2AX7X Self Test Vol 1 (001-015)

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2AX7X Quizzes & Trivia

2ax7x Self Test Quiz Vol 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    To the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed?

    • A.

      On a scheduled basis

    • B.

      On time and by T.O.

    • C.

      Quickly and safely

    • D.

      On a preplanned scheduled basis

    Correct Answer
    D. On a preplanned scheduled basis
    Explanation
    Maintenance should be performed on a preplanned scheduled basis to the greatest extent possible. This means that maintenance activities should be planned in advance and scheduled according to a predetermined timeline. By following a preplanned schedule, maintenance can be carried out efficiently and effectively, minimizing downtime and ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed in a timely manner. This approach allows for better resource allocation, coordination, and prioritization of maintenance activities, leading to improved equipment reliability and overall operational performance.

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  • 2. 

    Using equipment generates what type of maintenance?

    • A.

      Corrective (unscheduled)

    • B.

      Corrective (scheduled)

    • C.

      Preventative (scheduled)

    • D.

      Preventative (unscheduled)

    Correct Answer
    A. Corrective (unscheduled)
    Explanation
    Using equipment can lead to unexpected breakdowns or failures, which require immediate repairs or maintenance. This type of maintenance is known as corrective (unscheduled) maintenance. It involves addressing issues that arise unexpectedly and can disrupt normal operations. This type of maintenance is reactive in nature and aims to restore equipment to its proper functioning state. It is typically more costly and time-consuming compared to scheduled maintenance, as it requires immediate attention to prevent further damage or downtime.

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  • 3. 

    What are the two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance?

    • A.

      Corrective and preventitive

    • B.

      On-equipment and off-equipment

    Correct Answer
    B. On-equipment and off-equipment
    Explanation
    The two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance are on-equipment and off-equipment. On-equipment maintenance refers to tasks that are performed directly on the equipment itself, such as repairs, replacements, or adjustments. Off-equipment maintenance, on the other hand, involves activities that are conducted outside of the equipment, such as cleaning, inspections, or lubrication. These two types of maintenance help ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment, with on-equipment maintenance addressing specific issues and off-equipment maintenance focusing on overall maintenance and prevention.

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  • 4. 

    Maintenance cross-tells are used for what purpose?

    • A.

      To direct the overall maintenance effort

    • B.

      Monitor maintenance related issues

    • C.

      Alleviate short-term manning problems

    • D.

      Highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions

    Correct Answer
    D. Highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions
    Explanation
    Maintenance cross-tells are used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions. This means that they are utilized to identify patterns or deviations in maintenance activities, compare performance against established standards, and ensure compliance with safety regulations. Cross-tells provide valuable insights into the overall maintenance performance and help in making informed decisions for improvement and optimization. They serve as a tool for monitoring and evaluating maintenance operations, enabling organizations to identify areas of concern and take appropriate actions to maintain efficiency and safety.

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  • 5. 

    What should be included in a cross-tell report?

    • A.

      National stock number, part number, serial number, and relevant background info and history

    • B.

      National stock number, serial number, manufacturer, and relevant background info and history

    • C.

      National stock number, part number, specific location of problem areas, and relevant background info and history

    • D.

      Part number, serial number, specific location of problem areas, and relevant background info and history

    Correct Answer
    C. National stock number, part number, specific location of problem areas, and relevant background info and history
    Explanation
    The cross-tell report should include the national stock number, part number, specific location of problem areas, and relevant background info and history. This information is necessary to accurately identify and address any issues or problems. The national stock number and part number help in identifying the specific item or component involved, while the specific location of problem areas helps in pinpointing the areas that need attention. Additionally, including relevant background info and history provides context and helps in understanding the overall situation.

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  • 6. 

    What are two major goals of Intermediate Repair Enhancement Progam (IREP) meetings?

    • A.

      Increase local repair capability and reduce overall cost of operations

    • B.

      Increase cost of operations and reduce local repair capability

    • C.

      Decrease repair time and costs of operations

    • D.

