircraft recovery operations.

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58. In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance task, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?                                   

Explanation

The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for a 10% overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that 10% of the total manpower is allocated to handle these additional tasks and requirements that may arise. This allows for flexibility and ensures that there is enough manpower to address unforeseen needs without compromising the overall maintenance operations.

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59.
When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?
   

Explanation

During the calibration of navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft over a compass rose. A compass rose is a designated area on an airport's surface that is marked with compass headings. Towing the aircraft over the compass rose allows for accurate calibration of the navigational equipment by comparing the readings with the known magnetic headings on the compass rose. This ensures that the navigational equipment is properly aligned and calibrated for accurate navigation during flight.

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60.
Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodical like Airmans Magazine and the Air & Space Journal?
   

Explanation

AF Electronice Publishing (AF e-Publishing) provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airmans Magazine and the Air & Space Journal.

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61. Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs)normally do not provide what type of training?

Explanation

Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) primarily focus on providing formal training to personnel. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the main training objectives. Therefore, it is not typically provided by AETC training detachments.

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62. When items are place in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?                                    

Explanation

The security classification is not normally needed when items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB).

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63. Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

Explanation

In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is not modeled is training deployments. LCOM is a method used to determine the manpower requirements for logistics support activities, and it considers various factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment. However, training deployments, which involve the movement of personnel for training purposes, are not included in the model.

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64.
  Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). They oversee the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron and are responsible for coordinating resources and ensuring that the necessary capabilities are in place to meet local manufacturing needs. The MX SUPT plays a crucial role in ensuring that the MXG can effectively meet the requirements for local manufacturing.

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65.
  Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issues and bench stock supply support?

Explanation

The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issues and bench stock supply support. This report helps track and monitor the effectiveness of the organization's supply chain management, including the availability of bench stock supplies and any issues that may arise. It allows management to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of their supply tracking processes and make any necessary adjustments or improvements.

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66. What time-frame is used for determining whether an items that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?                                   

Explanation

The time-frame used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object is from engine start to engine shut down. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this period must be reported.

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67. Which AF publication provides genral guidance for executing an effevtive maintenance recovery operation?                                   

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and best practices for maintaining and repairing aircraft and equipment. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as the roles and responsibilities of maintenance personnel. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 21-101, maintenance teams can ensure that their operations are efficient and effective, ultimately leading to improved aircraft readiness and mission success.

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68. How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Programs conduct a CDDAR exercise?                                   

Explanation

The Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Programs must conduct a CDDAR exercise annually. This means that the exercise should be conducted once every year.

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69.
  What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses

Explanation

Continuation training refers to ongoing training that builds upon the initial skills training received by airmen. In the context of maintenance, continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training is focused on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications and expertise of maintenance personnel. Therefore, "Maintenance qualification" is the correct answer as it aligns with the explanation given.

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70. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to the distribution and availability of technical orders (TO). These duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.

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71.
  Whithout a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?

Explanation

The minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found is the Operations Officer or Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

Submit
72. How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?

Explanation

Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) annually. This means that once a year, the operating commands must assess and evaluate the RSPs to ensure they are up to date and ready for use. This regular review helps to maintain the effectiveness and efficiency of the RSPs and ensures that any necessary updates or replenishments are made in a timely manner.

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73.
  Each airframe and power plant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months

Explanation

Each airframe and power plant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months.

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74. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that in item of supply does not contain precious metal?                                   

Explanation

The correct answer is A. The PMIC code A indicates that the item of supply does not contain precious metal.

Submit
75. Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?

Explanation

The MXG Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities. This role is responsible for ensuring that the maintenance group has the necessary TOs and that they are properly managed and distributed to support the maintenance activities of the group.

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76.
What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?
 

Explanation

The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for ensuring that Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in the weekly schedules. This section is in charge of creating and maintaining the schedules for aircraft maintenance, including identifying any specific requirements or programs that need to be followed for certain aircraft. By properly documenting and scheduling ASIP equipped aircraft, the Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section helps to ensure the structural integrity and safety of these aircraft.

