2AX7X Practice Test Volume 2 Of 2

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    Training business area (TBA) provides air force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to distance learning courseware
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    • Visibility of available formal training courses air force-wide
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2AX7X Practice Test Volume 2 Of 2 - Quiz
About This Quiz

This '2AX7X practice test volume 2 of 2' assesses knowledge in Air Force maintenance training, covering administrative assignments, training methods, certification reviews, authority for operational decisions, and system notifications. It is essential for personnel seeking to validate their technical qualifications and readiness.


Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This is because the Unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the readiness of the trainee and ensure that they are prepared for the CDC. Conducting an interview allows the Unit training manager to gather information about the trainee's background, goals, and expectations, as well as address any concerns or questions from the supervisor.

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  • 3. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air combat command (ACC)

    • Air training command (ATC)

    • Air reserve command (AFRC)

    • Air education and training command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air education and training command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of all Air Force personnel. It oversees the training of pilots, navigators, and other aircrew members, as well as the training of enlisted personnel in various technical fields. TDs are specifically designated units within AETC that provide specialized training for specific career fields or missions. Therefore, it makes sense that TDs would be administratively assigned to the command responsible for overall training and education within the Air Force.

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  • 4. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • 12 hours

    • 13 hours

    • 14 hours

    • 15 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous duty time for workers without getting approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours continuously without needing any special permission. Beyond this time, approval from the MXG/CC is required, indicating that there may be safety concerns or other factors that need to be considered before allowing workers to work for longer periods.

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  • 5. 

    What maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality verification inspection

    • Management inspection

    • Personnel evaluation

    • Special inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel evaluation
    Explanation
    The MSET individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. This evaluation is specifically focused on evaluating the individual personnel and their performance during the task. It aims to assess the technician's skills, knowledge, and adherence to maintenance standards. Therefore, the correct answer is personnel evaluation.

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  • 6. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • SMSgt

    • CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be authorized to downgrade a "red x," an individual must have the approval of the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are allowed to make the decision to downgrade a "red x" on an aircraft or equipment. The higher rank is likely required to ensure that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are making these decisions, as they can have significant safety and operational implications.

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  • 7. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • 14 hours

    • 15 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 18 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts that exceed the standard 12-hour limit, up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements or other factors, the maintenance group commander can grant the necessary authorization. However, any shift exceeding 16 hours would require higher-level approval.

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  • 8. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3. The XB3 code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed during normal operations. This code also signifies that the asset is recoverable, meaning it can be repaired or reconditioned to a usable condition. Additionally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is reparable, meaning it can be fixed or restored to a functional state if it becomes damaged or non-operational. Therefore, an asset must have the XB3 ERRC code assigned to it before it can be placed in bench stock.

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  • 9. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9. This means that an EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 10. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance flight

    • Quality assurance section

    • Engine management section

    • Management operations center

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance section
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance procedures and operations are carried out according to established standards and regulations. The FOD monitor is used to detect and prevent foreign object damage to the aircraft's wings, which is a critical aspect of maintaining the aircraft's safety and performance. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the Quality Assurance section to ensure proper monitoring and adherence to quality standards.

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  • 11. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and balance

    • Maintenance orientation

    • General technical order system

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance orientation training course. This course is designed to provide an overview of maintenance operations and procedures, as well as familiarize trainees with the organizational structure and resources available to them. The block training method involves grouping related training topics into blocks or modules, allowing trainees to focus on specific areas of knowledge and skills. This method is particularly effective for courses like Maintenance orientation, where a broad range of information needs to be covered in a structured and organized manner.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural processes such as sedimentation or the presence of minerals. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not a definitive indicator as it can be difficult to determine the exact cause without further investigation. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be more easily identified as signs of environmental contamination.

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  • 13. 

    Once a category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point within

    • 8 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 32 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    A category I deficiency is a serious issue that needs to be addressed promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to submit a deficiency report (DR) within 24 hours to the screening point. This allows the responsible authorities to assess the deficiency and take appropriate actions to rectify the situation in a timely manner. Any delay in reporting could lead to further complications or risks, so it is crucial to adhere to the 24-hour timeframe.

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  • 14. 

    What maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special inspection

    • Personnel evaluation

    • Management inspection

    • Quality verification inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality verification inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection is performed by the maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual. This assessment ensures that the completed task meets the required quality standards and specifications. It involves examining the work done by the technician to verify its accuracy, completeness, and adherence to established procedures. This inspection helps to identify any potential issues or deficiencies in the completed task and ensures that it meets the expected quality standards.

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  • 15. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated.  Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    An individual is allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required if they come due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date.

