2AX7X 2 Management Product

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| By Tylerbob73

Tylerbob73

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 58

| Attempts: 58

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1/70 Questions

Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
- Operations officer.
- Group commander.
- Unit training manager.
- Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on Air Force maintenance management, focusing on training detachments, training methods, certification reviews, and system notifications within the Training Business Area (TBA). It is designed for personnel seeking to enhance their technical qualifications and operational efficiency.

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2.

What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
- Quality Verification Inspection.
- Management Inspection.
- Personnel Evaluation.
- Special Inspection.
Correct Answer

A. Personnel Evaluation.

Explanation

A Personnel Evaluation is an individual assessment conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) where an over-the-shoulder evaluation is performed while the technician is carrying out a task. This evaluation is focused on assessing the performance and capabilities of the individual technician. It helps to determine the technician's proficiency, adherence to standards, and overall competence in performing the task. It is different from other inspections or evaluations mentioned in the options, as it specifically focuses on the evaluation of the individual technician rather than the overall quality or management aspects.

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3.

What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
- Special Inspection.
- Personnel Evaluation.
- Management Inspection.
- Quality Verification Inspection.
Correct Answer

A. Quality Verification Inspection.

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This assessment ensures that the task has been completed to the required standard and meets the quality expectations. It involves checking and verifying the work done by the technician to ensure that it is accurate, compliant, and meets the necessary quality standards. This inspection helps to maintain consistency, reliability, and quality in the tasks performed by technicians.

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4.

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
- Air Combat Command (ACC).
- Air Training Command (ATC).
- Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
- Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer

A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) because AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As the primary training command, AETC oversees the development and implementation of training programs for both officer and enlisted personnel. TDs are specialized units that provide specific training and support services, and they fall under the jurisdiction of AETC to ensure efficient coordination and supervision of training activities.

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5.

The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
- Any 7-level course.
- Weight and Balance.
- Maintenance Orientation.
- General Technical Order System.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance Orientation.

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This method involves grouping related topics or tasks together in a "block" of instruction, allowing for a more efficient and focused learning experience. The Maintenance Orientation course is designed to provide a broad overview of maintenance procedures, policies, and resources, making it suitable for the block training method. The other options, such as Any 7-level course, Weight and Balance, and General Technical Order System, may require a different approach or instructional method.

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6.

The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
- 12 hours.
- 13 hours.
- 14 hours.
- 15 hours.
Correct Answer

A. 12 hours.

Explanation

The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that any shift longer than 12 hours would require approval from the MXG/CC. This policy is likely in place to ensure that workers are not overworked or fatigued, which can lead to decreased productivity and potential safety hazards.

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7.

Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
- 14 hours.
- 15 hours.
- 16 hours.
- 18 hours.
Correct Answer

A. 16 hours.

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for maintenance work to continue beyond the standard 12-hour shift, the maintenance group commander has the authority to approve an extension of up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that critical maintenance tasks can be completed efficiently.

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8.

Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within
- 8 hours.
- 16 hours.
- 24 hours.
- 32 hours.
Correct Answer

A. 24 hours.

Explanation

Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, it is important to report it promptly to the Screening Point in order to address and rectify the issue as quickly as possible. Waiting too long to report the deficiency could lead to further complications or delays in resolving the problem. Therefore, it is necessary to submit a deficiency report within 24 hours to ensure timely action is taken.

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9.

Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
- Urgent.
- Routine.
- Standard.
- Emergency.
Correct Answer

A. Standard.

Explanation

The question asks for the category that is not a technical order (TO) change priority. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all categories that indicate a high level of priority and require immediate attention. Standard, on the other hand, implies a normal or average level of priority, suggesting that it is not a TO change priority category.

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10.

Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
- Bolt.
- Panel.
- Safety pin.
- Explosive munitions.
Correct Answer

A. Explosive munitions.

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard to personnel or equipment.

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11.

In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
- TSgt.
- MSgt.
- SMSgt.
- CMSgt
Correct Answer

A. MSgt.

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only Master Sergeants have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X" after being approved by the MGX/CC. The higher ranks of SMSgt and CMSgt are not required for this authority.

