2A6X1 CDC Review Edition 1 - All Volumes

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

    • A.

      Dilution

    • B.

      Incineration

    • C.

      Land disposal

    • D.

      Biodegradation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or another liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it safer for disposal. Dilution is often used for liquid waste or waste that can be dissolved in water. It is a cost-effective and relatively simple method of waste disposal, although it may not be suitable for all types of hazardous waste.

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  • 2. 

    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

    • A.

      Incineration

    • B.

      Land disposal

    • C.

      Biodegradation

    • D.

      Chemico-physical treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Incineration
    Explanation
    Incineration is the most suitable method for hazardous waste disposal for the Air Force. This process involves burning the waste at high temperatures, converting it into ash, gas, and heat. Incineration is effective in destroying hazardous substances and reducing the volume of waste. It also prevents the release of harmful chemicals into the environment. Other methods like land disposal, biodegradation, and chemico-physical treatment may not be as effective or safe for hazardous waste disposal.

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  • 3. 

    (009)  What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

    • A.

      Origin of an item.

    • B.

      Why the item broke.

    • C.

      How long the item will take to repair.

    • D.

      The responsible reparable processing center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item.
    Explanation
    A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment and assets. By filling out this form, the responsible personnel can provide information about where the item originated from, which can be useful for tracking its history, determining its source, and identifying any potential issues related to its origin.

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  • 4. 

    (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

    • A.

      AFMAN 23-114

    • B.

      AFMAN 23-110

    • C.

      AFI 91-301

    • D.

      TO 00-5-1

    Correct Answer
    B. AFMAN 23-110
    Explanation
    AFMAN 23-110 provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag.

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  • 5. 

    (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      72

    Correct Answer
    C. 24
    Explanation
    Category I DR (Discrepancy Report) must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any discrepancies or issues found during the screening process should be reported and communicated within a maximum time frame of 24 hours. This allows for prompt action and resolution of any problems identified, ensuring the smooth operation and safety of the system or process being screened.

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  • 6. 

    (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?

    • A.

      Shelf-life

    • B.

      Bench Stock

    • C.

      Hazardous Materials

    • D.

      Equipment Authorization Inventory Data

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
    Explanation
    The CA/CRL (Centralized Authorization/Centralized Repair List) is a document that lists all the equipment that is authorized for use and repair. It ensures that only authorized equipment is used and repaired by military personnel. Therefore, the type of items that must be reflected on the CA/CRL is the Equipment Authorization Inventory Data, as it contains information about the authorized equipment. Shelf-life, Bench Stock, and Hazardous Materials are not relevant to the CA/CRL.

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  • 7. 

    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • A.

      Shop chief

    • B.

      Supervisor

    • C.

      Commander

    • D.

      Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This suggests that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role. The commander is likely responsible for overseeing the overall operations and management of the equipment, making them the appropriate person to appoint custodians who will be responsible for its care and maintenance. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but the ultimate decision-making power to appoint equipment custodians lies with the commander.

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  • 8. 

    (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Introduction

    • B.

      Numerical index

    • C.

      Group assembly parts list

    • D.

      Reference designation index

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
    Explanation
    The Introduction section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and background information on how to interpret and understand the coding system used throughout the IPB. It helps users navigate and comprehend the various codes and symbols used in the IPB, ensuring accurate interpretation and usage of the information provided.

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  • 9. 

    What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Record.

    • B.

      Urgent action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action.
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to mitigate the risk and ensure the safety of individuals.

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  • 10. 

    Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-5-2

    • C.

      00-20-1

    • D.

      00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer, 00-5-1, covers information concerning the Air Force TO system.

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  • 11. 

    What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?

    • A.

      Evident and hidden

    • B.

      Potential and evident

    • C.

      Hidden and functional

    • D.

      Potential and functional

    Correct Answer
    D. Potential and functional
    Explanation
    The two classifications of failures in RCM are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. These failures are identified through analysis and can be prevented through proactive maintenance strategies. On the other hand, functional failures are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the system's function. These failures are typically addressed through reactive maintenance actions such as repairs or replacements.

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  • 12. 

    (023) What drives the creation of a CRP?

    • A.

      Equipment cost and repair time

    • B.

      Number of available spare engines

    • C.

      Number of assigned maintenance personnel

    • D.

      Customer wait time and transportation constraints

    Correct Answer
    D. Customer wait time and transportation constraints
    Explanation
    A CRP, or Critical Resource Path, is created based on the factors that impact customer wait time and transportation constraints. This means that the availability and efficiency of resources are determined by the need to minimize customer wait time and overcome any transportation constraints that may arise. Equipment cost and repair time, number of available spare engines, and number of assigned maintenance personnel may be important considerations, but the primary driver for creating a CRP is the need to address customer wait time and transportation constraints.