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  • 16. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • AFTO form 20, caution tag

    • DD form 1574, serviceable tag-material

    • DD form 1577-1, unserviceable (condemned) tag-material

    • DD form 1577-2, unserviceable (reparable) tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO form 20, caution tag
    Explanation
    The AFTO form 20, caution tag, should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This form is commonly used in the United States Air Force to provide a visual indication that a specific action has been taken, such as draining and purging, to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the part. The caution tag alerts personnel that the part has been treated and should not be used until further inspections or actions have been taken.

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  • 17. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations group commander

    • Mission support group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This is because the host installation commander is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of classified material within their jurisdiction. They have the authority to grant permission for the temporary storage of such material in designated secure areas.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped object prevention program?

    • Bolt

    • Panel

    • Safety pin

    • Explosive munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the dropped object prevention program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard or cause damage to equipment or personnel. Therefore, explosive munitions are not included in this program as they serve a different purpose and are intentionally released as part of military operations.

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  • 19. 

    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • Maintenance squadron (MXS)

    • Logistics readiness squadron (LRS)

    • Aircraft maintenance squadron (AMXS)

    • Maintenance operations squadron (MOS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS)
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for providing logistics support to the entire base, including managing supply and transportation operations. The maintenance supply liaison personnel work closely with the LRS to ensure that maintenance units have the necessary supplies and equipment to perform their duties effectively. This includes coordinating the ordering, delivery, and inventory management of maintenance supplies. By reporting directly to the LRS commander, the maintenance supply liaison personnel can effectively communicate and coordinate with the logistics team to meet the maintenance unit's needs.

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  • 20. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • Customer

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) customer service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This is because the customer knows the urgency and importance of the request and can prioritize accordingly. The customer is the one who will be using the parts and knows the impact of not receiving them in a timely manner. Therefore, they are best suited to determine the priority of the supply delivery.

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  • 21. 

    The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality assurance

    • Engine management

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance
    Explanation
    The product improvement manager is usually assigned to the quality assurance section. This is because their role involves overseeing and ensuring the quality of the product. They are responsible for implementing and maintaining quality control processes, conducting audits, and identifying areas for improvement in order to enhance the overall quality of the product.

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  • 22. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame ensures that the FOD manager is promptly informed about any potential damage caused by foreign objects on the wing. This allows for quick assessment and appropriate action to be taken to mitigate any further risks or damages. It also helps in maintaining a high level of safety and efficiency in the operation of the wing.

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  • 23. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and equipment are readily available for the mission and can be properly accounted for in the base's supply system.

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  • 24. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory should be sufficient to meet the demand for 30 days without running out. Having a 30-day supply helps ensure that there are enough materials or products available to support operations and prevent any disruptions or delays in production or service. It also allows for flexibility in managing unexpected fluctuations in demand or supply chain disruptions.

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  • 25. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Audio visual center

    • Engineering data service center

    • AF primary standards laboratory

    • Communication and information system

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering data service center
    Explanation
    The Engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering documents and information, making it easily accessible to engineers and other professionals who may need it. This ensures that all engineering data is centralized and can be easily retrieved when needed, promoting efficiency and accuracy in engineering projects.

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  • 26. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, priority monitor report

    • D04, daily document register

    • M-24, orginization effectiveness report

    • D23, repair cycle asset management list

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, daily document register
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D04, daily document register. The daily document register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It helps keep track of the documents and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and accounted for. The other options mentioned, such as D18 priority monitor report, M-24 organization effectiveness report, and D23 repair cycle asset management list, do not specifically provide information on all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 27. 

    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3-21.1, aircraft maintenance

    • AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution

    • AFI 33-103, requirements development and processing

    • AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenence management

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenence management
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance documentation and reporting. By following the guidelines and recommendations in AFI 21-101, maintenance personnel can ensure that maintenance recovery operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

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  • 28. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated financial resources to support the required personnel. This implies that the necessary funds are available to hire and maintain the authorized workforce.

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  • 29. 

    Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to categorize and identify items that are made from multiple precious metals, ensuring accurate tracking and identification of these items within the supply chain.

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  • 30. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 31. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

    • A4MT

    • A4YE

    • A4U

    • A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. A4U
    Explanation
    A4U refers to the Deputy Chief of Staff for Logistics, Engineering, and Force Protection. This position is responsible for overseeing the Air Force policy governing the TO (Technical Orders) system. They are in charge of ensuring that the TO system is properly managed and maintained to support the Air Force's logistical and operational needs.

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  • 32. 

    Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

    • Air aborts

    • Late takeoffs

    • Ground aborts

    • Aircraft status changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft status changes
    Explanation
    Red ball maintenance refers to urgent or critical maintenance tasks that need to be carried out on an aircraft to ensure its safe operation. It is not specifically designed to prevent aircraft status changes. Aircraft status changes can occur due to various reasons such as mechanical issues, crew availability, or weather conditions. Red ball maintenance focuses on addressing immediate concerns and fixing urgent problems rather than preventing or controlling aircraft status changes.

