2a2x1 E-6/e-7 Skt Pretest - All Volumes (random)

593 Questions

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

A pretest from the 2A251 CDC UREs that shuffles 100 random UREs each attempt.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    • A. 

      Off-equipment.

    • B. 

      On-equipment.

    • C. 

      Preventative.

    • D. 

      Corrective.

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?
    • A. 

      Cross-tells.

    • B. 

      Self-inspecions.

    • C. 

      Technical orders.

    • D. 

      National stock numbers.

  • 3. 
    Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program?
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Wing vice-commander.

    • C. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance group superintendent.

  • 4. 
    Which maintenance capability category is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?
    • A. 

      Two-level maintenance.

    • B. 

      Organizational.

    • C. 

      Intermediate.

    • D. 

      Depot.

  • 5. 
    All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through:
    • A. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation, and the Maintenance Group Commander.

    • B. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and Maintenance Management Analysis.

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance and Maintenance Management Analysis.

  • 6. 
    What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations?
    • A. 

      Regional Repair Centers.

    • B. 

      Centralized Repair Facilities.

    • C. 

      Programmed Depot Maintenance.

    • D. 

      Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program.

  • 7. 
    What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability? 
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • B. 

      Reliability and Maintainability.

    • C. 

      Programmed Depot Maintenance.

    • D. 

      Intermediate Repair Enhancement.

  • 8. 
    Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known?
    • A. 

      1A.

    • B. 

      1B.

    • C. 

      2A.

    • D. 

      2B.

  • 9. 
    Which Maintenance Group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors?
    • A. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance.

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e., a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)?
    • A. 

      Technical orders.

    • B. 

      Support agreements.

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions.

    • D. 

      Operating instructions.

  • 11. 
    When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as:
    • A. 

      Wing OIs.

    • B. 

      Separate group OIs.

    • C. 

      Support agreements.

    • D. 

      Air Force instructions.

  • 12. 
    Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment?
    • A. 

      95.

    • B. 

      244.

    • C. 

      427.

    • D. 

      781 series.

  • 13. 
    Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer:
    • A. 

      In units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or trust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another.

    • B. 

      As long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for.

    • C. 

      To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.

    • D. 

      In the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system.

  • 14. 
    What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels
    • A. 

      781J.

    • B. 

      245.

    • C. 

      244.

    • D. 

      95.

  • 15. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?
    • A. 

      C-E Equipment Status.

    • B. 

      Job Data Documentation.

    • C. 

      Status and Inventory Reporting.

    • D. 

      Comprehensive Engine Management System.

  • 16. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem allows the user to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data?
    • A. 

      Operational Events.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Events.

    • C. 

      Job Data Documentation.

    • D. 

      Aircraft Automated Forms 781A,J,K.

  • 17. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem replaces the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions? 
    • A. 

      Operational Events.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Events.

    • C. 

      Job Data Documentation.

    • D. 

      Aircraft Automated Forms 781A,J,K.

  • 18. 
    Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual?
    • A. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis.

    • C. 

      Programs and Resources.

    • D. 

      Every User.

  • 19. 
    In addition to being familiar with the unit's assigned weapon system(s), squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least:
    • A. 

      A 5-level.

    • B. 

      A 7-level.

    • C. 

      A senior Airman.

    • D. 

      A non-commissioned officer.

  • 20. 
    What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?
    • A. 

      Metrics.

    • B. 

      Reports.

    • C. 

      Standards.

    • D. 

      Instructions.

  • 21. 
    What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?
    • A. 

      Performance and health.

    • B. 

      Trending and impacting.

    • C. 

      Positive and negative.

    • D. 

      Leading and lagging.

  • 22. 
    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?
    • A. 

      Leading.

    • B. 

      Lagging.

    • C. 

      Trending.

    • D. 

      Impacting.

  • 23. 
    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends?
    • A. 

      Leading.

    • B. 

      Lagging.

    • C. 

      Trending.

    • D. 

      Impacting.

  • 24. 
    Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 25. 
    Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program?
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Wing vice-commander.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group deputy commander.

  • 26. 
    Who is personally responsible for managing the Foreign Object Damage and Dropped Object Prevention programs?
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Wing vice-commander.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group deputy commander.

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance  and management philosophy?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Group deputy commander.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group commander.

    • C. 

      Production superintendent.

    • D. 

      Wing commander.

  • 28. 
    Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group?
    • A. 

      MXG deputy commander.

    • B. 

      Wing vice-commander.

    • C. 

      MXG superintendent.

    • D. 

      MXG commander.

  • 29. 
    Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group superintendent.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group deputy commander.

  • 30. 
    Who is held legally responsible for their unit's Environmental Protection Agency program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042, waste management?
    • A. 

      Flight commanders.

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders.

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations officers.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group commanders.

  • 31. 
    Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents?
    • A. 

      Maintenance squadron.

    • B. 

      Maintenance operations flight.

    • C. 

      Aircraft maintenance squadron.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations squadron.

  • 32. 
    Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?
    • A. 

      55.

    • B. 

      244.

    • C. 

      435.

    • D. 

      623.

  • 33. 
    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with:
    • A. 

      Accountability and control procedures.

    • B. 

      Deployments and wing-level taskings.

    • C. 

      Qualification and upgrade training.

    • D. 

      Scheduled maintenance actions.

  • 34. 
    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charged must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and materials as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing: 
    • A. 

      Accountability and control procedures.

    • B. 

      Qualification and upgrade training.

    • C. 

      Maintenance and flying schedules.

    • D. 

      Proper maintenance techniques.

  • 35. 
    When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?
    • A. 

      Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendents.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operation Center.

    • C. 

      Group manning manager.

    • D. 

      Squadron commander.

  • 36. 
    How many standard squadrons are there in a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 37. 
    Which Maintenance Operations Squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Operation Center.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Training Flight.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations.

    • D. 

      Programs and Resources.

  • 38. 
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of which Integrated Maintenance Data System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem?
    • A. 

      Location.

    • B. 

      Operational Events.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Events.

    • D. 

      Status and Inventory Reporting.

  • 39. 
    Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?
    • A. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit Specialist Section.

    • B. 

      Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    • D. 

      Engine Management.

  • 40. 
    Which Maintenance Operations Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?
    • A. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    • D. 

      Production Superintendent.

  • 41. 
    The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two secions?
    • A. 

      Education and Training; Development and Instruction.

    • B. 

      Training Management; Development and Instruction.

    • C. 

      Training Development; Instruction Management.

    • D. 

      Training Detachment; Training Management.

  • 42. 
    What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily flying operations?
    • A. 

      Transient Alert.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Flight.

    • C. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Squadron.

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit?
    • A. 

      Weapons.

    • B. 

      Debrief.

    • C. 

      Aircraft.

    • D. 

      Supply.

  • 44. 
    What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Landing status codes.

    • B. 

      Fault Isolation manuals.

    • C. 

      System capability codes.

    • D. 

      Fault Reporting manuals.

  • 45. 
    Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?
    • A. 

      Weapons expediter or Specialist expediter.

    • B. 

      Flight-line expediter or Aircraft section chief.

    • C. 

      Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.

    • D. 

      Aircraft section chief or Production Superintendent.

  • 46. 
    The Aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit's number of mission assigned aircraft is more than:
    • A. 

      14.

    • B. 

      16.

    • C. 

      18.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 47. 
    Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items managment?
    • A. 

      Avionics.

    • B. 

      Aircrafts.

    • C. 

      Specialist.

    • D. 

      Communication-Navigation.

  • 48. 
    Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?
    • A. 

      Electro-environmental specialists.

    • B. 

      Propulsion specialists.

    • C. 

      Avionics specialists.

    • D. 

      Crew chiefs.

  • 49. 
    Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?
    • A. 

      Load crew chief.

    • B. 

      Flight-line expediter.

    • C. 

      Weapons expediter.

    • D. 

      Dedicated crew chief.

  • 50. 
    Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage or alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Aircraft section.

    • B. 

      Support section.

    • C. 

      Weapons section.

    • D. 

      Armament Support section.

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Fabrication.

    • B. 

      Armament.

    • C. 

      Propulsion.

    • D. 

      Egress.

  • 52. 
    Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if the maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed;
    • A. 

      600.

    • B. 

      670.

    • C. 

      700.

    • D. 

      760.

  • 53. 
    In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?
    • A. 

      AFTO IMT 244's.

    • B. 

      Driver radios.

    • C. 

      Sub-pools.

    • D. 

      Drivers.

  • 54. 
    Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation?
    • A. 

      Guidance and Control Systems.

    • B. 

      Communication-Navigation.

    • C. 

      Avionics Intermediate.

    • D. 

      Sensors.

  • 55. 
    Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining low-altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods?
    • A. 

      Guidance and Control Systems.

    • B. 

      Communication-Navigation.

    • C. 

      Avionics Intermediate.

    • D. 

      Sensors.

  • 56. 
    Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards or aerospace-grade equipment?
    • A. 

      Low Observable.

    • B. 

      Metals Technology.

    • C. 

      Non-Destructive Inspection.

    • D. 

      Aircraft Structural Maintenance.

  • 57. 
    If a Refubishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight or the;
    • A. 

      Fabrication Flight.

    • B. 

      Accessories Flight.

    • C. 

      Aircraft Inspection Flight.

    • D. 

      Two-level Maintenance Flight.

  • 58. 
    Which Munitions Flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items?
    • A. 

      Production.

    • B. 

      Material.

    • C. 

      Systems.

    • D. 

      Support.

  • 59. 
    Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?
    • A. 

      Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.

    • B. 

      Engine Equipment Maintenance.

    • C. 

      Module/Accessory Repair.

    • D. 

      Small Gas Turbine Engine.

  • 60. 
    The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TDME) Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TDME through the;
    • A. 

      Geographically separated units.

    • B. 

      Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory.

    • C. 

      Rapid Assistance Support for Calibration.

    • D. 

      Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory.

  • 61. 
    (1) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command.

    • B. 

      Air Training Command.

    • C. 

      Air Reserve Command.

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command.

  • 62. 
    (2) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
    • A. 

      Any 7-level course.

    • B. 

      Weight and Balance.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Orientation.

    • D. 

      General Technical Order System.

  • 63. 
    (3) How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Monthly.

  • 64. 
    (4) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of;
    • A. 

      TSgt.

    • B. 

      MSgt.

    • C. 

      SMSgt.

    • D. 

      CMSgt.

  • 65. 
    (5) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time;
    • A. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • C. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • D. 

      Visibility of technical qualifications, verifications, and training statuses of personnel.

  • 66. 
    (6) In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
    • A. 

      Open suspenses.

    • B. 

      System upgrades.

    • C. 

      Application problems.

    • D. 

      Change to your user roles.

  • 67. 
    (7) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 68. 
    (8) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that compliment initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airmen (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
    • A. 

      Maintenance qualification.

    • B. 

      Maintenance refresher.

    • C. 

      On-the-job.

    • D. 

      Ancillary.

  • 69. 
    (9) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semi-annually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 70. 
    (10) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 71. 
    (11) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Operations officer.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Unit training manager.

    • D. 

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

  • 72. 
    (12) Manpower authorizations are;
    • A. 

      Funded.

    • B. 

      Unfunded.

    • C. 

      Unvalidated.

    • D. 

      Both funded and unfunded.

  • 73. 
    (13) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held;
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semi-annually.

  • 74. 
    (14) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is;
    • A. 

      12 hours.

    • B. 

      15 hours.

    • C. 

      16 hours.

    • D. 

      18 hours.

  • 75. 
    (15) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to;
    • A. 

      14 hours.

    • B. 

      15 hours.

    • C. 

      16 hours.

    • D. 

      18 hours.

  • 76. 
    (16) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supply liaison.

    • B. 

      Maintenance supply support.

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations center.

    • D. 

      Maintenance data system analysis.

  • 77. 
    (17) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the;
    • A. 

      Maintenance squadron (MXS).

    • B. 

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS).

    • C. 

      Aircraft maintenance squadron (AMXS).

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations squadron (MOS).

  • 78. 
    (18) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    • A. 

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisistions.

    • B. 

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents.

    • C. 

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

    • D. 

      Collecting and turning in expedable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

  • 79. 
    (19) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 80. 
    (20) Which expendability, recoverability, and repairability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
    • A. 

      XF3.

    • B. 

      XD2.

    • C. 

      XD1.

    • D. 

      XB3.

  • 81. 
    (21) The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      120.

  • 82. 
    (22) Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 83. 
    (23) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
    • A. 

      MXG Commander.

    • B. 

      MXG Superintendent.

    • C. 

      MXG Deputy Commancer.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

  • 84. 
    (24) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
    • A. 

      Audio Visual Center.

    • B. 

      Engineering Data Service Center.

    • C. 

      AF Primary Standards Laboratory.

    • D. 

      Communication and Information System.

  • 85. 
    (25) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    • A. 

      Oil sheen on standing water.

    • B. 

      Stressed vegetation.

    • C. 

      Stains on ground.

    • D. 

      Cloudy water.

  • 86. 
    (26) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular  workcenter?
    • A. 

      Operations officer.

    • B. 

      Section supervisor.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Squadron safety commander.

  • 87. 
    (27) Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
    • A. 

      AFTO form 20, Caution Tag.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577-1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Repairable) Tag.

  • 88. 
    (28) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment custodian?
    • A. 

      Section supervisor.

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander.

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief.

    • D. 

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

  • 89. 
    (29) What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      III.

    • C. 

      IIB.

    • D. 

      IIA.

  • 90. 
    (30) What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.

    • C. 

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.

    • D. 

      DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Propery Loss.

  • 91. 
    (31) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    • A. 

      Flight Service Center (FSC).

    • B. 

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

    • C. 

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    • D. 

      Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office.

  • 92. 
    (32) Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group deputy commander.

    • C. 

      Mission Support Group commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group commander.

  • 93. 
    (33) Which Precious Metals Indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      C.

    • C. 

      G.

    • D. 

      P.

  • 94. 
    (34) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

  • 95. 
    (35) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness report.

    • D. 

      D23, repair Cycle Asset Management List.

  • 96. 
    (36) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

  • 97. 
    (37) Who must authorize temporary storage of an in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
    • A. 

      Aircraft commander.

    • B. 

      Host installation commander.

    • C. 

      Operations Group commander.

    • D. 

      Mission Support Group commander.

  • 98. 
    (38) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, he/she must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every;
    • A. 

      Hour.

    • B. 

      2 hours.

    • C. 

      3 hours.

    • D. 

      4 hours.

  • 99. 
    (39) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    • A. 

      Flight commander/Chief.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group commander.

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

    • D. 

      MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

  • 100. 
    (40) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
    • A. 

      Customer.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Supply Support.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • D. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

  • 101. 
    (41) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
    • A. 

      1A or JA.

    • B. 

      AR or BR.

    • C. 

      AA or AM.

    • D. 

      BM or CM.

  • 102. 
    (42) Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.

    • C. 

      MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.

    • D. 

      LRS material management element.

  • 103. 
    (43) Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Monthly.

  • 104. 
    (44) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel must notify the;
    • A. 

      Operations Officer.

    • B. 

      Aircraft Section flight chief.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).

    • D. 

      Aircraft Maintenance unit's (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler.

  • 105. 
    (45) When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    • A. 

      Deficiency Report.

    • B. 

      Supply Discrepancy Report.

    • C. 

      Maintenance cross-tell report.

    • D. 

      Product Quality Deficiency Report.

  • 106. 
    (46) Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?
    • A. 

      Originator.

    • B. 

      Action point.

    • C. 

      Screening point.

    • D. 

      Originating point.

  • 107. 
    (47) Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    • A. 

      Originator.

    • B. 

      Action point.

    • C. 

      Screening point.

    • D. 

      Originating point.

  • 108. 
    (48) Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point within;
    • A. 

      8 hours.

    • B. 

      16 hours.

    • C. 

      24 hours.

    • D. 

      32 hours.

  • 109. 
    (49) Which is not normally a maintenance group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODY) duty?
    • A. 

      Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

    • B. 

      Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.

    • C. 

      Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.

    • D. 

      Resolving TO availability problems.

  • 110. 
    (50) What Maintenance Operation Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTO's) by owning and management agencies?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Managment Analysis.

    • D. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

  • 111. 
    (51) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • B. 

      Engine Management.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Data System Analysis.

  • 112. 
    (52) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
    • A. 

      Urgent.

    • B. 

