2A251 Volume 2 UREs
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which structural area is designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
- A.
Doors
- B.
Nacelles
- C.
Windows
- D.
Plates and skins
Correct Answer
A. DoorsExplanation
Doors are designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components. They provide access to the interior of the aircraft, allowing technicians to easily reach and examine various systems and components. Doors are typically located in strategic areas of the aircraft, such as the fuselage, wings, or landing gear, to ensure easy access for maintenance purposes. By opening the doors, technicians can perform inspections, repairs, or routine maintenance tasks on the aircraft's components, ensuring their proper functioning and safety.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which major aircraft structural area provides support for engines?
- A.
Wings
- B.
Nacelles
- C.
Fuselage
- D.
Stabilizers
Correct Answer
B. NacellesExplanation
Nacelles are the correct answer because they are the major aircraft structural area that provides support for engines. Nacelles are the streamlined enclosures on an aircraft that house the engines. They are typically attached to the wings or fuselage and provide support and protection for the engines.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which structural area is not considered a major aircraft structural area?
- A.
Windows
- B.
Fuselage
- C.
Stabilizers
- D.
Wing carry-through
Correct Answer
D. Wing carry-throughExplanation
The wing carry-through is not considered a major aircraft structural area. The major structural areas of an aircraft typically include the fuselage, stabilizers, and wings. The wing carry-through refers to the structure that connects the wings to the fuselage, providing support and stability. While it is an important component, it is not considered a major structural area on its own.Rate this question:
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- 4.
How does independent positioning determine subsystems function of aircraft systems?
- A.
By recording radar data
- B.
By calculating aircraft velocity
- C.
Independent of inertial navigation
- D.
Independent of ground equipment
Correct Answer
D. Independent of ground equipmentExplanation
Independent positioning determines the subsystems function of aircraft systems by being able to operate without relying on any ground equipment. This means that the aircraft's systems can function autonomously, without the need for external support or guidance. This independence allows for greater flexibility, reliability, and efficiency in the operation of the aircraft systems, as they are not reliant on external factors or equipment.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which display is not part of an engine indicating system?
- A.
Fuel flow
- B.
Oil quantity
- C.
Engine vibration
- D.
Water temperature
Correct Answer
D. Water temperatureExplanation
The water temperature display is not part of an engine indicating system because it is not directly related to the functioning or performance of the engine. Engine indicating systems typically include displays for fuel flow, oil quantity, and engine vibration, as these parameters directly affect the engine's operation. Water temperature, on the other hand, is more relevant to the cooling system of the engine rather than its direct operation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
- A.
From the side of the wheel
- B.
At a 45° angle to the wheel
- C.
From the front or behind the wheel
- D.
Only after the blowout screen is in place
Correct Answer
C. From the front or behind the wheelExplanation
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, it is recommended to approach from the front or behind the wheel. This is because approaching from the side of the wheel or at a 45° angle to the wheel can put the person at risk of being in the path of a potential blowout. Approaching from the front or behind the wheel allows for a safer distance and reduces the risk of injury in case of a blowout.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What happens when radiofrequency (RF) energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
Heat is produced
- C.
Your heart beats irregularly
- D.
Your internal organs start deteriorating
Correct Answer
B. Heat is producedExplanation
When radiofrequency (RF) energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body, it leads to the production of heat. RF energy is a form of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate the body and cause molecules in the tissue to vibrate, resulting in the generation of heat. This heat production can have various effects on the body, such as warming the surrounding tissues and potentially causing damage if the temperature rises significantly.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The minimum safe distance from a high-frequency (HF) antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
- D.
10 feet
Correct Answer
C. 5 feetExplanation
The minimum safe distance from a high-frequency (HF) antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is 5 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure that individuals are not exposed to excessive levels of electromagnetic radiation, which can be harmful to human health. By maintaining a distance of 5 feet, the risk of potential health hazards associated with high-frequency antenna radiation is minimized.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The variables upon which radiation hazards depend does not include which of the following?
- A.
Time of exposure
- B.
Strength of emission
- C.