      Decrease costs of operations and increase productivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase local repair capability and reduce overall cost of operations
    Explanation
    IREP meetings have two major goals: to increase local repair capability and to reduce the overall cost of operations. By enhancing the local repair capability, the organization can rely more on their own resources and expertise, reducing the need to outsource repairs and saving costs. Additionally, by reducing the overall cost of operations, the organization can allocate resources more efficiently and effectively, leading to increased productivity and profitability.

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  • 7. 

    In order of increasing capability, what are the three separate levels of maintenance

    • A.

      Organizational, two-level,depot

    • B.

      Organizational, intermediate, depot

    • C.

      Depot, intermediate, organizational

    • D.

      Intermediate, organizational, depot

    Correct Answer
    B. Organizational, intermediate, depot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is organizational, intermediate, depot. This order of maintenance levels is based on the increasing capability and complexity of the maintenance tasks performed. At the organizational level, basic maintenance tasks are carried out by the unit itself. The intermediate level involves more complex repairs and maintenance performed by specialized personnel. The depot level is the highest level of maintenance, where extensive repairs, overhauls, and modifications are conducted at centralized facilities. This order reflects the progression from simple to complex maintenance activities.

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  • 8. 

    Which level of maintenance is performed off-equipment at the backshop level?

    • A.

      Intermediate level

    • B.

      Organizational level

    • C.

      Two-level

    • D.

      Depot level

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Intermediate level. Intermediate level maintenance is performed off-equipment at the backshop level. This means that the maintenance tasks are carried out in a specialized workshop or facility rather than directly on the equipment itself. This level of maintenance typically involves more complex repairs or overhauls that require specialized tools, equipment, and expertise. It is performed at a higher level than organizational level maintenance, but not as extensive as depot level maintenance.

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  • 9. 

    What level of maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility?

    • A.

      Depot level

    • B.

      Two-level

    • C.

      Intermediate level

    • D.

      Organizational level

    Correct Answer
    A. Depot level
    Explanation
    Depot level maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility. This level of maintenance involves extensive repairs and overhauls of equipment and systems. It is typically conducted in specialized facilities equipped with the necessary tools, equipment, and expertise to handle complex repairs. Depot level maintenance is often reserved for large and critical assets, such as aircraft, ships, or military vehicles, and requires highly skilled technicians and engineers to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment.

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  • 10. 

    What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level?

    • A.

      Organizational level

    • B.

      Two-level

    • C.

      Intermediate level

    • D.

      Depot level

    Correct Answer
    B. Two-level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Two-level." This maintenance approach aims to modify or eliminate the intermediate (off-equipment) function by consolidating the repair function at the depot level. This means that repairs and maintenance tasks are primarily conducted at two levels - the organizational level and the depot level. By doing so, it reduces the need for intermediate repairs and streamlines the maintenance process.

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  • 11. 

    What type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 3LM and 2LM and combines intermediate level maintenance from multiple bases to one location?

    • A.

      Centralized Intermediate Repair Facility

    • B.

      Regional Repair Center

    • C.

      Depot

    • D.

      Organizational

    Correct Answer
    B. Regional Repair Center
    Explanation
    A Regional Repair Center is a type of maintenance facility that combines intermediate level maintenance from multiple bases into one location. This allows for more efficient and centralized maintenance operations, as it eliminates the need for each base to have its own separate maintenance facility. By consolidating maintenance resources and expertise, a Regional Repair Center can provide more comprehensive and specialized repair services. This type of facility is particularly useful for larger regions or areas with multiple military bases or installations.

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  • 12. 

    What type of specialized regional repair facility provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities?

    • A.

      Regional Repair Center

    • B.

      Depot Repair Center

    • C.

      Centralized Intermediate Repair Facility

    • D.

      Organizational Repair Center

    Correct Answer
    C. Centralized Intermediate Repair Facility
    Explanation
    A Centralized Intermediate Repair Facility is a specialized regional repair facility that provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities. This type of facility is responsible for repairing and maintaining equipment or commodities that require a higher level of expertise and resources than what can be provided at the organizational level. It serves as a central hub for repairing and maintaining specific types of equipment, ensuring that they are restored to optimal working condition.

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  • 13. 

