2AX7X Practice Test Volume 2 Of 2

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2AX7X Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • A.

      Air combat command (ACC)

    • B.

      Air training command (ATC)

    • C.

      Air reserve command (AFRC)

    • D.

      Air education and training command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air education and training command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of all Air Force personnel. It oversees the training of pilots, navigators, and other aircrew members, as well as the training of enlisted personnel in various technical fields. TDs are specifically designated units within AETC that provide specialized training for specific career fields or missions. Therefore, it makes sense that TDs would be administratively assigned to the command responsible for overall training and education within the Air Force.

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  • 2. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) training course?

    • A.

      Any 7-level course

    • B.

      Weight and balance

    • C.

      Maintenance orientation

    • D.

      General technical order system

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance orientation training course. This course is designed to provide an overview of maintenance operations and procedures, as well as familiarize trainees with the organizational structure and resources available to them. The block training method involves grouping related training topics into blocks or modules, allowing trainees to focus on specific areas of knowledge and skills. This method is particularly effective for courses like Maintenance orientation, where a broad range of information needs to be covered in a structured and organized manner.

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  • 3. 

    How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)

    • A.

      Annually

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    B. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that the officer/superintendent stays updated on the certifications of the personnel listed on the SCR and ensures that they are qualified to perform their respective maintenance tasks. Regular reviews and signatures help maintain the accuracy and validity of the roster.

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  • 4. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • A.

      TSgt

    • B.

      MSgt

    • C.

      SMSgt

    • D.

      CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    B. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be authorized to downgrade a "red x," an individual must have the approval of the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are allowed to make the decision to downgrade a "red x" on an aircraft or equipment. The higher rank is likely required to ensure that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are making these decisions, as they can have significant safety and operational implications.

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  • 5. 

    Training business area (TBA) provides air force personnel with global, real-time

    • A.

      Access to distance learning courseware

    • B.

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • C.

      Visibility of available formal training courses air force-wide

    • D.

      Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) provides air force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily see what qualifications and certifications they have obtained, as well as their current training status. This information is important for both the personnel themselves and their superiors, as it helps in tracking progress, identifying any gaps in qualifications, and ensuring that the necessary training is completed.

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  • 6. 

    In the training business area (TBA), what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • A.

      Open suspenses

    • B.

      System upgrades

    • C.

      Application problems

    • D.

      Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    C. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "system messages" board in the training business area provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the application, users will be notified through the system messages board.

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  • 7. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II because the four sub-phases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are typically part of the initial training phase in a program. This phase is designed to provide a comprehensive foundation and prepare individuals for their specific roles and responsibilities.

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  • 8. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

    • A.

      Maintenance qualification

    • B.

      Maintenance refresher

    • C.

      On-the-job

    • D.

      Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications of individuals in the maintenance field. It helps them stay updated with the latest knowledge and skills required for their job. Therefore, "Maintenance qualification" is the correct answer as it best describes the purpose and content of continuation training.

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  • 9. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of the training being conducted. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the training program.

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  • 10. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated.  Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    An individual is allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required if they come due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Group commander

    • C.

      Unit training manager

    • D.

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This is because the Unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the readiness of the trainee and ensure that they are prepared for the CDC. Conducting an interview allows the Unit training manager to gather information about the trainee's background, goals, and expectations, as well as address any concerns or questions from the supervisor.

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  • 12. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • A.

      Funded

    • B.

      Unfunded

    • C.

      Unvalidated

    • D.

      Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated financial resources to support the required personnel. This implies that the necessary funds are available to hire and maintain the authorized workforce.

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  • 13. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because holding meetings on a monthly basis allows the maintenance group (MXG) to regularly discuss and address manning issues. This frequency strikes a balance between having too frequent meetings that may disrupt work and having too infrequent meetings that may delay problem-solving and decision-making. Monthly meetings provide a consistent forum for MXG members to share updates, discuss challenges, and collaborate on solutions, ensuring that manning issues are regularly addressed and resolved.

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  • 14. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • A.

      12 hours

    • B.

      13 hours

    • C.

      14 hours

    • D.

