2A6X1 CDC Review Edition 1 - All Volumes

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    (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

    • Injury to you
    • Torn clothing
    • Electrical shock
    • Damage to the tool
Please wait...
CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '2A6X1 CDC Review Edition 1 - All Volumes', assesses knowledge on hazardous waste disposal, documentation using AFTO Form 350, and other logistics management practices within the US Air Force. It is designed to ensure readiness and compliance with relevant standards.


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  • 2. 

    An IREP meeting is held at least

    • Annually.

    • Quarterly.

    • Monthly.

    • Weekly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    An IREP (Individualized Education Program Review) meeting is a meeting held to review and update the individualized education program for a student with special needs. These meetings are typically held on a regular basis to ensure that the student's educational needs are being met effectively. Holding the meeting quarterly allows for regular monitoring and adjustment of the program, ensuring that the student's progress is being tracked and any necessary changes are made in a timely manner.

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  • 3. 

    In managing, controlling, and directing resources to accomplish scheduled/unscheduled maintenance to generate aircraft, expediters work for the

    • Aircraft section NCOIC.

    • AMU/OIC.

    • Squadron operations officer.

    • Production superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Production superintendent.
    Explanation
    Expediters are responsible for managing, controlling, and directing resources for maintenance tasks. They work under the supervision of a higher-ranking officer or manager. Among the given options, the production superintendent is the most suitable choice as they are in charge of overseeing the overall production and maintenance activities. The aircraft section NCOIC, AMU/OIC, and squadron operations officer may have different responsibilities and may not specifically handle the management of maintenance resources.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following classes is not normally taught by a maintenance group’s Maintenance Training Flight?

    • Engine Run.

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Borescope Operation.

    • Engine Blade Blending.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance is not normally taught by a maintenance group's Maintenance Training Flight because Quality Assurance is typically a separate function within an organization that focuses on ensuring that maintenance activities are performed correctly and in compliance with established standards and procedures. While the Maintenance Training Flight may provide training on specific maintenance tasks and procedures, Quality Assurance is usually handled by a dedicated team or department that oversees the overall quality of maintenance operations.

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  • 5. 

    (026) To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form

    • 25

    • 95

    • 98

    • 349

    Correct Answer
    A. 95
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 95 is used to document information concerning the status of Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTO). TCTOs are issued to ensure that aircraft engines and other equipment are in compliance with required maintenance actions. Therefore, using AFTO Form 95 would be the appropriate choice for documenting information about the status of engine TCTO.

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  • 6. 

    Historical aircraft records are normally centrally located within the possessing unit. Who, if anyone, may authorize the files to be decentralized?

    • Operations officer.

    • Squadron commander.

    • MXG/CC.

    • AMU/OIC.

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG/CC.
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC, or Maintenance Group Commander, may authorize the historical aircraft records to be decentralized. This means that they have the authority to allow the files to be located in different areas or units rather than centrally located within the possessing unit. The MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and ensuring the proper management of aircraft records.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not normally a flight line expediter’s responsibility?

    • Ensuring ordered parts are picked-up quickly.

    • Signing off “Red Xs” for aircraft maintenance jobs.

    • Maintaining copies of emergency action and functional checklists.

    • Ensuring aircraft and equipment forms documentation is accurate and complete.

    Correct Answer
    A. Signing off “Red Xs” for aircraft maintenance jobs.
    Explanation
    A flight line expediter is responsible for various tasks related to the efficient and smooth operation of aircraft maintenance and logistics. This includes ensuring ordered parts are picked up quickly, maintaining copies of emergency action and functional checklists, and ensuring aircraft and equipment forms documentation is accurate and complete. However, signing off "Red Xs" for aircraft maintenance jobs is typically the responsibility of a qualified maintenance technician or inspector, as it requires specialized knowledge and expertise to determine the airworthiness of an aircraft.

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  • 8. 