      Routine.

    • C. 

      Standard.

    • D. 

      Emergency.

  • 113. 
    (53) Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
    • A. 

      A4MT.

    • B. 

      A4YE.

    • C. 

      A4U.

    • D. 

      A4BM.

  • 114. 
    (54) Who designates cannibalization authorities?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.

    • C. 

      MXG Vice Commander.

    • D. 

      MXG superintendent.

  • 115. 
    (55) If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify;
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA).

    • D. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D).

  • 116. 
     (56) Which of the following does not intitute a restricted maintenance area?
    • A. 

      Weapons loading operations.

    • B. 

      Radiographic inspections.

    • C. 

      Fuel system repair.

    • D. 

      Aircraft of jacks.

  • 117. 
    (57) Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent;
    • A. 

      Air aborts.

    • B. 

      Late takeoffs.

    • C. 

      Ground aborts.

    • D. 

      Aircraft status changes.

  • 118. 
    (58) Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.

    • B. 

      MXG Impoundment Release Authority.

    • C. 

      Applicable Impoundment Authority.

    • D. 

      Applicable Squadron Commander.

  • 119. 
    (59) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander (WG/CC).

    • B. 

      Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV).

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).

  • 120. 
    (60) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      9.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      11.

  • 121. 
    (61) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the;
    • A. 

      Maintenance Flight.

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance section.

    • C. 

      Engine Management section.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

  • 122. 
    (62) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      24.

    • D. 

      48.

  • 123. 
    (63) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
    • A. 

      Bolt.

    • B. 

      Panel.

    • C. 

      Safety pin.

    • D. 

      Explosive munitions.

  • 124. 
    (64) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or propert damage must be reported IAW;
    • A. 

      AFI 10-206, Operational reporting.

    • B. 

      AFI 10-2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.

    • C. 

      AFI 91-224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.

    • D. 

      AFI 91-221, Weapons Safety Investigations and reports.

  • 125. 
    (65) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
    • A. 

      AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.

    • B. 

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • C. 

      AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing.

    • D. 

      AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

  • 126. 
    (66) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
    • A. 

      Wing Inspector General.

    • B. 

      MAJCOM Inspector General.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CC).

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

  • 127. 
    (67) When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      120.

  • 128. 
    (68) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
    • A. 

      Quality Verification Inspection.

    • B. 

      Management Inspection.

    • C. 

      Personnel Evaluation.

    • D. 

      Special Inspection.

  • 129. 
    (69) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    • A. 

      Special Inspection.

    • B. 

      Personnel Inspection.

    • C. 

      Management Inspection.

    • D. 

      Quality Verification Inspection.

  • 130. 
    What factor gives the Air Force wings, squadrons, and units the capability of fighting from either main bases or bare bones forward operating locations at any level of combat?
    • A. 

      Centralization

    • B. 

      Decentralization

    • C. 

      Strategic intelligence

    • D. 

      Dispersed flying units

  • 131. 
    Who ensures the wing's quality assurance program is viable and implemented?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • C. 

      Operations Group Commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Squadron Commander

  • 132. 
    Who monitors new requirements for training, equipment authorizations, special tools, work space, facilities, and manning?
    • A. 

      Section Chief

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent

  • 133. 
    Who manages the squadron's cannibalization program?
    • A. 

      Section Chief

    • B. 

      Flight line Expediter

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent

  • 134. 
    Whose role is it to assess, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition; and improve reliability/maintainability of aircraft and support equipment?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance

    • C. 

      Weapons Standardization

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

  • 135. 
    Who or what coordinating/facilitating entity is responsible for monitoring and supporting the flight line maintenance effort?
    • A. 

      Weapons Operation Center (WOC)

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • C. 

      Operations Group/Commander (OG/CC)

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group/Commander (MXG/CC)

  • 136. 
    Which activities are a responsibiltiy of the maintenance operations center?
    • A. 

      Review the guidance provided by the Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander on cross-functional areas

    • B. 

      Ensure maintenance training is provided office, classroom, and hangar space

    • C. 

      Notify appropriate agencies of severe weather warnings

    • D. 

      Ensure quality assurance guidelines are being followed

  • 137. 
    What publication contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and employing Air Force resources?
    • A. 

      Air Force manuals

    • B. 

      Air Force policy directives

    • C. 

      Air Force mission directives

    • D. 

      Air Force doctrine documents

  • 138. 
    What are Air Force policy directives?
    • A. 

      Directives that prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, responsibilities, and command relationships of AF units.

    • B. 

      Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by AF activities at any level

    • C. 

      Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff and issued as departmental publications

    • D. 

      Guidance documents consisting of procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks

  • 139. 
    Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force that have been approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff and issued as departmental publications are called
    • A. 

      Air Force mission directives

    • B. 

      Air Force policy directives

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions

    • D. 

      Air Force manuals

  • 140. 
    Procedures of detailed "how-to" instructions are not to appear within what publication?
    • A. 

      Air Force manuals

    • B. 

      Air Force instructions

    • C. 

      Air Force mission directives

    • D. 

      Air Force policy directives

  • 141. 
    What document consists of procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks?
    • A. 

      Mission directives

    • B. 

      Air Force manuals

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions

    • D. 

      Air Force policy directives

  • 142. 
    Informational publications that include procedures for implementing Air Force policies are called
    • A. 

      Indexes

    • B. 

      Pamphlets

    • C. 

      Directories

    • D. 

      Supplements

  • 143. 
    Informational publications that guide, point out, or otherwise facilitate research are called
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Directories

    • C. 

      Pamphlets

    • D. 

      Indexes

  • 144. 
    Informational publications that are compilations of systematically arranged information are called
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Directories

    • C. 

      Pamphlets

    • D. 

      Indexes

  • 145. 
    Who uses Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) System information for validating manpower requirements?
    • A. 

      Commander (CC)

    • B. 

      Work center supervisors

    • C. 

      Air Force Logistic Command (AFLC)

    • D. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

  • 146. 
    What is the primary source of information for equipment configuration status at base, command, and depot levels?
    • A. 

      Maintenance cost system (MCS)

    • B. 

      Maintenance data collection (MDC)

    • C. 

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    • D. 

      Advanced Configuration Management System (ACMS)

  • 147. 
    The Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) is designed to provide information to support Air Force
    • A. 

      Document production data for the maintenance data collection (MDC)

    • B. 

      Data for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    • C. 

      Data for the Defense Data Network (DDN)

    • D. 

      Equipment maintenance program

  • 148. 
    The Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) System data element used to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job is the
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      Job control number

    • D. 

      Identification number

  • 149. 
    The first five digits of a job control number (JCN) indicate the
    • A. 

      Year and Julian date

    • B. 

      Last five digits of the equipment serial number

    • C. 

      First five digits of the equipment serial number

    • D. 

      Month and year that the maintenance discrepancy was discovered

  • 150. 
    What five-character Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) System data element is used to identify systems or subsystems that require maintenance?
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Job control number

    • C. 

      Identification number

    • D. 

      Standard reporting designator

  • 151. 
    What is entered in column C of AFTO Form 349, Maintenance Data Collection Record, to document a time compliance technical order (TCTO)?
    • A. 

      The work unit code (WUC)

    • B. 

      The TCTO support general code

    • C. 

      First five characters of the national item identification number

    • D. 

      First five characters of the TCTO data code or command-assigned data code

  • 152. 
    An entry of any number greater than 1 in the column G of AFTO Form 349, Maintenance Data Collection Record, indicates the number of
    • A. 

      Units completed

    • B. 

      Units requiring maintenance

    • C. 

      Technicians per unit of work

    • D. 

      Times the action taken was performed

  • 153. 
    What form is used as an accountability document for items managed under the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) program?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 244

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 781

  • 154. 
    Dates entered on AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, that pertain to repair cycle times are used
    • A. 

      To identify time change requirements

    • B. 

      For establishing equipment need dates

    • C. 

      For determining manpower requirements

    • D. 

      As an aid in determining spares requirements

  • 155. 
    What is entered in block 15 of AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, if an item is not repairable?
    • A. 

      A description of the malfunction

    • B. 

      A brief description of the repair efforts

    • C. 

      Signature of the performing work center supervisor

    • D. 

      The letters for not repairable this station (NRTS) and the NRTS code

  • 156. 
    When is an entry required in the stock record account number (SRAN) code block of AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag?
    • A. 

      Upon completion of the repair action

    • B. 

      For on-equipment maintenance actions

    • C. 

      For off-equipment maintenance actions

    • D. 

      When a not repairable this station (NRTS) determination is made

  • 157. 
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a
    • A. 

      Base-level computer system used for supply management

    • B. 

      Command-level computer system used for supply management

    • C. 

      Base-level computer system used for maintenance management

    • D. 

      Command-level computer system used for maintenance management

  • 158. 
    Maintenance personnel use the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) to communicate with the base computer system by using
    • A. 

      Punched cards

    • B. 

      Preprinted forms

    • C. 

      A remote terminal

    • D. 

      A telephone modem

  • 159. 
    Correcting erroneous data is a function of
    • A. 

      Data reporting

    • B. 

      Information retrieval

    • C. 

      Database management

    • D. 

      The error detection subsystem

  • 160. 
    How often are Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports produced and sent to higher headquarters?
    • A. 

      Whenever requested

    • B. 

      At scheduled intervals

    • C. 

      At the end of each duty day

    • D. 

      Whenever the form entry count reaches 500

  • 161. 
    What Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen allows the operator to schedule jobs for the work center?
    • A. 

      53

    • B. 

      54

    • C. 

      380

    • D. 

      907

  • 162. 
    The primary purpose of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen 380 is to
    • A. 

      Provide an up-to-date list of open job control numbers (JCN)

    • B. 

      Provide an opportunity to modify entries found to be in error

    • C. 

      Generate a new JCN and show time spent against this number

    • D. 

      Maintain the present data and status of the YR/EVENT IDs and work center events (WCE)

  • 163. 
    An online inquirey option can be selected from Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen 099 by inputting the
    • A. 

      Option number

    • B. 

      ID ASSIGNED and the option number

    • C. 

      YR/EVENT ID and the option number

    • D. 

      YR/EVENT ID, work center event (WCE), and the option number

  • 164. 
    Which is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?
    • A. 

      Mission scheduling

    • B. 

      Maintenance scheduling

    • C. 

      Personnel leave scheduling

    • D. 

      Personnel training management

  • 165. 
    Under the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System profanity program, who is not contacted by the G081 system when profanity is detected?
    • A. 

      Headquarters (HQ) Air Mobility Command (AMC)

    • B. 

      Logistics group commander

    • C. 

      G081 management section

    • D. 

      G081 system user

  • 166. 
    Of the four types of programs used in the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System, which is considered to be the "heart" of the system?
    • A. 

      Variable Information Retrieval Program (VIRP)

    • B. 

      Data output

    • C. 

      Data input

    • D. 

      Batch

  • 167. 
    Users of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System know they are logged out when they see which word on the computer screen?
    • A. 

      BYE

    • B. 

      END

    • C. 

      MOBILITY

    • D. 

      MAINTENANCE

  • 168. 
    Supply discipline is best described as
    • A. 

      Extra consideration to get the most from available resources

    • B. 

      Protection given to Air Force (AF) resources

    • C. 

      Instructions given to protect AF resources

    • D. 

      Command-directed supply procedures

  • 169. 
    Supply discipline starts with
    • A. 

      Each individual

    • B. 

      Your supervisor

    • C. 

      Your commander

    • D. 

      Your branch chief

  • 170. 
    Who is accountable for equipment items?
    • A. 

      Supply personnel and equipment custodians

    • B. 

      Resource advisors and equipment custodians

    • C. 

      Maintenance personnel and resource advisors

    • D. 

      Equipment manufacturers and supply personnel

  • 171. 
    What Supply printout provides the user a list of all parts ordered, but not received?
    • A. 

      Daily document register

    • B. 

      Due-out validation listing

    • C. 

      Mission capability (MICAP) status report

    • D. 

      Custodian authorization and custody receipt list

  • 172. 
    What type of property responsibility is applicable when a sergeant takes possession of a box that fell of an Air Force supply truck?
    • A. 

      Custodial

    • B. 

      Command

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 173. 
    When a person who is responsible for property is transferred, and the property remains with the organization, property responsibility
    • A. 

      Is dropped

    • B. 

      Remains with the person

    • C. 

      Stays in the organization

    • D. 

      Is transferred to the supply squadron

  • 174. 
    What document is used to explain and record the circumstances involving the loss, damage, or destruction of government equipment item that cost more than $500?
    • A. 

      Report of survey

    • B. 

      A statement of charges

    • C. 

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order

    • D. 

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges for Government Property Lost, Damage, or Destroyed

  • 175. 
    What document is used to acquire a piece of nonexpendable equipment?
    • A. 

      Allowance Standards

    • B. 

      Custodian authorization/custody receipt

    • C. 

      AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1, DOD Single Line Item Release\Receipt Document

  • 176. 
    The purpose for the aircraft parts store is to
    • A. 

      Support the normal supply squadron functions

    • B. 

      Make assets immediately available to the using activity

    • C. 

      Maintain accurate supply records for each using activity

    • D. 

      Provide one-time issue of tools for maintenance personnel

  • 177. 
    The on-hand quantity of bench stock items does not normally exceed how many days?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 178. 
    How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
    • A. 

      Uses process standardization

    • B. 

      Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle

    • C. 

      Allows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances

    • D. 

      Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field

  • 179. 
    Personnel at the originating point are responsible for all except which action?
    • A. 

      Screening

    • B. 

      Identifying

    • C. 

      Discovery

    • D. 

      Documenting

  • 180. 
    What type of deficiency report requires submission by message within three workdays after the discovery of the deficiency?
    • A. 

      CAT I

    • B. 

      CAT II

    • C. 

      Material

    • D. 

      Software

  • 181. 
    Who determines the supply delivery priority based on the severity of the malfunction and its impact on the mission?
    • A. 

      Technician

    • B. 

      Base supply

    • C. 

      Lead technician

    • D. 

      Production Superintendent

  • 182. 
    What Urgency Justification Code would be used for a routine aircraft part?
    • A. 

      AA

    • B. 

      BA

    • C. 

      CA

    • D. 

      DA

  • 183. 
    The Air Force technical order (TO) numbering system is explained in detail in TO
    • A. 

      0-4-2

    • B. 

      0-1-01

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-18

  • 184. 
    The first group of characters in Air Force technocal order (TO) number 33D7-10-1 identifies the
    • A. 

      Kind of TO

    • B. 

      Equipment's major system

    • C. 

      Specific item of requipment

    • D. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

  • 185. 
    The fourth group of characters in the Air Force technical order (TO) number 1B-1B-2-6 identifies the
    • A. 

      Kind of TO

    • B. 

      Specific item of equipment

    • C. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

    • D. 

      Equipment model or part number

  • 186. 
    In the Air Force technical order (TO) system, an index TO contains
    • A. 

      A listing of other TOs

    • B. 

      An index of TO revisions

    • C. 

      A group breakdown of category-specific TOs

    • D. 

      A group breakdown of major Air Force equipment

  • 187. 
    In the Air Force technical order (TO) system, what TO index lists all authorized indexes?
    • A. 

      0-1-1

    • B. 

      0-1-01

    • C. 

      0-1-1-1

    • D. 

      0-1-1-2

  • 188. 
    In the Air Force technical order (TO) system, what index TO contains a cross-reference listing of data code numbers assigned to active time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?
    • A. 

      0-4-1

    • B. 

      0-4-2

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-2

  • 189. 
    Air Force technical manuals that contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment are called
    • A. 

      Job guides

    • B. 

      Aircraft TOs

    • C. 

      Commercial manuals

    • D. 

      Other equipment TOs

  • 190. 
    Publications that contain instructions for use of equipment, in addition to data contained in other manuals, are identified as
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Other equipment TOs

    • C. 

      Supplemental manuals

    • D. 

      Commercial off-the-shelf manuals

  • 191. 
    In the Air Force, commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) technical manuals are normally identified by an
    • A. 

      Assigned TO number

    • B. 

      Equipment part number

    • C. 

      Air Force stock number

    • D. 

      Equipment manufacturer ID number

  • 192. 
    What Air Force technical order (TO) is not a type of time compliance technical order (TCTO)?
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Interim

    • C. 

      Urgent action

    • D. 