    What AF lean logistics initiative gives managers global visibility of all repair assets as well as centralized funds management for these assets?

    • A.

      Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program

    • B.

      Air Force Repair Enhancement Program

    • C.

      Air Force Smart Operations for the 21st Century

    • D.

      Repair Enterprise 21 program

    Correct Answer
    D. Repair Enterprise 21 program
    Explanation
    The Repair Enterprise 21 program gives managers global visibility of all repair assets and centralized funds management for these assets. This initiative helps in enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of repair operations by providing a comprehensive view of repair assets and enabling better management of funds allocated for repairs.

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  • 14. 

    Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co-chairs the PIWG?

    • A.

      Single Manager

    • B.

      QA

    • C.

      Lead Manager

    • D.

      MOC

    Correct Answer
    A. Single Manager
    Explanation
    A single manager takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment. They also co-chair the PIWG. The single manager is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and reliability of the equipment and ensuring that any deficiencies are addressed and corrected. They work closely with other stakeholders to coordinate efforts and improve the overall performance and reliability of the equipment.

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  • 15. 

    As an end user, what is your primary focus in the DR process?

    • A.

      To determine the actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft

    • B.

      Develop seperate agreements

    • C.

      To document accumulated cycles, operating time, maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufuring data

    • D.

      To identify deficiencies and properly submit reports

    Correct Answer
    D. To identify deficiencies and properly submit reports
    Explanation
    The primary focus of an end user in the DR (Discrepancy Report) process is to identify any deficiencies or issues with the aircraft and then properly submit reports regarding those deficiencies. This is important because it allows for the necessary actions to be taken to address and resolve any problems, ensuring the safety and efficiency of the aircraft.

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  • 16. 

    What category of deficiencies includes recommended enhancements that improves or complements successful mission accomplishment but is not absolutely necessary?

    • A.

      Category I

    • B.

      Category II

    • C.

      Category III

    • D.

      Category IIII

    Correct Answer
    B. Category II
    Explanation
    Category II deficiencies include recommended enhancements that improve or complement successful mission accomplishment but are not absolutely necessary. This means that these enhancements are not essential for mission success, but they can still provide additional benefits or improvements.

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  • 17. 

    What MXG agency is tasked with providing technical assistance for DRs?

    • A.

      PS&D

    • B.

      QA

    • C.

      MDSA

    • D.

      Item Managers

    Correct Answer
    B. QA
    Explanation
    The QA agency is responsible for providing technical assistance for DRs.

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  • 18. 

    What office assumes sole responsibility for accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it?

    • A.

      QA

    • B.

      MAJCOM

    • C.

      Lead command

    • D.

      Office of Primary Responsibility

    Correct Answer
    D. Office of Primary Responsibility
    Explanation
    The Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR) assumes sole responsibility for accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it. This office is accountable for ensuring that the information in the OI is up to date, accurate, and in line with the required standards. They are responsible for maintaining the integrity of the contents and ensuring that the OI is followed and complied with by all relevant parties.

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  • 19. 

    Which section acts as the OPR for maintenance policy guidance in the MXG?

    • A.

      PS&D

    • B.

      Engine Management

    • C.

      QA

    • D.

      LRS

    Correct Answer
    C. QA
    Explanation
    The QA section acts as the OPR (Office of Primary Responsibility) for maintenance policy guidance in the MXG (Maintenance Execution Group). This means that the QA section is responsible for developing and providing guidance on maintenance policies within the MXG. They ensure that maintenance procedures and practices are in line with established policies and standards, and they may also conduct audits and inspections to ensure compliance.

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  • 20. 

    An AF civil service employee can act as the POC for an OI?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An AF civil service employee can act as the POC (Point of Contact) for an OI (Operating Instruction) because they are authorized to represent the organization and handle administrative tasks, including being the main contact person for inquiries or issues related to the OI. This allows for effective communication and coordination within the organization.

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  • 21. 

    What type of support agreement governs services provided by US Northern Command to US Central Command?

    • A.

      Inter-command

    • B.

      Intra-command

    • C.

      Inter-service

    • D.