Experience of the operator
- D.
Number of units operating in the area
Correct Answer
C. Experience of the operatorExplanation
The variables upon which radiation hazards depend include time of exposure, strength of emission, and number of units operating in the area. However, the experience of the operator is not a variable that directly affects radiation hazards. While an experienced operator may have better knowledge and skills to handle radiation equipment safely, it does not directly impact the hazards themselves.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is
- A.
75 dBA (decibels)
- B.
84 dBA
- C.
96 dBA
- D.
100 dBA
Correct Answer
B. 84 dBAExplanation
The correct answer is 84 dBA because it falls within the range of noise levels that are considered relatively safe. Noise levels above 85 dBA can cause hearing damage with prolonged exposure, so 84 dBA is just below that threshold. It is important to note that even though 84 dBA is considered relatively safe, it is still recommended to limit exposure to loud noises and use hearing protection when necessary to prevent any potential damage to hearing.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is located to the rear of the engine though an angle of how many degrees on either side?
- A.
30°
- B.
45°
- C.
60°
- D.
90°
Correct Answer
B. 45°Explanation
The correct answer is 45°. The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine are located to the rear of the engine through an angle of 45° on either side. This means that the noise is most intense within a 90° cone behind the engine.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate that a person is suffering from overexposure to noise?
- A.
Nausea
- B.
Vomiting
- C.
Dizziness
- D.
Unconsciousness
Correct Answer
D. UnconsciousnessExplanation
Unconsciousness is the least likely physical symptom to indicate overexposure to noise. While prolonged exposure to loud noise can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and dizziness, unconsciousness is not typically associated with noise exposure. Unconsciousness is more commonly linked to other factors such as head trauma, lack of oxygen, or certain medical conditions. Therefore, if a person is experiencing unconsciousness, it is unlikely to be solely caused by overexposure to noise.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following actions is not a required action when working around moving machinery?
- A.
Wearing loose, comfortable clothing
- B.
Buttoning your shirt cuffs
- C.
Taking off your rings
- D.
Taking off your watch
Correct Answer
A. Wearing loose, comfortable clothingExplanation
Wearing loose, comfortable clothing is not a required action when working around moving machinery. This is because loose clothing can easily get caught in the machinery, leading to serious injuries or accidents. It is important to wear fitted clothing that does not have any loose ends or hanging parts that can be entangled in the machinery.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Guidelines for different areas of fire prevention on the flight line can be found in the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard
- A.
91-45
- B.
91-56
- C.
91-301
- D.
91-302
Correct Answer
B. 91-56Explanation
The correct answer is 91-56. The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard 91-56 provides guidelines for different areas of fire prevention on the flight line. This standard outlines the necessary safety measures and precautions to prevent fires and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. It covers topics such as fire prevention plans, fire detection and suppression systems, emergency procedures, and training requirements. By following the guidelines outlined in AFOSH Standard 91-56, the Air Force can effectively mitigate the risks of fires on the flight line.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance (PDM) inspection concept?
- A.
ACC
- B.
AMC
- C.
AFSOC
- D.
All units regardless of MAJCOM
Correct Answer
D. All units regardless of MAJCOMExplanation
The programmed depot maintenance (PDM) inspection concept applies to all units regardless of MAJCOM. This means that all units, regardless of their Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Mobility Command (AMC), or Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) affiliation, are subject to PDM inspections. The PDM inspection concept is not limited to specific units or commands, but rather encompasses all units in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Preflight
- C.
End-of-runway
- D.
Basic postflight
Correct Answer
B. PreflightExplanation
A flight preparedness check is a type of inspection that is conducted before a flight takes off. This inspection is performed to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working condition and ready for flight. It involves checking various components and systems of the aircraft, such as the fuel, oil, landing gear, and controls. The purpose of this inspection is to identify any potential issues or problems that may affect the safety or performance of the aircraft during the flight. Therefore, the correct answer is "Preflight."Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which type of inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Preflight
- C.
End-of-runway
- D.