      Emergency action

  • 193. 
    What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) can be identified by red border markings - either red Xs or circled red Xs alternately spaced?
    • A. 

      Routine and urgent

    • B. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • C. 

      Routine and emergency

    • D. 

      Emergency and immediate

  • 194. 
    Interim time compliance technical order (TCTO) are normally replaced by formal TCTOs within a maximum time period of
    • A. 

      7 days

    • B. 

      10 days

    • C. 

      36 hours

    • D. 

      48 hours

  • 195. 
    What letters are contained in the numerical designator of a checklist technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      CL

    • B. 

      LC

    • C. 

      WC

    • D. 

      CW

  • 196. 
    What type of number identified a technical order (TO) as a preliminary TO?
    • A. 

      TO number

    • B. 

      Change number

    • C. 

      Supplement number

    • D. 

      Sequential copy number

  • 197. 
    Where are change pages inserted in existing technical orders (TO)?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      After the page of the same number

    • C. 

      Before the page of the same number

    • D. 

      In place of the page of the same number

  • 198. 
    The authorized types of technical order (TO) supplements are
    • A. 

      Routine, safety, and formal

    • B. 

      Routine, safety, and operational

    • C. 

      Safety, operational, and interim

    • D. 

      Interim, safety, and operational

  • 199. 
    Which statement best describes technical order page supplements (TOPS)?
    • A. 

      Like standard TO supplements, TOPS replace outdated TO pages

    • B. 

      Unlike standard TO supplements, TOPS do not include a title page

    • C. 

      TOPS can be issued when the time factor prevents issuing a standard change

    • D. 

      TOPS can be issued only when procedural changes could cause personal injury

  • 200. 
    In a basic technical order (TO), how are the pages of an appendix filed?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      In front of the title page of the TO

    • C. 

      In page number sequence throughout the TO

    • D. 

      In section number sequence throughout the TO

  • 201. 
    The types of technical order (TO) improvements are
    • A. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • B. 

      Emergency and urgent

    • C. 

      Emergency, urgent, and routine

    • D. 

      Emergency, immediate, and routine

  • 202. 
    The alpha identifiers used in the organization maintenance manual set (OMMS) are
    • A. 

      GS, JG, FA, WD, IPB

    • B. 

      GS, JG, FR, WD, IPB

    • C. 

      GS, GV, JG, FR, WR, IPB

    • D. 

      GS, GV, JG, FR, WD, IPB

  • 203. 
    The number 32-11-10-110-6 is an example of what type of organization maintenance manual set (OMMS) reference number?
    • A. 

      Reference designator

    • B. 

      Ground readiness test number

    • C. 

      SRU system/subsystem number

    • D. 

      SRU system/subsystem/subject number

  • 204. 
    What does the -003 in system/subsystem/subject number 34-11-10-003 identify?
    • A. 

      Shop replaceable unit (SRU) identification

    • B. 

      Line replaceable unit (LRU) identification

    • C. 

      Functional procedure

    • D. 

      General procedure

  • 205. 
    What does the alpha code in reference designator 3231FC01 identify?
    • A. 

      Sub-subsystem

    • B. 

      Component type

    • C. 

      Diagram reference

    • D. 

      Line replaceable unit (LRU) identification

  • 206. 
    What type of organization maintenance manual set (OMMS) manual would you use to find an overall description of aircraft systems?
    • A. 

      Wiring data

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      General vehicle

    • D. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown

  • 207. 
    A job guide (JG) manual includes
    • A. 

      General systems theory

    • B. 

      Output conditions pages

    • C. 

      Functional maintenance procedures

    • D. 

      A means of identifying and reporting faults

  • 208. 
    Section I of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides information on use of codes and designations found in the technical order and a
    • A. 

      Table of contents for the IPB

    • B. 

      List of related technical orders (TO)

    • C. 

      List of part numbers cross-referenced to stock numbers

    • D. 

      Cross-reference information on related supply publications

  • 209. 
    The introduction to sectio I of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides the user the capability of cross-referencing
    • A. 

      Part numbers and figure numbers

    • B. 

      Part numbers and reference designators

    • C. 

      Reference designators and index numbers

    • D. 

      Reference designators and figure numbers

  • 210. 
    In section IV of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB), reference designations are arranged
    • A. 

      Numerically

    • B. 

      Alphabetically

    • C. 

      Alphanumerically

    • D. 

      By order of assembly

  • 211. 
    The data system used to assign and control computer program identification numbers (CPIN) is the
    • A. 

      Embedded computer system (ECS)

    • B. 

      Computer software component (CSC)

    • C. 

      Computer software configuration item (CSCI)

    • D. 

      Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS)

  • 212. 
    The Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) provides a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except
    • A. 

      Manage software

    • B. 

      Develop software

    • C. 

      Identify software

    • D. 

      Distribute software

  • 213. 
    Which major functions of the Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) provides a short summary of information for each computer program identification numbers (CPIN)?
    • A. 

      Compendium requirements

    • B. 

      Interactive CPIN assignments

    • C. 

      Compendiums and cross-references

    • D. 

      CPIN data entry and database management

  • 214. 
    United States Air Force customers must establish computer program identification numbers (CPIN) requirements through
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) contractors

    • B. 

      Technical order distribution office (TODO)

    • C. 

      Administrative contract officers

    • D. 

      Procuring contract officers

  • 215. 
    How many separate components may a computer program identification numbers (CPIN) have?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 216. 
    A computer program identification numbers (CPIN) prefix indicates that the CPIN is
    • A. 

      A revision

    • B. 

      Identified for a specific category

    • C. 

      Assigned a major function identifier

    • D. 

      Assigned to a country standard CSCI

  • 217. 
    How many computer program identification numbers (CPIN) identifier fields are there?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 218. 
    In the computer program identification numbers (CPIN) identifier, the first field consists of
    • A. 

      Software-tupe code

    • B. 

      CSCI baseline code

    • C. 

      Subsystem and system codes

    • D. 

      Category and major function codes

  • 219. 
    How many general types of Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) compendiums are there?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 220. 
    An Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) cross-reference compendium contains
    • A. 

      Command managed CPINS

    • B. 

      Quick reference for research aids

    • C. 

      A list of currently published ACPINS compendiums

    • D. 

      Computer software configuration items (CSCI) assigned to major equipment

  • 221. 
    An Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) command compendium contains
    • A. 

      Equipment to part number computer program identification numbers (CPINS)

    • B. 

      Country standard computer software configuration items (CSCI)

    • C. 

      CPINs identified with a MAJCOM designator

    • D. 

      CSCIs assigned to fields of technology

  • 222. 
    If you wanted to address inquiries on a classification interpretation, then what section of the security classification guide would you use?
    • A. 

      Operational data

    • B. 

      General Instructions

    • C. 

      Release of information

    • D. 

      Performance and capabilities

  • 223. 
    Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?
    • A. 

      Hardware

    • B. 

      Operational data

    • C. 

      Performance and capabilities

    • D. 

      Funding, procurement, and production

  • 224. 
    The SF 702, Security Container Check Sheet, is used to
    • A. 

      List and record security inspection items

    • B. 

      Approve the storage of classified material

    • C. 

      Document opening and closure of the security container

    • D. 

      Provide an inventory of classified material in the security container

  • 225. 
    If you order a Secret classified asset from base supply, what do you need to receive custory of the asset?
    • A. 

      Have a military identification card and a valid need to know

    • B. 

      Hold a top secret security clearance and a valid need to know

    • C. 

      Have a valid need to know and be listed on an authorized roster

    • D. 

      Have a military identification card and be listed on an authorized roster

  • 226. 
    What safeguarding is necessary for top-secret equipment installed aboard an aircraft without priority A designation?
    • A. 

      Use an intrusion detection system

    • B. 

      Check the aircraft every three hours

    • C. 

      Park the aircraft in a restricted area for priority B

    • D. 

      Take no further action if owner/user stays with the aircraft

  • 227. 
    In the event of an emergency landing, responsibility for the security of classified equipment on an aircraft rests with the
    • A. 

      Aircraft commander

    • B. 

      Unit commander

    • C. 

      Allied base commander

    • D. 

      Receiving base's wing commander

  • 228. 
    Which structural area is designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
    • A. 

      Doors

    • B. 

      Nacelles

    • C. 

      Windows

    • D. 

      Plates and skins

  • 229. 
    Which major aircraft structural area provides support for engines?
    • A. 

      Wings

    • B. 

      Nacelles

    • C. 

      Fuselage

    • D. 

      Stabilizers

  • 230. 
    Which structural area is not considered a major aircraft structural area?
    • A. 

      Windows

    • B. 

      Fuselage

    • C. 

      Stabilizers

    • D. 

      Wing carry-through

  • 231. 
    How does independent positioning determine subsystems function of aircraft systems?
    • A. 

      By recording radar data

    • B. 

      By calculating aircraft velocity

    • C. 

      Independent of inertial navigation

    • D. 

      Independent of ground equipment

  • 232. 
    Which display is not part of an engine indicating system?
    • A. 

      Fuel flow

    • B. 

      Oil quantity

    • C. 

      Engine vibration

    • D. 

      Water temperature

  • 233. 
    When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
    • A. 

      From the side of the wheel

    • B. 

      At a 45° angle to the wheel

    • C. 

      From the front or behind the wheel

    • D. 

      Only after the blowout screen is in place

  • 234. 
    What happens when radiofrequency (RF) energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
    • A. 

      Nothing

    • B. 

      Heat is produced

    • C. 

      Your heart beats irregularly

    • D. 

      Your internal organs start deteriorating

  • 235. 
    The minimum safe distance from a high-frequency (HF) antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
    • A. 

      1 foot

    • B. 

      3 feet

    • C. 

      5 feet

    • D. 

      10 feet

  • 236. 
    The variables upon which radiation hazards depend does not include which of the following?
    • A. 

      Time of exposure

    • B. 

      Strength of emission

    • C. 

      Experience of the operator

    • D. 

      Number of units operating in the area

  • 237. 
    The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is
    • A. 

      75 dBA (decibels)

    • B. 

      84 dBA

    • C. 

      96 dBA

    • D. 

      100 dBA

  • 238. 
    The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is located to the rear of the engine though an angle of how many degrees on either side?
    • A. 

      30°

    • B. 

      45°

    • C. 

      60°

    • D. 

      90°

  • 239. 
    Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate that a person is suffering from overexposure to noise?
    • A. 

      Nausea

    • B. 

      Vomiting

    • C. 

      Dizziness

    • D. 

      Unconsciousness

  • 240. 
    Which of the following actions is not a required action when working around moving machinery?
    • A. 

      Wearing loose, comfortable clothing

    • B. 

      Buttoning your shirt cuffs

    • C. 

      Taking off your rings

    • D. 

      Taking off your watch

  • 241. 
    Guidelines for different areas of fire prevention on the flight line can be found in the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard
    • A. 

      91-45

    • B. 

      91-56

    • C. 

      91-301

    • D. 

      91-302

  • 242. 
    Which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance (PDM) inspection concept?
    • A. 

      ACC

    • B. 

      AMC

    • C. 

      AFSOC

    • D. 

      All units regardless of MAJCOM

  • 243. 
    Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Preflight

    • C. 

      End-of-runway

    • D. 

      Basic postflight

  • 244. 
    Which type of inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Preflight

    • C. 

      End-of-runway

    • D. 

      Basic postflight

  • 245. 
    When is the thruflight (TH) inspection performed?
    • A. 

      After the last flight of the day

    • B. 

      Before the aircraft goes on alert

    • C. 

      Prior to takeoff and at intermediate stops

    • D. 

      After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed

  • 246. 
    Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Major

    • C. 

      Phase

    • D. 

      Periodic

  • 247. 
    Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
    • A. 

      Major

    • B. 

      Phase

    • C. 

      Preflight

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 248. 
    When the home station check (HSC) inspection becomes due during a long range mission, it is completed at the base
    • A. 

      To which the aircraft belongs

    • B. 

      Where the first intermediate stop is made

    • C. 

      From which the mission is being performed

    • D. 

      Nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due

  • 249. 
    Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
    • A. 

      Special inspection

    • B. 

      Operator inspection

    • C. 

      Acceptance inspection

    • D. 

      Periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication

  • 250. 
    When are acceptance inspections performed?
    • A. 

      Equipment is being transferred

    • B. 

      Newly assigned equipment arrives

    • C. 

      Directed by a major command or local policy

    • D. 

      As stated in the applicable technical order

  • 251. 
    Malfunctions documented on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Equipment Maintenance Record, are the responsibility of
    • A. 

      Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE) mechanics

    • B. 

      Flight line technicians

    • C. 

      Propulsion mechanics

    • D. 

      Avionics backshop personnel

  • 252. 
    Part V of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document
    • A. 

      Item identification

    • B. 

      Scheduled inspections

    • C. 

      Nonscheduled inspections

    • D. 

      Maintenance/delayed discrepancies

  • 253. 
    The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft
    • A. 

      Inspections

    • B. 

      Flight records

    • C. 

      Configurations

    • D. 

      Component repairs

  • 254. 
    Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781B

    • C. 

      781K

    • D. 

      781L

  • 255. 
    Who ensures the job control number is entered on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A?
    • A. 

      Technician

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Crew chief

    • D. 

      Aircrew member

  • 256. 
    Which type of information is required in the correction active block of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A?
    • A. 

      Description of the corrective action

    • B. 

      Technical order references

    • C. 

      Techician's signature

    • D. 

      Supervisor's signature

  • 257. 
    Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781B

    • C. 

      781H

    • D. 

      781J

  • 258. 
    Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H?
    • A. 

      Pilot

    • B. 

      Crew chief

    • C. 

      Engine technician

    • D. 

      Production supervisor

  • 259. 
    Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data to include operating time?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781J

    • C. 

      781K

    • D. 

      781L

  • 260. 
    Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781B

    • C. 

      781K

    • D. 

      781L

  • 261. 
    To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, you would use which form?
    • A. 

      AFTO form 244

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 781K

    • C. 

      AF Form 1492, WARNING TAG

    • D. 

      AF Form 979, DANGER TAG

  • 262. 
    Which portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?
    • A. 

      The bottom portion

    • B. 

      The top portion

    • C. 

      Neither

    • D. 

      Both

  • 263. 
    The accumulation of an electrical charge on the surface of a material is referred to as static
    • A. 

      Cling

    • B. 

      Discharge

    • C. 

      Generation

    • D. 

      Electricity

  • 264. 
    Which condition helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
    • A. 

      Using nonconducting packaging materials

    • B. 

      Using proper insulating materials

    • C. 

      Dehumidified air

    • D. 

      Humid air

  • 265. 
    Which option is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) components?
    • A. 

      Using protective tote boxes

    • B. 

      Covering line replaceable unit (LRU) connector plugs

    • C. 

      Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation

    • D. 

      Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft

  • 266. 
    Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an electrostatic discharge (ESD)
    • A. 

      Use of ionizers

    • B. 

      Wearing of personal clothing

    • C. 

      Improper use of conductive bags

    • D. 

      Improper use of conductive tote boxes

  • 267. 
    Shielded cable consists of
    • A. 

      A metallic braid over the insulation

    • B. 

      A metal conductor covered with a dielectric

    • C. 

      An inner conductor separated by an insulation dielectric

    • D. 

      A compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies

  • 268. 
    Which type of cable is used to carry radio frequency (RF) power from one point to another?
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic pulse (EMP)

    • B. 

      Coaxial

    • C. 

      Shielded

    • D. 

      Insulated wire

  • 269. 
    Which option is not a type of connector coupling?
    • A. 

      Friction

    • B. 

      Bayonet

    • C. 

      Insertion

    • D. 

      Threaded

  • 270. 
    Which of the following is not a radiofrequency (RF) connector precaution?
    • A. 

      Never step on the cable

    • B. 

      Ensure a good grip when using pliers

    • C. 

      Ensure you solder double shielded cables together

    • D. 

      Ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable

  • 271. 
    Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
    • A. 

      Stretching of the glass fibers

    • B. 

      Greater elasticity of the glass fibers

    • C. 

      Reduced optical power transmission

    • D. 

      Good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing

  • 272. 
    Which feature is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire?
    • A. 

      Immunity to electromagnetic interference

    • B. 

      Low attenuation

    • C. 

      Light weight

    • D. 

      Cost

  • 273. 
    When you are performing electrical soldering, you should always use which particular type of solder?
    • A. 

      Rosin core

    • B. 