      15 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous duty time for workers without getting approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours continuously without needing any special permission. Beyond this time, approval from the MXG/CC is required, indicating that there may be safety concerns or other factors that need to be considered before allowing workers to work for longer periods.

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  • 15. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • A.

      14 hours

    • B.

      15 hours

    • C.

      16 hours

    • D.

      18 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 16 hours
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts that exceed the standard 12-hour limit, up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements or other factors, the maintenance group commander can grant the necessary authorization. However, any shift exceeding 16 hours would require higher-level approval.

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  • 16. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • A.

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B.

      Maintenance supply support

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center

    • D.

      Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between the maintenance and supply departments, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring a smooth and efficient flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

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  • 17. 

    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • A.

      Maintenance squadron (MXS)

    • B.

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS)

    • C.

      Aircraft maintenance squadron (AMXS)

    • D.

      Maintenance operations squadron (MOS)

    Correct Answer
    B. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS)
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for providing logistics support to the entire base, including managing supply and transportation operations. The maintenance supply liaison personnel work closely with the LRS to ensure that maintenance units have the necessary supplies and equipment to perform their duties effectively. This includes coordinating the ordering, delivery, and inventory management of maintenance supplies. By reporting directly to the LRS commander, the maintenance supply liaison personnel can effectively communicate and coordinate with the logistics team to meet the maintenance unit's needs.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?

    • A.

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • B.

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • C.

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • D.

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. This duty involves the physical collection and disposal of assets, which is typically handled by other personnel or departments. Maintenance supply liaison duties usually involve tasks such as monitoring requisitions, advising on supply management documents, and soliciting inputs for reference lists.

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  • 19. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and equipment are readily available for the mission and can be properly accounted for in the base's supply system.

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  • 20. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • A.

      XF3

    • B.

      XD2

    • C.

      XD1

    • D.

      XB3

    Correct Answer
    D. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3. The XB3 code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed during normal operations. This code also signifies that the asset is recoverable, meaning it can be repaired or reconditioned to a usable condition. Additionally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is reparable, meaning it can be fixed or restored to a functional state if it becomes damaged or non-operational. Therefore, an asset must have the XB3 ERRC code assigned to it before it can be placed in bench stock.

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  • 21. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory should be sufficient to meet the demand for 30 days without running out. Having a 30-day supply helps ensure that there are enough materials or products available to support operations and prevent any disruptions or delays in production or service. It also allows for flexibility in managing unexpected fluctuations in demand or supply chain disruptions.

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  • 22. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.

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  • 23. 

    Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

    • A.

      MXG commander

    • B.

      MXG superintendent

    • C.

      MXG deputy commander

    • D.

      Maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendend (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendend (MX SUPT)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring that the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual is in charge of overseeing the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, including coordinating and managing resources to ensure that the necessary capabilities are in place to meet the manufacturing needs of the local area. They work closely with the MXG commander, MXG superintendent, and MXG deputy commander to ensure effective and efficient maintenance operations.

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  • 24. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • A.

      Audio visual center

    • B.

      Engineering data service center

    • C.

      AF primary standards laboratory

    • D.

      Communication and information system

    Correct Answer
    B. Engineering data service center
    Explanation
    The Engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering documents and information, making it easily accessible to engineers and other professionals who may need it. This ensures that all engineering data is centralized and can be easily retrieved when needed, promoting efficiency and accuracy in engineering projects.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • A.

      Oil sheen on standing water

    • B.

      Stressed vegetation

    • C.

      Stains on ground

    • D.

      Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    D. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural processes such as sedimentation or the presence of minerals. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not a definitive indicator as it can be difficult to determine the exact cause without further investigation. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be more easily identified as signs of environmental contamination.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Section supervisor

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    B. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for ensuring that all employees are aware of the potential hazards in their work environment and are trained on how to safely handle them. The operations officer may have a role in overall safety management, but the section supervisor is specifically responsible for the HAZCOM training plan. The squadron commander and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and enforcement roles, but the development of the training plan falls under the section supervisor's purview.

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  • 27. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • A.

      AFTO form 20, caution tag

    • B.

      DD form 1574, serviceable tag-material

    • C.

      DD form 1577-1, unserviceable (condemned) tag-material

    • D.