Submit
77.
  When back-ordered item issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply notify the

Explanation

When a back-ordered item is issued and placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the responsibility of notifying the Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section falls on the supply department. This section is responsible for coordinating and scheduling maintenance activities, including the tracking and documentation of all parts and supplies. They need to be informed about the back-ordered item so that they can update their records and ensure that the necessary maintenance actions are taken once the item becomes available.

Submit
78. Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew team members in support of aircraft generation planning?                                   

Explanation

The Wing Weapon Manager is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew team members in support of aircraft generation planning. This role is specifically focused on managing the weapons and munitions aspect of aircraft maintenance and operations. They ensure that there are enough qualified and certified load crew team members available to handle the necessary tasks and support the overall aircraft generation planning process.

Submit
79.
  What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
80. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. By coordinating with them, maintenance can ensure that the required materials are available at the designated supply point, allowing for efficient and effective maintenance work.

Submit
81. What is the accountability document used for supply point that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due out?

Explanation

The accountability document used for supply point that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due out is the Supply Point Listing. This document provides a detailed record of the supplies available at a particular supply point, including the quantity that has been authorized for use, the quantity currently on-hand, and the quantity that is scheduled to be issued or used in the near future. It helps in maintaining accurate inventory control and ensuring that the necessary supplies are available when needed.

Submit
82. Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical (TO) system policies and procedures?                                   

Explanation

The final approval authority for waivers of technical (TO) system policies and procedures is HQ USAF/A4MM.

Submit
83. Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional checks, calibration, or operational flight programming?                                    

Explanation

The Maintenance Group commander is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional checks, calibration, or operational flight programming. This is because the Maintenance Group commander typically oversees the overall maintenance operations and strategic planning, rather than being directly involved in the day-to-day functional checks, calibration, or operational flight programming of supply assets. The other options, such as the Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT), Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/Chief, are more likely to be involved in these specific tasks.

Submit
84.
  Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?

Explanation

The aircraft commander ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft. They are responsible for the overall safety and security of the aircraft and its contents, including classified assets. As the highest-ranking officer on board, they have the authority to make decisions regarding security measures and ensure that they meet the necessary requirements to protect classified information.

Submit
85. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

Explanation

When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted. This type of report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply of goods or materials, such as receiving the wrong item or quantity. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the customer can notify the supplier or vendor about the problem and request a refund or a replacement item.

Submit
86. For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the stander frame for having an aircraft down is

Explanation

The correct answer is 45 - 60 days. This means that for a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, it takes between 45 and 60 days to have an aircraft down. This suggests that the unit has a system in place where they can cannibalize parts from one aircraft to repair another, allowing them to minimize downtime and keep their aircraft operational for longer periods of time.

Submit
87. In the equipment indentification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what does the third character "J" identify?

Explanation

The third character "J" in the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001 identifies the unit.

Submit
88. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damamge must be reported IAW                                   

Explanation

A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting. This means that according to the Air Force Instruction 10-206, any incident involving a dropped object that causes harm or damage should be reported using the guidelines and procedures outlined in this document. This ensures that the appropriate authorities are notified and proper investigations can be conducted to prevent future incidents and improve safety measures.

Submit
89. Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage

Explanation

The correct answer is 90. This means that the shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage. This is important to ensure that the shop does not have excessive inventory that may lead to waste or obsolescence. It also helps to maintain a good cash flow by preventing tying up too much capital in inventory. By keeping the stock level within 90 days of usage, the shop can ensure efficient operations and meet customer demand without unnecessary excess or shortage.

Submit
90. How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory classified?

Explanation

Radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory are classified as "Unshielded." This means that these inspections are conducted without any protective shielding to contain the radiation. It is important to note that unshielded radiographic inspections are considered unsafe and unacceptable due to the potential health risks associated with exposure to radiation.

Submit
91. Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?                                   

