2AX7X All Ure's For Practice

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  • 1/130 Questions

    Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or process?

    • Cross-tells
    • Self-inspections
    • Technical orders
    • NSN
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2AX7X All Ure
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '2AX7X All URE's for practice,' assesses knowledge in Air Force maintenance protocols, focusing on preventive measures, cross-tells, repair programs, and maintenance levels. It is designed to enhance readiness and efficiency in military equipment management.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance

    • Two-level

    • Organizational

    • Intermediate

    • Depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is intermediate. Intermediate maintenance capability category is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance. This means that the maintenance tasks are conducted in a specialized facility, away from the actual equipment or system being maintained. Intermediate maintenance includes repairs, inspections, and component replacements that require more expertise and resources than what can be done at the organizational level, but less than what is done at the depot level.

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  • 3. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • SMSgt

    • CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "red-x," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are eligible to downgrade a "red-x." The higher rank indicates a higher level of experience, knowledge, and responsibility, which is necessary to make such decisions.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course. They are in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit, and this includes conducting interviews to assess the readiness and suitability of trainees for career development courses. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the trainee and their supervisor are aligned in their goals and expectations before the start of the course.

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  • 5. 

    Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Off-equipment

    • On-equipment

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need. This type of maintenance involves regularly scheduled inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of parts to prevent breakdowns or failures. By proactively addressing potential issues, preventive maintenance helps to minimize unplanned downtime and maximize the lifespan and performance of equipment. It is a proactive approach that aims to prevent problems before they occur, ensuring that equipment is always in optimal condition when it is needed.

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  • 6. 

    In addition to being familiar with the units assigned weapon system(s), squadron representatives for the data integrity team must be at least

    • 5 lvl

    • 7 lvl

    • Sra

    • Nco

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 lvl
    Explanation
    Squadron representatives for the data integrity team must be at least a 5 lvl. This indicates that they need to have a certain level of experience and expertise in order to fulfill their responsibilities effectively. Being familiar with the units assigned weapon system(s) is important for these representatives as they need to understand the technical aspects and intricacies of the system in order to ensure data integrity. Therefore, a higher level of experience and knowledge is required, which is represented by the 5 lvl requirement.

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  • 7. 

    What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

    • Metrics

    • Reports

    • Standards

    • Instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Metrics
    Explanation
    Metrics provide a measurement of unit performance and capability. Metrics are quantifiable measures used to track and assess the performance, progress, and effectiveness of a particular unit or system. They provide objective data and insights into various aspects of performance, such as productivity, efficiency, quality, and customer satisfaction. By analyzing metrics, organizations can identify areas for improvement, set performance goals, and make data-driven decisions to enhance overall performance and capability.

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  • 8. 

    What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?

    • Performance and health

    • Trending and impacting

    • Positive and negative`

    • Leading and lagging

    Correct Answer
    A. Leading and lagging
    Explanation
    Leading and lagging are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help predict future performance and identify potential issues before they occur. They provide early warning signs and allow for preventive actions to be taken. Lagging indicators, on the other hand, are reactive measures that assess past performance and indicate the effectiveness of previous actions. They are used to evaluate the results and outcomes of maintenance activities. Both types of indicators are important for effective maintenance management and decision-making.

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  • 9. 

    Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?

    • Electro-environmental specialists

    • Propulsion specialists

    • Avionics specialists

    • Crew chiefs

    Correct Answer
    A. Electro-environmental specialists
    Explanation
    Electro-environmental specialists are responsible for maintaining various systems in an aircraft, including bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems. They are trained to handle these specific systems and are skilled in removing and replacing associated components. This specialization makes them the correct answer for the question.

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  • 10. 

    Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?

    • Aircraft section

    • Support section

    • Weapons section

    • Armament support section

    Correct Answer
    A. Support section
    Explanation
    The support section is responsible for the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment. This section provides support to other sections by ensuring that the necessary equipment is properly maintained and available when needed. They also handle the control and storage of this equipment to ensure its safety and accessibility. The support section plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary resources are available for the smooth operation of the organization.

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  • 11. 

    In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?

    • Afto imt 244s

    • Driver radios

    • Sub-pools

    • Drivers

    Correct Answer
    A. Sub-pools
    Explanation
    Sub-pools are centrally located to enhance mission performance in relation to aerospace ground equipment. Sub-pools refer to designated areas where equipment and resources are stored and maintained. By having these sub-pools centrally located, it ensures easy access and availability of equipment when needed, thus enhancing mission performance.

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  • 12. 

    TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to distance learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses AF-wide

    • Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
    Explanation
    TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that personnel can easily see and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. It allows them to stay updated on their current status and identify any areas where they may need further training or certification. This visibility ensures that personnel are aware of their own capabilities and can effectively plan their career development and training needs.