      DD form 1577-2, unserviceable (reparable) tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO form 20, caution tag
    Explanation
    The AFTO form 20, caution tag, should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This form is commonly used in the United States Air Force to provide a visual indication that a specific action has been taken, such as draining and purging, to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the part. The caution tag alerts personnel that the part has been treated and should not be used until further inspections or actions have been taken.

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  • 28. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • A.

      Section supervisor

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      Flight commander/chief

    • D.

      Operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. As the commander of the squadron, they have the authority and responsibility to make this appointment and ensure that the individual appointed is capable and reliable in carrying out the duties of an equipment account custodian.

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  • 29. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      IIB

    • D.

      IIA

    Correct Answer
    C. IIB
    Explanation
    An individual must receive IIB block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

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  • 30. 

    What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

    • A.

      AF IMT 453, report of survey register

    • B.

      AF IMT 1185, statement of record data

    • C.

      DD form 362, statement of charges/cash collection voucher

    • D.

      DD form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss

    Correct Answer
    D. DD form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss
  • 31. 

    Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use records?

    • A.

      Flight service center (FSC)

    • B.

      Equipment liaison office (ELO)

    • C.

      Command equipment management office (CEMO)

    • D.

      Defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment liaison office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use records. The ELO is a part of the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and is specifically tasked with coordinating and overseeing equipment management and accountability. They ensure that SPRAM assets are properly accounted for and maintained, ensuring their availability and readiness for use. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility of managing SPRAM assets on in-use records.

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  • 32. 

    Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

    • A.

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander

    • B.

      Maintenance group (MXG) deputy commander

    • C.

      Mission support group (MSG) commander

    • D.

      Maintenance group (MXG) commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission support group (MSG) commander
    Explanation
    The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This means that unless the responsibility is delegated to someone else, the MSG commander is the one who has the authority and duty to review and approve these requests. This ensures that all SPRAM authorizations are properly reviewed and authorized by a higher-ranking officer before they are granted.

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  • 33. 

    Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      G

    • D.

      P

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to categorize and identify items that are made from multiple precious metals, ensuring accurate tracking and identification of these items within the supply chain.

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  • 34. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • A.

      D18, priority monitor report

    • B.

      D04, daily document register

    • C.

      M-24, orginization effectiveness report

    • D.

      D23, repair cycle asset management list

    Correct Answer
    B. D04, daily document register
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D04, daily document register. The daily document register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It helps keep track of the documents and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and accounted for. The other options mentioned, such as D18 priority monitor report, M-24 organization effectiveness report, and D23 repair cycle asset management list, do not specifically provide information on all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 35. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • A.

      D18, priority monitor report

    • B.

      D04, daily document register

    • C.

      M-24, orginization effectiveness report

    • D.

      D23, repair cycle asset management list

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, priority monitor report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, priority monitor report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The urgency of need code A indicates that these parts are of high priority and need to be urgently addressed.

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  • 36. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • A.

      D18, priority monitor report

    • B.

      D04, daily document register

    • C.

      M-24, orginization effectiveness report

    • D.

      D23, repair cycle asset management list

    Correct Answer
    C. M-24, orginization effectiveness report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M-24, organization effectiveness report. This document is a management product that allows for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. It provides information on the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system and helps in identifying any areas that need improvement. The other options mentioned, such as D18, D04, and D23, do not specifically provide this function of monitoring issue and bench stock supply support.

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  • 37. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • A.

      Aircraft commander

    • B.

      Host installation commander

    • C.

      Operations group commander

    • D.

      Mission support group commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This is because the host installation commander is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of classified material within their jurisdiction. They have the authority to grant permission for the temporary storage of such material in designated secure areas.

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  • 38. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • A.

      Hour

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      3 hours

    • D.

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary to ensure the security of the aircraft by conducting regular security checks. These checks need to be done every 3 hours to ensure that the equipment and the aircraft remain secure and protected. This frequency allows for timely detection of any potential security breaches or unauthorized access to the confidential equipment.

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  • 39. 

    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • A.

      Flight commander/chief

    • B.

      Maintenance group commander

    • C.

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) chief inspector

    • D.

