2A251 Volume 1 UREs

98 Questions | Total Attempts: 244

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What factor gives the Air Force wings, squadrons, and units the capability of fighting from either main bases or bare bones forward operating locations at any level of combat?
    • A. 

      Centralization

    • B. 

      Decentralization

    • C. 

      Strategic intelligence

    • D. 

      Dispersed flying units

  • 2. 
    Who ensures the wing's quality assurance program is viable and implemented?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • C. 

      Operations Group Commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Squadron Commander

  • 3. 
    Who monitors new requirements for training, equipment authorizations, special tools, work space, facilities, and manning?
    • A. 

      Section Chief

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent

  • 4. 
    Who manages the squadron's cannibalization program?
    • A. 

      Section Chief

    • B. 

      Flight line Expediter

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent

  • 5. 
    Whose role is it to assess, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition; and improve reliability/maintainability of aircraft and support equipment?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance

    • C. 

      Weapons Standardization

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

  • 6. 
    Who or what coordinating/facilitating entity is responsible for monitoring and supporting the flight line maintenance effort?
    • A. 

      Weapons Operation Center (WOC)

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • C. 

      Operations Group/Commander (OG/CC)

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group/Commander (MXG/CC)

  • 7. 
    Which activities are a responsibiltiy of the maintenance operations center?
    • A. 

      Review the guidance provided by the Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander on cross-functional areas

    • B. 

      Ensure maintenance training is provided office, classroom, and hangar space

    • C. 

      Notify appropriate agencies of severe weather warnings

    • D. 

      Ensure quality assurance guidelines are being followed

  • 8. 
    What publication contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and employing Air Force resources?
    • A. 

      Air Force manuals

    • B. 

      Air Force policy directives

    • C. 

      Air Force mission directives

    • D. 

      Air Force doctrine documents

  • 9. 
    What are Air Force policy directives?
    • A. 

      Directives that prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, responsibilities, and command relationships of AF units.

    • B. 

      Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by AF activities at any level

    • C. 

      Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff and issued as departmental publications

    • D. 

      Guidance documents consisting of procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks

  • 10. 
    Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force that have been approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff and issued as departmental publications are called
    • A. 

      Air Force mission directives

    • B. 

      Air Force policy directives

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions

    • D. 

      Air Force manuals

  • 11. 
    Procedures of detailed "how-to" instructions are not to appear within what publication?
    • A. 

      Air Force manuals

    • B. 

      Air Force instructions

    • C. 

      Air Force mission directives

    • D. 

      Air Force policy directives

  • 12. 
    What document consists of procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks?
    • A. 

      Mission directives

    • B. 

      Air Force manuals

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions

    • D. 

      Air Force policy directives

  • 13. 
    Informational publications that include procedures for implementing Air Force policies are called
    • A. 

      Indexes

    • B. 

      Pamphlets

    • C. 

      Directories

    • D. 

      Supplements

  • 14. 
    Informational publications that guide, point out, or otherwise facilitate research are called
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Directories

    • C. 

      Pamphlets

    • D. 

      Indexes

  • 15. 
    Informational publications that are compilations of systematically arranged information are called
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Directories

    • C. 

      Pamphlets

    • D. 

      Indexes

  • 16. 
    Who uses Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) System information for validating manpower requirements?
    • A. 

      Commander (CC)

    • B. 

      Work center supervisors

    • C. 

      Air Force Logistic Command (AFLC)

    • D. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

  • 17. 
    What is the primary source of information for equipment configuration status at base, command, and depot levels?
    • A. 

      Maintenance cost system (MCS)

    • B. 

      Maintenance data collection (MDC)

    • C. 

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    • D. 

      Advanced Configuration Management System (ACMS)

  • 18. 
    The Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) is designed to provide information to support Air Force
    • A. 

      Document production data for the maintenance data collection (MDC)

    • B. 

      Data for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    • C. 

      Data for the Defense Data Network (DDN)

    • D. 

      Equipment maintenance program

  • 19. 
    The Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) System data element used to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job is the
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      Job control number

    • D. 

      Identification number

  • 20. 
    The first five digits of a job control number (JCN) indicate the
    • A. 

      Year and Julian date

    • B. 

      Last five digits of the equipment serial number

    • C. 

      First five digits of the equipment serial number

    • D. 

      Month and year that the maintenance discrepancy was discovered

  • 21. 
    What five-character Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) System data element is used to identify systems or subsystems that require maintenance?
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Job control number

    • C. 

      Identification number

    • D. 

      Standard reporting designator

  • 22. 
    What is entered in column C of AFTO Form 349, Maintenance Data Collection Record, to document a time compliance technical order (TCTO)?
    • A. 