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  • 13. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is

    • 12 hrs

    • 13 hrs

    • 14 hrs

    • 15 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hrs
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous duty time that can be scheduled for workers without getting maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours without needing any additional approval from the maintenance group commander.

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  • 14. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • 14 hrs

    • 15 hrs

    • 16 hrs

    • 18 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hrs
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for maintenance work to be done for an extended period of time, the maintenance group commander can authorize the personnel to work for up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks are completed efficiently.

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  • 15. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • Xf3

    • Xd2

    • Xd1

    • Xb3

    Correct Answer
    A. Xb3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "xb3". The expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) are used to determine the level of maintenance support needed for an asset. The "xb3" ERRC code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is not repairable or recoverable and should be disposed of after use. This code suggests that the asset does not require any maintenance or repair actions and can be easily replaced when needed.

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  • 16. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • Afto form 20, caution tag

    • Dd form 1574, serviceable tag-material

    • Dd form 1577-1 unserviceable tag

    • Dd form 1577-2, unserviceable tag (repairable)

    Correct Answer
    A. Afto form 20, caution tag
    Explanation
    The correct answer is afto form 20, caution tag. The AFTO Form 20 is used to document maintenance actions and is commonly used in the military. The caution tag is used to indicate that a part has been properly drained and/or purged, alerting others to take caution when handling the part. This helps ensure the safety and proper handling of the part during maintenance procedures.

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  • 17. 

    Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within

    • 8 hrs

    • 16 hrs

    • 24 hrs

    • 32 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hrs
    Explanation
    Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR (Deficiency Report) must be submitted to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any significant issue or problem that falls under category 1 needs to be reported and addressed within a day. This ensures that the necessary actions can be taken promptly to rectify the deficiency and prevent any further complications or risks. Failing to submit the DR within the specified timeframe could result in delays in resolving the issue and potentially compromising the safety or efficiency of the system or process.

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  • 18. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

    • QA

    • Engine management

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    • MOC

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the QA section. This role involves overseeing the quality assurance processes and ensuring that products meet the required standards. The Product Improvement Manager works closely with the QA team to identify areas for improvement and implement necessary changes to enhance product quality.

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  • 19. 

    The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance flight

    • QA section

    • Engine management section

    • MOC

    Correct Answer
    A. QA section
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QA section. The Quality Assurance (QA) section is responsible for ensuring that the maintenance and repair activities are carried out according to the set standards and regulations. The wing FOD (Foreign Object Damage) monitor is a device used to detect and prevent foreign objects from entering the aircraft's engine during maintenance or flight operations. Placing the FOD monitor in the QA section ensures that it is easily accessible to the personnel responsible for quality control and can be used effectively to prevent any potential damage to the engine.

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  • 20. 

    What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple air force units within a particular theater of operations?

    • Regional repair centers

    • Centralized repair facilities

    • Programmed depot maintenance

    • Intermediate repair enhancement program

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized repair facilities
    Explanation
    Centralized repair facilities are wing-level maintenance facilities that provide intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple air force units within a particular theater of operations. These facilities are centralized in one location to efficiently serve and support multiple units, reducing the need for each unit to have its own repair capabilities. This allows for better resource allocation and coordination, maximizing the effectiveness of maintenance operations in the theater.

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  • 21. 

    When operating instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as

    • Wing OIs

    • Seperate group OIs

    • Support agreements

    • Air force instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing OIs
    Explanation
    When operating instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as wing OIs. Wing OIs are instructions that are specific to a particular wing or unit within an organization. By publishing the instructions as wing OIs, it ensures that they are tailored to the specific needs and requirements of that particular wing or unit, rather than being generic instructions that may not fully address the unique aspects of each group. This approach allows for better clarity, efficiency, and adherence to the instructions within the organization.

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  • 22. 

    Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

    • Leading

    • Lagging

    • Trending

    • Impacting

    Correct Answer
    A. Leading
    Explanation
    The primary maintenance metric indicator that shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission, is the leading metric. Leading metrics are proactive indicators that help identify potential issues or risks before they occur. They provide early warning signs and allow maintenance teams to take preventive measures to avoid disruptions in resource availability and mission execution.

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  • 23. 

    Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what af imt?

    • 55

    • 244

    • 435

    • 623

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 55. The AF IMT 55 is used to monitor, track, and document worker safety and health information. This form is specifically designed for documenting occupational injuries, illnesses, and exposures. It is an important tool for maintaining records and ensuring compliance with safety regulations.

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  • 24. 