    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • Shop chief

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This suggests that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role. The commander is likely responsible for overseeing the overall operations and management of the equipment, making them the appropriate person to appoint custodians who will be responsible for its care and maintenance. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but the ultimate decision-making power to appoint equipment custodians lies with the commander.

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  • 9. 

    Who must the AGE flight commander/chief notify when mission essential AGE levels fall below a predetermined limit?

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Squadron commander

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center.
    Explanation
    The AGE flight commander/chief must notify the Maintenance Operations Center when mission essential AGE levels fall below a predetermined limit. The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for coordinating and overseeing maintenance operations, so it is essential for them to be informed when there is a shortage of mission essential AGE levels in order to take appropriate action and ensure that maintenance operations can continue effectively.

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  • 10. 

    Which Propulsion flight section processes supply requests, manages bench stock, and operates tool storage areas?

    • Support.

    • Module/Accessory Repair.

    • Engine Equipment Maintenance.

    • Jet, Turbo-shaft Engine Intermediate Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Support.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Support. The Support flight section is responsible for processing supply requests, managing bench stock, and operating tool storage areas. This section provides the necessary support and resources for the other flight sections to carry out their maintenance and repair tasks efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    Which section is responsible for repairing, storing, and maintaining fuel nozzles, fuel manifolds, oil pumps, afterburners, thrust reversers, and other engine components for the Propulsion flight?

    • Support.

    • Module/Accessory Repair.

    • Engine Equipment Maintenance.

    • Jet, Turbo-shaft Engine Intermediate Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Module/Accessory Repair.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Module/Accessory Repair. This section is responsible for repairing, storing, and maintaining various engine components such as fuel nozzles, fuel manifolds, oil pumps, afterburners, thrust reversers, and other accessories. They specialize in the maintenance and repair of modules and accessories that are crucial for the proper functioning of the engine.

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  • 12. 

    (009)  What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

    • Origin of an item.

    • Why the item broke.

    • How long the item will take to repair.

    • The responsible reparable processing center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item.
    Explanation
    A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment and assets. By filling out this form, the responsible personnel can provide information about where the item originated from, which can be useful for tracking its history, determining its source, and identifying any potential issues related to its origin.

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  • 13. 

    (039) Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it

    • Is expensive

    • Is too flexible

    • Has a high fatigue factor

    • Has extremely high tensile strength

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a high fatigue factor
    Explanation
    Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it has a high fatigue factor. This means that it is prone to developing cracks and failures over time due to repeated stress and strain. Jet engines undergo extreme conditions and constant vibrations, which can cause fatigue in the materials used. Therefore, copper tubing, with its high fatigue factor, would not be suitable for use in jet engines as it could lead to potential failures and safety risks.

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  • 14. 

    (210) The two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor are

    • Rotational and centrifugal

    • Rotational and tangential

    • Tangential and centrifugal

    • Tangential and radial

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotational and centrifugal
    Explanation
    After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor, it is subjected to two forces: rotational and centrifugal. The rotational force is generated by the spinning motion of the compressor impeller, causing the air to rotate along with it. The centrifugal force is a result of this rotation, pushing the air outward from the center of the impeller. Therefore, both rotational and centrifugal forces act on the air in the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor.

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  • 15. 

    (035) What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?

    • Direct

    • Axisymetrical

    • Direct and Lateral

    • 60 degrees up and 180 degrees down

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct and Lateral
    Explanation
    The rigid borescope offers two types of views: direct and lateral. The direct view allows for a straight-ahead perspective, while the lateral view provides a side view. These two views provide different angles and perspectives, allowing for a comprehensive examination of the area being inspected.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is not assigned to the AMU Aircraft section?

    • Load crew chief.

    • Flying crew chief.

    • Dedicated crew chief.

    • Assistant dedicated crew chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Load crew chief.
    Explanation
    The given options consist of different positions in the AMU Aircraft section. Load crew chief, flying crew chief, dedicated crew chief, and assistant dedicated crew chief are all positions that are assigned to the AMU Aircraft section. However, the load crew chief is not assigned to the AMU Aircraft section.