      Acid core

    • C. 

      Hard

    • D. 

      Soft

  • 274. 
    Rosin core flux must be used for electrical soldering because it has
    • A. 

      Softer materials

    • B. 

      Harder materials

    • C. 

      Noncorrosive effects

    • D. 

      A lower melting point

  • 275. 
    Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves
    • A. 

      Cooling the iron by dipping in water

    • B. 

      Jerking the iron to remove excess solder

    • C. 

      Tapping an iron on a table to remove excess solder

    • D. 

      Keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it

  • 276. 
    Which piece of equipment material is not a type of solderless connector?
    • A. 

      Splice

    • B. 

      Terminal lug

    • C. 

      Connector splice

    • D. 

      Connector plug pins

  • 277. 
    Which type of solderless connector is used to permit easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?
    • A. 

      Splice

    • B. 

      Terminal lug

    • C. 

      Connector splice

    • D. 

      Connector plug pins

  • 278. 
    Crimping tools were developed to ensure crimps
    • A. 

      Are properly stripped

    • B. 

      Are insulated correctly

    • C. 

      Could be quickly accomplished

    • D. 

      Have a good mechanical connection

  • 279. 
    One purpose of crimper positioners is to
    • A. 

      Align crimper handles to pin contact

    • B. 

      Put pin contacts in the proper position

    • C. 

      Put the turret head in line with pin contact

    • D. 

      Adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins

  • 280. 
    One way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use
    • A. 

      Silicone tape

    • B. 

      Silicone caulking

    • C. 

      Heat shrinkable tape

    • D. 

      Electrical wrapping tape

  • 281. 
    The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Tool operator

    • B. 

      Air/nitrogen regulator

    • C. 

      Temperature controller

    • D. 

      Tubular heating element

  • 282. 
    As a flight line technician, you can repair up to which percent of which circumference of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) hardened cable?
    • A. 

      20 percent of the inner shield

    • B. 

      20 percent of the outer shield

    • C. 

      25 percent of the inner shield

    • D. 

      25 percent of the outer shield

  • 283. 
    You are repairing damaged copper foil tape on an electrimagnetic pulse (EMP) hardened cable, which type of tape would you use as the final wrap to the repaired area?
    • A. 

      Monel shielding

    • B. 

      Copper shielding

    • C. 

      Silicone self-bonding

    • D. 

      Pressure sensitive polyester

  • 284. 
    Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in technical order (TO)
    • A. 

      1-1A-14

    • B. 

      1-1A-15

    • C. 

      1-1A-16

    • D. 

      1-1A-18

  • 285. 
    What is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling?
    • A. 

      Prevents slipping

    • B. 

      Lessens tendencies to cut wire insulation

    • C. 

      Promotes moisture and fungus resistance

    • D. 

      Fulfills temperature requirements for tying materials

  • 286. 
    Which of the following is not considered to be a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?
    • A. 

      Lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping

    • B. 

      Tie all wire groups or bundles twelve inches or less apart

    • C. 

      Do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundle that is located inside a conduit

    • D. 

      When tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to avoid playing (spreading) of contacts

  • 287. 
    Which amplitude-modulated (AM) transmitter stage isolates the master oscillator from the multiplier and amplifier load?
    • A. 

      Buffer amplifier

    • B. 

      Audio amplifier

    • C. 

      Power amplifier

    • D. 

      Frequency multiplier

  • 288. 
    The circuit used in an amplitude-modulated (AM) transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is a
    • A. 

      Buffer amplifier

    • B. 

      Audio amplifier

    • C. 

      Power amplifier

    • D. 

      Frequency multiplier

  • 289. 
    To achieve amplitude-modulated (AM) modulation, which amplifier is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signal?
    • A. 

      Linear

    • B. 

      Power

    • C. 

      Balanced

    • D. 

      Nonlinear

  • 290. 
    Which option is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?
    • A. 

      Frequency

    • B. 

      Amplitude

    • C. 

      Phase

    • D. 

      Rate

  • 291. 
    In a frequency-modulation (FM) signal, what determines the rate at which deviaton takes place?
    • A. 

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

    • B. 

      Frequency of the modulating signal

    • C. 

      Phase of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Slope of the modulating signal

  • 292. 
    In a frequency-modulation (FM) signal, the amount of separation between the sideband frequencies is determined by the
    • A. 

      Amount equal to the modulating signal

    • B. 

      Amount equal to the carrier frequency

    • C. 

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Rate of carrier swing

  • 293. 
    What is the bandwitdth of a frequency-modulation (FM) signal if a 5-kilohertz (kHz) modulating tone causes the gerneration of 12 sidebands above and below the carrier frequency?
    • A. 

      26 kHz

    • B. 

      60 kHz

    • C. 

      65 kHz

    • D. 

      120 kHz

  • 294. 
    When the modulation in a frequency-modulation (FM) signal increases the number of sidebands increase, carrier power increases, and the total power
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Decreases

    • C. 

      Remains the same

    • D. 

      Varies with amount of sidebands

  • 295. 
    Which device is not a circuit in a frequency-modulation (FM) transmitter's automatic frequency control circuitry?
    • A. 

      Bandpass filter

    • B. 

      Crystal oscillator

    • C. 

      Frequency converter

    • D. 

      Frequency discriminator

  • 296. 
    Which option is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband?
    • A. 

      Power efficiency

    • B. 

      Frequency stability

    • C. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio

    • D. 

      Spectrum conservation

  • 297. 
    Whitin a single-sideband (SSB) transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by
    • A. 

      The original carrier frequency

    • B. 

      Reinsterted carrier frequencies

    • C. 

      Precision frequency standards

    • D. 

      Carefully controlled oscillators

  • 298. 
    In single-sideband (SSB) transmitter, the balance modulator's output consists of
    • A. 

      The carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

    • B. 

      The upper and lower sidebands

    • C. 

      Lower sideband only

    • D. 

      Upper sideband only

  • 299. 
    Which circuit produces the sidebands in a single-sideband (SSB) transmitter?
    • A. 

      Detector

    • B. 

      Discriminator

    • C. 

      Balanced modulator

    • D. 

      High-frequency oscillator

  • 300. 
    The single-sideband (SSB) transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the
    • A. 

      Balanced amplifier

    • B. 

      Power synthesizer

    • C. 

      Balanced modulator

    • D. 

      Linear power amplifier

  • 301. 
    The ability of a radio receiver to reproduce weak signals is called
    • A. 

      Reproduction

    • B. 

      Sensitivity

    • C. 

      Reception

    • D. 

      Detection

  • 302. 
    Which radio receiver's characteristic is a major limiting factor of receiever sensitivity to very low-signal inputs?
    • A. 

      Detection

    • B. 

      Selection

    • C. 

      Fidelity

    • D. 

      Noise

  • 303. 
    Within a typical amplitude-modulated (AM) superheterydyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is considered, which type of tuning?
    • A. 

      Slug

    • B. 

      Ganged

    • C. 

      Parallel

    • D. 

      Staggered

  • 304. 
    Frequency-modulation (FM) demodulation is the process of detecting variations in which area of the signal?
    • A. 

      Frequency

    • B. 

      Amplitude

    • C. 

      Phase

    • D. 

      Gain

  • 305. 
    The purpose of the limiter circuit in a frequency-modulation (FM) receiver is to
    • A. 

      Add amplitude variations to the intermediate-frequency signal

    • B. 

      Remove amplitude variations from the intermediate-frequency signal

    • C. 

      Remove frequency variations from the intermediate-frequency signal

    • D. 

      Rectify the audio-frequency signal from the intermediate-frequency section

  • 306. 
    The two advantages of using a single-sideband (SSB) receiver over an amplitude-modulation (AM) receiver is which option with more or less in a small portion of the frequency spectrum?
    • A. 

      Narrower receiver bandpass and the ability to place more signals

    • B. 

      Wider receiver bandpass and the ability to place more signals

    • C. 

      Narrower receiver bandpass and the ability to place less signals

    • D. 

      Wider receiver bandpass and the ability to place less signals

  • 307. 
    The basic difference between the single-sideband (SSB) receiver and a conventional superhetrodyne receiver is that the single-sideband receiver uses a
    • A. 

      Carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuit

    • B. 

      Special detector and carrier reinstertion oscillator

    • C. 

      Discriminator and local oscillator circuit

    • D. 

      Limiter and special mixer circuit

  • 308. 
    A major drawback in using a single-sideband (SSB) receiver over and amplitude-modulated (AM) receiver is the
    • A. 

      Need for critical frequency stability

    • B. 

      SSB receiver has a narrower bandpass

    • C. 

      AM receiver requires only one oscillator circuit

    • D. 

      Weak signals are easy to detect in the AM receiver

  • 309. 
    A transmitting radio antenna is considered a transducer because it
    • A. 

      Transmits radio frequency energy to distand locations

    • B. 

      Converts energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

    • C. 

      Creates current oscillations to induce radio frequency energy

    • D. 

      Has electromagnetic fields which impress a voltage to be transmitted

  • 310. 
    A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by
    • A. 

      Accepting and amplifying the minute current

    • B. 

      Removeing the radio frequency carrier wave

    • C. 

      Converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

  • 311. 
    The property of interchangeability for a radio antenna is known as
    • A. 

      Gain

    • B. 

      Array

    • C. 

      Efficiency

    • D. 

      Reciprocity

  • 312. 
    The radio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a nondirectional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna
    • A. 

      Gain

    • B. 

      Arrays

    • C. 

      Efficiency

    • D. 

      Reciprocity

  • 313. 
    Which type of radio frequency transmission wire has principle disadvantages of high-radiation losses and noise pickup due to the lack of shielding?
    • A. 

      Shielded pair

    • B. 

      Air coaxial line

    • C. 

      Parallel two-wire

    • D. 

      Flexible coaxial line

  • 314. 
    The radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the
    • A. 

      Shielded pair

    • B. 

      Air coaxial line

    • C. 

      Parallel two-wire

    • D. 

      Flexible coaxial line

  • 315. 
    The radio frequency (RF) transmission line whose chief advantage is its ability to minimize radiation losses and noise pickup from other lines is the
    • A. 

      Shielded pair

    • B. 

      Two-wire ribbon

    • C. 

      Parallel two-wire

    • D. 

      Flexible coaxial line

  • 316. 
    The impedance of a radio frequency (RF) transmission line and load do not match. In addition, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time and are creating a wave that is stationary on the line. What is this stationary wave called?
    • A. 

      Traveling

    • B. 

      Standing

    • C. 

      Reflected

    • D. 

      Resultant

  • 317. 
    Which type of radio frequency (RF) transmission line loss is a result of skin effect?
    • A. 

      Copper

    • B. 

      Dielectric

    • C. 

      Radiation

    • D. 

      Induction

  • 318. 
    The primary reason a high frequency (HF) radio uses single sideband (SSB) modulation is
    • A. 

      That fidelity is greatly increased

    • B. 

      The system can use a very wide-band pass

    • C. 

      The transmitter output power is 10 watts

    • D. 

      That it provides many channels on which to operate

  • 319. 
    What is the transmitted frequency when a high frequency (HF) radio control is set to 25.000-megahertz (MHz), with a signal modulated by a 1000-hertz tone, when the lower sideband mode is selected?
    • A. 

      24.500 MHz

    • B. 

      24.999 MHz

    • C. 

      25.001 MHz

    • D. 

      25.000 MHz

  • 320. 
    Which is not a mode of operation for the ARC-190 high-frequency radio system?
    • A. 

      Frequency modulation (FM)

    • B. 

      Upper sideband (USB) data

    • C. 

      Lower sideband (LSB) voice

    • D. 

      Amplitude modulated equivalent (AME)

  • 321. 
    You are using a learned preset for the ARC-190 high-frequency (HF) radio system. For this application, the transmit tune time is less than
    • A. 

      5 milliseconds

    • B. 

      25 milliseconds

    • C. 

      35 milliseconds

    • D. 

      50 microseconds

  • 322. 
    This version of the ARC-190 high-frequency (HF) radio system receiver-transmitter (RT) only operated properly if the system has a CU-2275(V)1 HF antenna coupler installed?
    • A. 

      RT-1341(V)1

    • B. 

      RT-1341(V)2

    • C. 

      RT-1341(V)3

    • D. 

      RT-1341(V)4

  • 323. 
    In the ARC-190 high-frequency (HF) radio system, what helps prevent high voltage arcing within the HF coupler at high altitudes?
    • A. 

      Sealed tuner assembly

    • B. 

      Sealed control compartment

    • C. 

      Pressurized tuner assembly

    • D. 

      Pressurized control compartment

  • 324. 
    The external blower for an ARC-190 high-frequency radio system is overheating. This situation will cause a receiver-transmitter (RT) fault and
    • A. 

      Keep the coupler from tuning

    • B. 

      Reduce the external blower speed

    • C. 

      Cause the RT fault light to turnoff

    • D. 

      Keep the transmitter from functioning

  • 325. 
    A very-high frequency (VHF) frequency modulated (FM) radio is mainly used on aircraft that
    • A. 

      Contact ground forces

    • B. 

      Contacts airborne tankers for fuel

    • C. 

      Uses Air Force controlled airfields

    • D. 

      Is controlled by civilian air traffic controllers

  • 326. 
    Which very-high frequency (VHF) radio system would have the best chance of receiving a signal from a station located beyond the line of sight (LOS)?
    • A. 

      VHF amplitude modulated (AM)

    • B. 

      VHF omnirange (VOR)

    • C. 

      VHF frequency modulated (FM)

    • D. 

      Localizer/glideslope

  • 327. 
    Which very-high frequency (VHF) radio system uses two antennas?
    • A. 

      Frequency modulated (FM) homing

    • B. 

      Amplitude modulated (AM) communications

    • C. 

      FM communications

    • D. 

      AM direction finder

  • 328. 
    The frequency range of the ARC-186 very-high frequency (VHF) radio receiver, in only the receive amplitude modulated (AM) mode, is this megahertz (MHz) range
    • A. 

      30 to 87.975

    • B. 

      38 to 87.975

    • C. 

      108 to 151.975

    • D. 

      116 to 151.975

  • 329. 
    Which frequencies can the ARC-186 very-high frequency (VHF) radio not transmit with in the amplitude modulated (AM) mode?
    • A. 

      30 to 87.975 megahertz (MHz)

    • B. 

      38 to 87.975 MHz

    • C. 

      108 to 151.975 MHz

    • D. 

      116 to 151.975 MHz

  • 330. 
    We call the C-11029/ARC-186 a true communications/navigation (comm/nav) control box because
    • A. 

      Rivet work force changed its design

    • B. 

      It controls the very-high frequency amplitude-modulated (AM) and frequency modulated (FM) systems

    • C. 

      It controls both the very-high frequency (VHF) radio and the VHF-omnirange/instrument landing system (VOR/ILS) receiver

    • D. 

      Automatic direction finding and homing share similar communication and navigation systems' characteristics

  • 331. 
    How many frequencies are available for the tunable main receiver to use in the ARC-164 ultra-high frequency (UHF) radio?
    • A. 

      10000

    • B. 

      7000

    • C. 

      3500

    • D. 

      700

  • 332. 
    How do Have Quick (HQ) radios resist jamming?
    • A. 

      Frequency-hopping

    • B. 

      Retransmission

    • C. 

      Encryption

    • D. 

      Phase shifting

  • 333. 
    The Have Quick II radios' frequency-hopping pattern and rate is programmed using this feature
    • A. 

      Time-of-day

    • B. 

      Word-of-day

    • C. 

      Net number used

    • D. 

      Universal time coordinated

  • 334. 
    Have Quick II radios frequency hop at the same instant in time because they
    • A. 

      Use the same net number

    • B. 

      Use time-of-day information

    • C. 

      Have the same word-of-day entered

    • D. 

      Are equipped with internal atomic clocks

  • 335. 
    The Have Quick II radio's entry point in the frequency-hopping pattern is established by the word-of-day; however, it is actually programmed using the
    • A. 

      Time-of-day

    • B. 

      Net number

    • C. 

      Multiple word-of-day

    • D. 

      Universal time coordinated

  • 336. 
    When two signals are received simultaneoulsy on the same operating net, the Have Quick II radio automatically goes into conferencing. It does this by
    • A. 

      Resetting the net number for communication

    • B. 

      Setting the receiver to narrowband reception

    • C. 

      Injecting a beat frequency to prevent loss of intelligence

    • D. 