    Section ncoic are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with

    • Accountability and control procedures

    • Deployments and wing-level taskings

    • Qualification and upgrade training

    • Scheduled maintenance actions

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualification and upgrade training
    Explanation
    Section NCOICs are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with qualification and upgrade training. This means that they are in charge of determining the training needs and requirements for individuals to attain and improve their qualifications and skills. They need to ensure that the cross-utilization training does not hinder or impede the progress and completion of qualification and upgrade training for personnel. This ensures that individuals are able to meet the necessary standards and requirements for their positions and responsibilities within the organization.

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  • 25. 

    How many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 5

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    In a maintenance group, there are three standard squadrons.

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  • 26. 

    The aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an aircraft maintenance unit's number of mission assigned aircraft is more than

    • 14

    • 16

    • 18

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 18
    Explanation
    When an aircraft maintenance unit is assigned more than 18 missions, the aircraft section is split into two separate sections. This is likely done to ensure that the workload is evenly distributed and that each section can effectively manage and maintain the assigned aircraft. By dividing the section, the unit can provide better maintenance and support for a larger number of aircraft, improving overall efficiency and effectiveness.

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  • 27. 

    Which fabrication flight sections processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment?

    • Low observable

    • Metals technology

    • Non-destructive inspection

    • Aircraft structural maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Metals technology
    Explanation
    Metals technology is the correct answer because the fabrication flight sections processes involved in manufacturing aerospace-grade equipment require strict control. These processes involve working with metals to create parts and tools that meet the high standards of the aerospace industry. This includes processes such as metal cutting, shaping, welding, and heat treatment, which must be closely monitored and controlled to ensure the quality and integrity of the final products.

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  • 28. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which majcom?

    • Air combat command

    • Air training command

    • Air reserve command

    • Air education and training command

    Correct Answer
    A. Air education and training command
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for recruiting, training, and educating the Air Force's enlisted personnel and officers. As part of its mission, AETC oversees various training detachments that provide specialized training in different areas. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that TDs are administratively assigned to the AETC.

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  • 29. 

    The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance training flight (mtf) training course?

    • And 7lvl course

    • Weight and balance

    • Maintenance orientation

    • General technical order system

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically utilized to teach maintenance orientation during the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course. This method involves grouping related training topics into blocks or modules, allowing for a more organized and efficient learning experience. Maintenance orientation is essential for providing trainees with an understanding of the overall maintenance processes, procedures, and responsibilities within an organization. It helps familiarize them with the maintenance environment and sets the foundation for further specialized training in areas such as weight and balance or the general technical order system.

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  • 30. 

    What maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder eval while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality verification inspection

    • Managment inspection

    • Personnel eval

    • Special inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel eval
    Explanation
    The given correct answer for this question is "personnel eval". In the context of the question, a maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual assessment refers to an evaluation conducted by the team on an individual technician while they are performing a task. This evaluation is done to assess the technician's skills, competency, and adherence to standard procedures. Therefore, "personnel eval" accurately describes the over-the-shoulder evaluation conducted by the MSET team during the task.

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  • 31. 

    Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that arre on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Maintenance repair priority 1 is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions. This priority ensures that these critical aircraft are given the highest level of attention and resources in order to maintain their operational readiness and support the mission requirements.

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  • 32. 

    Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?

    • Aircraft maintenance unit specialist section

    • Jet engine intermediate maintenance

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Engine management

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is engine management because it is the section responsible for tracking the health of the engine and implementing the engine health management program. This section is likely to have the necessary expertise and resources to monitor the engine's performance, diagnose any issues, and ensure proper maintenance and management of the engine.

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  • 33. 

    Commanders have the option of establishing two seperate squadrons, the equipment maintenance squadron and the component maintenance squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed

    • 600

    • 670

    • 700

    • 760

    Correct Answer
    A. 700
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 700. Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the equipment maintenance squadron and the component maintenance squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed 700. This means that if the number of personnel required for maintenance exceeds 700, commanders can divide them into two squadrons for better management and efficiency.

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  • 34. 

    If a refurbishment section is establishment, wings have the option to align it under either the maintenance flight or the

    • Fabrication flight

    • Accessories flight

    • Aircraft inspection flight

    • Two-level maintenance flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Fabrication flight
    Explanation
    The refurbishment section is an establishment that deals with repairing or renovating items. In this context, the wings have the option to align it under the fabrication flight. This means that the refurbishment section can be placed within the fabrication flight, which is responsible for creating or assembling new parts or equipment. This alignment would make sense as the fabrication flight would have the necessary resources and expertise to support the refurbishment activities.

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  • 35. 

    Which munitions flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items?