Explanation

The Maintenance Data System Analysis (MDSA) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals. This means that the MDSA office is responsible for analyzing maintenance data and referrals, which could include identifying trends, conducting investigations, and providing recommendations for improvement. They play a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are efficient and effective by identifying areas for improvement and implementing corrective actions.

Submit
92. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report programs management for the submitting organization or group?

Explanation

The originating point is responsible for the overall management of Deficiency Report programs for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the process of identifying and addressing deficiencies within the organization. They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary actions are taken to rectify the reported deficiencies and improve the overall performance and efficiency of the organization.

Submit
93. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tool/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?                                   

Explanation

The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tool/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. They oversee the maintenance group and have the authority and responsibility to ensure that proper procedures are in place for the control and management of tools and equipment. As the commander of the maintenance group, they are in the best position to develop and enforce these procedures.

Submit
94. In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?                                   

Explanation

Support personnel must conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment annually. This means that they need to perform this inspection once every year to ensure that all tools and equipment are in proper working condition and meet the required standards. This helps in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the support section and ensures that all necessary tools and equipment are available when needed.

Submit
95. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "What steps need to be taken?" during which aircraft generation planning area?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Aircraft generation actions". This answer aligns with the question, as it directly addresses the concern of what steps need to be taken during aircraft generation planning. It implies that there are specific actions that need to be carried out in order to generate aircraft effectively.

Submit
96.
  What AF Protal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF computers systems?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
97. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?

Explanation

Supply delivery priority 3 is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing. This priority level indicates that the supplies being delivered are essential for sustaining the primary mission and need to be delivered within a reasonable time frame. It suggests that there may be some urgency in delivering the supplies, but they are not immediately critical or life-saving.

Submit
98. You are primarily concerned with aswering the question: "How long does each step or group of steps take?" during wich aircraft generation planning area?                                   

Explanation

The correct answer is "Aircraft generation action timing." This answer accurately reflects that the primary concern is determining the timing or duration of each step or group of steps in the aircraft generation process. It focuses specifically on the timing aspect of the actions involved in aircraft generation.

Submit
99.
  What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?

Explanation

The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares is A.

Submit
100.
  In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?

Explanation

The MXG Commander is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance in the Maintenance Group (MXG). They have the authority and oversight to ensure that the necessary procedures and controls are in place to support the local manufacture of these items.

Submit
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Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC)...
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all...
Training detachments(TDs) are administratively assigned to which...
The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what...
 ...
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual...
 ...
During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediter have a...
Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and...
 ...
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on...
Which supply tracking document provides information on all documents...
 ...
Which of the following is not an approved communication method for...
 ...
The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty,...
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID)...
Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's...
 ...
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall...
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be...
Which Precious Metal Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of...
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft,...
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located...
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison...
Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority...
Manpower authorization...
Who is responsible for immediate security of classified equipment...
 ...
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status...
 ...
 ...
Which maintenace squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary...
A unit manpower document (UDM) does not
Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery...
 ...
Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on an...
Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft...
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM...
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM)...
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office account for special...
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)...
Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the...
Once you have completed the master task list for your master training...
 ...
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail...
 ...
 ...
 ...
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support...
What Maintenace Standarization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual...
What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a foreign object...
All of the following can designate critical tasks that supply to a...
 ...
Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspcetor directly responsible...
After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled...
In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid...
When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is...
Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodical like...
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments...
When items are place in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which...
Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM)...
 ...
 ...
What time-frame is used for determining whether an items that falls...
Which AF publication provides genral guidance for executing an...
How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled...
 ...
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order...
 ...
How often are operating commands required to review permanent...
 ...
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that in item of...
Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG)...
What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure...
 ...
Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of...
 ...
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance...
What is the accountability document used for supply point that shows...
Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical (TO)...
Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items...
 ...
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type...
For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the stander frame...
In the equipment indentification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what...
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damamge...
Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage
How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non...
Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary...
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report programs...
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of...
In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support...
You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "What...
 ...
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission...
You are primarily concerned with aswering the question: "How long...
 ...
 ...
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