2AX7X Practice Test Volume 2 Of 2

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Beede1984
B
Beede1984
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 7,188
| Attempts: 899 | Questions: 70
Please wait...
Question 1 / 70
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Training business area (TBA) provides air force personnel with global, real-time

Explanation

The Training Business Area (TBA) provides air force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily see what qualifications and certifications they have obtained, as well as their current training status. This information is important for both the personnel themselves and their superiors, as it helps in tracking progress, identifying any gaps in qualifications, and ensuring that the necessary training is completed.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
2AX7X Practice Test Volume 2 Of 2 - Quiz

This '2AX7X practice test volume 2 of 2' assesses knowledge in Air Force maintenance training, covering administrative assignments, training methods, certification reviews, authority for operational decisions, and system... see morenotifications. It is essential for personnel seeking to validate their technical qualifications and readiness. see less

2. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This is because the Unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the readiness of the trainee and ensure that they are prepared for the CDC. Conducting an interview allows the Unit training manager to gather information about the trainee's background, goals, and expectations, as well as address any concerns or questions from the supervisor.

Submit
3. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of all Air Force personnel. It oversees the training of pilots, navigators, and other aircrew members, as well as the training of enlisted personnel in various technical fields. TDs are specifically designated units within AETC that provide specialized training for specific career fields or missions. Therefore, it makes sense that TDs would be administratively assigned to the command responsible for overall training and education within the Air Force.

Submit
4. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

Explanation

The maximum continuous duty time for workers without getting approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours continuously without needing any special permission. Beyond this time, approval from the MXG/CC is required, indicating that there may be safety concerns or other factors that need to be considered before allowing workers to work for longer periods.

Submit
5. What maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

Explanation

The MSET individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. This evaluation is specifically focused on evaluating the individual personnel and their performance during the task. It aims to assess the technician's skills, knowledge, and adherence to maintenance standards. Therefore, the correct answer is personnel evaluation.

Submit
6. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be authorized to downgrade a "red x," an individual must have the approval of the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are allowed to make the decision to downgrade a "red x" on an aircraft or equipment. The higher rank is likely required to ensure that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are making these decisions, as they can have significant safety and operational implications.

Submit
7. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts that exceed the standard 12-hour limit, up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements or other factors, the maintenance group commander can grant the necessary authorization. However, any shift exceeding 16 hours would require higher-level approval.

Submit
8. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

Explanation

An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9. This means that an EID code consists of 9 digits.

Submit
9. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance procedures and operations are carried out according to established standards and regulations. The FOD monitor is used to detect and prevent foreign object damage to the aircraft's wings, which is a critical aspect of maintaining the aircraft's safety and performance. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the Quality Assurance section to ensure proper monitoring and adherence to quality standards.

Submit
10. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

Explanation

The correct answer is XB3. The XB3 code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed during normal operations. This code also signifies that the asset is recoverable, meaning it can be repaired or reconditioned to a usable condition. Additionally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is reparable, meaning it can be fixed or restored to a functional state if it becomes damaged or non-operational. Therefore, an asset must have the XB3 ERRC code assigned to it before it can be placed in bench stock.

Submit
11. The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) training course?

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance orientation training course. This course is designed to provide an overview of maintenance operations and procedures, as well as familiarize trainees with the organizational structure and resources available to them. The block training method involves grouping related training topics into blocks or modules, allowing trainees to focus on specific areas of knowledge and skills. This method is particularly effective for courses like Maintenance orientation, where a broad range of information needs to be covered in a structured and organized manner.

Submit
12. Once a category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point within

Explanation

A category I deficiency is a serious issue that needs to be addressed promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to submit a deficiency report (DR) within 24 hours to the screening point. This allows the responsible authorities to assess the deficiency and take appropriate actions to rectify the situation in a timely manner. Any delay in reporting could lead to further complications or risks, so it is crucial to adhere to the 24-hour timeframe.

Submit
13. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural processes such as sedimentation or the presence of minerals. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not a definitive indicator as it can be difficult to determine the exact cause without further investigation. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be more easily identified as signs of environmental contamination.

Submit
14. What maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection is performed by the maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual. This assessment ensures that the completed task meets the required quality standards and specifications. It involves examining the work done by the technician to verify its accuracy, completeness, and adherence to established procedures. This inspection helps to identify any potential issues or deficiencies in the completed task and ensures that it meets the expected quality standards.

Submit
15. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

Explanation

The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This is because the host installation commander is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of classified material within their jurisdiction. They have the authority to grant permission for the temporary storage of such material in designated secure areas.