      Intra-service

    Correct Answer
    A. Inter-command
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Inter-command." This type of support agreement refers to the provision of services between two different military commands, in this case, US Northern Command and US Central Command. It involves cooperation and coordination between these commands to ensure effective support and collaboration in military operations and activities.

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  • 22. 

    In addition to reviewing impact on the primary unit mission and all other existing agreements, what base organization must be fully coordinated with before publishing an SA?

    • A.

      QA

    • B.

      Programs and Resources Flight in the MOS

    • C.

      Lead command

    • D.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron plans function

    Correct Answer
    D. Logistics Readiness Squadron plans function
    Explanation
    Before publishing an SA, the base organization that must be fully coordinated with is the Logistics Readiness Squadron plans function. This is because the plans function within the Logistics Readiness Squadron is responsible for coordinating and managing logistics operations and resources on the base. They would need to review and coordinate the SA to ensure that it aligns with their plans and resources. The QA Programs and Resources Flight in the MOS and the lead command may also need to be involved in the coordination process, but the Logistics Readiness Squadron plans function is the primary organization that must be fully coordinated with.

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  • 23. 

    A type of broadly worded documents that SAs are based on is Memorandums of Agreement/Understanding.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Memorandums of Agreement/Understanding (MOAs/MOUs) are indeed a type of broadly worded documents that SAs (Security Agreements) are based on. MOAs/MOUs are legal instruments that outline the terms and conditions agreed upon by two or more parties. They serve as a foundation for establishing cooperation, understanding, and mutual obligations between the parties involved. SAs, on the other hand, are contracts that govern the security arrangements between parties, often in the context of military or defense-related agreements. Therefore, it is accurate to say that SAs are based on MOAs/MOUs.

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  • 24. 

    What flight within the MXG normally acts as the POC for support agreements?

    • A.

      PS&D Flight

    • B.

      Programs and Resources Flight in the MOS

    • C.

      QA

    • D.

      SA Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. Programs and Resources Flight in the MOS
    Explanation
    The Programs and Resources Flight in the MOS is the flight within the MXG that normally acts as the POC (Point of Contact) for support agreements. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing support agreements between the MXG and other organizations or units. They serve as the main contact point for any issues or inquiries related to these agreements, ensuring effective communication and collaboration.

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  • 25. 

    Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment?

    • A.

      MAJCOM level

    • B.

      Group level

    • C.

      HQ USAF level

    • D.

      Lead Command

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM level
    Explanation
    The lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment is the MAJCOM level. This means that the modification can be approved by the Major Command level, which is typically responsible for a specific geographic or functional area within the Air Force. This level of approval ensures that any modifications made to the aircraft or equipment are in line with the overall objectives and standards set by the Major Command.

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  • 26. 

    How often must temporary modifications be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Bi-annually

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Every 2 years

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    Temporary modifications must be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M on an annual basis. This means that the modifications need to be reviewed and approved once every year to ensure their continued validity and compliance with regulations. Requiring annual reapproval allows for regular assessment and updates to the modifications as needed, ensuring that they remain effective and in line with current standards and requirements.

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  • 27. 

    In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of that system?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      Lead command

    • C.

      Group

    • D.

      Wing

    Correct Answer
    B. Lead command
    Explanation
    The lead command is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of the system. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the system is able to work together with other systems in the fleet and that there is consistency and standardization across the board. The lead command plays a crucial role in coordinating and overseeing the integration and compatibility of the system within the larger fleet.

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  • 28. 

    What section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing?

    • A.

      Programs and Resources Flight in the MOS

    • B.

      QA

    • C.

      Maintenance Operations Flight PS&D in the MOS

    • D.

      Accessories Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Operations Flight PS&D in the MOS
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Flight PS&D in the MOS is responsible for managing the ACM database for the wing.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting?

    • A.

      Item managers

    • B.

      Single managers

    • C.

      QA

    • D.

      PS&D

    Correct Answer
    A. Item managers
    Explanation
    Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise regarding the specific items and their historical data, making them the most suitable individuals to make this determination and communicate it to the single manager.

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  • 30. 