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  • 17. 

    The AMU Support section is not responsible for

    • Vehicles.

    • Test equipment.

    • Technical orders.

    • Classified aircraft parts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified aircraft parts.
    Explanation
    The AMU Support section is responsible for vehicles, test equipment, and technical orders, but not for classified aircraft parts. This means that the section does not handle or deal with classified aircraft parts, leaving that responsibility to another department or organization.

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  • 18. 

    (023) When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?

    • Deployed unit

    • CIRF personnel

    • Supply squadron

    • Transportation squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. CIRF personnel
    Explanation
    CIRF personnel are responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed when a replacement asset is shipped to a deployed unit. This is because CIRF personnel are directly involved in the process of shipping and replacing assets, and they are the ones who have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that all necessary documentation is completed accurately and efficiently. The deployed unit may have other responsibilities related to receiving and utilizing the replacement asset, but the specific task of completing the documentation falls under the responsibility of the CIRF personnel.

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  • 19. 

    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

    • Incineration

    • Land disposal

    • Biodegradation

    • Chemico-physical treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Incineration
    Explanation
    Incineration is the most suitable method for hazardous waste disposal for the Air Force. This process involves burning the waste at high temperatures, converting it into ash, gas, and heat. Incineration is effective in destroying hazardous substances and reducing the volume of waste. It also prevents the release of harmful chemicals into the environment. Other methods like land disposal, biodegradation, and chemico-physical treatment may not be as effective or safe for hazardous waste disposal.

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  • 20. 

    How is an aircraft flight malfunction classified if an identical malfunction occurred on this same aircraft four sorties ago?

    • Recur.

    • Repeat.

    • Not classified.

    • CND.

    Correct Answer
    A. Recur.
    Explanation
    If an identical malfunction occurred on the same aircraft four sorties ago, it would be classified as a "recur" or recurring malfunction. This suggests that the issue has not been fully resolved and continues to happen repeatedly.

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  • 21. 

    Who must the AMU production superintendent inform and coordinate with about the unit’s maintenance effort, including providing aircraft status updates as required?

    • Flight line expediter.

    • Airfield management.

    • MOC.

    • MDSA section.

    Correct Answer
    A. MOC.
    Explanation
    The AMU production superintendent must inform and coordinate with the MOC (Maintenance Operations Center) about the unit's maintenance effort, including providing aircraft status updates as required. The MOC is responsible for managing and coordinating all maintenance activities within the organization, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively and that maintenance tasks are completed in a timely manner. By communicating with the MOC, the production superintendent can ensure that the maintenance effort is properly planned and executed, and that any issues or delays are promptly addressed.

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  • 22. 

    What type of specialist is tasked to troubleshoot and repair aircraft interphone systems?

    • Avionics.

    • Propulsion.

    • Hydraulics.

    • Electro/environmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Avionics.
    Explanation
    Avionics specialists are responsible for troubleshooting and repairing aircraft interphone systems. These systems are crucial for communication between crew members and are part of the avionics system, which includes all electronic and electrical systems on an aircraft. Avionics specialists are trained to handle the complex electronics and wiring involved in interphone systems, ensuring that communication remains reliable and efficient during flights.

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  • 23. 

    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

    • Dilution

    • Incineration

    • Land disposal

    • Biodegradation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or another liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it safer for disposal. Dilution is often used for liquid waste or waste that can be dissolved in water. It is a cost-effective and relatively simple method of waste disposal, although it may not be suitable for all types of hazardous waste.

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  • 24. 

    (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assembly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers?

    • Diffuser.

    • Compressor rotor.

    • Compressor housing.

