2A651 CDC 1
Unit Review Exercise 2a651 cdc 1 practice test
- 1.
1. (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
- A.
Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.
- B.
Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.
- C.
Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance.
- D.
Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. -
- 2.
2. (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
- A.
Supervisors.
- B.
Flight commanders.
- C.
Group commanders.
- D.
Squadron commanders.
Correct Answer
A. Supervisors. -
- 3.
3. (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
- A.
Operations support center.
- B.
Logistics support squadron.
- C.
Operations support squadron.
- D.
Maintenance operations center.
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations center. -
- 4.
4. (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
- A.
Debrief.
- B.
Training.
- C.
Specialist.
- D.
Deployment.
Correct Answer
C. Specialist. -
- 5.
5. (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
- A.
NCO academy.
- B.
On-the-job training.
- C.
Career development course.
- D.
Task qualification training.
Correct Answer
C. Career development course. -
- 6.
6. (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
- A.
24.
- B.
36.
- C.
48.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
C. 48. -
- 7.
7. (003) Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
- A.
ORM.
- B.
MSDS.
- C.
AFOSH.
- D.
Flightline safety.
Correct Answer
C. AFOSH. -
- 8.
8. (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
- A.
91.
- B.
66.
- C.
127.
- D.
161.
Correct Answer
A. 91. -
- 9.
9. (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00–5–1.
- B.
00–20–1.
- C.
21–101.
- D.
21–101.
Correct Answer
C. 21–101. -
- 10.
10. (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
- A.
Lock and pin the work stands.
- B.
Check the AFTO Form 781K.
- C.
Check the intake for FOD.
- D.
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.
Correct Answer
D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. -
- 11.
11. (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.
- B.
15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.
- C.
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.
Correct Answer
C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. -
- 12.
12. (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
- A.
100.
- B.
200.
- C.
300.
- D.
400.
Correct Answer
B. 200. -
- 13.
13. (005) FOD is normally caused by
- A.
People.
- B.
Animals.
- C.
Weather.
- D.
Mechanical failure.
Correct Answer
A. People. -
- 14.
14. (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
- A.
Quality assurance.
- B.
Squadron commander.
- C.
Production supervisor.
- D.
Maintenance group commander.
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance group commander. -
- 15.
15. (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
- A.
Acetone.
- B.
Toluene.
- C.
Carbon dioxide.
- D.
Carbon monoxide.
Correct Answer
D. Carbon monoxide. -
- 16.
16. (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
- A.
Aerosols.
- B.
Liquids.
- C.
Solids.
- D.
Gases.
Correct Answer
D. Gases. -
- 17.
17. (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
- A.
Safety.
- B.
Hospital.
- C.
Supervisor.
- D.
Environmental.
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor. -
- 18.
18. (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions.
- B.
Unauthorized entry.
- C.
Overflow of materials.
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials.
Correct Answer
B. Unauthorized entry. -
- 19.
19. (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is
- A.
Dilution.
- B.
Incineration.
- C.
Land disposal.
- D.
Biodegradation.
Correct Answer
A. Dilution. -
- 20.
20. (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
- A.
Incineration.
- B.
Land disposal.
- C.
Biodegradation.
- D.
Chemico-physical treatment.
Correct Answer
A. Incineration. -
- 21.
21. (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is
- A.
Repair.
- B.
Service.
- C.
Disposal.
- D.
Retrieval.
Correct Answer
C. Disposal. -
- 22.
22. (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
- A.
Base system.
- B.
Weapons system.
- C.
Inventory system.
- D.
Geographical system.
Correct Answer
B. Weapons system. -
- 23.
23. (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
- A.
Depot Level Repair System.
- B.
Repair Cycle Support System.
- C.
Standard Base Supply System.
- D.
Precious Metals Recovery System
Correct Answer
B. Repair Cycle Support System. -
- 24.
24. (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
- A.
Overhaul.
- B.
Retest OK.
- C.
Time change.
- D.
Repair cycle support.
Correct Answer
A. Overhaul. -
- 25.
25. (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report (D18).
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04).
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30).
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register (D04). -
- 26.
26. (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?
- A.
Mission.
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Location.
- D.
Pe of aircraft.
Correct Answer
A. Mission. -
- 27.