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12.

Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
- Access to Distance Learning courseware.
- Access to special certification roster criteria listings.
- Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
- Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
Correct Answer

A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

Explanation

The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time access to various resources related to technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel. This means that individuals can easily view and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress, as well as the qualifications and statuses of other personnel. This visibility is crucial for effective management and planning of training and personnel development within the Air Force.

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13.

Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
- XF3.
- XD2.
- XD1.
- XB3
Correct Answer

A. XB3

Explanation

The asset must be assigned the ERRC code XB3 before it can be placed in bench stock.

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14.

Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
- Oil sheen on standing water.
- Stressed vegetation.
- Stains on ground.
- Cloudy water.
Correct Answer

A. Cloudy water.

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural processes such as sedimentation or the presence of minerals. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not always the sole cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to indicate pollution as they are direct and visible effects of pollution.

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15.

The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
- Maintenance Flight.
- Quality Assurance section.
- Engine Management section.
- Maintenance Operations Center.
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance section.

Explanation

The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance and operational procedures are carried out correctly and to the highest standards. The FOD monitor is an essential tool in preventing foreign object damage to aircraft, which can cause serious safety issues. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the Quality Assurance section, as they are responsible for monitoring and maintaining the overall quality and safety of aircraft operations.

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16.

Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
- AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
- AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
- AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
- AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
Correct Answer

A. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, is the correct answer because it provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance recovery procedures in case of equipment failure or breakdown. Therefore, AFI 21-101 is the appropriate publication to refer to for guidance on executing maintenance recovery operations.

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17.

What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
- Audio Visual Center.
- Engineering Data Service Center.
- AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
- Communication and Information System.
Correct Answer

A. Engineering Data Service Center.

Explanation

The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these important documents and information, making it easily accessible to engineers and other relevant personnel. The other options mentioned, such as the Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System, do not specifically mention their role in centralizing engineering drawings and data, making the Engineering Data Service Center the correct answer.

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18.

Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
- A.
- C.
- G
- P
Correct Answer

A. C.

Explanation

PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This means that if an item is assigned PMIC code C, it implies that it is made up of multiple precious metals, rather than just one specific precious metal.

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19.

Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
- A4MT.
- A4YE.
- A4U.
- A4BM.
Correct Answer

A. A4U.

Explanation

The correct answer is A4U. This is because A4U refers to the Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff for Logistics, Engineering and Force Protection, who has the overall responsibility for Air Force policy governing the TO (Technical Order) system. This individual is responsible for overseeing the development, implementation, and management of policies related to the TO system, ensuring that it meets the needs of the Air Force and its personnel.

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20.

How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
- 8.
- 9.
- 10.
- 11.
Correct Answer

A. 9.

Explanation

The correct answer is 9. An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. Since the question asks for the number of digits that make up the EID code, we can infer that the code consists of numerical digits. Therefore, the correct answer is 9, as it is the only option provided that represents a number of digits.

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21.

Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
- AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
- DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
- DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
- DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
Correct Answer

A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.

Explanation

The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is specifically designed to indicate caution and highlight potential hazards or special instructions. By using this tag, it ensures that the drained and/or purged status of the part is clearly communicated and documented for future reference. The other options, DD Form 1574, DD Form 1577–1, and DD Form 1577–2, are not specifically designed for documenting the drained and/or purged status of a part.

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22.

Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
- D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- D04, Daily Document Register.
- M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer

A. D04, Daily Document Register.

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed and provides a comprehensive overview of the supply chain activities for the day. It helps in tracking and managing the flow of documents and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and accounted for.

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23.

Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
- Aircraft commander.
- Host installation commander.
- Operations Group Commander.
- Mission Support Group commander.
Correct Answer

A. Host installation commander.

Explanation

The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This is because the host installation commander is responsible for the overall security and operations of the installation, including the authorization and control of classified materials. They have the authority to grant permission for the storage of such materials in designated secure areas to ensure the protection and proper handling of classified information during transit.

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24.

Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
- Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
- Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.
- Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.
- Resolving TO availability problems.
Correct Answer

A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

Explanation

The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to the distribution and availability of technical orders (TO). These duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not a typical duty of the MXG TODO.