    • Compressor air inlet housing

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffuser.
    Explanation
    The diffuser is the correct answer because it is the component in the T56 turboprop engine that disperses the compressed air from the compressor section and directs it to the combustion chambers. The diffuser helps to slow down and diffuse the high-speed airflow, preparing it for combustion. This allows for efficient and controlled combustion within the engine. The other options, such as the compressor rotor, compressor housing, and compressor air inlet housing, are not responsible for dispersing and directing the compressed air to the combustion chambers.

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  • 25. 

    (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 72

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Category I DR (Discrepancy Report) must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any discrepancies or issues found during the screening process should be reported and communicated within a maximum time frame of 24 hours. This allows for prompt action and resolution of any problems identified, ensuring the smooth operation and safety of the system or process being screened.

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  • 26. 

    What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?

    • Evident and hidden

    • Potential and evident

    • Hidden and functional

    • Potential and functional

    Correct Answer
    A. Potential and functional
    Explanation
    The two classifications of failures in RCM are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. These failures are identified through analysis and can be prevented through proactive maintenance strategies. On the other hand, functional failures are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the system's function. These failures are typically addressed through reactive maintenance actions such as repairs or replacements.

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  • 27. 

    The MXG superintendent is responsible for coordinating with unit leadership in rotating personnel between duty positions in order to

    • Develop individual experience and knowledge.

    • Ensure workers having special needs are accommodated.

    • Ensure that the most highly qualified people are moved around.

    • Make sure that personnel are not assigned outside their specialty for too long.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop individual experience and knowledge.
    Explanation
    The MXG superintendent is responsible for coordinating with unit leadership in rotating personnel between duty positions in order to develop individual experience and knowledge. This means that the superintendent ensures that personnel are given opportunities to work in different positions within the MXG, allowing them to gain new experiences and knowledge. This rotation helps individuals grow professionally and become well-rounded in their field.

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  • 28. 

    What individual is in the best position to ensure that maintainers accomplish maintenance IAW technical data and higher level directives?

    • Expediter.

    • Flight chief.

    • Production superintendent.

    • Section NCOIC.

    Correct Answer
    A. Expediter.
    Explanation
    The individual in the best position to ensure that maintainers accomplish maintenance IAW technical data and higher level directives is the Expediter. An expediter is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the maintenance activities, ensuring that they are carried out according to the specified technical data and directives. They act as a liaison between the maintenance personnel and higher-level management, ensuring that all tasks are completed efficiently and effectively.

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  • 29. 

    (043) When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?

    • 1/4 turn

    • 1/2 turn

    • 1 turn

    • 2 turns

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/4 turn
    Explanation
    When removing the shipping container lid, the turnlock fasteners are turned 1/4 of a turn. This means that the fasteners are rotated a quarter of a full revolution in order to loosen and remove the lid from the container.

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  • 30. 

    (234) The T700 engine consists of what four modules?

    • Combustion, compressor, hot and accessory sections

    • Power turbine, accessory, compressor and hot sections

    • Compressor, combustion, cold and power turbine section

    • Accessory, compressor, combustion and power turbine section

    Correct Answer
    A. Accessory, compressor, combustion and power turbine section
    Explanation
    The T700 engine consists of four modules: the accessory section, compressor section, combustion section, and power turbine section.

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  • 31. 

    (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the

    • Lock

    • Grip

    • Shaft index line

    • Broached opening

    Correct Answer
    A. Broached opening
    Explanation
    The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening. The broached opening refers to the opening in the torque extension where the tool or socket is inserted. The distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening affects the leverage and torque applied when using the torque extension. Therefore, the length of the torque extension is determined by this distance.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not a SQ/CC’s responsibility?

    • Monitoring and reporting on mission capability.

    • Reviewing mobility, contingency, and exercise plans.

    • Managing the squadron’s AFREP.

    • Being legally accountable for squadron EPA compliance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Managing the squadron’s AFREP.
    Explanation
    Managing the squadron's AFREP is not a SQ/CC's responsibility. The SQ/CC is responsible for monitoring and reporting on mission capability, reviewing mobility, contingency, and exercise plans, and being legally accountable for squadron EPA compliance. However, managing the squadron's AFREP, which stands for Air Force Readiness Evaluation Program, is not listed as one of their responsibilities.