Submit
16. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated.  Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Explanation

An individual is allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required if they come due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date.

Submit
17. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped object prevention program?

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the dropped object prevention program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard or cause damage to equipment or personnel. Therefore, explosive munitions are not included in this program as they serve a different purpose and are intentionally released as part of military operations.

Submit
18. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

Explanation

The AFTO form 20, caution tag, should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This form is commonly used in the United States Air Force to provide a visual indication that a specific action has been taken, such as draining and purging, to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the part. The caution tag alerts personnel that the part has been treated and should not be used until further inspections or actions have been taken.

Submit
19. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This is because the customer knows the urgency and importance of the request and can prioritize accordingly. The customer is the one who will be using the parts and knows the impact of not receiving them in a timely manner. Therefore, they are best suited to determine the priority of the supply delivery.

Submit
20. The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

Explanation

The product improvement manager is usually assigned to the quality assurance section. This is because their role involves overseeing and ensuring the quality of the product. They are responsible for implementing and maintaining quality control processes, conducting audits, and identifying areas for improvement in order to enhance the overall quality of the product.

Submit
21. Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

Explanation

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for providing logistics support to the entire base, including managing supply and transportation operations. The maintenance supply liaison personnel work closely with the LRS to ensure that maintenance units have the necessary supplies and equipment to perform their duties effectively. This includes coordinating the ordering, delivery, and inventory management of maintenance supplies. By reporting directly to the LRS commander, the maintenance supply liaison personnel can effectively communicate and coordinate with the logistics team to meet the maintenance unit's needs.

Submit
22. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame ensures that the FOD manager is promptly informed about any potential damage caused by foreign objects on the wing. This allows for quick assessment and appropriate action to be taken to mitigate any further risks or damages. It also helps in maintaining a high level of safety and efficiency in the operation of the wing.

Submit
23. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and equipment are readily available for the mission and can be properly accounted for in the base's supply system.

Submit
24. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory should be sufficient to meet the demand for 30 days without running out. Having a 30-day supply helps ensure that there are enough materials or products available to support operations and prevent any disruptions or delays in production or service. It also allows for flexibility in managing unexpected fluctuations in demand or supply chain disruptions.

Submit
25. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

Explanation

The Engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering documents and information, making it easily accessible to engineers and other professionals who may need it. This ensures that all engineering data is centralized and can be easily retrieved when needed, promoting efficiency and accuracy in engineering projects.

Submit
26. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The correct answer is D04, daily document register. The daily document register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It helps keep track of the documents and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and accounted for. The other options mentioned, such as D18 priority monitor report, M-24 organization effectiveness report, and D23 repair cycle asset management list, do not specifically provide information on all document numbers processed during the day.

Submit
27. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

Explanation

AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance documentation and reporting. By following the guidelines and recommendations in AFI 21-101, maintenance personnel can ensure that maintenance recovery operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

Submit
28. Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to categorize and identify items that are made from multiple precious metals, ensuring accurate tracking and identification of these items within the supply chain.

Submit
29. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

Submit
30. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated financial resources to support the required personnel. This implies that the necessary funds are available to hire and maintain the authorized workforce.

Submit
31. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

Explanation

A4U refers to the Deputy Chief of Staff for Logistics, Engineering, and Force Protection. This position is responsible for overseeing the Air Force policy governing the TO (Technical Orders) system. They are in charge of ensuring that the TO system is properly managed and maintained to support the Air Force's logistical and operational needs.

Submit
32. Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

Explanation

Red ball maintenance refers to urgent or critical maintenance tasks that need to be carried out on an aircraft to ensure its safe operation. It is not specifically designed to prevent aircraft status changes. Aircraft status changes can occur due to various reasons such as mechanical issues, crew availability, or weather conditions. Red ball maintenance focuses on addressing immediate concerns and fixing urgent problems rather than preventing or controlling aircraft status changes.

Submit
33. When a unit has received an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs quality assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

Explanation

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs quality assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

Submit
34. Who is the quality assurance (QA) chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP) functions are performed?

Explanation

The quality assurance (QA) chief inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) officer in charge (OIC)/superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA chief inspector reports to and works under the supervision of the QA OIC/SUPT to ensure that the MSEP is carried out according to the required standards.

Submit
35. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Explanation

An individual must receive IIB block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

Submit
36. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary to ensure the security of the aircraft by conducting regular security checks. These checks need to be done every 3 hours to ensure that the equipment and the aircraft remain secure and protected. This frequency allows for timely detection of any potential security breaches or unauthorized access to the confidential equipment.