    During the transfer of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades into the disposal system, they have to be accompanied by a printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When transferring helicopter blades and tail rotor blades into the disposal system, it is necessary for them to be accompanied by a printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95. This document is likely a form or record that contains important information about the blades, such as their maintenance history or any defects. Having a printed copy of this document ensures that all relevant information is readily available and can be easily referenced during the transfer process. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 31. 

    Upon transfer of engines to and from a depot maintenance facility, who is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for?

    • A.

      The maintenance facility giving the engine

    • B.

      The maintenance facility receiving the engine

    • C.

      The maintenance facility that preserves the engine

    • D.

      Both the maintenance facilities,the one giving and the one receiving the engine

    Correct Answer
    C. The maintenance facility that preserves the engine
    Explanation
    The maintenance facility that preserves the engine is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for. This is because they are the ones responsible for the storage and preservation of the engine, and it is their duty to ensure that all components are present and accounted for before and after transfer.

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  • 32. 

    What aircraft engine documentation is an AFTO IMT 95 primarily used for?

    • A.

      Document accumulated cycles

    • B.

      Document operating time

    • C.

      Document maintenance history

    • D.

      Document pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The AFTO IMT 95 is primarily used for documenting various aspects related to aircraft engine maintenance and operation. It can be used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, maintenance history, and pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 33. 

    IMDS Central Database is the standard AF base-level automated MIS.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. IMDS Central Database is indeed the standard AF base-level automated Management Information System (MIS). This system is used to manage and track maintenance and inspection activities for aircraft and other equipment. It is a centralized database that allows for efficient data management and analysis, improving overall operational effectiveness and decision-making capabilities.

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  • 34. 

    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing data entered into their respective MIS by personnel under their control, how often?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Bi-weekly

    • D.

      Daily

    Correct Answer
    D. Daily
    Explanation
    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing data entered into their respective MIS by personnel under their control on a daily basis. This ensures that any errors or discrepancies in the data can be identified and corrected promptly. Reviewing the data daily also allows supervisors to stay updated on the progress and performance of their team, enabling them to make informed decisions and take necessary actions in a timely manner.

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  • 35. 

    As roadmaps, what can maintenance management metrics, if used properly, help you to determine?

    • A.

      Where you've been

    • B.

      Where you're going

    • C.

      How/If you're going to get there

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Maintenance management metrics, when used effectively, can help determine various aspects of roadmaps. Firstly, they can provide insights into where you've been by analyzing historical data and identifying past maintenance trends and patterns. Secondly, they can assist in understanding where you're going by forecasting future maintenance needs and predicting potential issues. Lastly, these metrics can help determine how or if you're going to get there by evaluating the effectiveness of current maintenance strategies and identifying areas for improvement. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 36. 

    What are the two major categories that maintenance management metrics are often divided into?

    • A.

      Right and wrong

    • B.

      Leading and lagging

    • C.

      Good and bad

    Correct Answer
    B. Leading and lagging
    Explanation
    Maintenance management metrics are often divided into two major categories: leading and lagging. Leading metrics focus on proactive measures and indicators that predict future performance and help identify potential issues before they occur. These metrics are used to assess the effectiveness of preventive maintenance programs and the overall health of maintenance operations. Lagging metrics, on the other hand, are retrospective and measure past performance. They provide insights into historical data and help evaluate the efficiency and effectiveness of maintenance activities. By analyzing both leading and lagging metrics, organizations can gain a comprehensive understanding of their maintenance management performance and make informed decisions to improve their maintenance strategies.

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  • 37. 

    What type of indicator shows firmly established trends?

    • A.

      Lagging indicators

    • B.

      Leading indicators

    • C.

      Both leading and lagging indicators

    Correct Answer
    A. Lagging indicators
    Explanation
    Lagging indicators are used to confirm trends that have already been established. They provide information about past performance and are often used to assess the effectiveness of past decisions or actions. Since they are based on historical data, lagging indicators are considered to be more reliable in showing firmly established trends. Leading indicators, on the other hand, are used to predict future trends and can provide early signals of potential changes. Both leading and lagging indicators have their own uses, but in this case, the correct answer is lagging indicators.

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  • 38. 

    What type of performance indicator shows a problem first, while it is impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

    • A.

      Leading indicators

    • B.