      Offsetting the second transmitter frequency by 25 kilohertz

  • 337. 
    The HAVE QUICK II panel-mount configuration is primarily used in
    • A. 

      Retrofit situations

    • B. 

      Bomber aircraft

    • C. 

      Cargo aircraft

    • D. 

      New aircraft

  • 338. 
    What is the advantage of the remote Have Quick II configuration over the panel mount configuration in an aircraft?
    • A. 

      More convenient for maintenance

    • B. 

      Can be used with a remote channel indicator

    • C. 

      Reduced cost by using existing aircraft wiring

    • D. 

      Can be used with a ultra-high frequency direction finding system

  • 339. 
    The HAVE QUICK II multiple word-of-day (MWOD) modification provided loading capability to allow entering up to how many words for what number of days usage, respectively?
    • A. 

      Two; 2 days use

    • B. 

      Four; 4 days use

    • C. 

      Six; 6 days use

    • D. 

      Eight; 8 days use

  • 340. 
    Which component takes over control in the event of an ARC-210 radio system remote tuning panel's failure?
    • A. 

      Radio set control

    • B. 

      Control display unit

    • C. 

      Remote tuning panel

    • D. 

      Remote volume control

  • 341. 
    The remote tuning panel can not control the ARC-210 radio system if the
    • A. 

      Radio set control is turned on

    • B. 

      Radio set control is turned off

    • C. 

      Remote volume control is turned on

    • D. 

      Remote volume control is turned off

  • 342. 
    A high pass filter is installed on the ARC-210 radio system to
    • A. 

      Attenuate frequency-modulated (FM) commercial stations below 108 megahertz (MHz)

    • B. 

      Attenuate FM commercial stations above 108 MHz

    • C. 

      Bleed over aircraft FM transmissions below 108 MHz

    • D. 

      Bleed over airraft FM transmissions below 108 MHz

  • 343. 
    What component is used to control the ARC-210 radio system if dual integrating processing center (IPC) fails?
    • A. 

      Radio set control

    • B. 

      Control display unit

    • C. 

      Remote tuning panel

    • D. 

      Remote volume control

  • 344. 
    You swap the active and stanby frequencies on the ARC-210 radio system, using the remote tuning panel (RTP), by
    • A. 

      Pressing the outer knob

    • B. 

      Pressing the inner knob

    • C. 

      Rotating the outer knob

    • D. 

      Rotating the inner knob

  • 345. 
    Which one of the following frequencies is not reserved for emergency use?
    • A. 

      8.0 megahertz (MHz)

    • B. 

      40.5 MHz

    • C. 

      121.5 MHz

    • D. 

      243.0 Mhz

  • 346. 
    Which one of the following is not a PRC-90 emergency radio operating mode?
    • A. 

      Morse code

    • B. 

      Two-way voice communications

    • C. 

      Three-way voice communications

    • D. 

      Variable audio modulation between 1000 and 300 hertz

  • 347. 
    The emergency communications system that deploys from an aircraft before or at impact, to give it a better chance of surviving the crash, is the
    • A. 

      Parachute radio (PR)

    • B. 

      Crash position indicator (CPI)

    • C. 

      Underwater acoustical beacon (UAB)

    • D. 

      Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

  • 348. 
    The emergency communications aircraft system that emits pulses of high-frequency (HF) sound is the
    • A. 

      Parachute radio (PR)

    • B. 

      Crash position indicator (CPI)

    • C. 

      Underwater acoustical beacon (UAB)

    • D. 

      Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

  • 349. 
    Approximately how many days can the underwater acoustical beacon transmit before battery power is depleted?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      30

  • 350. 
    When activated, the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) continues transmitting on frequencies
    • A. 

      8.0 and 121.5 megahertz (MHz)

    • B. 

      243.0 and 282.8 Mhz

    • C. 

      254.5 and 282.8 MHz

    • D. 

      121.5 and 243.0 MHz

  • 351. 
    The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is designed to survive an impact of up to
    • A. 

      50 gravitational forces or Gs

    • B. 

      100 Gs

    • C. 

      125 Gs

    • D. 

      135 Gs

  • 352. 
    All interphone audio common lines are connected to ground at a single point in order to
    • A. 

      Amplify stray audio frequencies

    • B. 

      Eliminate audio frequencies above 16,000 kilohertz (kHz)

    • C. 

      Ensure that high-voltage potentials are not detected in the audio circuits

    • D. 

      Minimize the stray electromagnetic radiation from being picked up by the system

  • 353. 
    This term describes the lines used to determine whether a transceiver connected to the intercom system will be in a transmit or receive condition
    • A. 

      Control

    • B. 

      Receiver audio

    • C. 

      System ground

    • D. 

      Microphone audio

  • 354. 
    The seven-position ROTARY SELECT switch, on the C-6567 interphone control panel, allows the operator to select, monitor, key and modulate any one of this number of different radios through the intercom system
    • A. 

      Four

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Seven

  • 355. 
    The purpose of the +17 to +19-voltage direct current (VDC) on the CALL control line of the C-6567 interphone set control is to
    • A. 

      Reduce the level of CALL audio input

    • B. 

      Disable the mic amplifier during CALL operation

    • C. 

      Energive the CALL switch on the front panel of the c-6624

    • D. 

      Activate the automatic gain control (AGC) circuits in the headset amplifiers

  • 356. 
    The CALL switch applies a direct current (DC) voltage to the CALL control line and activates the automatic gain control (AGC) circuits in all aircraft control panels' headset amplifiers. This causes the CALL audio to be heard at least
    • A. 

      2 decibel (dB) louder than any other signals present

    • B. 

      4 dB louder than any other signals present

    • C. 

      6 dB louder than any other signals present

    • D. 

      8 dB louder than any other signals present

  • 357. 
    This INTERPHONE FUNCTION switch allows crewmembers to talk to other aircraft positions without pressing the mic button
    • A. 

      CALL

    • B. 

      Hot-mic

    • C. 

      Monitor

    • D. 

      Interphone

  • 358. 
    The radio TRANSMITTER SELECTION switch is a seven-position rotary switch that allows the aircrew to
    • A. 

      Select and transmit on each radio system and the interphone

    • B. 

      Select and monitor the aircraft emergency warning tones

    • C. 

      Tune each radio system and key the interphone

    • D. 

      Select the radio transmitter frequencies

  • 359. 
    Which interphone system transmission operation is most advantageous to pilots/copilots and why is it important?
    • A. 

      One-button operation; it is less time consuming

    • B. 

      One-button operation; it allows them to talk on radios and maintain communication with the crew

    • C. 

      Two-button operation; it is less time consuming

    • D. 

      Two-button operation; it allows them to talk on radios and maintain communication with the crew

  • 360. 
    The major difference between the U92A/U the U94A/U jack, on the C-6624/AIC-25 interphone station's H-78/A1C headset/microphone, is the
    • A. 

      U92A/U has a push-to-talk (PTT) button

    • B. 

      U94A/U has a PTT button

    • C. 

      U94A/u is located on the pilot's throttle grip

    • D. 

      U92A/U requires an additional wire for the TALK switch

  • 361. 
    What wire color is connected to the push-to-talk (PTT) button, on the U-94A/U of the C-6624/AIC-25 interphone station's H-78/A1C headset/microphone, when you connect the WM-85/U interphone cable to the U-94A/U jack?
    • A. 

      White

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      Black

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 362. 
    To what pins on the U-92A/U headset/microphone, of the C-6624/AIC-25 interphone station, are the MIKE HIGH (red) and MIKE LOW (green) amplifier wires connected?
    • A. 

      1 and 2, respectively

    • B. 

      2 and 4, respectively

    • C. 

      3 and 1, respectively

    • D. 

      3 and 4, respectively

  • 363. 
    When the wires easily pull loose from the U-94A/U headset/microphone connection on the C-6624/AIC-25 interphone station, it is typically because
    • A. 

      The internal clamp is missing

    • B. 

      The wires were cut to incorrect length

    • C. 

      The wires have weak solder connections

    • D. 

      The screws have not been tightened completely

  • 364. 
    The airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) combined audio interface unit (CIAU) provides continuous operation using
    • A. 

      Two internal audio interface units

    • B. 

      Three internal audio interface units

    • C. 

      Two external backup audio interface units

    • D. 

      Three external backup audio interface units

  • 365. 
    The VOL adjustment on the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) interphone audio control panel (IACP) allows the operator to
    • A. 

      Only adjust received signals individually

    • B. 

      Only adjust combined received signals simultaneously

    • C. 

      Adjust combined received signals simultaneously or individually

    • D. 

      Adjust combined transmit and receive signals simultaneoulsy or individually

  • 366. 
    Which built-in-test (BIT) is activated by pressing the BIT pushbutton switch on the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) interphone audio control panel (IACP)?
    • A. 

      Continuous BIT (CBIT)

    • B. 

      Degraded BIT (DBIT)

    • C. 

      Maintenance BIT (MBIT)

    • D. 

      Power-up BIT (PBIT)

  • 367. 
    The airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) intercom control panel (ICP) has provisions for these operational functions
    • A. 

      Only talk and listen on the interphone circuit

    • B. 

      Hot-mic and CALL on the interphone circuit

    • C. 

      Hot-mic, talk, and listen on the interphone circuit

    • D. 

      Only talk, listen, and CALL on the interphone circuit

  • 368. 
    When a laveled pushbutton is pressed on the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) interphone audio control panel (IACP), but there is no functional equipment installed, then the light emitting diode (LED)
    • A. 

      Illuminates with no digital display message

    • B. 

      Remains off with no digital display message

    • C. 

      Illuminates and produces a digital display message

    • D. 

      Remains off and produces a digital display message

  • 369. 
    If a second operator keys a transmitter that is already keyed, during transmit mode on the airborne digital interphone system's (ADIS) interphone audio control panel (IACP), then the second operator's IACP will display the message
    • A. 

      BUSY

    • B. 

      NO TX

    • C. 

      IN USE

    • D. 

      INVALID

  • 370. 
    When CALL mode is activated on the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS), all radios change by this level of maximum volume
    • A. 

      Increased 6 decibel (dB)

    • B. 

      Decreased 6 dB

    • C. 

      Increased 8 dB

    • D. 

      Decreased 8 dB

  • 371. 
    When the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) is in emergency mode, interphone audio control panel (IACP) #3 (Navigator) is directly paired with
    • A. 

      High frequency radio #1

    • B. 

      Communications radio #1

    • C. 

      Communications radio #2

    • D. 

      Communications radio #3

  • 372. 
    When the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) interphone adapter unit (IAU) passes priority one input signals, the signals are passed
    • A. 

      With 6 decibel (dB) signal increase

    • B. 

      With 6 dB signal attenuation

    • C. 

      With 8 dB signal attenuation

    • D. 

      Without signal level adjustment

  • 373. 
    The purpose of the cryptographic KOI-18 loading device is to
    • A. 

      Store electronic keying material

    • B. 

      Protect classified programs from compromise

    • C. 

      Encrypt data stored in the data transfer device

    • D. 

      Convert an eight level punched tape data to a serial output

  • 374. 
    If you leave the punched tape in the KOI-18 cryptographic loading device for an extended amount of time, the
    • A. 

      KOI-18 will shutdown

    • B. 

      KOI-18 battery will run down

    • C. 

      Punched tape will be damaged

    • D. 

      Transferred crypto key will expire

  • 375. 
    How is classified information removed from the KOI-18 cryptographic loading device when the key information is no longer loading?
    • A. 

      When encrypting the information

    • B. 

      By removing the tape from the unit

    • C. 

      Upon removing the battery power supply

    • D. 

      By Zeroizing the selected storage position

  • 376. 
    How many KYK-13 cryptographic loading devices will you require if 12 cryptographic keys need to be stored?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Six

  • 377. 
    If the mode select switch on the KYK-13 cryptographic loading device is set to OFF CHECK and the user presses the INITIATE button, then the KYK-13 will
    • A. 

      Zeroize a single stored key

    • B. 

      Zeroize all stored keys

    • C. 

      Verify presence of a single stored key

    • D. 

      Verify presence of all stored keys

  • 378. 
    This indicates the presence of a valid key that is loaded into the KYK-13 cryptographic loading device
    • A. 

      One 60 Hz audible beep

    • B. 

      One red indicator flash

    • C. 

      Two 60 Hz audible beeps

    • D. 

      Two red indicator flashes

  • 379. 
    The KYK-13 cryptographic loading device's parity light continuously flashes on and off when the
    • A. 

      Battery power is low

    • B. 

      Key transfer was prevented

    • C. 

      Stored key is no longer valid

    • D. 

      Built-in-test is being performed

  • 380. 
    Which of the following is not a primary purpose of the cryptographic CYZ-10 data transfer device (DTD)?
    • A. 

      Process communcations security (COMSEC) variables

    • B. 

      Store electronic keying material

    • C. 

      Process host/application data

    • D. 

      Store frequency-hopping data

  • 381. 
    The CYZ-10 data transfer device (DTD) is cryptographic equipment that has a sealed case with this number of external openings
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 382. 
    How is the CYZ-10 data transfer device (DTD) classified?
    • A. 

      By the DTD software load

    • B. 

      By data entry on the DTD key pad

    • C. 

      By installing the crypto ignition key

    • D. 

      Through the host/application section

  • 383. 
    When the crypto ignition key (CIK) is removed from the CYZ-10 data transfer device (DTD), the stored data is
    • A. 

      Encrypted and classified operations are inhibited

    • B. 

      Erased and classified operations are authorized

    • C. 

      Encrypted and the communications security (COMSEC) section of the DTD is fully enabled

    • D. 

      Erased and COMSEC section of DTD is fully enabled

  • 384. 
    Approximately how many days are batteries expected to last if the CYZ-10 data transfer device (DTD) is placed in long-term storage in the OFF condition?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      79

    • C. 

      119

    • D. 

      156

  • 385. 
    The purpose of the data transfer device (DTD) zeroize function is to
    • A. 

      Activate all content within the DTD

    • B. 

      Initiate a destructive BIT within the DTD

    • C. 

      Erase the crypto ignition key data from the DTD

    • D. 

      Erase all battery-backed memory in the DTD

  • 386. 
    Which boot is being performed if the CYZ-10 data transfer device (DTD) start up built-in test (BIT) takes between 30 and 60 seconds?
    • A. 

      Hot

    • B. 

      Warm

    • C. 

      Cold

    • D. 

      Initial

  • 387. 
    Which KY-58 line replacable unit (LRU) has the primary function of transmitting and receiving secure voice messages?
    • A. 

      Z-AHQ adapter

    • B. 

      Remote control unit control panel

    • C. 

      KYK-13 fill device

    • D. 

      TSEC secure voice processor

  • 388. 
    Which secure voice compnent will you use to integrate the KY-58 processor into existing aircraft installations?
    • A. 

      Z-AHQ adapter

    • B. 

      KY-58 processor

    • C. 

      KYK-13 fill device

    • D. 

      KY-58 remote control unit control panel

  • 389. 
    Which unit is needed to transfer cryptographic variables into the KY-58 processor?
    • A. 

      Z-AHQ adapter

    • B. 

      KY-575 processor

    • C. 

      KYK-13 fill device

    • D. 

      KY-58 remote control unit control panel

  • 390. 
    The purpose of the battery in the KY-58 processor is to
    • A. 

      Prevent the automatic zeroing of the codes after the aircraft power is removed

    • B. 

      Enable the secure voice system to be used as an emergency transmitter

    • C. 

      Enable the secure voice system to operate from aircraft power

    • D. 

      Zeroize the codes after aircraft power is removed

  • 391. 
    Which of the following is not a function of the communications security (COMSEC) mode control panel?
    • A. 

      Controls delayed push-to-talk mode

    • B. 

      Controls plain text, cipher, and guard transmission levels

    • C. 

      Allows selected radio audio signals to be passed through the intercom

    • D. 

      Allows selection of command or very/ultra-high frequency (V/UHF) radio for COMSEC mode

  • 392. 
    The crewmembers address the secure voice system through the
    • A. 

      Interphone system

    • B. 

      AN/ARC 210 switch panel

    • C. 

      KY-100 mode control panel

    • D. 

      Have Quick II radio set control

  • 393. 
    The equator is
    • A. 

      Not a great circle

    • B. 

      Equal distance from the poles

    • C. 

      A plane parallel to the polar axis

    • D. 

