2AX7X Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Detachment Training!

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  • 1/70 Questions

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)
    • Air Training Command (ATC)
    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC)
    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
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About This Quiz

This is a 2AX7X: Trivia Questions Quiz on Air Force Detachment Training! In the air force, how you deploy the members is essential in maximizing their output; some perform better in some areas than others. How good are you at planning detachments of members of the air force? Take the simple quiz below on edition five volumes two and find out. Good luck!

2AX7X Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Detachment Training! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • SMSgt

    • CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are eligible to make the decision to downgrade a "Red-X" status.

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  • 3. 

    Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily access and view information about their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This feature allows personnel to track their own professional development and ensure they meet the necessary requirements for their roles. It also helps supervisors and managers to have a comprehensive view of their team's qualifications and training statuses, enabling them to make informed decisions regarding assignments and promotions.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit Training Manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This is because the Unit Training Manager is in charge of coordinating and overseeing training activities within the unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the trainee's readiness for the CDC and ensure that both the trainee and the supervisor are aligned in their expectations and goals for the course.

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  • 5. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • 12 hours.

    • 13 hours.

    • 14 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 hours. This means that you can schedule your workers to work continuously for a maximum of 12 hours without needing approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC). It is important to adhere to this limit to ensure the well-being and safety of the workers and to comply with regulations. Going beyond this limit may require approval and could potentially lead to fatigue and decreased productivity.

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  • 6. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • 14 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 18 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours.
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders are responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations within their group. As the final approval authority, they have the discretion to allow shifts to exceed the standard 12-hour duration. However, they can only approve shifts up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours, the maintenance group commander can grant permission for the shift to be extended up to 16 hours, but not beyond that.

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  • 7. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and Balance

    • Maintenance Orientation

    • General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically utilized to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course in the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This method involves grouping related training topics together and delivering them in a concentrated and intensive format. Maintenance Orientation provides an overview of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and basic technical knowledge necessary for individuals entering the maintenance career field.

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  • 8. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Management Inspection

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection ensures that the completed task meets the required quality standards and specifications. It involves a thorough examination and evaluation of the technician's work to ensure that it has been done correctly and meets the necessary standards. This assessment helps to maintain consistency and quality in the maintenance processes and procedures.

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  • 9. 

    An individual comes due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual comes due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their recertification training after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation. If they fail to complete the training within these 30 days, they will be decertified.

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  • 10. 

    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • Maintenance Squadron (MXS).

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for managing logistics operations, including supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. As maintenance supply liaison personnel are involved in coordinating and facilitating supply activities for maintenance operations, it makes sense for them to report directly to the LRS commander. The LRS ensures that the necessary supplies and resources are available to support maintenance activities and overall mission readiness.

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  • 11. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    An asset must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3 before it can be placed in bench stock. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is not expected to be repaired or recovered once it becomes unserviceable. This suggests that the asset is easily replaceable and does not require extensive repairs or recovery efforts.

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  • 12. 

    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

    • 8 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    • 32 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    A Category I deficiency refers to a deficiency that poses an immediate threat to safety or security. Once such a deficiency is discovered, it is crucial to take prompt action to address the issue. Therefore, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within 24 hours. This allows for a timely response and appropriate measures to be taken to rectify the deficiency and ensure safety and security.

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  • 13. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    • Management Inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Special Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Evaluation
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment that involves an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task is called Personnel Evaluation. This assessment is focused on evaluating the performance and skills of the individual technician in carrying out their assigned tasks. It allows for direct observation and assessment of the technician's abilities, ensuring that they meet the required standards and can perform their duties effectively.

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  • 14. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section. This is because their role involves ensuring that the quality standards and specifications of the products are met. They are responsible for identifying areas of improvement and implementing strategies to enhance the quality of the products. The Quality Assurance section is specifically dedicated to monitoring and evaluating the quality of products and processes, making it the most suitable MXG section for the Product Improvement Manager.

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  • 15. 