Basic postflight
Correct Answer
C. End-of-runwayExplanation
End-of-runway inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft. This type of inspection is conducted after the aircraft has completed its taxiing and is ready for takeoff. It involves a thorough inspection of the aircraft's exterior, including checking for any signs of damage, loose parts, or fluid leaks. This inspection ensures that the aircraft is in proper working condition before it takes off, minimizing the risk of any potential defects causing issues during the flight.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When is the thruflight (TH) inspection performed?
- A.
After the last flight of the day
- B.
Before the aircraft goes on alert
- C.
Prior to takeoff and at intermediate stops
- D.
After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed
Correct Answer
C. Prior to takeoff and at intermediate stopsExplanation
The thruflight (TH) inspection is performed prior to takeoff and at intermediate stops. This means that the inspection is conducted before the aircraft departs for its next flight and also during any scheduled stops along the way. This ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly checked and any necessary maintenance or repairs can be carried out before continuing the journey. Performing the inspection at these specific times helps to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft throughout its flight operations.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
- A.
Minor
- B.
Major
- C.
Phase
- D.
Periodic
Correct Answer
D. PeriodicExplanation
Periodic inspections are more extensive than hourly or basic postflight inspections because they cover certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection. These inspections are conducted at regular intervals and involve a thorough examination of specific components to ensure their proper functioning and identify any potential issues or wear and tear that may have occurred over time.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
- A.
Major
- B.
Phase
- C.
Preflight
- D.
Hourly postflight
Correct Answer
B. pHaseExplanation
The phase inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection. Unlike major inspections, which require extensive maintenance and can take the aircraft out of service for a longer period, phase inspections are more routine and can be completed more quickly. By conducting phase inspections, aircraft can undergo regular maintenance and checks without causing significant downtime, ensuring that they remain operational for a longer period.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When the home station check (HSC) inspection becomes due during a long range mission, it is completed at the base
- A.
To which the aircraft belongs
- B.
Where the first intermediate stop is made
- C.
From which the mission is being performed
- D.
Nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due
Correct Answer
A. To which the aircraft belongsExplanation
The correct answer is "to which the aircraft belongs". This means that when the home station check inspection is due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base where the aircraft is registered or belongs to. This ensures that the inspection is carried out by the appropriate personnel who are familiar with the aircraft and its maintenance history.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
- A.
Special inspection
- B.
Operator inspection
- C.
Acceptance inspection
- D.
Periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication
Correct Answer
B. Operator inspectionExplanation
Operator inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing. This type of inspection is typically performed by the operator of the equipment or machinery to ensure that it is in proper working condition and to identify any potential issues or defects. The operator is responsible for regularly inspecting and maintaining the equipment to ensure its safe and efficient operation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When are acceptance inspections performed?
- A.
Equipment is being transferred
- B.
Newly assigned equipment arrives
- C.
Directed by a major command or local policy
- D.
As stated in the applicable technical order
Correct Answer
B. Newly assigned equipment arrivesExplanation
Acceptance inspections are performed when newly assigned equipment arrives. This is the point at which the equipment is checked to ensure that it is in proper working order and meets the necessary requirements. These inspections are crucial to ensure that the equipment is ready for use and to identify any potential issues or defects that may need to be addressed before it can be put into service.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Malfunctions documented on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Equipment Maintenance Record, are the responsibility of
- A.
Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE) mechanics
- B.
Flight line technicians
- C.
Propulsion mechanics
- D.
Avionics backshop personnel
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE) mechanicsExplanation
AFTO Form 244 is used to document malfunctions in equipment maintenance. Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE) mechanics are responsible for maintaining and repairing ground equipment used in aviation operations. Therefore, it can be inferred that they would be the ones responsible for addressing the malfunctions documented on the AFTO Form 244.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Part V of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document
- A.
Item identification
- B.
Scheduled inspections
- C.
Nonscheduled inspections
- D.