Submit
37. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) is responsible for being notified. The MOC is the central hub for coordinating and managing maintenance operations, including the allocation and distribution of spare parts. They are responsible for ensuring that the necessary parts are available and ready for use when needed. Therefore, it makes sense that they would be notified when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB, so they can take appropriate action to ensure the part is replaced and the aircraft can continue its mission.

Submit
38. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

Explanation

The given options are Urgent, Routine, Standard, and Emergency. The question asks for the option that is not a technical order (TO) change priority category. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all commonly used priority categories for TO changes. However, "Standard" is not typically used as a priority category for TO changes. Therefore, Standard is the correct answer as it is not a technical order change priority category.

Submit
39. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, it means that a part from that item is taken and used to repair another item. In this case, the Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) department would need to be notified. This is because PS&D is responsible for keeping track of inventory, scheduling maintenance activities, and documenting any changes or repairs made to items. By notifying PS&D, they can update their records and ensure that the cannibalized item is properly accounted for and any necessary actions are taken.

Submit
40. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

Explanation

The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of the training being conducted. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the training program.

Submit
41. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated spaces where specific maintenance tasks are carried out, and access is limited to authorized personnel. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that require restricted areas to ensure safety and security. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in designated areas that are separate from restricted maintenance areas, as they involve specialized procedures and safety protocols for handling and loading weapons onto aircraft.

Submit
42. Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?

Explanation

The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. This duty involves the physical collection and disposal of assets, which is typically handled by other personnel or departments. Maintenance supply liaison duties usually involve tasks such as monitoring requisitions, advising on supply management documents, and soliciting inputs for reference lists.

Submit
43. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is II because the four sub-phases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are typically part of the initial training phase in a program. This phase is designed to provide a comprehensive foundation and prepare individuals for their specific roles and responsibilities.

Submit
44. Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

Explanation

Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.

Submit
45. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for ensuring that all employees are aware of the potential hazards in their work environment and are trained on how to safely handle them. The operations officer may have a role in overall safety management, but the section supervisor is specifically responsible for the HAZCOM training plan. The squadron commander and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and enforcement roles, but the development of the training plan falls under the section supervisor's purview.

Submit
46. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The squadron commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. As the commander of the squadron, they have the authority and responsibility to make this appointment and ensure that the individual appointed is capable and reliable in carrying out the duties of an equipment account custodian.

Submit
47. Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use records. The ELO is a part of the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and is specifically tasked with coordinating and overseeing equipment management and accountability. They ensure that SPRAM assets are properly accounted for and maintained, ensuring their availability and readiness for use. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility of managing SPRAM assets on in-use records.

Submit
48. Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation?

Explanation

The applicable impoundment authority designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for overseeing the impoundment process has the power to appoint the official who will be in charge of carrying out the impoundment. The other options, such as the Maintenance group (MXG) vice commander, MXG impoundment release authority, and applicable squadron commander, do not have the specific authority to designate the impoundment official.

Submit
49. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Explanation

The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between the maintenance and supply departments, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring a smooth and efficient flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

Submit
50. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly because holding meetings on a monthly basis allows the maintenance group (MXG) to regularly discuss and address manning issues. This frequency strikes a balance between having too frequent meetings that may disrupt work and having too infrequent meetings that may delay problem-solving and decision-making. Monthly meetings provide a consistent forum for MXG members to share updates, discuss challenges, and collaborate on solutions, ensuring that manning issues are regularly addressed and resolved.

Submit
51. Which is not normally a maintenance group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

The MXG Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to the distribution of technical orders (TO). This includes assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.

Submit
52. In the training business area (TBA), what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

Explanation

The "system messages" board in the training business area provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the application, users will be notified through the system messages board.

Submit
53. In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

Explanation

The lead command serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system in the modification management program. This means that the lead command is responsible for coordinating and communicating with the single point manager on behalf of the operator. They act as the main point of contact and facilitate the exchange of information and updates between the operator and the single point manager.

Submit
54. How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)

Explanation

The maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that the officer/superintendent stays updated on the certifications of the personnel listed on the SCR and ensures that they are qualified to perform their respective maintenance tasks. Regular reviews and signatures help maintain the accuracy and validity of the roster.

Submit
55. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

Explanation

Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications of individuals in the maintenance field. It helps them stay updated with the latest knowledge and skills required for their job. Therefore, "Maintenance qualification" is the correct answer as it best describes the purpose and content of continuation training.