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25.

Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
- Wing Inspector General.
- MAJCOM Inspector General.
- Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
- Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. The QA OIC/SUPT oversees and manages the QA program, including the inspection and evaluation of maintenance activities to ensure compliance with standards and regulations. They provide guidance and support to the QA Chief Inspector in carrying out their duties and responsibilities.

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26.

What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
- Maintenance qualification.
- Maintenance refresher.
- On-the-job.
- Ancillary.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance qualification.

Explanation

Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. Maintenance qualification refers to the specific training that focuses on maintaining and improving the skills and knowledge required for a particular maintenance job. This type of training is designed to ensure that individuals remain qualified and competent in their roles by providing them with ongoing education and practical experience.

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27.

Manpower authorizations are
- Funded
- Unfunded
- Unvalidated
- Both funded and unfunded.
Correct Answer

A. Funded

Explanation

Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of resources, specifically in terms of human capital, within an organization. When they are "funded," it means that the necessary financial resources have been allocated to support the authorized positions. This ensures that the organization has the budget to hire and maintain the required number of personnel. On the other hand, if the authorizations are "unfunded," it implies that no budget has been allocated for the positions, making it challenging or impossible to hire individuals to fill those roles.

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28.

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
- Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
- Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
- Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
- Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).
Correct Answer

A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

Explanation

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for managing the logistics and supply chain operations within the squadron. They coordinate and oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies and equipment needed for maintenance activities. Therefore, it makes sense that maintenance supply liaison personnel would report directly to the LRS, as they play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies are available for maintenance operations.

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29.

Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
- Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
- Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
- Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
- Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
Correct Answer

A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.

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30.

The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
- 15.
- 30
- 45.
- 60
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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31.

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
- 30.
- 60
- 90
- 120.
Correct Answer

A. 30.

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide a 30-day supply. This means that the inventory of bench stock assets should be sufficient to meet the organization's needs for a period of 30 days without running out of stock. This ensures that there is an adequate supply of necessary items readily available, reducing the risk of disruptions in operations due to stockouts.

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32.

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?
- Quality Assurance.
- Engine Management.
- Maintenance Operations Center.
- Maintenance Data System Analysis.
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance.

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is typically responsible for overseeing the quality assurance processes and ensuring that products meet the required standards. This role involves monitoring and evaluating the performance of products, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing strategies to enhance product quality. Therefore, it is logical to assign the Product Improvement Manager to the Quality Assurance section, as this aligns with their responsibilities and expertise.

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33.

Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
- Weapons loading operations.
- Radiographic inspections.
- Fuel system repair.
- Aircraft on jacks.
Correct Answer

A. Weapons loading operations.

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are established to ensure safety and security during certain maintenance activities. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve potentially hazardous procedures that require restricted access to protect personnel and equipment. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in designated areas that are already restricted and secure, such as a weapons storage area or an armament shop. Therefore, they do not require the establishment of a separate restricted maintenance area.

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34.

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
- 8.
- 12.
- 24.
- 48.
Correct Answer

A. 24.

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This means that the FOD monitor has a maximum of 24 hours to report any FOD incidents to the MAJCOM FOD manager. This is important for timely response and investigation of FOD incidents to prevent any further damage or hazards.

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35.

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
- 30.
- 60.
- 90.
- 120.
Correct Answer

A. 30.

Explanation

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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36.

Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
- D18, Priority Monitor Report.
- D04, Daily Document Register.
- M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer

A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.

Explanation

The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report is used to track the supply of parts and prioritize them based on their urgency of need. By listing all back-ordered parts with a UND code of A, this report helps ensure that the most critical parts are given priority and are supplied as soon as possible.

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37.

What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
- I.
- III.
- IIB.
- IIA.
Correct Answer

A. IIB.
38.

Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- Flight Service Center (FSC).
- Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
- Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
- Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
Correct Answer

A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the logistics and maintenance of these assets, ensuring they are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options listed, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility of managing SPRAM assets.

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39.