Maintenance/delayed discrepancies
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance/delayed discrepanciesExplanation
Part V of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document maintenance/delayed discrepancies. This section is specifically designed to record any issues or discrepancies found during maintenance activities that may cause a delay in the completion of the task. It allows technicians to document and track these discrepancies, ensuring that they are addressed and resolved in a timely manner. This documentation is crucial for maintaining the overall operational readiness and safety of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft
- A.
Inspections
- B.
Flight records
- C.
Configurations
- D.
Component repairs
Correct Answer
D. Component repairsExplanation
The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781-series is a documentation form used in the Air Force to record various aspects of aircraft maintenance and operations. However, it would not be used to document component repairs. This is because component repairs require more detailed and specific documentation, which is typically done through separate forms or procedures. The AFTO Form 781-series is more commonly used for inspections, flight records, and configurations, as these can be easily recorded and tracked using this standardized form.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
Correct Answer
A. 781AExplanation
The correct answer is 781A because the statement mentions that each discrepancy discovered is documented on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form. Among the options given, the AFTO Form 781A is specifically used for documenting discrepancies and corrective actions for aircraft maintenance. Therefore, it is the most appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who ensures the job control number is entered on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A?
- A.
Technician
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Crew chief
- D.
Aircrew member
Correct Answer
A. TechnicianExplanation
The technician ensures that the job control number is entered on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A. This is because the technician is responsible for completing and documenting maintenance activities, including filling out the necessary forms and ensuring all required information is accurately recorded. The job control number is an important identifier for tracking and managing maintenance tasks, so it is crucial for the technician to enter it correctly on the AFTO Form 781A.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which type of information is required in the correction active block of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A?
- A.
Description of the corrective action
- B.
Technical order references
- C.
Techician's signature
- D.
Supervisor's signature
Correct Answer
A. Description of the corrective actionExplanation
In the correction active block of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A, the required information is the description of the corrective action. This is important because it provides a clear and detailed account of the steps taken to correct any issues or problems identified. It helps to ensure that the necessary actions have been taken and allows for proper documentation and tracking of the corrective measures implemented. The description of the corrective action provides valuable information for future reference and analysis.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information of the aircraft?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
Correct Answer
C. 781HExplanation
The correct answer is 781H. The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form 781H is used to document the maintenance status and servicing information of the aircraft. This form is specifically designed for recording historical maintenance data, including scheduled and unscheduled maintenance actions, inspections, and servicing performed on the aircraft. It provides a comprehensive record of the maintenance history, allowing for effective tracking and analysis of the aircraft's maintenance status.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H?
- A.
Pilot
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Engine technician
- D.
Production supervisor
Correct Answer
A. PilotExplanation
The pilot is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H. This form is used to track and record the usage and maintenance of aircraft engines. As the person operating the aircraft, the pilot is in the best position to accurately document the engine cycles, which include information such as start, shutdown, and duration of engine operation. The pilot's role in recording this information ensures that accurate maintenance records are maintained and helps in planning and scheduling engine maintenance activities.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data to include operating time?
- A.
781A
- B.
781J
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
Correct Answer
B. 781JExplanation
The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO 781J form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking the usage and maintenance of aircraft and their engines. It provides a comprehensive record of the aircraft's operating hours, cycles, and other important data.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
Correct Answer
C. 781KExplanation
The correct answer is 781K. The AFTO form 781K is used to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data in the Air Force. This form is specifically designed for recording maintenance actions that are not completed within the required timeframe. It allows technicians to document the reasons for the delay and any additional information related to the inspection or maintenance. By using the 781K form, the Air Force can ensure that all necessary data is recorded accurately and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 34.
To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, you would use which form?
- A.
AFTO form 244
- B.
AFTO Form 781K
- C.
AF Form 1492, WARNING TAG
- D.
AF Form 979, DANGER TAG
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 1492, WARNING TAGExplanation
The AF Form 1492, WARNING TAG, would be used to "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored. This form serves as a visual warning to alert personnel of potential dangers and prompt them to take appropriate action to prevent accidents or further damage.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?
- A.
The bottom portion
- B.
The top portion
- C.
Neither
- D.