      The only fixed reference point on the earth

  • 394. 
    Any plane that passes through the center of the Earth and divides it into two equal parts forms what on the surface of the earth?
    • A. 

      Equator

    • B. 

      Great circle

    • C. 

      Parallel of latitude

    • D. 

      Meridian of longitude

  • 395. 
    Circles running east to west around the earth are called
    • A. 

      Equatorial parallels

    • B. 

      Parallels of latitude

    • C. 

      Equatorial meridians

    • D. 

      Meridians of longitude

  • 396. 
    Parallels of the latitude are parallel to the
    • A. 

      Equator

    • B. 

      Polar axis

    • C. 

      Greenwich meridian

    • D. 

      International date line

  • 397. 
    Parallels between the equator and the north pole carry values from
    • A. 

      0° to 90°N

    • B. 

      0° to 90°S

    • C. 

      0° to 180°N

    • D. 

      0° to 180°S

  • 398. 
    Parallels between the equator and the south pole carry values from
    • A. 

      0° to 90°N

    • B. 

      0° to 90°S

    • C. 

      0° to 180°N

    • D. 

      0° to 180°S

  • 399. 
    The international date line is
    • A. 

      A circle designated 0° latitude

    • B. 

      Designated as the 180° meridian

    • C. 

      A meridian passing through Greenwich, England

    • D. 

      A circle located an equal distance between the north and south poles

  • 400. 
    Starting from the prime meridian and going east to the international dateline, meridians are assigned values of
    • A. 

      0° to 90° east

    • B. 

      0° to 90° west

    • C. 

      0° to 180° east

    • D. 

      0° to 180° west

  • 401. 
    A correct geographic coordinate is
    • A. 

      45°N

    • B. 

      15°S

    • C. 

      99°N 120°E

    • D. 

      76°S 030°W

  • 402. 
    If your aircraft is flying with a true heading of 320° and your destination point is located at a true bearing of 270°, what is your relative bearing to the destination point?
    • A. 

      50°

    • B. 

      270°

    • C. 

      310°

    • D. 

      320°

  • 403. 
    If you fly along the equator from 0°N10°E to 0°N15°E, how many nautical miles(NM) will you have flown?
    • A. 

      250 NM

    • B. 

      300 NM

    • C. 

      350 NM

    • D. 

      400 NM

  • 404. 
    The wind's effect on an aircraft is
    • A. 

      Slight

    • B. 

      Negligible

    • C. 

      Significant

    • D. 

      Unimportant

  • 405. 
    Wind moving from 225° towards 45° at a speed of 15 knots would be expressed as
    • A. 

      45°/15 knots

    • B. 

      225°/15 knots

    • C. 

      225° to 45°/15 knots

    • D. 

      45° from 225°/15 knots

  • 406. 
    The aircraft's path over the Earth's surface is called
    • A. 

      Track

    • B. 

      True bearing

    • C. 

      True heading

    • D. 

      Intended track

  • 407. 
    If the aircraft is flying a true heading of 180° what are the effects of a 180°/20 knot wind on its ground speed and track?
    • A. 

      Increase in ground speed with right drift

    • B. 

      Decrease in ground speed with right drift

    • C. 

      Increase in ground speed with no change in track

    • D. 

      Decrease in ground speed with no change in track

  • 408. 
    What is used to correct true heading and allow the aircraft to achieve the desired true course?
    • A. 

      Drift correction

    • B. 

      Wind disbursement

    • C. 

      Airspeed correction

    • D. 

      Ground speed correction

  • 409. 
    True directions are measured from the
    • A. 

      Equator

    • B. 

      0° meridian

    • C. 

      Magnetic poles

    • D. 

      Geographical poles

  • 410. 
    The lines on navigation charts that connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
    • A. 

      Agonic lines

    • B. 

      Isogonic lines

    • C. 

      Variation lines

    • D. 

      Deviation lines

  • 411. 
    The lines on navigation charts that connect points of zero magnetic variation are called
    • A. 

      Agonic lines

    • B. 

      Isogonic lines

    • C. 

      Variation lines

    • D. 

      Deviation lines

  • 412. 
    An inertial navigation system establishes
    • A. 

      Altitude

    • B. 

      A coordinate system

    • C. 

      A frame of reference

    • D. 

      A frame of displacement

  • 413. 
    Which is not a basic inertial navigation system component
    • A. 

      Platform

    • B. 

      Integrator

    • C. 

      Summing unit

    • D. 

      Accelerometer

  • 414. 
    What inertial navigation system component measures aircraft movement
    • A. 

      Platform

    • B. 

      Integrator

    • C. 

      Computer

    • D. 

      Accelerometer

  • 415. 
    The inertial navigation system's accelerometers must be protected from
    • A. 

      Motion and pressure changes

    • B. 

      Magnetic and motion changes

    • C. 

      Temperature and pressure changes

    • D. 

      Temperature and magnetic changes

  • 416. 
    To measure acceleration in all directions an aircraft's inertial navigation system uses how many accelerometers?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 417. 
    The changing of position with respect to some other body is called
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Motion

    • C. 

      Velocity

    • D. 

      Reference

  • 418. 
    The rate at which motion is occuring without regard to direction is called
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Motion

    • C. 

      Velocity

    • D. 

      Reference

  • 419. 
    The rate at which motion is occuring in a known or given direction is called
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Motion

    • C. 

      Velocity

    • D. 

      Reference

  • 420. 
    How many integrators are required for an inertial navigation system to indicate distance?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 421. 
    The inertial navigation system (INS) provides data for the information management system/flight management system to compute all of the following except
    • A. 

      Altitude

    • B. 

      System status

    • C. 

      Present position

    • D. 

      Magnetic heading

  • 422. 
    The gas discharge in the inertial navigation unit (INU) section of the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) is used to generate
    • A. 

      Stable pressurization

    • B. 

      A constant temperature

    • C. 

      A non-corrosive environment

    • D. 

      Monochromatic radiation beams

  • 423. 
    When the ring laser gyro of the inertial navigation unit (INU) is subjected to angular rates such as those encountered during aircraft maneuvers, what happens to the laser beams' optical path lengths?
    • A. 

      Both beams remain constant

    • B. 

      Both beams increase in length

    • C. 

      One beam remains constant, the other increases in length

    • D. 

      One beam increases in length, the other decreases in length

  • 424. 
    If the accelerometer associated with the inertial navigation unit (INU) ring laser gyro senses an applied acceleration, the accelerometer pendulum moves in response and causes a
    • A. 

      Stability circuit to generate a voltage

    • B. 

      Single-axis sensor to generate a voltage

    • C. 

      Proximity detector to generate a voltage

    • D. 

      Fringe pattern detector to generate a voltage

  • 425. 
    Following power-up the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) automatically enters what mode?
    • A. 

      Self test

    • B. 

      Navigation

    • C. 

      Allignment

    • D. 

      Initialization

  • 426. 
    If the gyro compass alignment of the inertial navigation unit (INU) portion of the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) is interrupted due to aircraft motion, then the alignment will
    • A. 

      Automaticall restart

    • B. 

      Stop and await a manual restart

    • C. 

      Be prolonged by no more than the period of suspension

    • D. 

      Be prolonged by no more than than the period of suspension plus 20 seconds

  • 427. 
    The embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) provides a pure inertial navigation solution
    • A. 

      Automaticall upon failure of inertial navigation system (INS)/global positioning system (GPS) solution

    • B. 

      Automatically upon failure of GPS-only solution

    • C. 

      Only when selected

    • D. 

      At all times

  • 428. 
    Each global positioning system satellite transmits how many radio frequency signals?
    • A. 

      None, they're passive

    • B. 

      Two, called L1 and L2

    • C. 

      One, containing radar data

    • D. 

      One, containing radio data

  • 429. 
    If your global positioning system has a figure of merit of 5, what is the total expected position error (EPE)?
    • A. 

      EPE < 25 meters

    • B. 

      101 ≤ EPE < 200

    • C. 

      201 ≤ EPE < 500 meters

    • D. 

      EPE > 5000 meters

  • 430. 
    The global positioning system's navigational system has a time accuracy of
    • A. 

      50 nanoseconds

    • B. 

      100 nanoseconds

    • C. 

      150 nanoseconds

    • D. 

      200 nanoseconds

  • 431. 
    The global positioning system is capable of tracking how many satellites at one time?
    • A. 

      Four

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      As many as necessary

    • D. 

      As many as can be seen

  • 432. 
    Which global positioning system unit provides a display for the ARN-151?
    • A. 

      Mount

    • B. 

      Receiver

    • C. 

      Antenna control

    • D. 

      Indicator control

  • 433. 
    The purpose of the ARN-151's receiver unit is to
    • A. 

      Demodulate the radio frequency signal to produce an audio signal

    • B. 

      Demodulate the intermediate frequency signal to produce an audio signal

    • C. 

      Process the radio frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution

    • D. 

      Process the intermediate frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution

  • 434. 
    Which receiver interface provides binary-coded decimal format communication between the global positioning system and HAVE-QUICK equipment?
    • A. 

      1553 interface

    • B. 

      Instrument interface

    • C. 

      Precise time and time interval (PTTI) interface

    • D. 

      Aeronautical radio incorporated interface (ARINC) interface

  • 435. 
    The global positioning system interface that uses simplified computer words of specific high and low-voltage levels is the
    • A. 

      1553 interface

    • B. 

      Instrument interface

    • C. 

      Precise time and time interval (PTTI) interface

    • D. 

      Aeronautical radio incorporated interface (ARINC) interface

  • 436. 
    The tactical air navigation (TACAN) system overcomes the signal propagation limits of earlier low-frequency navigation equipment by operating in which frequency band?
    • A. 

      High frequency (HF)

    • B. 

      Ultra-high frequency (UHF)

    • C. 

      Very-high frequency (VHF)

    • D. 

      Super-high frequency (SHF)

  • 437. 
    A Y-channel tactical air navigation (TACAN) beacon main reference burst (MRB) consists of
    • A. 

      12 pulse pairs space 30 microseconds apart

    • B. 

      12 pulse pairs spaced 24 microseconds apart

    • C. 

      13 single pulses spaced 30 microseconds apart

    • D. 

      13 single pulses spaced 15 microseconds apart

  • 438. 
    The main reference burst (MRB) is transmitted when the main lobe of the tactical air navigation (TACAN) surface beacon radiation pattern is due
    • A. 

      North

    • B. 

      South

    • C. 

      East

    • D. 

      West

  • 439. 
    When a tactical air navigation (TACAN) surface beacon receives distance measureing equipment pulses from an interrogating aircraft, the surface beacon replies with
    • A. 

      1 pulse paid

    • B. 

      2 pulse pairs

    • C. 

      A single pulse

    • D. 

      2 single pulses

  • 440. 
    When the tactical air navigation (TACAN) main reference burst (MRB) occurs at the 15-Hz variable singal's minimum amplitude, the azimuth to the station is
    • A. 

    • B. 

      90°

    • C. 

      180°

    • D. 

      270°

  • 441. 
    If the horizontal situation indicator displays a magnetic heading of 45° and a magnetic bearing to the tactical air navigation (TACAN) station of 5°, then relative bearing is
    • A. 

      40°

    • B. 

      45°

    • C. 

      225°

    • D. 

      320°

  • 442. 
    In the tactical air navigation (TACAN) mode, if the course deciation bar on the horizontal situation indicator (HIS) is deflected two dots to the right, how many degrees off course are you?
    • A. 

      1.25°

    • B. 

      2.5°

    • C. 

    • D. 

      10°

  • 443. 
    The AN/ARN-118 is controlled by the area navigation (RNAV) system when the tactical air navigation (TACAN) control box channel selector (X or Y) is set to
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      11

    • D. 

      00

  • 444. 
    In order for two aircraft to communicate using th AN/ARN-118 in A/A mode when one aircraft is on channel 37Y, then the other aircraft must be on channel
    • A. 

      37X

    • B. 

      37Y

    • C. 

      100X

    • D. 

      100Y

  • 445. 
    When the TEST switch on the tactical air navigation (TACAN) control box is pressed, what is the first heading indicated by the TACAN bearing pointer?
    • A. 

    • B. 

      90°

    • C. 

      180°

    • D. 

      270°

  • 446. 
    The tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) automatic self test lasts for
    • A. 

      3 seconds

    • B. 

      7 seconds

    • C. 

      15 seconds

    • D. 

      22 seconds

  • 447. 
    Tactical air navigation (TACAN) channel data and selected mode information are routed to the receiver transmitter as a
    • A. 

      24-bit serial word

    • B. 

      32-bit serial word

    • C. 

      16-bit ternary word

    • D. 

      32-bit ternary word

  • 448. 
    When a tactical air navigation (TACAN) station receives a pair of interrogation pulses, the interrogations are delayed for how long before they are transmitted back?
    • A. 

      25 μsec

    • B. 

      50 μsec

    • C. 

      75 μsec

    • D. 

      100 μsec

  • 449. 
    The purpose of the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) adapter is to convert
    • A. 

      A 32-bit ternary word into an analog output

    • B. 

      A 24-bit serial word into a 32-bit data output

    • C. 

      Analog distance information into a digital output

    • D. 

      Digital distance information into an analog output

  • 450. 
    The basic operating principle of very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) is phase comparing the
    • A. 

      90-Hz and 150-Hz modulated signals

    • B. 

      30-Hz reference and 30-Hz variable signals

    • C. 

      30-Hz variable and the 9,960-Hz FM signals

    • D. 

      30-Hz reference and the 9,960-Hz FM signals

  • 451. 
    If the magnetic bearing to a very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) station is 225°, the phase difference between the 30-Hz reference and the 30-Hz variable signals will be
    • A. 

      15°

    • B. 

      45°

    • C. 

      135°

    • D. 

      180°

  • 452. 
    Very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) aural (station identification) signals are transmitted
    • A. 

      Continuously

    • B. 

      At 20-second intervals

    • C. 

      At 30-second intervals

    • D. 

      At specified time intervals

  • 453. 
    At a distance of 10 miles from the transmitter the instrument landing system (ILS) localizer course width is approximately
    • A. 

      1800 feet

    • B. 

      2800 feet

    • C. 

      3600 feet

    • D. 

      4600 feet

  • 454. 
    What frequency band is used to transmit instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope information?
    • A. 

      LF

    • B. 

      HF

    • C. 

      UHF

    • D. 

      VHF

  • 455. 
    All of the following are indicating parts of the radio magnetic indicator except a
    • A. 

      Miles window

    • B. 

      Rotating compass card

    • C. 

      Number one, single bar

    • D. 

      Number two, double bar

  • 456. 
    When an instrument landing system (ILS) frequency is selected, the ARN-127 receiver parks the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) bearing pointer at the
    • A. 

      3 o'clock position

    • B. 

      4 o'clock position

    • C. 

      6 o'clock position

    • D. 

      10 o'clock position

  • 457. 
    When an instrument landing system (ILS) frequency is selected, the ARN-147 receiver parks the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) bearing pointer at the
    • A. 

      3 o'clock position

    • B. 

      4 o'clock position

    • C. 

      6 o'clock position

    • D. 

      9 o'clock position

  • 458. 
    In glide slope, each deviation dot on the attitude director indicator (ADI) glide slope indicator represents
    • A. 

      0.3° deviation

    • B. 

      0.5° deviation

    • C. 

      0.6° deviation

    • D. 

      1.25° deviation

  • 459. 
    If an aircraft is flying inbound on the 90° redial of a very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station, what will the outbound radial be when the aircraft passes the station?
    • A. 

      90° radial

    • B. 

      180° radial

    • C. 

      270° radial

    • D. 

      360° radial

  • 460. 
    Which radial will the aircraft be positioned on if the aircraft is located north of the very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station?
    • A. 

      270°

    • B. 

      180°

    • C. 

      090°

    • D. 

      000°

  • 461. 
    Magnetic bearing to the very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station is 75°. In order to get a FROM flag in view on the horizontal situation indicator (HSI), manually set the selected course to
    • A. 

      75°

    • B. 

      150°

    • C. 

      210°

    • D. 

      360°

  • 462. 
    During instrument landing system (ILS) operation, a full-scale deflection of the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) vertical needle indicates the aircraft is off course by
    • A. 

      0.3°

    • B. 

      0.6°

    • C. 

      1.25°

    • D. 