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  • 13. 

    (023) Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?

    • A.

      Production supervisor

    • B.

      Depot item manager

    • C.

      Engine technician

    • D.

      Supply officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Production supervisor
    Explanation
    The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of CIRF assets and reporting their status. This role involves overseeing the production process and ensuring that all assets are accounted for and properly maintained. The production supervisor is also responsible for reporting any issues or concerns regarding the status of the assets to higher management. This ensures that the assets are being used effectively and efficiently, and any necessary actions can be taken to address any problems that may arise.

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  • 14. 

    (023) When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?

    • A.

      Deployed unit

    • B.

      CIRF personnel

    • C.

      Supply squadron

    • D.

      Transportation squadron

    Correct Answer
    B. CIRF personnel
    Explanation
    CIRF personnel are responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed when a replacement asset is shipped to a deployed unit. This is because CIRF personnel are directly involved in the process of shipping and replacing assets, and they are the ones who have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that all necessary documentation is completed accurately and efficiently. The deployed unit may have other responsibilities related to receiving and utilizing the replacement asset, but the specific task of completing the documentation falls under the responsibility of the CIRF personnel.

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  • 15. 

    (025) For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The CEMS (Continuous Emissions Monitoring System) establishes and maintains records for two categories of reporting. This means that the system is designed to track and record data for two specific areas of reporting. Without further information, it is not possible to determine what these categories are, but it is clear that there are only two of them.

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  • 16. 

    (026) To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      95

    • C.

      98

    • D.

      349

    Correct Answer
    B. 95
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 95 is used to document information concerning the status of Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTO). TCTOs are issued to ensure that aircraft engines and other equipment are in compliance with required maintenance actions. Therefore, using AFTO Form 95 would be the appropriate choice for documenting information about the status of engine TCTO.

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  • 17. 

    (027) What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet / Pacer program?

    • A.

      Prevent unscheduled removal of engines

    • B.

      Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance

    • C.

      Accelerate the flying rate of all the unit's installed engines

    • D.

      Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field

    Correct Answer
    D. Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Lead the Fleet / Pacer program is to determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field. This program is designed to identify any issues or problems with the engine and its components while it is in operation, allowing for timely maintenance and repairs to prevent further damage or unscheduled removal of engines. By determining the distress modes, the program helps ensure the optimal performance and reliability of the engines, ultimately improving the overall fleet readiness.

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  • 18. 

    (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

    • A.

      Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets

    • B.

      Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements

    • C.

      Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems

    • D.

      Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections

    Correct Answer
    A. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
    Explanation
    The objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluate engine controls and accessories, and detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not mentioned as an objective of the program.

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  • 19. 

    (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

    • A.

      Injury to you

    • B.

      Torn clothing

    • C.

      Electrical shock

    • D.

      Damage to the tool

    Correct Answer
    A. Injury to you
    Explanation
    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause injury to you. When a tool is carried in a pocket, there is a risk of it accidentally poking or cutting the person carrying it, leading to injuries such as cuts, bruises, or even more serious wounds. Additionally, if the tool is not securely stored, it may fall out of the pocket and cause harm to others or create a tripping hazard. Therefore, it is important to properly store and secure hand tools to prevent any potential injuries.

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  • 20. 

    (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the

    • A.

      Lock

    • B.

      Grip

    • C.

      Shaft index line

    • D.

      Broached opening

    Correct Answer
    D. Broached opening
    Explanation
    The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening. The broached opening refers to the opening in the torque extension where the tool or socket is inserted. The distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening affects the leverage and torque applied when using the torque extension. Therefore, the length of the torque extension is determined by this distance.

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  • 21. 

    (032) To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      40

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    D. 50
    Explanation
    Measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds 50% to avoid rust. Higher levels of humidity can cause moisture to accumulate on the tools, leading to the formation of rust. Rust can damage the measuring tools and affect their accuracy. Therefore, it is important to store them in a dry environment to prevent rust formation.

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  • 22. 

    (034) How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The Fluke 8025A multimeter has four range settings. This means that it can measure different ranges of electrical values such as voltage, current, and resistance. Having multiple range settings allows the multimeter to provide accurate measurements for a wide range of electrical components and circuits.

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  • 23. 

    (035) What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?

    • A.

      Direct

    • B.

      Axisymetrical

    • C.

      Direct and Lateral

    • D.