      Lagging indicators

    • C.

      Both leading and lagging indicators

    Correct Answer
    A. Leading indicators
    Explanation
    Leading indicators are performance indicators that show a problem first, before it starts impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission. These indicators are proactive in nature and help in identifying potential issues or trends that may affect the maintenance process. By monitoring leading indicators, maintenance teams can take preventive actions to address the problem before it escalates and impacts their ability to carry out their tasks effectively.

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  • 39. 

    The percentage rate of aircraft that land in "Code 3" status?

    • A.

      Utilization (UTE) Rate

    • B.

      Deferred Discreapancey Rate (DDR)

    • C.

      Break Rate (BR)

    • D.

      Total Not Mission capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate

    Correct Answer
    C. Break Rate (BR)
    Explanation
    Break Rate (BR) refers to the percentage rate of aircraft that land in "Code 3" status. "Code 3" status indicates that the aircraft has experienced a major malfunction or breakdown, resulting in it being unable to perform its mission. Therefore, the Break Rate (BR) is the most appropriate measure to determine the percentage of aircraft that land in this status. Utilization Rate (UTE) measures the amount of time an aircraft is used for its intended purpose, Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR) measures the rate at which discrepancies are deferred for later maintenance, and Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate measures the percentage of time an aircraft is not available for its intended mission due to maintenance issues.

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  • 40. 

    The average number of deferred discrepancies across the fleet of possessed aircraft?

    • A.

      Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR)

    • B.

      Break Rate (BR)

    • C.

      Repeat/Recurring (R/R) Discrepancy Rate

    • D.

      Mission Capable (MC) Rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR). The deferred discrepancy rate refers to the average number of discrepancies or issues that are deferred or postponed for repair across the fleet of possessed aircraft. This rate helps measure the effectiveness of the maintenance and repair processes in addressing and resolving these discrepancies. A higher DDR may indicate a higher number of unresolved issues, potentially impacting the overall mission capability of the aircraft fleet.

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  • 41. 

    The Percentage of "Code 3" aircraft repaired to flyable status is set time, i.e. 4, 8 or 12 hours?

    • A.

      Mission Capable (MC) Rate

    • B.

      Utilization (UTE) Rate

    • C.

      Break Rate (BR)

    • D.

      Fix Rate (FR)

    Correct Answer
    D. Fix Rate (FR)
    Explanation
    The Fix Rate (FR) refers to the percentage of "Code 3" aircraft that are repaired and made flyable within a specific time frame, which can be set at 4, 8, or 12 hours. This rate indicates the efficiency and effectiveness of the maintenance process in repairing and returning aircraft to operational status.

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  • 42. 

    The most important and accurate measure of the unit's maintenance quality?

    • A.

      Repeat/Recurring (R/R) Discrepancy Rate

    • B.

      Break Rate (BR)

    • C.

      Mission Capable (MC) Rate

    • D.

      Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeat/Recurring (R/R) Discrepancy Rate
    Explanation
    The repeat/recurring (R/R) discrepancy rate is the most important and accurate measure of the unit's maintenance quality. This rate indicates the number of discrepancies that reoccur after being repaired. A high R/R discrepancy rate suggests that the maintenance performed on the unit is not effective, as the same issues keep arising. Therefore, a low R/R discrepancy rate indicates that the unit's maintenance is of high quality, with fewer recurring problems.

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  • 43. 

    The average number of sorties or hours flown per Primary Aerospace vehicle authorized per month?

    • A.

      Fix Rate (FR)

    • B.

      Mission Capable (MC) Rate

    • C.

      Utilization (UTE) Rate

    • D.

      Break Rate (BR)

    Correct Answer
    C. Utilization (UTE) Rate
    Explanation
    The Utilization (UTE) Rate refers to the average number of sorties or hours flown per Primary Aerospace vehicle authorized per month. This rate helps measure the efficiency and effectiveness of the vehicles in terms of their usage and productivity. It provides insights into how often and how much the vehicles are being utilized for missions or operations. By calculating the UTE Rate, organizations can assess the performance and effectiveness of their fleet and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and operational planning.

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  • 44. 