    • Production

    • Material

    • Systems

    • Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Material
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "material." This section is responsible for receiving, storing, warehousing, handling, inspecting, shipping, inventorying, and transporting containers, dispensers, and training items. They are in charge of managing all the materials and supplies needed for munitions operations.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply managenment documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not typically part of a maintenance supply liason's responsibilities. Maintenance supply liasons are primarily responsible for monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list. Collecting and turning in precious metal bearing assets would fall under a different role or department, such as asset management or inventory control.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors, such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudiness in water, it is not a definitive indication of pollution on its own. Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be considered as obvious signs.

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  • 38. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question is asking how many digits make up this code. The correct answer is 9. This means that the code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 39. 

    What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special inspection

    • Personnel evaluation

    • Management inspection

    • Quality verification inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality verification inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection is performed to ensure that the task has been completed to the required standards and specifications. This inspection is conducted to check for any errors, defects, or deviations from the expected outcome. It helps to ensure that the work meets the necessary quality standards before it is considered complete and ready for further processing or use.

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  • 40. 

    All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated thru

    • Plans, scheduling, and documentation and the maintenance group commander

    • Plans, scheduling, and documentation and maintenance management analysis

    • Quality assurance and plans, scheduling, and documentation

    • Quality assurance and maintenance management analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance and plans, scheduling, and documentation
  • 41. 

    Printed copies of the afto imt 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer

    • In units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or thrust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another

    • As long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for

    • To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information

    • In the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system

    Correct Answer
    A. To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information. This means that if the location where the transfer is taking place has the ability to access the maintenance information systems and retrieve the historical information of the item, then there is no need for printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 to be included with the transfer.

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  • 42. 

    Which maintenance operation squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?

    • Plans, scheduling, and documentation

    • Maintenance management analysis

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Production superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, scheduling, and documentation
    Explanation
    The squadron section responsible for maintaining standardized aircraft jacket files and attending pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings is the plans, scheduling, and documentation section. This section is in charge of organizing and coordinating maintenance activities, ensuring that all necessary documentation is properly maintained, and attending important inspection meetings to ensure the smooth operation of maintenance operations.

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  • 43. 

    What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?

    • Transient alert

    • Maintenance flight

    • Aircraft maintenance unit

    • Maintenance operations squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft maintenance unit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is aircraft maintenance unit. An aircraft maintenance unit's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations. This unit is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft are in proper working condition and ready for flight. They handle routine maintenance tasks, conduct inspections, and provide necessary repairs to keep the aircraft operational.

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  • 44. 

    Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form seets are provided to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?

    • Weapons expediter or specialist expediter

    • Flight line expediter or aircraft section chief

    • Flight line expediter or production superintendent

    • Aircraft section chief or production superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight line expediter or production superintendent
    Explanation
    The flight line expediter or production superintendent must ensure that the applicable aircraft form seets are provided to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations. This means that either the flight line expediter or the production superintendent is responsible for making sure the necessary forms are delivered to the debrief section in a timely manner.

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  • 45. 

    Who is responsible to the weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?

    • Load crew chief

    • Flight-line expediter

    • Weapons expediter

    • Dedicated crew chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons expediter
    Explanation
    The weapons expediter is responsible for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations. They ensure that the weapons are properly maintained and loaded onto the aircraft. They work closely with the weapons section chief to coordinate and oversee these operations, ensuring that everything is carried out safely and efficiently.

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  • 46. 

    Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

    • Air aborts

    • Late takeoffs

    • Ground aborts

    • Aircraft status changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft status changes
    Explanation
    The given answer states that red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent aircraft status changes. This implies that red ball maintenance focuses on other aspects of maintenance and does not specifically address or prevent changes in the status of the aircraft. It suggests that red ball maintenance may be more concerned with immediate or urgent issues rather than long-term or overall changes in the aircraft's status.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program?

    • Bolt

    • Panel

    • Safety pin

    • Explosive munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The dropped prevention program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety risk to personnel or equipment. Explosive munitions are handled and deployed with specific protocols and procedures in place to ensure their safe and intentional use.

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  • 48. 

    Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy?

    • Maintenance group deputy commander

    • Maintenance group commander

    • Production superintendent

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance group commander
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy. As the leader of the maintenance group, they have the authority and responsibility to establish and enforce standards within the group. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that all personnel adhere to the established procedures and guidelines. They also play a crucial role in developing and implementing the organizational structure and management philosophy that aligns with the goals and objectives of the maintenance group.

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  • 49. 

    When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the begining of each shift?

    • Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendents

    • Maintenance operation center

    • Group manning manager

    • Squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operation center
    Explanation
    The maintenance squadron production superintendent must inform the maintenance operation center of specialist non-availability at the beginning of each shift. This is because the maintenance operation center is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the availability of specialists. By informing them of any non-availability, the maintenance operation center can adjust their plans and allocate resources accordingly to ensure smooth operations.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 26, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Justin

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