      60 degrees up and 180 degrees down

    Correct Answer
    C. Direct and Lateral
    Explanation
    The rigid borescope offers two types of views: direct and lateral. The direct view allows for a straight-ahead perspective, while the lateral view provides a side view. These two views provide different angles and perspectives, allowing for a comprehensive examination of the area being inspected.

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  • 24. 

    (037) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?

    • A.

      Tapered

    • B.

      Flathead

    • C.

      Cotter

    • D.

      Shear

    Correct Answer
    A. Tapered
    Explanation
    Tapered pins are used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential because they have a gradually decreasing diameter, allowing them to fit tightly into the holes of the joint. This tight fit helps to prevent any movement or play in the joint, ensuring that the shear loads are evenly distributed and that the joint remains stable and secure. The taper also helps to facilitate easy insertion and removal of the pin.

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  • 25. 

    (039) Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it

    • A.

      Is expensive

    • B.

      Is too flexible

    • C.

      Has a high fatigue factor

    • D.

      Has extremely high tensile strength

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a high fatigue factor
    Explanation
    Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it has a high fatigue factor. This means that it is prone to developing cracks and failures over time due to repeated stress and strain. Jet engines undergo extreme conditions and constant vibrations, which can cause fatigue in the materials used. Therefore, copper tubing, with its high fatigue factor, would not be suitable for use in jet engines as it could lead to potential failures and safety risks.

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  • 26. 

    (042) Which container does not require warehouse facilities?

    • A.

      Shroud

    • B.

      Prefabricated

    • C.

      Fiberglass reinforced plastic

    • D.

      Flexible environment control

    Correct Answer
    C. Fiberglass reinforced plastic
    Explanation
    Fiberglass reinforced plastic does not require warehouse facilities because it is a type of material that is lightweight, durable, and resistant to corrosion. It can be used for various applications such as tanks, pipes, and panels, and does not require special storage conditions or facilities like a warehouse. It is often chosen for its ease of handling and transportation, making it a convenient option for storing and transporting goods without the need for dedicated warehouse space.

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  • 27. 

    (043) When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?

    • A.

      1/4 turn

    • B.

      1/2 turn

    • C.

      1 turn

    • D.

      2 turns

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/4 turn
    Explanation
    When removing the shipping container lid, the turnlock fasteners are turned 1/4 of a turn. This means that the fasteners are rotated a quarter of a full revolution in order to loosen and remove the lid from the container.

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  • 28. 

    (043) To determine whether and engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the

    • A.

      Side of the container

    • B.

      Data plate on both halves of the container

    • C.

      Top half on the right panel of the container

    • D.

      Bottom half on the left panel of the container

    Correct Answer
    C. Top half on the right panel of the container
    Explanation
    To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, one should look on the top half on the right panel of the container. The information regarding the engine's condition or any necessary repairs can be found in this specific location.

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  • 29. 

    (044) How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4. This means that there are 4 pins that secure the adapters to the shipping container support.

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  • 30. 

    (210) The two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor are

    • A.

      Rotational and centrifugal

    • B.

      Rotational and tangential

    • C.

      Tangential and centrifugal

    • D.

      Tangential and radial

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotational and centrifugal
    Explanation
    After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor, it is subjected to two forces: rotational and centrifugal. The rotational force is generated by the spinning motion of the compressor impeller, causing the air to rotate along with it. The centrifugal force is a result of this rotation, pushing the air outward from the center of the impeller. Therefore, both rotational and centrifugal forces act on the air in the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor.

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  • 31. 

    (216) The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the

    • A.

      Fan duct

    • B.

      Jet nozzle

    • C.

      Fuel nozzle

    • D.

      Bifurcated duct

    Correct Answer
    B. Jet nozzle
    Explanation
    The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the jet nozzle. The jet nozzle is responsible for accelerating the exhaust gases and providing thrust. It is a crucial component of the engine that helps in propelling the aircraft forward. The exhaust gases from the turbine flow through the exhaust duct and exit through the jet nozzle, creating a high-velocity jet of gases that generates the necessary thrust for the aircraft to move.

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  • 32. 

    (218) How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    A jet engine bearing can be subjected to three different types of loads. These loads include radial loads, thrust loads, and moment loads. Radial loads act perpendicular to the axis of rotation, thrust loads act parallel to the axis of rotation, and moment loads cause a twisting force. These different types of loads are important to consider in the design and operation of jet engines, as they can impact the performance and durability of the bearing.

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  • 33. 

    (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, there are mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive for the fuel control, fuel pump and

    • A.

      Speed-sensitive valve

    • B.

      Engine main oil pump

    • C.

      Speed-sensitive control

    • D.