      2.5°

  • 463. 
    In instrument landing system (ILS) operation, if the pilot's attitude director indicator bank steering bar deflects to the left, what direction must the pilot fly to get the aircraft back on the runway centerline?
    • A. 

      Fly up

    • B. 

      Fly left

    • C. 

      Fly right

    • D. 

      Fly down

  • 464. 
    In instrument landing system (ILS) operation, a deflection of two dots on the attitude director indicator (ADI) glide slope deviation scale indicates that the aircraft is off the glide path by
    • A. 

      0.25°

    • B. 

      0.6°

    • C. 

      2.5°

    • D. 

      6.0°

  • 465. 
    When the instrument landing system (ILS) marker beacon amber (orange) lamp illuminates, the pilot hears a
    • A. 

      400-Hz Tone

    • B. 

      3,000-Hz Tone

    • C. 

      1,000-Hz Tone

    • D. 

      1,300-Hz Tone

  • 466. 
    The ARN-147 receiver is divided into how many different receivers?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 467. 
    The ARN-147 very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR)/localizer receiver can receive and process signals between 108.00 to 117.95 MHz space 50 MHz apart, providing
    • A. 

      100 VHF omnirange channels and 100 localizer channels

    • B. 

      120 VHF omnirange channels and 80 localizer channels

    • C. 

      140 VHF omnirange channels and 60 localizer channels

    • D. 

      160 VHF omnirange channels and 40 localizer channels

  • 468. 
    The AN/ARN-147 glide slope receiver processes frequencies ranging from
    • A. 

      329.15 to 335.00 MHz

    • B. 

      319.15 to 325.00 MHz

    • C. 

      108 to 117.95 MHz

    • D. 

      108.01 to 111.50 MHz

  • 469. 
    The AN/ARN-147 system uses how many separate antennas?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

  • 470. 
    Which system is used to determine if an aircraft is friend or foe?
    • A. 

      TACAN

    • B. 

      RADAR

    • C. 

      ADF

    • D. 

      IFF

  • 471. 
    The ground radar and the identification, friend or foe (IFF) interrogator transmissions are synchronized so that the radar returns can be
    • A. 

      Displayed on a separate plan position indicator (PPI)

    • B. 

      Displayed on the PPI independent of the IFF reply

    • C. 

      Displayed on the PPI together with the IFF reply

    • D. 

      Used to display altitude information

  • 472. 
    When your aircraft AIMS is replying to interrogations with personal identification (military only), then it is using what mode?
    • A. 

      Mode 1

    • B. 

      Mode 2

    • C. 

      Mode 3/A

    • D. 

      Mode 4

  • 473. 
    The identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 interrogation consists of
    • A. 

      Two 0.5-microsecond pulses, spaced 2 microseconds apart

    • B. 

      Two 0.8-microsecond pulses, spaced 21 microseconds apart

    • C. 

      Four 0.5-microsecond pulses, spaced 2 microseconds apart

    • D. 

      Four 0.8-microsecond pulses, spaced 21 microseconds apart

  • 474. 
    In order for the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system to sense side lobe interrogations, the interrogating station with transmit a
    • A. 

      P1 pulse 2 microseconds after the first interrogation pulse

    • B. 

      P2 pulse 2 microseconds after the first interrogation pulse

    • C. 

      P1 pulse 6 microseconds before the first interrogation pulse

    • D. 

      P2 pulse 2 microseconds before the first interrogation pulse

  • 475. 
    The identification, friend or foe (IFF) information pulses used for mode 1 replies are
    • A. 

      A1, A2, A3, B1, and B4

    • B. 

      A1, A2, A4, B1, and B2

    • C. 

      A1, A4, B1, B4, and C1

    • D. 

      A1, B1, B2, B4, and C1

  • 476. 
    The maximum number of identification, friend or foe (IFF) reply codes that can be selected in mode 1 is
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      73

    • C. 

      77

    • D. 

      1064

  • 477. 
    To prevent accidental switching, the identification, friend or foe (IFF) control box master switch must be pulled out before being turned to
    • A. 

      STBY or OFF

    • B. 

      STBY or NORM

    • C. 

      EMER or OFF

    • D. 

      EMER or NORM

  • 478. 
    When the IDENT-OUT-MIX switch is in the MIC position, identification, friend or foe (IFF) identification of position (I/P) replies are triggered every time the
    • A. 

      HF radio is keyed

    • B. 

      LHF radio is keyed

    • C. 

      UHF radio is keyed

    • D. 

      VHF radio is keyed

  • 479. 
    Which position of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 code selection switch is spring loaded?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      Zero

    • D. 

      Hold

  • 480. 
    What is the function of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) antenna switching unit?
    • A. 

      Provides for altitude sensing

    • B. 

      Allows the system to go from operate to test

    • C. 

      Provides switching of the system from transmit to receive

    • D. 

      Provides switching between the bottom and the top antennas

  • 481. 
    The altitude-encoder provides the identification, friend or foe (IFF) transponder pressure altitude encoded in
    • A. 

      50-foot increments

    • B. 

      100-foot increments

    • C. 

      200-foot increments

    • D. 

      500-foot increments

  • 482. 
    Illuminating of which monitor light on the front of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) receiver transmitter (RT) indicates satisfactory operation of the local oscillator mixer circuits?
    • A. 

      CODER

    • B. 

      REC VID

    • C. 

      XTAL CUR

    • D. 

      XMTR OSC

  • 483. 
    How many complete reply trains for identification of position (I/P) operation are generated by the coding circuits when the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system's I/P control circuits are enabled?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 484. 
    Mode IV identification, friend or foe (IFF) code settings can be retained by momentarily placing the MODE 4 CODE switch in the spring-loaded HOLD position and maintaining aircraft power for at least how long after selecting HOLD?
    • A. 

      5 seconds

    • B. 

      8 seconds

    • C. 

      10 seconds

    • D. 

      15 seconds

  • 485. 
    Which of the following is not an advantage of an active on board collision avoidance system
    • A. 

      Works anywhere in the world

    • B. 

      Relies on local radar to generate transponder replies

    • C. 

      Has an onboard system that queries local transponders for replies

    • D. 

      Creates images of the local traffic for display on multifunction displays

  • 486. 
    The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) surveys valid transponder traffic that is approximately
    • A. 

      15 to 40 NMs forward, 5 to 15 NMs aft, and 10 to 20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • B. 

      15 to 40 NMs forward, 10 to 20 NMs aft, and 5 to 15 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • C. 

      10 to 40 NMs forward, 5 to 15 NMs aft, and 10 to 20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • D. 

      10 to 20 NMs forward, 5 to 15 NMs aft, and 10 to 40 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

  • 487. 
    Which of the following is not considered a critical calculation made by the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)?
    • A. 

      Range

    • B. 

      Speed

    • C. 

      Bearing

    • D. 

      Altitude

  • 488. 
    If a yellow circle is displayed on the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) resolution advisory/vertical speed indicator, then the intruder aircraft is
    • A. 

      Within 25 seconds closesnt point of approach (CPA)

    • B. 

      Within 35 seconds CPA

    • C. 

      Within 48 seconds CPA

    • D. 

      Within 58 seconds CPA

  • 489. 
    If the aircraft pilot is given a Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) resolution advisory of "increase climb, increase climb", then the pilot should maneuver the aircraft to a
    • A. 

      +1000 feet per minute (fpm) climb

    • B. 

      +1500 fpm climb

    • C. 

      +2000 fpm climb

    • D. 

      +2500 fpm climb

  • 490. 
    What advisories are generated if an intruder aircraft is operating a non0altitude reporting transponder?
    • A. 

      Traffic advisories

    • B. 

      Resolution advisories

    • C. 

      Degraded traffic advisories

    • D. 

      Degraded traffic and resolution advisories

  • 491. 
    What is the purpose of the mode S Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) function?
    • A. 

      Track all TCAS equipped aircraft

    • B. 

      Develop TCAS symbology for traffic advisories

    • C. 

      Establish resolution advisories based on intruding aircraft position

    • D. 

      Establish and track aircraft identification and characteristics addresses

  • 492. 
    Which of the following is not a resolution advisory?
    • A. 

      Corrective

    • B. 

      Preventative

    • C. 

      Change to current advisory

    • D. 

      Change to previous advisory

  • 493. 
    If a radar echo returnes after 310 microseconds, how far away is the target?
    • A. 

      10 miles

    • B. 

      25 miles

    • C. 

      50 miles

    • D. 

      75 miles

  • 494. 
    In which radar system does the transmitter produce a signal that regularly changes over a known range of frequencies?
    • A. 

      Beacon

    • B. 

      Frequency-shift

    • C. 

      Pulse-modulation

    • D. 

      Frequency-modulation

  • 495. 
    In a pulse-modulation radar system, the transmitter does not interfere with the receiver. This is possible because the transmitter
    • A. 

      Is turned off after each pulse.

    • B. 

      Shifts the frequency of the pulse

    • C. 

      Transmits ona different frequency

    • D. 

      Uses a different antenna than the receiver

  • 496. 
    Which radar system is based on the Doppler principle?
    • A. 

      Beacon

    • B. 

      Frequency-shift

    • C. 

      Pulse-modulation

    • D. 

      Frequency-modulation

  • 497. 
    In a pulse-modulation radar system, a high pulse repetition frequency radar limits range by
    • A. 

      Using less power

    • B. 

      Using more power

    • C. 

      Shortening listening time

    • D. 

      Lengthening listening time

  • 498. 
    Which component in a pulse-modulation radar set supplies the voltages that operate the other radar components?
    • A. 

      Antenna

    • B. 

      Indicator

    • C. 

      Transmitter

    • D. 

      Power Supply

  • 499. 
    Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system controls the operation of the entire radar set?
    • A. 

      Antenna

    • B. 

      Indicator

    • C. 

      Transmitter

    • D. 

      Synchronizer

  • 500. 
    Where does the radar transmitter in a pulse-modulation radar system send a small amount of energy for use as a time reference?
    • A. 

      Antenna

    • B. 

      Receiver

    • C. 

      Indicator

    • D. 

      Power Supply

  • 501. 
    The minimum range of a pulse-modulation radar system is determined by the pulse
    • A. 

      Shape

    • B. 

      Duration

    • C. 

      Recurrence time

    • D. 

      Repetition frequency

  • 502. 
    As the pulse duration of a radar system increases, what will happen to the systems minimum and maximum range?
    • A. 

      Minimum range will increase, maximum rangle will increase

    • B. 

      Minimum range will increase, maximum rangle will decrease

    • C. 

      Minimum range will decrease, maximum rangle will decrease

    • D. 

      Minimum range will decrease, maximum rangle will increase

  • 503. 
    The maximum rangle of apulse-modulation radar system primarily depends on
    • A. 

      Pulse shape

    • B. 

      Power output

    • C. 

      Pulse recurrence time

    • D. 

      Pulse repitition frequency

  • 504. 
    In a frequency-shift radar system, the Doppler principle makes it possible to instantaneously sense and measure
    • A. 

      Altitude and ground track

    • B. 

      Target elevation and speed

    • C. 

      Groundspeed and drift angle

    • D. 

      Magnetic heading and altitude

  • 505. 
    In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a transmitter/receiver(T/R) and an aircraft when the received frequency is lower that the transmitted frequency?
    • A. 

      They are a constant distance away from each other

    • B. 

      The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulses

    • C. 

      Tye aircraft is flying toward the T/R

    • D. 

      The aircraft is flying away from the T/R

  • 506. 
    If the operating frequency is 100m megahertz (MHZ) with a wavelength of 3 meters, then the frequency determining wall of the waveguide would be
    • A. 

      .9 meters

    • B. 

      1.5 meters

    • C. 

      2.1 meters

    • D. 

      2.7 meters

  • 507. 
    The function of a dummy load in search and weather radar is to
    • A. 

      Simulate a capacitive load

    • B. 

      Simulate a resistive load

    • C. 

      Prevent standing waves

    • D. 

      Simulate targets

  • 508. 
    What component is used to couple radio frequency energy between the waveguide and test equipment
    • A. 

      Feedhorn

    • B. 

      Duplexer

    • C. 

      Dummy Load

    • D. 

      Directional Coupler

  • 509. 
    What is triggered when the AS-653C Radar Antenna Reflector rotates through the aircraft lubber line?
    • A. 

      Bearing Circuit

    • B. 

      Tilt control circuit

    • C. 

      Stabilization circuit

    • D. 

      Heading marker circuit

  • 510. 
    Which component in the AN/APN-59 Radar System furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors?
    • A. 

      AS-653C

    • B. 

      RT-289G

    • C. 

      AM-853B

    • D. 

      CN-221A

  • 511. 
    What component in the AN/APN-59 Radar System provides stabilized pitch and roll reference data for control of antenna orientation, despite changes in aircraft altitude?
    • A. 

      CN-221A

    • B. 

      RT-289G

    • C. 

      AM-853B

    • D. 

      C-1242A

  • 512. 
    What is the maximum height that the combined altitude radar altimeter subsystem computes aircraft altitude above ground level?
    • A. 

      5,000 feet

    • B. 

      25,000 feet

    • C. 

      35,000 feet

    • D. 

      50,000 feet

  • 513. 
    When power is applied to the combined altitude radar altimeter, what is shown on the digital display?
    • A. 

      All eights

    • B. 

      All dashes

    • C. 

      The word INIT

    • D. 

      The word TEST

  • 514. 
    What is/are the function(s) of the SET knob located on the combined altitude radar altimeter indicator?
    • A. 

      Used as an on/off control

    • B. 

      Used as an on/off control and to set the VALI indicator

    • C. 

      Used as an on/off control and as a test button to check the system

    • D. 

      Used as an on/off control, to set the VALI indicator, and as a test button to check the system

  • 515. 
    What is the maximum altitude that the analog pointer and dial of the combined altitude radar altimeter can display?
    • A. 

      5,000 feet

    • B. 

      10,000 feet

    • C. 

      25,000 feet

    • D. 

      50,000 feet

  • 516. 
    Which radar application is used to produce a pictorial map of the terrain?
    • A. 

      Ground mapping

    • B. 

      Terrain following

    • C. 

      Terrain avoidance

    • D. 

      Synthetic aperture radar

  • 517. 
    Which radar application is used primarily as an aid to navigation
    • A. 

      Search radar

    • B. 

      Ground mapping

    • C. 

      Terrain following

    • D. 

      Terrain avoidance

  • 518. 
    Which radar application is used to fly along a preselected altitude above the ground?
    • A. 

      Search radar

    • B. 

      Ground mapping

    • C. 

      Terrain following

    • D. 

      Terrain avoidance

  • 519. 
    Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters?
    • A. 

      Search radar

    • B. 

      Weather radar

    • C. 

      Bombing radar

    • D. 

      Synthetic aperture radar

  • 520. 
    What establishes the network system time for a Link-16 system?
    • A. 

      GPS

    • B. 

      UTC

    • C. 

      Net control station

    • D. 

      Network time reference

  • 521. 
    How many hops per second does a Tactical Digital Information Link (TADIL) J perform to preclude jamming by a narrow band jammer?
    • A. 

      51,000 per second

    • B. 

      77,000 per second

    • C. 

      51,000 per minute

    • D. 

      77,000 per minute

  • 522. 
    When a Link-16 operator initiates the system using net number 127, then it indicates the use of a
    • A. 

      Subnet

    • B. 

      Stacked net

    • C. 

      Primary net

    • D. 

      Alternate net

  • 523. 
    To enhance voice clarity on Tactical Digital Information Link (TADIL) J secure digitized voice channels, the operator will select which data rate?
    • A. 

      4 kilobits

    • B. 

      8 kilobits

    • C. 

      16 kilobits

    • D. 

      32 kilobits

  • 524. 
    What is the maximum number of Joint Tactical Distribution System (JTIDS) units (JU) that can participate in a Link-16 net?
    • A. 

      7,777 JUs

    • B. 

      4,092 JUs

    • C. 

      32,766 JUs

    • D. 

      524,284 JUs

  • 525. 
    To receive a track quality value of 15, how close must the track be to the reported position?
    • A. 

      25 feet

    • B. 

      50 feet

    • C. 

      250 feet

    • D. 

      500 feet

  • 526. 
    Which of the following fields does the Link-16 friendly status reports contain?
    • A. 

      Activity

    • B. 

      Nationality

    • C. 

      Specific Type

    • D. 

      Equipment status

  • 527. 
    What does the relative navigation (RELNAV) function of the Link-16 system determine?
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Distance

    • C. 