    The best known yardstick for measuring a unit's performance?

    • A.

      Break Rate (BR)

    • B.

      Fix Rate (FR)

    • C.

      Deferred Discreapancy Rate (DDR)

    • D.

      Mission Capable (MC) Rate

    Correct Answer
    D. Mission Capable (MC) Rate
    Explanation
    The Mission Capable (MC) Rate is considered the best known yardstick for measuring a unit's performance. This rate indicates the percentage of time that a unit is capable of performing its intended mission. It takes into account factors such as maintenance, repairs, and availability of necessary resources. A higher MC Rate indicates a more efficient and effective unit, as it shows that the unit is consistently able to meet its mission requirements.

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  • 45. 

    The average percentage of aircraft that are unable to meet primary assigned missions (calculated monthly/annually) for maintenance reasons?

    • A.

      Break Rate (BR)

    • B.

      Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate

    • C.

      Mission Capable (MC) Rate

    • D.

      Deferred Discreapancy Rate (DDR)

    Correct Answer
    B. Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate
    Explanation
    The Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate refers to the average percentage of aircraft that are unable to meet their primary assigned missions due to maintenance reasons. This rate is calculated either monthly or annually. It is a measure of the effectiveness and reliability of the aircraft fleet, indicating the frequency and impact of maintenance-related issues on mission readiness. A higher TNMCM rate suggests a higher number of aircraft being unavailable for missions due to maintenance problems, which can have implications for operational efficiency and effectiveness.

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  • 46. 

    What level maintenance priority should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 work hours after landing or start of recovery?

    • A.

      Priority 1

    • B.

      Priority 2

    • C.

      Priority 3

    • D.

      Priority 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Priority 2
    Explanation
    Maintenance priority 2 should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 work hours after landing or start of recovery. This means that these maintenance tasks are considered to be important and should be completed within a reasonable timeframe, but they are not urgent or critical. Priority 2 maintenance tasks may include routine inspections, minor repairs, or preventive maintenance to ensure the aircraft and support equipment are in proper working order.

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  • 47. 

    What level maintenance repair priority should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance to include periodic inspections, routine TCTOs, and time change items?

    • A.

      Priority 1

    • B.

      Priority 2

    • C.

      Priority 3

    • D.

      Priority 4

    Correct Answer
    D. Priority 4
    Explanation
    Scheduled maintenance, including periodic inspections, routine TCTOs (Time Compliance Technical Orders), and time change items, should be assigned a lower repair priority, such as Priority 4. This is because these tasks are typically planned in advance and can be scheduled to be performed during non-critical periods, allowing higher priority repairs to be addressed first.

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  • 48. 

    What level maintenance priority should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets?

    • A.

      Priority 2

    • B.

      Priorty 3

    • C.

      Priority 4

    • D.

      Priority 5

    Correct Answer
    D. Priority 5
    Explanation
    Priority 5 should be assigned for routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets. This means that these repairs have the lowest priority and can be scheduled after higher priority maintenance tasks have been completed. Routine repairs for AGE (Aerospace Ground Equipment) and repair cycle assets are not urgent and can be delayed if necessary, as they do not impact the immediate operational readiness of the assets.

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  • 49. 

    If a change is made in the repair priority of an aircraft, the LRS parts delivery priority has to be changed to match it.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the repair priority of an aircraft does not necessarily require a change in the LRS parts delivery priority. While it is possible that a change in repair priority may impact the parts delivery process, it is not a requirement or a direct correlation. The two priorities can be managed independently based on their own specific criteria and considerations.

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  • 50. 

    Who normally chairs the weekly MXG maintenance scheduling meeting?

    • A.

      MOF PS&D senior schedular

    • B.

      MXG CC

    • C.

      Pro Super

    • D.

      QA

    Correct Answer
    A. MOF PS&D senior schedular
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MOF PS&D senior schedular. This individual is responsible for chairing the weekly MXG maintenance scheduling meeting. They are in charge of coordinating and organizing the maintenance schedule, ensuring that all necessary tasks are assigned and completed on time. The MOF PS&D senior schedular plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation and maintenance of MXG systems.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 04, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Ains

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