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  • 33. 

    It is important for a SQ/CC to review the squadron’s DOC statement to

    • Monitor and control the daily flying production effort.

    • Monitor and control scheduled and unscheduled maintenance.

    • Ensure that requested aircraft configuration changes do not over task maintainers.

    • Determine if current squadron processes are adequate to meet all tasked requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine if current squadron processes are adequate to meet all tasked requirements.
    Explanation
    The SQ/CC (Squadron Commander) needs to review the squadron's DOC (Director of Operations and Communications) statement to determine if the current processes in the squadron are sufficient to meet all the requirements assigned to them. This involves assessing whether the existing procedures, protocols, and resources are capable of fulfilling the tasks and responsibilities given to the squadron. By reviewing the DOC statement, the SQ/CC can identify any gaps or areas for improvement in the squadron's processes and make necessary adjustments to ensure that all tasked requirements are met effectively.

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  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for managing the MSEP for the maintenance group?

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Maintenance Training Flight.

    • Maintenance Operations Flight.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance is responsible for managing the MSEP (Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program) for the maintenance group. This program ensures that maintenance operations are conducted in accordance with established standards and procedures. Quality Assurance is responsible for conducting evaluations, providing feedback and training, and maintaining documentation to ensure compliance and continuous improvement in the maintenance operations.

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  • 35. 

    (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

    • Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets

    • Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements

    • Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems

    • Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections

    Correct Answer
    A. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
    Explanation
    The objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluate engine controls and accessories, and detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not mentioned as an objective of the program.

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  • 36. 

    (043) To determine whether and engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the

    • Side of the container

    • Data plate on both halves of the container

    • Top half on the right panel of the container

    • Bottom half on the left panel of the container

    Correct Answer
    A. Top half on the right panel of the container
    Explanation
    To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, one should look on the top half on the right panel of the container. The information regarding the engine's condition or any necessary repairs can be found in this specific location.

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  • 37. 

    What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • Record.

    • Urgent action.

    • Routine action.

    • Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediate action.
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to mitigate the risk and ensure the safety of individuals.

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  • 38. 

    (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

    • Introduction

    • Numerical index

    • Group assembly parts list

    • Reference designation index

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
    Explanation
    The Introduction section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and background information on how to interpret and understand the coding system used throughout the IPB. It helps users navigate and comprehend the various codes and symbols used in the IPB, ensuring accurate interpretation and usage of the information provided.

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  • 39. 

    (023) Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?

    • Production supervisor

    • Depot item manager

    • Engine technician

    • Supply officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Production supervisor
    Explanation
    The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of CIRF assets and reporting their status. This role involves overseeing the production process and ensuring that all assets are accounted for and properly maintained. The production supervisor is also responsible for reporting any issues or concerns regarding the status of the assets to higher management. This ensures that the assets are being used effectively and efficiently, and any necessary actions can be taken to address any problems that may arise.

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  • 40. 

    (044) How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4. This means that there are 4 pins that secure the adapters to the shipping container support.

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  • 41. 

    (234) What routes the oil and fuel through the T700 AGB?

    • Internal lines

    • External lines

    • Internal passages

    • External passages

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal passages
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal passages because the T700 AGB has internal passages that are responsible for routing the oil and fuel. These passages are located within the engine and are designed to ensure the proper flow of oil and fuel throughout the system. External lines and passages are not involved in this process as they are not connected to the T700 AGB.

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  • 42. 

    Regarding the Reliability and Maintainability Program, who is responsible for developing a proactive program to analyze collected data and act accordingly to implement solutions for those systems under their control?

    • Maintainers.

    • Single managers.

    • Group commanders.