      Synchronization

    • D. 

      Geodetic position

  • 528. 
    The elapsed time indicator of the receiver/transmitter (R/T0 indicates time power has been
    • A. 

      Applied to the R/T

    • B. 

      Removed from the R/T

    • C. 

      Applied to digital data processor

    • D. 

      Removed from digital data processor

  • 529. 
    Which subassembly is part of the control monitor set (CMS)?
    • A. 

      Secure data unit (SDU)

    • B. 

      Multiplex interface unit

    • C. 

      SDU load control unit

    • D. 

      Interface unit (IU)

  • 530. 
    When transmitting in the high power mode, what is the power output of the high power amplifier of the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)
    • A. 

      1050 watts

    • B. 

      520 watts

    • C. 

      260 watts

    • D. 

      130 watts

  • 531. 
    What power source is used to provide emergency back-up power to the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) terminal to maintain critical data?
    • A. 

      Lithium batteries

    • B. 

      Sulphur dioxide batteries

    • C. 

      Nicked-cadmium batteries

    • D. 

      Nickel-metal hydride batteries

  • 532. 
    What is the range of signals that the low pass filters pass?
    • A. 

      240-304 megahertz (MHz)

    • B. 

      480-608 MHz

    • C. 

      960-1215 MHz

    • D. 

      1920-2430 MHz

  • 533. 
    What is the operating band used by Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)?
    • A. 

      L-Band

    • B. 

      S-Band

    • C. 

      X-Band

    • D. 

      Ku-Band

  • 534. 
    How many bits of data can be transmitted in a given time slot of a Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)?
    • A. 

      258 bits

    • B. 

      465 bits

    • C. 

      516 bits

    • D. 

      930 bits

  • 535. 
    Which time slot structure would you utilize if you wanted to reduce the silent period and eliminate redundant information every two pulses in the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)?
    • A. 

      Packed-1 structure

    • B. 

      Packed-2 structure

    • C. 

      Packed-3 structure

    • D. 

      Packed-4 structure

  • 536. 
    When can the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) synchronization process be initiated?
    • A. 

      Once before a Net Entry message is transmitted

    • B. 

      Every 12 seconds when a Net Entry message is transmitted

    • C. 

      Every 12 seconds before a Net Entry message is transmitted

    • D. 

      Once in the beginning after a Net Entry message is transmitted

  • 537. 
    In coarse synchronization, how man receivers are used by the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) receiver/transmitter?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 538. 
    What are the two processes in which Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) fine sychronization are accomplished?
    • A. 

      Passive and active

    • B. 

      Active and dynamic

    • C. 

      Passive and radio silent

    • D. 

      Radio silent and reflexive

  • 539. 
    Which component of the Tactical Information Gateway (TIG) system enables beyond line-of-sight (BLOS) coverage
    • A. 

      L-Band Antennas

    • B. 

      Multipurpose interface panel

    • C. 

      Low noise amplifier/diplexer assembly

    • D. 

      Satellite communication/global positioning system antenna

  • 540. 
    To prevent interference and possible terminal shutdowns, what systems does the Tactical Information Gateway (TIG) system monitor?
    • A. 

      IFF, ETCAS, and TACAN

    • B. 

      ETCAS and radar altimeter

    • C. 

      IFF, color weather radar, and MLS

    • D. 

      TACAN, VOR/ILS, and radar altimeter

  • 541. 
    The serial transmission bit rate for the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus is
    • A. 

      1 megabit per second

    • B. 

      8 megabits per second

    • C. 

      16 megabits per second

    • D. 

      32 megabits per second

  • 542. 
    What is the structure of a Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data word?
    • A. 

      20 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 16 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits

    • B. 

      20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bit, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bits

    • C. 

      32 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 28 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits

    • D. 

      32 bits long consisting of 3 sync bit, 28 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bits

  • 543. 
    In the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus system, if the bus controller (BC) does not require the data for processing, then what type of command is being used?
    • A. 

      RT to BC

    • B. 

      BC to RT

    • C. 

      RT to RT

    • D. 

      BC to BC

  • 544. 
    Which of these is not a function of the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus mode codes?
    • A. 

      Resetting terminals

    • B. 

      Synchronizing the subsystem time

    • C. 

      Executing a bus controller (BC) broadcast command

    • D. 

      Commanding a bus terminal (RT) to initiate a system self-test

  • 545. 
    Which Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus version does not provide the definitions for mode codes?
    • A. 

      MIL-STD 1553A

    • B. 

      MIL-STD 1553B

    • C. 

      MIL-STD 1553C

    • D. 

      MIL-STD 1553D

  • 546. 
    If a bus controller (BC) sends a command for all remote terminals (RT) to listen to data from another RT, then what type of command is being sent on the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus?
    • A. 

      Listen command

    • B. 

      System command

    • C. 

      Receive command

    • D. 

      Broadcast command

  • 547. 
    What is the primary unit of any computer information system?
    • A. 

      Storage

    • B. 

      Memory

    • C. 

      Arithmetic logic unit

    • D. 

      Central processing unit

  • 548. 
    The basic element in a computer microchip is
    • A. 

      Silver

    • B. 

      Silicon

    • C. 

      Copper

    • D. 

      Aluminum

  • 549. 
    Chips with circuits that can do the work of all the different parts of a computer are called
    • A. 

      Valves

    • B. 

      Microchips

    • C. 

      Circuit boards

    • D. 

      Microprocessors

  • 550. 
    If the computer is receiving a binary code digit of 1, then that represents
    • A. 

      Pulse

    • B. 

      No-pulse

    • C. 

      On or off

    • D. 

      Pulse or no-pulse

  • 551. 
    What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator?
    • A. 

      Memory

    • B. 

      Logic Unit

    • C. 

      Control Unit

    • D. 

      Arithmetic Unit

  • 552. 
    The primary computer memory that usually cannot be erased is called
    • A. 

      Random access memory (RAM)

    • B. 

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • C. 

      Secondary

    • D. 

      Auxiliary

  • 553. 
    Random access memory (RAM) is used to
    • A. 

      Provide secondary memory access

    • B. 

      Provide auxiliary storage capabilities

    • C. 

      Store computer operating information

    • D. 

      Store information being calculated by the computer

  • 554. 
    What keeps the computer monitor's electron beams from spilling over into the wrong phosphors and improperly mixing colors?
    • A. 

      Refresh rate

    • B. 

      Electron gun

    • C. 

      Shadow mask

    • D. 

      Cathode-ray tube

  • 555. 
    The resolution of a computer monitor is expressed in the number of pixels that make up the image. The sharper the image, the
    • A. 

      Lower the dot color

    • B. 

      Higher the dot pitch

    • C. 

      Higher the resolution

    • D. 

      Higher the refresh rate

  • 556. 
    A video graphics array (VGA0 computer monitor has how many pixels per horizontal line?
    • A. 

      320

    • B. 

      480

    • C. 

      640

    • D. 

      800

  • 557. 
    The main function of the switches within a network is to
    • A. 

      Build protocols to send across the network

    • B. 

      Forward frames of information over a network

    • C. 

      Generates a radio signal to extend range of a network

    • D. 

      Enable several users to send information over a network

  • 558. 
    The technique where blocks of data can be segmented into numerous blocks so sequential blocks can be written is
    • A. 

      Parity

    • B. 

      Bridging

    • C. 

      Mirroring

    • D. 

      Data stripping

  • 559. 
    Which redundant array of independent disks (RAID) parity is distributed across all drives and eliminates a bottleneck?
    • A. 

      RAID-2

    • B. 

      RAID-3

    • C. 

      RAID-4

    • D. 

      RAID-5

  • 560. 
    If you are checking for absolute power, then the power meter can be switched to display in either watts or
    • A. 

      DB

    • B. 

      DBm

    • C. 

      Dbm

    • D. 

      Db

  • 561. 
    What power meter control compensates for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor
    • A. 

      CAL ADJ

    • B. 

      CAL FACTOR %

    • C. 

      SENSOR ZERO

    • D. 

      RANGE HOLD

  • 562. 
    When calibrating the power sensor you adjust the CAL ADJ control so that the digital readout indicates
    • A. 

      -1.000 mW (milliwatt)

    • B. 

      1.000 mW

    • C. 

      -1.000W (watt)

    • D. 

      1.000W

  • 563. 
    Before turning on the power meter, you must make sure it is
    • A. 

      Properly married with the power sensor

    • B. 

      Set to match the line voltage you're using

    • C. 

      Properly married with the spectrum analyzer

    • D. 

      Adjusted to the frequency range to be measured

  • 564. 
    Horizontal deflection on the cathode-ray tube (CRT) on the time domain refloctometer (TDR) equates to
    • A. 

      Current

    • B. 

      Voltage

    • C. 

      Distance

    • D. 

      Reflected amplitude

  • 565. 
    A time domain refloctometer (TDR) display that starts in the upper left corner of the screen and drops down at mid screen, and departs in the lower right screen indicates
    • A. 

      An open

    • B. 

      A short

    • C. 

      A frayed cable

    • D. 

      A crimped cable

  • 566. 
    The radio frequency tranmission line test set (RFTLTS) is used to diagnose cable faults through voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)/ return loss measurements and
    • A. 

      Voltage tests

    • B. 

      Continuity tests

    • C. 

      Disturbance measurements

    • D. 

      Distance-to-fault measurements

  • 567. 
    Which key of a radio frequency tranmission line test set (RFTLTS)would you use to access the alpha portion of the alphanumeric key?
    • A. 

      DELETE

    • B. 

      SELECT

    • C. 

      ENTER

    • D. 

      TEST

  • 568. 
    What measurements are performed with the radio frequency tranmission line test set (RFTLTS) when a fault is suspected in a RF transmission path because of unacceptable insertion loss?
    • A. 

      Voltage tests

    • B. 

      Continuity tests

    • C. 

      Disturbance measurements

    • D. 

      Distance-to-fault measurements

  • 569. 
    Before power is connected to the radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) you must ensure the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position and a suitable grounding strap is connected between the grounding lug on the right side of RFTLTS unit 1 and the
    • A. 

      Aircraft

    • B. 

      Power unit

    • C. 

      Parking ramp

    • D. 

      Time domain reflectometer

  • 570. 
    Which unit of the radio frequency tranmission line test set (RFTLTS) is the accessory kit?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 571. 
    To avoid measurement errors due to electromagnetic forces, the Model 4328A Milliohmmeter utilizes a
    • A. 

      .1-kilohertz (kHz) signal

    • B. 

      5-kHz signal

    • C. 

      10-kHz signal

    • D. 

      15k-Hz signal

  • 572. 
    The Model 4328A Milliohmmeter can maintain continuous batter operation for up to a total of
    • A. 

      6 hours

    • B. 

      8 hours

    • C. 

      10 hours

    • D. 

      12 hours

  • 573. 
    To set the Model 4328A Milliohmeter to mechanical zero, you must rotate the
    • A. 

      Zero adjust screw with the meter turned on

    • B. 

      Zero adjust screw with the meter turned off

    • C. 

      Meter adjust screw with the meter turned on

    • D. 

      Meter adjust screw with the meter turned off

  • 574. 
    When using the 1 and 3 milliohm (mΩ) range on the Model 4328A Milliohmeter, the probes and cables should be perpendicular from the conductor face or placed how far away from the conducting surface?
    • A. 

      10 millimeters

    • B. 

      10 centimeters

    • C. 

      10 inches

    • D. 

      1 foot

  • 575. 
    If 2 pounds of force is applied to the handle end of a 5-inch wrench, how much torque has been developed at the bolt end of the wrench?
    • A. 

      2½-inch-pounds

    • B. 

      5-inch-pounds

    • C. 

      10-inch-pounds

    • D. 

      20-inch-pounds

  • 576. 
    Which torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values?
    • A. 

      Type I

    • B. 

      Type II

    • C. 

      Type III

    • D. 

      Type IV

  • 577. 
    The purpose of a balanced torquing sequence is to
    • A. 

      Prevent warping in the assembly

    • B. 

      Allow the use of two different torque wrenches

    • C. 

      Ensure the recommended torque value is attained

    • D. 

      Ensure the recommended torque value is not exceeded

  • 578. 
    If you are going to torque a self-locking nut to 50-70 inch-pounds and tech order states that the prevailing torque is at 30 inch-pounds, then the desired torque reading should
    • A. 

      Remain at 50-70 inch-pounds

    • B. 

      Be compensated to read 20-40 inch-pounds

    • C. 

      Be compensated to read 80-100 inch-pounds

    • D. 

      Be disregarded since self-locking nuts are not torqued

  • 579. 
    If you are going to torque a bolt to 60 inch-pounds and your wrench is 12 inches but you need to use an 8 inch extension, then what should your torque wrench be set at to compensate for the extension and reach the correct torque?
    • A. 

      18 inch-pounds

    • B. 

      24 inch-pounds

    • C. 

      36 inch-pounds

    • D. 

      52 inch-pounds

  • 580. 
    Before using a dropped torque wrench, you must
    • A. 

      Have it recalibrated

    • B. 

      Update the certification label

    • C. 

      Cycle through the breakaway torque

    • D. 

      Set the wrench to its maximum setting

  • 581. 
    The keyboard assemble of the SBA-100F bus analyzer consists of a
    • A. 

      Standard QWERTY format

    • B. 

      Standard QWERTY format and a 14 key HEX format

    • C. 

      Standard QWERTY format and a 16 key HEX format

    • D. 

      Standard QWERTY format and a 18 key HEX format

  • 582. 
    Sealants keep out water, fumes and the atmosphere to protect the airframe against
    • A. 

      Wear and tear

    • B. 

      Corrosion

    • C. 

      Chaffing

    • D. 

      Leakage

  • 583. 
    The main purpose of a waveguide gasket is to prevent leakage of
    • A. 

      Energy

    • B. 

      Protons

    • C. 

      Electrons

    • D. 

      Air pressure

  • 584. 
    The gain of which APX-64 Transponder Receiver/Transmitter module is increased when the confidence test is performed?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency (RF)

    • B. 

      Test

    • C. 

      Decoder

    • D. 

      Intermediate frequency (IF) amplifier

  • 585. 
    The operating modes of the TS-1843A Transponder test set are
    • A. 

      TEST and RF

    • B. 

      TEST and MONITOR

    • C. 

      CONFIDENCE and RF

    • D. 

      MONITOR and CONFIDENCE

  • 586. 
    How many C-size batteries are required to replace the battery stick in the transponder TS-3977 test set?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 587. 
    When you press the TEST SEQ button on the transponder TS-3977 test set, the display will be visible for maximum of
    • A. 

      1 second

    • B. 

      3 seconds

    • C. 

      5 seconds

    • D. 

      10 seconds

  • 588. 
    When the TS-3977 test set battery voltage is low
    • A. 

      Six of the decimal points are flashing on and off

    • B. 

      The red light-emitting diode is flashing on and off

    • C. 

      A test code indication of "3" is flashing on and off

    • D. 

      The yellow light-emitting diode is flashing on and off

  • 589. 
    Which Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) checks should not be performed when using the ARM-184 flightline test set connected as a radiating transponder?
    • A. 

      Transmitter frequency and transmitter power

    • B. 

      Receiver frequency and distance track rate

    • C. 

      Transmitter power and receiver sensitivity

    • D. 

      Receiver frequency and bearing track rate

  • 590. 
    If you turn the BEARING CW/CCW switch on the ARM-184 flightline test set, then the indicator should increase or decrease at an angular rate of
    • A. 

      5° per second

    • B. 

      10° per second

    • C. 

      °12 per second

    • D. 

      °15 per second

  • 591. 
    If the ARM-186 Very-High Frequency Omnirange/Instrument Landing System (VOR/ILS) ramp test set AMBER power indicator is on, how much operation time remains on the battery charge?
    • A. 

      0 to 1 hour

    • B. 

      1 to 2 hours

    • C. 

      2 to 3 hours

    • D. 

      3 to 4 hours

  • 592. 
    The ARM-186 Very-High Frequency Omnirange/Instrument Landing System (VOR/ILS) test set provides radio frequency (RF) attenuation for signals over a 110-dB (decibels) range in what increments?
    • A. 

      1 dB

    • B. 

      2 dB

    • C. 

      5 dB

    • D. 

      10 dB

  • 593. 
    In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
    • A. 

      Air Force Mobility Command.

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • C. 

      Inspector General.

    • D. 

      Lead Command.