Both
Correct Answer
A. The bottom portionExplanation
The bottom portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder. This suggests that the bottom portion contains important information that needs to be cross-checked with the aircraft forms, indicating that it plays a crucial role in ensuring accuracy and consistency in the documentation process.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The accumulation of an electrical charge on the surface of a material is referred to as static
- A.
Cling
- B.
Discharge
- C.
Generation
- D.
Electricity
Correct Answer
D. ElectricityExplanation
The accumulation of an electrical charge on the surface of a material is referred to as electricity. This is because electricity is the flow of electric charge, and when charge accumulates on the surface of a material, it creates an electrical charge. Static electricity is a term used to describe this accumulation of charge, which can occur through various processes such as friction, induction, or contact. The term "cling" refers to sticking or adhering to something, "discharge" refers to the release of accumulated charge, and "generation" refers to the production or creation of something, but neither of these terms specifically describe the accumulation of an electrical charge on a material's surface.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which condition helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
- A.
Using nonconducting packaging materials
- B.
Using proper insulating materials
- C.
Dehumidified air
- D.
Humid air
Correct Answer
D. Humid airExplanation
Humid air helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges. When the air is humid, it contains water molecules which can conduct electricity. This helps to neutralize any electrostatic charges that may be present, reducing the likelihood of a discharge occurring. In contrast, dry air can increase the buildup of static electricity and make it more likely for a discharge to happen. Therefore, maintaining a humid environment can be beneficial in minimizing the effects of electrostatic discharges.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which option is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) components?
- A.
Using protective tote boxes
- B.
Covering line replaceable unit (LRU) connector plugs
- C.
Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
- D.
Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft
Correct Answer
A. Using protective tote boxes -
- 39.
Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an electrostatic discharge (ESD)
- A.
Use of ionizers
- B.
Wearing of personal clothing
- C.
Improper use of conductive bags
- D.
Improper use of conductive tote boxes
Correct Answer
A. Use of ionizersExplanation
The use of ionizers in an electrostatic discharge (ESD) environment could pose a safety hazard to personnel. Ionizers are designed to neutralize static charges in the air, but if not properly maintained or used incorrectly, they can generate high levels of ozone or release particles that can be harmful to human health. Therefore, the use of ionizers without proper precautions and training can potentially endanger the safety of personnel in an ESD setting.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Shielded cable consists of
- A.
A metallic braid over the insulation
- B.
A metal conductor covered with a dielectric
- C.
An inner conductor separated by an insulation dielectric
- D.
A compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies
Correct Answer
A. A metallic braid over the insulationExplanation
Shielded cable consists of a metallic braid over the insulation to provide electromagnetic shielding. This shielding helps to prevent external electromagnetic interference from affecting the signals transmitted through the cable. The metallic braid acts as a barrier, blocking or absorbing the electromagnetic waves and preventing them from interfering with the signal. This ensures that the signal remains clear and free from any external disturbances, making shielded cable suitable for applications where signal integrity is crucial, such as in data transmission or sensitive electronic equipment.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which type of cable is used to carry radio frequency (RF) power from one point to another?
- A.
Electromagnetic pulse (EMP)
- B.
Coaxial
- C.
Shielded
- D.
Insulated wire
Correct Answer
B. CoaxialExplanation
Coaxial cable is used to carry radio frequency (RF) power from one point to another. It consists of a central conductor, surrounded by an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. The design of the coaxial cable allows for efficient transmission of RF signals without interference or loss of power. The shielded construction helps to minimize signal loss and external interference, making coaxial cable the ideal choice for carrying RF power.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which option is not a type of connector coupling?
- A.
Friction
- B.
Bayonet
- C.
Insertion
- D.
Threaded
Correct Answer
C. InsertionExplanation
The question asks for an option that is not a type of connector coupling. The options "Friction," "Bayonet," and "Threaded" are all types of connector couplings commonly used in various industries. However, "Insertion" is not a recognized type of connector coupling. Therefore, the correct answer is "Insertion."Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is not a radiofrequency (RF) connector precaution?
- A.
Never step on the cable
- B.
Ensure a good grip when using pliers
- C.