      The work unit code (WUC)

    • B. 

      The TCTO support general code

    • C. 

      First five characters of the national item identification number

    • D. 

      First five characters of the TCTO data code or command-assigned data code

  • 23. 
    An entry of any number greater than 1 in the column G of AFTO Form 349, Maintenance Data Collection Record, indicates the number of
    • A. 

      Units completed

    • B. 

      Units requiring maintenance

    • C. 

      Technicians per unit of work

    • D. 

      Times the action taken was performed

  • 24. 
    What form is used as an accountability document for items managed under the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) program?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 244

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 781

  • 25. 
    Dates entered on AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, that pertain to repair cycle times are used
    • A. 

      To identify time change requirements

    • B. 

      For establishing equipment need dates

    • C. 

      For determining manpower requirements

    • D. 

      As an aid in determining spares requirements

  • 26. 
    What is entered in block 15 of AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, if an item is not repairable?
    • A. 

      A description of the malfunction

    • B. 

      A brief description of the repair efforts

    • C. 

      Signature of the performing work center supervisor

    • D. 

      The letters for not repairable this station (NRTS) and the NRTS code

  • 27. 
    When is an entry required in the stock record account number (SRAN) code block of AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag?
    • A. 

      Upon completion of the repair action

    • B. 

      For on-equipment maintenance actions

    • C. 

      For off-equipment maintenance actions

    • D. 

      When a not repairable this station (NRTS) determination is made

  • 28. 
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a
    • A. 

      Base-level computer system used for supply management

    • B. 

      Command-level computer system used for supply management

    • C. 

      Base-level computer system used for maintenance management

    • D. 

      Command-level computer system used for maintenance management

  • 29. 
    Maintenance personnel use the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) to communicate with the base computer system by using
    • A. 

      Punched cards

    • B. 

      Preprinted forms

    • C. 

      A remote terminal

    • D. 

      A telephone modem

  • 30. 
    Correcting erroneous data is a function of
    • A. 

      Data reporting

    • B. 

      Information retrieval

    • C. 

      Database management

    • D. 

      The error detection subsystem

  • 31. 
    How often are Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports produced and sent to higher headquarters?
    • A. 

      Whenever requested

    • B. 

      At scheduled intervals

    • C. 

      At the end of each duty day

    • D. 

      Whenever the form entry count reaches 500

  • 32. 
    What Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen allows the operator to schedule jobs for the work center?
    • A. 

      53

    • B. 

      54

    • C. 

      380

    • D. 

      907

  • 33. 
    The primary purpose of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen 380 is to
    • A. 

      Provide an up-to-date list of open job control numbers (JCN)

    • B. 

      Provide an opportunity to modify entries found to be in error

    • C. 

      Generate a new JCN and show time spent against this number

    • D. 

      Maintain the present data and status of the YR/EVENT IDs and work center events (WCE)

  • 34. 
    An online inquiry option can be selected from Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen 099 by inputting the
    • A. 

      Option number

    • B. 

      ID ASSIGNED and the option number

    • C. 

      YR/EVENT ID and the option number

    • D. 

      YR/EVENT ID, work center event (WCE), and the option number

  • 35. 
    Which is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?
    • A. 

      Mission scheduling

    • B. 

      Maintenance scheduling

    • C. 

      Personnel leave scheduling

    • D. 

      Personnel training management

  • 36. 
    Under the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System profanity program, who is not contacted by the G081 system when profanity is detected?
    • A. 

      Headquarters (HQ) Air Mobility Command (AMC)

    • B. 

      Logistics group commander

    • C. 

      G081 management section

    • D. 

      G081 system user

  • 37. 
    Of the four types of programs used in the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System, which is considered to be the "heart" of the system?
    • A. 

      Variable Information Retrieval Program (VIRP)

    • B. 

      Data output

    • C. 

      Data input

    • D. 

      Batch

  • 38. 
    Users of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System know they are logged out when they see which word on the computer screen?
    • A. 

      BYE

    • B. 

      END

    • C. 

      MOBILITY

    • D. 

      MAINTENANCE

  • 39. 
    Supply discipline is best described as
    • A. 

      Extra consideration to get the most from available resources

    • B. 

      Protection given to Air Force (AF) resources

    • C. 

      Instructions given to protect AF resources

    • D. 

      Command-directed supply procedures

  • 40. 
    Supply discipline starts with
    • A. 

      Each individual

    • B. 

      Your supervisor

    • C. 

      Your commander

    • D. 

      Your branch chief

  • 41. 
    Who is accountable for equipment items?
    • A. 

      Supply personnel and equipment custodians

    • B. 