    • Squadron commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Single managers.
    Explanation
    Single managers are responsible for developing a proactive program to analyze collected data and implement solutions for systems under their control. This means that they are in charge of identifying issues, analyzing data, and taking action to maintain and improve the reliability and maintainability of the systems. This responsibility falls on the individual manager rather than a group or squadron commander, as they have direct control and oversight over the systems.

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  • 43. 

    Which MXG organization acts as the OPR for maintenance policy guidance as it pertains to OIs?

    • Maintenance operations center.

    • Programs and Resources Flight.

    • Maintenance Training Flight.

    • Quality assurance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance.
    Explanation
    Quality assurance is the MXG organization that acts as the OPR for maintenance policy guidance as it pertains to OIs. Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that maintenance operations adhere to established standards and procedures, and they provide guidance and oversight to ensure that maintenance policies are followed correctly. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and effectiveness of the maintenance operations within the MXG organization.

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  • 44. 

    Once a formal aircraft modification proposal has been submitted, who—in addition to the single point manager and the lead command configuration review board—must approve it?

    • HQ/USAF/A4M.

    • AF Chief of Staff.

    • Secretary of the AF.

    • MAJCOM Command Chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ/USAF/A4M.
    Explanation
    After a formal aircraft modification proposal has been submitted, in addition to the single point manager and the lead command configuration review board, the proposal must also be approved by HQ/USAF/A4M.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following specialists is sometimes assigned to the specialist section of an AMU?

    • Corrosion control.

    • Electronic warfare.

    • Survival equipment.

    • Non-destruction inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic warfare.
    Explanation
    Electronic warfare specialists are sometimes assigned to the specialist section of an AMU. This means that there are instances where electronic warfare specialists are included in the team or department that focuses on specialized tasks and operations within an AMU.

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  • 46. 

    Why is it important for support sections to standardize procedures across the Aircraft Maintenance Squadron?

    • Inspection and validation reasons.

    • Security, control, and accountability reasons.

    • Standardization is mandatory across all Air Force support sections.

    • Workers may be tasked to work in multiple support sections.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security, control, and accountability reasons.
    Explanation
    It is important for support sections to standardize procedures across the Aircraft Maintenance Squadron for security, control, and accountability reasons. Standardization ensures that all procedures are followed consistently, reducing the risk of errors or accidents. It also allows for better control and oversight of operations, ensuring that tasks are completed correctly and efficiently. Additionally, standardization promotes accountability by providing a clear framework for evaluating performance and identifying areas for improvement.

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  • 47. 

    Which section is tasked with performing user calibration and maintenance on TMDE for the Armament flight?

    • Armament Support.

    • Armament Maintenance

    • Electronic Warfare Systems.

    • Alternate Mission Equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Armament Support.
    Explanation
    The Armament Support section is responsible for performing user calibration and maintenance on TMDE (Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment) for the Armament flight. This section is specifically dedicated to providing support and maintenance for armament-related equipment and systems, ensuring their proper functioning and accuracy.

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  • 48. 

    Which section is responsible for performing in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair for the TMDE flight?

    • PMEL Quality Assurance.

    • TMDE Technical Order Distribution Office/Account.

    • Production Control.

    • PMEL.

    Correct Answer
    A. PMEL.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PMEL. PMEL stands for Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory, which is responsible for performing in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair for the TMDE flight. PMEL ensures that all equipment used in the flight is properly calibrated and functioning accurately. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and reliability of the TMDE flight's measurement equipment.

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  • 49. 

    (216) The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the

    • Fan duct

    • Jet nozzle

    • Fuel nozzle

    • Bifurcated duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Jet nozzle
    Explanation
    The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the jet nozzle. The jet nozzle is responsible for accelerating the exhaust gases and providing thrust. It is a crucial component of the engine that helps in propelling the aircraft forward. The exhaust gases from the turbine flow through the exhaust duct and exit through the jet nozzle, creating a high-velocity jet of gases that generates the necessary thrust for the aircraft to move.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 26, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Pixiegirl
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