Submit
56. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Explanation

When a dropped object causes casualties or property damage, it is important to report the incident in accordance with AFI 10-206, which covers operational reporting. This regulation likely outlines the specific procedures and requirements for reporting such incidents, ensuring that the appropriate authorities are notified and necessary actions are taken. It is crucial to follow these reporting guidelines to maintain accountability, investigate the incident, and prevent future accidents.

Submit
57. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They are responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet the necessary standards for functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. As the chief inspector, they have the authority and expertise to review and approve the list of supply assets that require these checks, ensuring that all necessary maintenance and programming is carried out effectively.

Submit
58. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

Explanation

The Maintenance group (MXG) commander designates cannibalization authorities. This means that the MXG commander has the authority to assign individuals or teams within the maintenance group to perform cannibalization tasks. Cannibalization is the practice of removing parts or components from one aircraft or equipment to be used in another that is in need of repair. By designating cannibalization authorities, the MXG commander ensures that the process is properly managed and authorized within the maintenance group.

Submit
59. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and expertise to oversee and establish the necessary procedures to ensure the proper control and management of tools and equipment in these areas.

Submit
60. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
61. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

Explanation

The correct answer is D18, priority monitor report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The urgency of need code A indicates that these parts are of high priority and need to be urgently addressed.

Submit
62. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

Explanation

A supply discrepancy report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or discrepancies in the supply of goods or products. It helps to identify and resolve any issues related to the quantity, quality, or condition of the supplied items. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the customer can request a refund or a replacement item to rectify the issue.

Submit
63. What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

Explanation

The Plans, scheduling, and documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. They are in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of all maintenance activities.

Submit
64. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring that the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual is in charge of overseeing the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, including coordinating and managing resources to ensure that the necessary capabilities are in place to meet the manufacturing needs of the local area. They work closely with the MXG commander, MXG superintendent, and MXG deputy commander to ensure effective and efficient maintenance operations.

Submit
65. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

Explanation

The correct answer is M-24, organization effectiveness report. This document is a management product that allows for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. It provides information on the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system and helps in identifying any areas that need improvement. The other options mentioned, such as D18, D04, and D23, do not specifically provide this function of monitoring issue and bench stock supply support.

Submit
66. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and distributing materials and supplies needed for maintenance operations. They ensure that the necessary equipment and parts are available and accessible to the maintenance personnel. By coordinating with the LRS material management element, maintenance can ensure that they have the necessary resources to perform their tasks efficiently and effectively.

Submit
67. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

Explanation

Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor semiannually, meaning twice a year. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and adjustment of the accounts to ensure accuracy and prevent any discrepancies or errors from going unnoticed for too long. Reconciling the accounts semiannually helps maintain the integrity of the supply point system and ensures that any issues can be addressed in a timely manner.

Submit
68. Who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group?

Explanation

The originating point is responsible for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire program, ensuring that deficiency reports are properly managed and addressed. They are the central point of contact and have the authority to make decisions and take actions related to the program.

Submit
69. Who acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Action point". The action point acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for receiving and addressing deficiency reports from the support point and communicating with the submitting organization to resolve any issues or problems.

Submit
70. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

Explanation

The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This means that unless the responsibility is delegated to someone else, the MSG commander is the one who has the authority and duty to review and approve these requests. This ensures that all SPRAM authorizations are properly reviewed and authorized by a higher-ranking officer before they are granted.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 15, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Beede1984
Cancel
  • All
    All (70)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Training business area (TBA) provides air force personnel with global,...
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee...
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which...
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for...
What maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual...
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red x" an...
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for...
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID)...
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located...
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC)...
The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance...
Once a category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report...
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
What maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual...
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material...
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on...
Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew...
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly...
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery...
The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what...
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander...
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM...
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be...
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how...
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and...
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document...
Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an...
Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of...
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply...
Manpower authorizations are
Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO...
Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
When a unit has received an unsatisfactory maintenance standardization...
Who is the quality assurance (QA) chief inspector directly responsible...
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive...
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which...
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail...
Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority...
If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN...
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status...
Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance...
Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison...
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM...
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are...
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM)...
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) office accounts for special...
Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment...
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall...
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is...
Which is not normally a maintenance group (MXG) technical order...
In the training business area (TBA), what type of notification does...
In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves...
How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance...
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on...
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage...
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply...
Who designates cannibalization authorities?
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of...
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all...
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type...
What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for...
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the...
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for...
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance...
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled...
Who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program...
Who acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support...
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for...
Alert!

Advertisement