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
- Hour.
- 2 hours.
- 3 hours.
- 4 hours.
Correct Answer

A. 3 hours.

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary for them to arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is important to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment on board the aircraft. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the confidential equipment, thus maintaining its integrity and confidentiality. Conducting these checks at regular intervals reduces the risk of any potential security breaches during the owner or user's absence.

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40.

Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
- 1A or JA.
- AR or BR.
- AA or AM.
- BM or CM.
Correct Answer

A. AR or BR.

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare. These codes indicate that the repair is needed urgently and should be prioritized.

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41.

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
- Operations Officer.
- Aircraft Section flight chief.
- Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
- Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the procurement and distribution of parts. They have the necessary authority and resources to ensure that the MICAP part is quickly and efficiently processed, so that it can be installed on the aircraft and the mission can continue without delay. The other options, such as the Operations Officer, Aircraft Section flight chief, and AMU's PS&D dedicated scheduler, may have other responsibilities but are not directly involved in the handling of MICAP parts.

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42.

If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify
- Quality Assurance.
- Programs and Resources Flight.
- Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).
- Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
Correct Answer

A. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is responsible for notifying the Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) department. PS&D is responsible for maintaining records and documentation related to maintenance activities, including cannibalization. They need to be informed about the cannibalization so that they can update their records and ensure proper scheduling and planning for future maintenance activities. Quality Assurance, Programs and Resources Flight, and Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA) may also be involved in the process, but PS&D is specifically responsible for being notified in this scenario.

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43.

Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
- Air aborts.
- Late takeoffs.
- Ground aborts.
- Aircraft status changes.
Correct Answer

A. Aircraft status changes.

Explanation

Red Ball maintenance is a type of maintenance that is performed on aircraft to ensure their readiness for flight. It involves routine inspections, repairs, and replacements to keep the aircraft in optimal condition. However, Red Ball maintenance is not specifically aimed at preventing aircraft status changes. Aircraft status changes refer to any alterations or updates in the condition, availability, or readiness of the aircraft. While Red Ball maintenance may indirectly contribute to minimizing such changes by maintaining the aircraft's overall performance, it is not its primary objective.

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44.

Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
- Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.
- MXG Impoundment Release Authority.
- Applicable Impoundment Authority.
- Applicable Squadron commander.
Correct Answer

A. Applicable Impoundment Authority.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Applicable Impoundment Authority." This is because the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation is designated by the authority that is applicable to that specific situation. The Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander, MXG Impoundment Release Authority, and Applicable Squadron Commander may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the Impoundment Official is determined by the authority that is relevant to the impoundment situation at hand.

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45.

What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
- I.
- II.
- III.
- IV.
Correct Answer

A. II.

Explanation

The correct answer is II because the question is asking for the training phase that includes four specific sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. The only option that includes these four sub-phases is II.

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46.

An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
- 15
- 30
- 45
- 60.
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

After returning from TDY, leave, or incapacitation, an individual has 30 days before decertification is required if it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date.

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47.

Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
- Section supervisor.
- Squadron Commander.
- Flight Commander/Chief.
- Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Correct Answer

A. Squadron Commander.

Explanation

The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the Squadron Commander is responsible for the overall management and operations of the squadron, including the appointment of key personnel such as equipment account custodians. The equipment account custodian is responsible for the proper care, maintenance, and accountability of the squadron's equipment, and therefore it is the Squadron Commander's responsibility to ensure that a qualified individual is appointed to this role.

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48.

What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
- AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
- AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
- DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
- DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
Correct Answer

A. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed to investigate and determine the financial liability for property loss. The form provides a detailed account of the circumstances surrounding the loss, including the date, location, and description of the property involved. It also allows for the identification of responsible individuals and the assessment of financial charges.

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49.

Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
- Customer
- Maintenance Supply support.
- Maintenance Supply Liaison.
- Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.
Correct Answer

A. Customer

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer, who is in need of the parts, has the authority to decide how urgently they require the supplies. The other options, such as Maintenance Supply Support, Maintenance Supply Liaison, and Logistics Readiness Squadron Customer Service, may assist in the process, but ultimately it is the customer who has the final say in determining the priority of the supply delivery.

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What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

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Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?