    The WIng foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Quality Assurance section.

    • Engine Management section.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Quality Assurance section. The Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are conducted properly and in accordance with established standards and procedures. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is a tool used to detect and prevent FOD, which refers to any object that can cause damage to aircraft or equipment. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the Quality Assurance section, as they are responsible for maintaining the highest level of quality and safety in aircraft maintenance operations.

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  • 16. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of training activities and progress on a monthly schedule. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the maintenance training program.

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  • 17. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and equipment are readily available for the mission and can be properly accounted for in the base's inventory system.

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  • 18. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Audio Visual Center

    • Engineering Data Service Center

    • AF Primary Standards Laboratory

    • Communication and Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering Data Service Center
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these important documents and information for easy access and retrieval. This agency plays a crucial role in ensuring that engineering data is properly managed and available to those who need it for various purposes.

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  • 19. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II because the four sub-phases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are typically part of the second training phase.

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  • 20. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liason

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liason
    Explanation
    A maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance activities. They coordinate with various stakeholders to identify and address any supply-related issues, ensuring smooth operations and efficient maintenance support.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can have various causes that are unrelated to pollution. For example, sediment, minerals, or air bubbles can make water appear cloudy. Pollution-related signs typically involve visible contaminants, such as oil sheen, stains, or stressed vegetation. These signs are more directly linked to pollution and indicate the presence of harmful substances in the environment.

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  • 22. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9 because an equipment identification designator (EID) code is made up of 9 digits. This code is used to identify tools and equipment, and it consists of a specific combination of numbers that uniquely identifies each item.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

    • Bolt

    • Panel

    • Safety pin

    • Explosive munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or disposed of during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard, such as bolts, panels, and safety pins.

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  • 24. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded.

    • Unfunded.

    • Unvalidated.

    • Both funded and unfunded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded.
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded means that the necessary resources and financial support have been allocated for the authorized positions. This implies that the organization has the necessary budget to hire and maintain the required workforce. It ensures that the authorized positions can be filled and the associated costs can be covered. Having funded manpower authorizations is crucial for the smooth functioning of an organization and the successful execution of its operations.

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  • 25. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

    • DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is specifically designed to communicate cautionary information about a piece of equipment or a part, such as the need to drain or purge it. It serves as a visual indicator to alert personnel that the necessary actions have been taken and that the part is ready for use. The other forms mentioned (DD Form 1574, DD Form 1577-1, DD Form 1577-2) are not specifically intended for documenting draining and purging, but rather for different purposes such as indicating serviceability or unserviceability of a part.

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  • 26. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations Group Commander

    • Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations and security of the host installation, including the authorization of storage facilities for classified material. The aircraft commander, Operations Group Commander, and Mission Support Group commander may have their own areas of authority and responsibility, but in this specific scenario, it is the host installation commander who has the authority to authorize the temporary storage of classified material.

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  • 27. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization aims to have enough stock on hand to sustain its operations for a period of 30 days. This allows for a buffer in case of unexpected demand or disruptions in the supply chain. Having a 30-day supply ensures that the organization can continue its operations smoothly without running out of essential items.

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  • 28. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    Explanation
    The Priority Monitor Report (D18) is the correct answer because it is a supply tracking document that is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The other options, D04, Daily Document Register; M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report; and D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List, do not specifically mention the daily production or the listing of back-ordered parts with a specific urgency code.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • Customer

    • Maintenance Supply support

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This is because the customer is the one who needs the parts and understands the urgency and importance of the request. They are in the best position to prioritize their own needs and communicate them to the relevant parties.

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  • 30. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A.

    • C.

    • G.

    • P.

    Correct Answer
    A. C.
    Explanation
    PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.

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  • 31. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy tracking and monitoring of the supply chain. The other options mentioned, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24), and Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23), do not specifically focus on tracking document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents.

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that are typically performed by a Maintenance Supply Liaison.