      MX operations officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    C. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) chief inspector
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They are responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet the necessary standards for functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. As the chief inspector, they have the authority and expertise to review and approve the list of supply assets that require these checks, ensuring that all necessary maintenance and programming is carried out effectively.

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  • 40. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • A.

      Customer

    • B.

      Maintenance supply support

    • C.

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • D.

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) customer service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This is because the customer knows the urgency and importance of the request and can prioritize accordingly. The customer is the one who will be using the parts and knows the impact of not receiving them in a timely manner. Therefore, they are best suited to determine the priority of the supply delivery.

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  • 41. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • A.

      1A or JA

    • B.

      AR or BR

    • C.

      AA or AM

    • D.

      BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    B. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 42. 

    Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

    • A.

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight service center

    • B.

      Maintenance group (MXG) quality assurance

    • C.

      MXG maintenance data system analysis

    • D.

      LRS material management element

    Correct Answer
    D. LRS material management element
    Explanation
    Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and distributing materials and supplies needed for maintenance operations. They ensure that the necessary equipment and parts are available and accessible to the maintenance personnel. By coordinating with the LRS material management element, maintenance can ensure that they have the necessary resources to perform their tasks efficiently and effectively.

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  • 43. 

    Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

    • A.

      Annually

    • B.

      Semiannually

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    B. Semiannually
    Explanation
    Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor semiannually, meaning twice a year. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and adjustment of the accounts to ensure accuracy and prevent any discrepancies or errors from going unnoticed for too long. Reconciling the accounts semiannually helps maintain the integrity of the supply point system and ensures that any issues can be addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 44. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Aircraft section flight chief

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center (MOC)

    • D.

      Aircraft maintenance unit's (AMU) plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance operations center (MOC)
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) is responsible for being notified. The MOC is the central hub for coordinating and managing maintenance operations, including the allocation and distribution of spare parts. They are responsible for ensuring that the necessary parts are available and ready for use when needed. Therefore, it makes sense that they would be notified when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB, so they can take appropriate action to ensure the part is replaced and the aircraft can continue its mission.

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  • 45. 

    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

    • A.

      Deficiency report (DR)

    • B.

      Supply discrepancy report

    • C.

      Maintenance cross-tell report

    • D.

      Product quality deficiency report

    Correct Answer
    B. Supply discrepancy report
    Explanation
    A supply discrepancy report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or discrepancies in the supply of goods or products. It helps to identify and resolve any issues related to the quantity, quality, or condition of the supplied items. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the customer can request a refund or a replacement item to rectify the issue.

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  • 46. 

    Who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group?

    • A.

      Originator

    • B.

      Action point

    • C.

      Screening point

    • D.

      Originating point

    Correct Answer
    D. Originating point
    Explanation
    The originating point is responsible for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire program, ensuring that deficiency reports are properly managed and addressed. They are the central point of contact and have the authority to make decisions and take actions related to the program.

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  • 47. 

    Who acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

    • A.

      Originator

    • B.

      Action point

    • C.

      Screening point

    • D.

      Originating point

    Correct Answer
    B. Action point
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Action point". The action point acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for receiving and addressing deficiency reports from the support point and communicating with the submitting organization to resolve any issues or problems.

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  • 48. 

    Once a category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point within

    • A.

      8 hours

    • B.

      16 hours

    • C.

      24 hours

    • D.

      32 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 hours
    Explanation
    A category I deficiency is a serious issue that needs to be addressed promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to submit a deficiency report (DR) within 24 hours to the screening point. This allows the responsible authorities to assess the deficiency and take appropriate actions to rectify the situation in a timely manner. Any delay in reporting could lead to further complications or risks, so it is crucial to adhere to the 24-hour timeframe.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not normally a maintenance group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

    • A.

      Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

    • B.

      Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

    • C.

      Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

    • D.

      Resolving TO availability problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
    Explanation
    The MXG Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to the distribution of technical orders (TO). This includes assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.

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  • 50. 

    What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

    • A.

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B.

      Maintenance operations center

    • C.

      Maintenance management analysis

    • D.

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation

    Correct Answer
    D. Plans, scheduling, and documentation
    Explanation
    The Plans, scheduling, and documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. They are in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of all maintenance activities.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 15, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Beede1984

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