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  • 33. 

    When a unit has received an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs quality assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    When a unit has received an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs quality assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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  • 34. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • I

    • III

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    An individual must receive IIB block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

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  • 35. 

    Who is the quality assurance (QA) chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP) functions are performed?

    • Wing inspector general

    • MAJCOM inspector general

    • Maintenance group deputy commander (MXG/CD)

    • Quality assurance (QA) officer in charge (OIC)/superintendent (SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance (QA) officer in charge (OIC)/superintendent (SUPT)
    Explanation
    The quality assurance (QA) chief inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) officer in charge (OIC)/superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA chief inspector reports to and works under the supervision of the QA OIC/SUPT to ensure that the MSEP is carried out according to the required standards.

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  • 36. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary to ensure the security of the aircraft by conducting regular security checks. These checks need to be done every 3 hours to ensure that the equipment and the aircraft remain secure and protected. This frequency allows for timely detection of any potential security breaches or unauthorized access to the confidential equipment.

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  • 37. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • Operations officer

    • Aircraft section flight chief

    • Maintenance operations center (MOC)

    • Aircraft maintenance unit's (AMU) plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations center (MOC)
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) is responsible for being notified. The MOC is the central hub for coordinating and managing maintenance operations, including the allocation and distribution of spare parts. They are responsible for ensuring that the necessary parts are available and ready for use when needed. Therefore, it makes sense that they would be notified when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB, so they can take appropriate action to ensure the part is replaced and the aircraft can continue its mission.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The given options are Urgent, Routine, Standard, and Emergency. The question asks for the option that is not a technical order (TO) change priority category. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all commonly used priority categories for TO changes. However, "Standard" is not typically used as a priority category for TO changes. Therefore, Standard is the correct answer as it is not a technical order change priority category.

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  • 39. 

    If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify

    • Quality assurance

    • Programs and resources flight

    • Maintenance management analysis (MMA)

    • Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)
    Explanation
    When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, it means that a part from that item is taken and used to repair another item. In this case, the Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) department would need to be notified. This is because PS&D is responsible for keeping track of inventory, scheduling maintenance activities, and documenting any changes or repairs made to items. By notifying PS&D, they can update their records and ensure that the cannibalized item is properly accounted for and any necessary actions are taken.

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  • 40. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of the training being conducted. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the training program.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. This duty involves the physical collection and disposal of assets, which is typically handled by other personnel or departments. Maintenance supply liaison duties usually involve tasks such as monitoring requisitions, advising on supply management documents, and soliciting inputs for reference lists.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

    • Weapons loading operations

    • Radiographic inspections

    • Fuel system repair

    • Aircraft on jacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons loading operations
    Explanation
    Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated spaces where specific maintenance tasks are carried out, and access is limited to authorized personnel. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that require restricted areas to ensure safety and security. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in designated areas that are separate from restricted maintenance areas, as they involve specialized procedures and safety protocols for handling and loading weapons onto aircraft.

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  • 43. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II because the four sub-phases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are typically part of the initial training phase in a program. This phase is designed to provide a comprehensive foundation and prepare individuals for their specific roles and responsibilities.

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  • 44. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.

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  • 45. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • Operations officer

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for ensuring that all employees are aware of the potential hazards in their work environment and are trained on how to safely handle them. The operations officer may have a role in overall safety management, but the section supervisor is specifically responsible for the HAZCOM training plan. The squadron commander and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and enforcement roles, but the development of the training plan falls under the section supervisor's purview.

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  • 46. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Flight commander/chief

    • Operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. As the commander of the squadron, they have the authority and responsibility to make this appointment and ensure that the individual appointed is capable and reliable in carrying out the duties of an equipment account custodian.

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  • 47. 

    Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use records?

    • Flight service center (FSC)

    • Equipment liaison office (ELO)

    • Command equipment management office (CEMO)

    • Defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment liaison office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use records. The ELO is a part of the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and is specifically tasked with coordinating and overseeing equipment management and accountability. They ensure that SPRAM assets are properly accounted for and maintained, ensuring their availability and readiness for use. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility of managing SPRAM assets on in-use records.

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  • 48. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between the maintenance and supply departments, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring a smooth and efficient flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

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  • 49. 

    Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation?

    • Maintenance group (MXG) vice commander

    • MXG impoundment release authority

    • Applicable impoundment authority

    • Applicable squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Applicable impoundment authority
    Explanation
    The applicable impoundment authority designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for overseeing the impoundment process has the power to appoint the official who will be in charge of carrying out the impoundment. The other options, such as the Maintenance group (MXG) vice commander, MXG impoundment release authority, and applicable squadron commander, do not have the specific authority to designate the impoundment official.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 15, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Beede1984
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