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  • 33. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron Commander

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role is important as the custodian is responsible for managing and safeguarding the equipment within the squadron. The Squadron Commander has the authority to make this appointment and ensure that the individual is qualified and capable of fulfilling the duties of the position.

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  • 34. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • I

    • III

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    The specific block of supply training that an individual must receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor is IIB.

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  • 35. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 36. 

    Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

    • Air aborts.

    • Late takeoffs.

    • Ground aborts.

    • Aircraft status changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft status changes.
    Explanation
    The Red Ball maintenance is not intended to prevent aircraft status changes. Red Ball maintenance refers to a maintenance system where aircraft are given priority for repairs to minimize downtime. It focuses on addressing urgent issues that could affect the aircraft's operational readiness and safety. However, aircraft status changes can occur due to various factors such as mechanical failures, weather conditions, or crew availability, which are not directly related to the maintenance process. Therefore, Red Ball maintenance does not specifically target preventing aircraft status changes.

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  • 37. 

    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance

    • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing

    • AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, is the correct answer because this publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. It outlines the procedures and processes for managing and maintaining aircraft and equipment, including guidance on maintenance operations and recovery. This publication is specific to the Air Force and is a comprehensive resource for maintenance personnel to ensure efficient and effective maintenance practices are followed. AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance, focuses more on technical procedures and techniques for aircraft maintenance. AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution, and AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing, are not directly related to maintenance recovery operations.

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  • 38. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
  • 39. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is required to notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This is important to ensure that appropriate actions can be taken promptly to address any potential damage or safety concerns caused by the FOD incident.

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  • 40. 

    How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?

    • Annually

    • Semi-annually

    • Quarterly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that the officer/superintendent stays updated on the certifications of their maintenance personnel and can make any necessary adjustments or updates to the roster. Reviewing and signing the SCR on a semi-annual basis helps to maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The given options consist of different categories of technical order (TO) change priorities. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all valid categories of TO change priorities. However, "Standard" is not a category of TO change priority. Therefore, the answer is Standard.

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  • 42. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

    • A4MT

    • A4YE

    • A4U

    • A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. A4U
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A4U. The overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system lies with A4U.

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  • 43. 

    When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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  • 44. 

    In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • Open suspenses

    • System upgrades

    • Application problems

    • Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    A. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that users can receive updates and alerts about any issues or glitches with the application, allowing them to stay informed and potentially take necessary actions to address or work around these problems.

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  • 45. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is place in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • Operations Officer

    • Aircraft Section flight chief

    • Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities for an aircraft unit. They oversee the scheduling and execution of maintenance tasks, including the replacement of MICAP parts. Therefore, it is logical that the MOC would be notified when a MICAP part is placed in the TNB, as they are the central hub for maintenance operations and would need to ensure that the necessary repairs are carried out in a timely manner.

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  • 46. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because holding meetings on a monthly basis allows the maintenance group (MXG) to regularly discuss and address manning issues. This frequency ensures that any staffing concerns or problems can be promptly identified and resolved, ensuring the smooth functioning of the maintenance group. Holding meetings more frequently, such as weekly, may be too frequent and time-consuming, while holding them less frequently, such as quarterly or semiannually, may result in delayed problem-solving and potential staffing gaps. Monthly meetings strike a balance between regular communication and efficient use of time and resources.

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  • 47. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the coordination and management of these assets, ensuring their proper use and maintenance within the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility for managing SPRAM assets on in-use detail records.

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  • 48. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour.

    • 2 hours.

    • 3 hours.

    • 4 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours.
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, security checks need to be conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and integrity of the equipment and to prevent unauthorized access or tampering. Conducting regular security checks helps to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment.

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  • 49. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?

    • Operations officer

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center. As a supervisor, they have a direct understanding of the work center and its specific hazards, making them the most suitable person to develop and implement the training plan. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may also have roles in ensuring workplace safety, but the section supervisor is specifically responsible for the HAZCOM training plan.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Sup3rman7374
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