Ensure you solder double shielded cables together
- D.
Ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable
Correct Answer
B. Ensure a good grip when using pliersExplanation
This answer is correct because ensuring a good grip when using pliers is not specifically related to radiofrequency (RF) connector precautions. The other options mentioned are all precautions that should be taken when dealing with RF connectors.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
- A.
Stretching of the glass fibers
- B.
Greater elasticity of the glass fibers
- C.
Reduced optical power transmission
- D.
Good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing
Correct Answer
C. Reduced optical power transmissionExplanation
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance can cause the glass fibers within the fiber to become stretched. This stretching can disrupt the alignment of the fibers, leading to increased signal loss and reduced optical power transmission. Therefore, the correct answer is reduced optical power transmission.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which feature is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire?
- A.
Immunity to electromagnetic interference
- B.
Low attenuation
- C.
Light weight
- D.
Cost
Correct Answer
D. CostExplanation
Fiber optic cables have several advantages over copper wire, including immunity to electromagnetic interference, low attenuation, and light weight. However, one disadvantage of fiber optic cables is their higher cost compared to copper wire.Rate this question:
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- 46.
When you are performing electrical soldering, you should always use which particular type of solder?
- A.
Rosin core
- B.
Acid core
- C.
Hard
- D.
Soft
Correct Answer
A. Rosin coreExplanation
When performing electrical soldering, it is important to use rosin core solder. Rosin core solder contains a flux core made of rosin, which helps to remove oxidation and promote good solder flow. This type of solder is specifically designed for electrical work and is commonly used for soldering wires, circuit boards, and other electronic components. Acid core solder, on the other hand, is not suitable for electrical soldering as it contains corrosive acid flux, which can damage electronic components. Hard and soft solder are not specifically designed for electrical work and may not provide the same level of reliability and conductivity as rosin core solder.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Rosin core flux must be used for electrical soldering because it has
- A.
Softer materials
- B.
Harder materials
- C.
Noncorrosive effects
- D.
A lower melting point
Correct Answer
C. Noncorrosive effectsExplanation
Rosin core flux must be used for electrical soldering because it has noncorrosive effects. When soldering electrical components, it is important to use a flux that does not corrode or damage the materials being soldered. Rosin core flux, which is a type of soldering flux, is specifically designed to be noncorrosive, ensuring that it does not cause any harm to the electrical components. This helps to maintain the integrity and functionality of the soldered connections, making it a suitable choice for electrical soldering applications.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves
- A.
Cooling the iron by dipping in water
- B.
Jerking the iron to remove excess solder
- C.
Tapping an iron on a table to remove excess solder
- D.
Keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it
Correct Answer
D. Keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using itExplanation
Keeping an electric soldering iron in a proper holder when not in use is important for proper care because it ensures that the iron is stored safely and prevents it from causing any accidental damage or injuries. Placing the iron in a holder also helps to protect the soldering tip from being damaged or contaminated, which can affect its performance. Additionally, storing the iron in a holder prevents it from coming into contact with flammable materials or causing any fire hazards.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which piece of equipment material is not a type of solderless connector?
- A.
Splice
- B.
Terminal lug
- C.
Connector splice
- D.
Connector plug pins
Correct Answer
C. Connector spliceExplanation
A connector splice is not a type of solderless connector because it involves joining two wires or cables together using a soldering technique. Solderless connectors, on the other hand, are designed to make electrical connections without the need for soldering. They typically use mechanical means such as clamps, screws, or compression fittings to secure the wires or cables together.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which type of solderless connector is used to permit easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?
- A.
Splice
- B.
Terminal lug
- C.
Connector splice
- D.
Connector plug pins
Correct Answer
B. Terminal lugExplanation
A terminal lug is a type of solderless connector that is used to permit easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment. It is designed to securely connect wires to terminals or electrical devices without the need for soldering. Terminal lugs are commonly used in electrical installations, automotive wiring, and industrial applications. They provide a reliable and durable connection, ensuring proper conductivity and reducing the risk of loose or faulty connections.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Mar 25, 2016Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
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