      External scavenge oil pump

    Correct Answer
    D. External scavenge oil pump
    Explanation
    On the T56 turboprop engine, the mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive are used for various components including the fuel control, fuel pump, and external scavenge oil pump. The external scavenge oil pump is responsible for removing excess oil from the engine and returning it to the oil tank. This helps to maintain proper lubrication and prevent oil buildup in the engine.

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  • 34. 

    (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assembly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers?

    • A.

      Diffuser.

    • B.

      Compressor rotor.

    • C.

      Compressor housing.

    • D.

      Compressor air inlet housing

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffuser.
    Explanation
    The diffuser is the correct answer because it is the component in the T56 turboprop engine that disperses the compressed air from the compressor section and directs it to the combustion chambers. The diffuser helps to slow down and diffuse the high-speed airflow, preparing it for combustion. This allows for efficient and controlled combustion within the engine. The other options, such as the compressor rotor, compressor housing, and compressor air inlet housing, are not responsible for dispersing and directing the compressed air to the combustion chambers.

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  • 35. 

    (225) In the T56 engine, which RGB component rotates at the same speed as the power unit rotors?

    • A.

      Sun gear.

    • B.

      Ring gear.

    • C.

      Main drive gear.

    • D.

      Pinion input gear.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pinion input gear.
    Explanation
    The pinion input gear in the T56 engine rotates at the same speed as the power unit rotors. This gear is responsible for transmitting power from the engine to the rest of the transmission system. It is designed to mesh with the other gears in the system and ensure that the rotational speed is maintained. The sun gear, ring gear, and main drive gear do not rotate at the same speed as the power unit rotors, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 36. 

    (226) What is not a propeller brake position?

    • A.

      Locked

    • B.

      Applied

    • C.

      Engaged

    • D.

      Released

    Correct Answer
    C. Engaged
    Explanation
    A propeller brake is used to stop the rotation of the propeller. The positions of a propeller brake typically include Locked, Applied, and Released. Engaged is not a propeller brake position, as it is not commonly used to describe the state of a propeller brake.

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  • 37. 

    (226) The propeller brake is in which position when the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is stopped?

    • A.

      Locked

    • B.

      Applied

    • C.

      Engaged

    • D.

      Released

    Correct Answer
    B. Applied
    Explanation
    When the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is stopped, the propeller brake is applied. This means that the brake is engaged to prevent the propeller from rotating freely. Applying the propeller brake helps to ensure the safety of ground personnel and prevents any accidental rotation of the propeller, which could cause damage to the aircraft or injury to individuals nearby.

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  • 38. 

    (228) The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the

    • A.

      Torque shaft

    • B.

      Reference shaft

    • C.

      Safety coupling

    • D.

      Pinion input gear

    Correct Answer
    B. Reference shaft
    Explanation
    The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the reference shaft. The reference shaft serves as a point of comparison or standard for measuring the amount of twisting deflection. It provides a baseline against which the deflection of other components can be measured. By comparing the deflection of the torque shaft, safety coupling, and pinion input gear to the reference shaft, one can determine the extent of twisting or rotational movement in the system.

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  • 39. 

    (230) Which T56 compressor component supports the compressor rear bearing labyrinth seal?

    • A.

      Compressor rotor

    • B.

      Air inlet housing

    • C.

      Compressor diffuser

    • D.

      First-stage compressor wheel hub

    Correct Answer
    C. Compressor diffuser
    Explanation
    The compressor diffuser supports the compressor rear bearing labyrinth seal. The diffuser is a component of the T56 compressor that is responsible for slowing down and diffusing the high-speed airflow coming out of the compressor wheel. It helps to increase the efficiency of the compressor by reducing turbulence and directing the airflow towards the rear bearing labyrinth seal. This seal is important for preventing any leakage of air and maintaining the proper functioning of the compressor.

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  • 40. 

    (232) The purpose of the guide vane support is to direct airflow

    • A.

      Out of the turbine section

    • B.

      Onto the combustion section

    • C.

      Onto the turbine rotor blades

    • D.

      Toward the compressor stator blades

    Correct Answer
    C. Onto the turbine rotor blades
    Explanation
    The guide vane support is responsible for directing the airflow onto the turbine rotor blades. This is important because the turbine rotor blades are responsible for extracting energy from the airflow to drive the turbine. By directing the airflow onto the turbine rotor blades, the guide vane support ensures efficient energy extraction and optimal turbine performance.

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  • 41. 

    (233) On the AE2100D3, the forward engine mounts are located on the

    • A.

      Air inlet housing

    • B.

      Diffuser assembly

    • C.

      Sides of the PGB

    • D.

      Aft side of the PGB

    Correct Answer
    C. Sides of the PGB
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sides of the PGB". The forward engine mounts on the AE2100D3 are located on the sides of the Power Gearbox (PGB).