27. (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
- A.
Origin of an item.
- B.
Why the item broke.
- C.
How long the item will take to repair.
- D.
The responsible reparable processing center.
Correct Answer
A. Origin of an item. -
- 28.
28. (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
- A.
AFMAN 23–110.
- B.
TO 00–20–2.
- C.
AFI 91–301.
- D.
TO 00–5–1.
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–20–2. -
- 29.
29. (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
- A.
AF IMT 2005.
- B.
AFTO Form 349.
- C.
AFTO Form 350.
- D.
DD Form 1574.
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 2005. -
- 30.
30. (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
- A.
23–110.
- B.
23–254.
- C.
91–110.
- D.
91–254.
Correct Answer
A. 23–110. -
- 31.
31. (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
- A.
DD Form 1574.
- B.
DD Form 1575.
- C.
DD Form 1577–2.
- D.
DD Form 1577–3.
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1575. -
- 32.
32. (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
- A.
Supply.
- B.
Shelf-life.
- C.
Inspection.
- D.
Bench stock.
Correct Answer
B. Shelf-life. -
- 33.
33. (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date.
- C.
Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.
- D.
Should be inspected or tested.
Correct Answer
C. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. -
- 34.
34. (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.
- B.
Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).
Correct Answer
C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. -
- 35.
35. (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
- A.
8.
- B.
12.
- C.
24.
- D.
72.
Correct Answer
C. 24. -
- 36.
36. (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
- A.
Shelf-life.
- B.
Bench stock.
- C.
Hazardous materials.
- D.
Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.
Correct Answer
D. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. -
- 37.
37. (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Supply chief.
Correct Answer
C. Commander. -
- 38.
38. (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the
- A.
Sectionalization of the TO.
- B.
Type of instructions found in the TO.
- C.
Category and type of equipment in the TO.
- D.
Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.
Correct Answer
C. Category and type of equipment in the TO. -
- 39.
39. (015) The second part of a TO number gives the
- A.
TO classification.
- B.
Type of equipment in the TO.
- C.
Type of instructions found in the TO.
- D.
Model and series for equipment type in the TO.
Correct Answer
D. Model and series for equipment type in the TO. -
- 40.
40. (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
- A.
Index.
- B.
Preliminary.
- C.
Methods and procedure.
- D.
Operational and maintenance.
Correct Answer
A. Index. -
- 41.
41. (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General equipment.
- B.
General system.
- C.
Fault isolation.
- D.
Job guide.
Correct Answer
D. Job guide. -
- 42.
42. (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?
- A.
Rapid action changes.
- B.
Operational supplements.
- C.
Urgent recommendations.
- D.
Time compliance technical order.
Correct Answer
C. Urgent recommendations. -
- 43.
43. (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
- A.
Introduction.
- B.
Numerical index.
- C.
Group assembly parts list.
- D.
Reference designation index.
Correct Answer
A. Introduction. -
- 44.
44. (018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
- A.
Record.
- B.
Urgent action.
- C.
Routine action.
- D.
Immediate action.
Correct Answer
D. Immediate action. -
- 45.
45. (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00–5–1.
- B.
00–5–2.
- C.
00–20–1.
- D.
00–20–2.
Correct Answer
A. 00–5–1. -
- 46.
46. (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
- A.
The text or picture will be marked in color.
- B.
The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow.
- C.
The word “changed” will be marked on the text or picture.
- D.
A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.
Correct Answer
D. A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. -
- 47.
(020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
- A.
Job guides.
- B.
Work cards.
- C.
Preliminary TOs.
- D.
Methods and procedures TOs.
Correct Answer
C. Preliminary TOs. -
- 48.
48. (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
- A.
Initiator.
- B.
Commander.
- C.
Supervisor of initiator.
- D.
Product improvement office.
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor of initiator. -
- 49.
49. (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
- A.
Urgent.
- B.
Special.
- C.
Routine.
- D.
Emergency.
Correct Answer
A. Urgent. -
- 50.
50. (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
- A.
Evident and hidden.
- B.
Potential and evident.
- C.
Hidden and functional.
- D.
Potential and functional.
Correct Answer
D. Potential and functional. -
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Jan 31, 2013Quiz Edited by
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Nov 16, 2011Quiz Created by
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