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  • 42. 

    (233) What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine?

    • A.

      14 stage axial-flow

    • B.

      14 stage centrifugal flow

    • C.

      16 stage axial-flow

    • D.

      16 stage centrifugal flow

    Correct Answer
    A. 14 stage axial-flow
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 14 stage axial-flow. This type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine. Axial-flow compressors use a series of rotating and stationary blades to compress the air in a straight line, resulting in a more efficient and higher-pressure airflow. The 14-stage configuration indicates that there are 14 sets of rotating and stationary blades in the compressor, allowing for greater compression and improved engine performance.

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  • 43. 

    (233) What AE2100D3 nacelle access door contains a fire door access?

    • A.

      Lower right turbine access door

    • B.

      Lower left turbine access door

    • C.

      Upper right turbine access door

    • D.

      Upper left turbine access door

    Correct Answer
    A. Lower right turbine access door
    Explanation
    The Lower right turbine access door contains a fire door access.

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  • 44. 

    The AE2100D3 engine mount is divided into how many major structures?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The AE2100D3 engine mount is divided into two major structures.

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  • 45. 

    (234) The T700 engine consists of what four modules?

    • A.

      Combustion, compressor, hot and accessory sections

    • B.

      Power turbine, accessory, compressor and hot sections

    • C.

      Compressor, combustion, cold and power turbine section

    • D.

      Accessory, compressor, combustion and power turbine section

    Correct Answer
    D. Accessory, compressor, combustion and power turbine section
    Explanation
    The T700 engine consists of four modules: the accessory section, compressor section, combustion section, and power turbine section.

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  • 46. 

    (234) What routes the oil and fuel through the T700 AGB?

    • A.

      Internal lines

    • B.

      External lines

    • C.

      Internal passages

    • D.

      External passages

    Correct Answer
    C. Internal passages
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal passages because the T700 AGB has internal passages that are responsible for routing the oil and fuel. These passages are located within the engine and are designed to ensure the proper flow of oil and fuel throughout the system. External lines and passages are not involved in this process as they are not connected to the T700 AGB.

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  • 47. 

    What is the primary method used to ensure the widest dissemination of maintenance crosstell information to highlight trends or safety conditions?

    • A.

      SMS

    • B.

      DMS

    • C.

      MMS

    • D.

      DREAMS system

    Correct Answer
    B. DMS
    Explanation
    The primary method used to ensure the widest dissemination of maintenance crosstell information to highlight trends or safety conditions is the DMS (Dynamic Message Signs) system. This system allows for the display of real-time information on electronic signs located on roadways, highways, or other transportation routes. By using the DMS system, maintenance crosstell information can be efficiently communicated to a large number of people, ensuring that the information reaches a wide audience and helps to address any maintenance issues or safety concerns.

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  • 48. 

    An IREP meeting is held at least

    • A.

      Annually.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Weekly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    An IREP (Individualized Education Program Review) meeting is a meeting held to review and update the individualized education program for a student with special needs. These meetings are typically held on a regular basis to ensure that the student's educational needs are being met effectively. Holding the meeting quarterly allows for regular monitoring and adjustment of the program, ensuring that the student's progress is being tracked and any necessary changes are made in a timely manner.

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  • 49. 

    What off-equipment level of maintenance consists primarily of testing and repair or replacement of component parts?

    • A.

      Depot.

    • B.

      Scheduled.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    C. Intermediate.
    Explanation
    Intermediate level of maintenance consists primarily of testing and repair or replacement of component parts. This level of maintenance is performed by trained technicians who have the skills and knowledge to troubleshoot and fix specific issues with the equipment. It involves more complex repairs and requires specialized tools and equipment. Intermediate maintenance is usually done at a maintenance facility or workshop, and it helps to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and can be returned to service.

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  • 50. 

    What type of maintenance is a hybrid of 3LM and 2LM that combines intermediate level maintenance from multiple bases at one location?

    • A.

      Centralized intermediate repair facility.

    • B.

      Two-level maintenance.

    • C.

      Regional repair center.

    • D.

      Depot.

    Correct Answer
    C. Regional repair center.
    Explanation
    A regional repair center is a type of maintenance that combines intermediate level maintenance from multiple bases at one location. It serves as a centralized facility where maintenance tasks are performed, allowing for efficient coordination and utilization of resources. This type of maintenance is a hybrid of 3LM (Three-Level Maintenance) and 2LM (Two-Level Maintenance) as it combines intermediate level maintenance from multiple bases, similar to 3LM, but at a single location, similar to 2LM.

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