      Resource advisors and equipment custodians

    • C. 

      Maintenance personnel and resource advisors

    • D. 

      Equipment manufacturers and supply personnel

  • 42. 
    What Supply printout provides the user a list of all parts ordered, but not received?
    • A. 

      Daily document register

    • B. 

      Due-out validation listing

    • C. 

      Mission capability (MICAP) status report

    • D. 

      Custodian authorization and custody receipt list

  • 43. 
    What type of property responsibility is applicable when a sergeant takes possession of a box that fell of an Air Force supply truck?
    • A. 

      Custodial

    • B. 

      Command

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 44. 
    When a person who is responsible for property is transferred, and the property remains with the organization, property responsibility
    • A. 

      Is dropped

    • B. 

      Remains with the person

    • C. 

      Stays in the organization

    • D. 

      Is transferred to the supply squadron

  • 45. 
    What document is used to explain and record the circumstances involving the loss, damage, or destruction of government equipment item that cost more than $500?
    • A. 

      Report of survey

    • B. 

      A statement of charges

    • C. 

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order

    • D. 

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges for Government Property Lost, Damage, or Destroyed

  • 46. 
    What document is used to acquire a piece of nonexpendable equipment?
    • A. 

      Allowance Standards

    • B. 

      Custodian authorization/custody receipt

    • C. 

      AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1, DOD Single Line Item Release\Receipt Document

  • 47. 
    The purpose for the aircraft parts store is to
    • A. 

      Support the normal supply squadron functions

    • B. 

      Make assets immediately available to the using activity

    • C. 

      Maintain accurate supply records for each using activity

    • D. 

      Provide one-time issue of tools for maintenance personnel

  • 48. 
    The on-hand quantity of bench stock items does not normally exceed how many days?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 49. 
    How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
    • A. 

      Uses process standardization

    • B. 

      Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle

    • C. 

      Allows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances

    • D. 

      Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field

  • 50. 
    Personnel at the originating point are responsible for all except which action?
    • A. 

      Screening

    • B. 

      Identifying

    • C. 

      Discovery

    • D. 

      Documenting

  • 51. 
    What type of deficiency report requires submission by message within three workdays after the discovery of the deficiency?
    • A. 

      CAT I

    • B. 

      CAT II

    • C. 

      Material

    • D. 

      Software

  • 52. 
    Who determines the supply delivery priority based on the severity of the malfunction and its impact on the mission?
    • A. 

      Technician

    • B. 

      Base supply

    • C. 

      Lead technician

    • D. 

      Production Superintendent

  • 53. 
    What Urgency Justification Code would be used for a routine aircraft part?
    • A. 

      AA

    • B. 

      BA

    • C. 

      CA

    • D. 

      DA

  • 54. 
    The Air Force technical order (TO) numbering system is explained in detail in TO
    • A. 

      0-4-2

    • B. 

      0-1-01

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-18

  • 55. 
    The first group of characters in Air Force technocal order (TO) number 33D7-10-1 identifies the
    • A. 

      Kind of TO

    • B. 

      Equipment's major system

    • C. 

      Specific item of requipment

    • D. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

  • 56. 
    The fourth group of characters in the Air Force technical order (TO) number 1B-1B-2-6 identifies the
    • A. 

      Kind of TO

    • B. 

      Specific item of equipment

    • C. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

    • D. 

      Equipment model or part number

  • 57. 
    In the Air Force technical order (TO) system, an index TO contains
    • A. 

      A listing of other TOs

    • B. 

      An index of TO revisions

    • C. 

      A group breakdown of category-specific TOs

    • D. 

      A group breakdown of major Air Force equipment

  • 58. 
    In the Air Force technical order (TO) system, what TO index lists all authorized indexes?
    • A. 

      0-1-1

    • B. 

      0-1-01

    • C. 

      0-1-1-1

    • D. 

      0-1-1-2

  • 59. 
    In the Air Force technical order (TO) system, what index TO contains a cross-reference listing of data code numbers assigned to active time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?
    • A. 

      0-4-1

    • B. 

      0-4-2

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-2

  • 60. 
    Air Force technical manuals that contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment are called
    • A. 

      Job guides

    • B. 

      Aircraft TOs

    • C. 

      Commercial manuals

    • D. 

      Other equipment TOs

  • 61. 
    Publications that contain instructions for use of equipment, in addition to data contained in other manuals, are identified as
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Other equipment TOs

    • C. 

      Supplemental manuals

    • D. 

      Commercial off-the-shelf manuals

  • 62. 
    In the Air Force, commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) technical manuals are normally identified by an
    • A. 

      Assigned TO number

    • B. 

      Equipment part number

    • C. 

      Air Force stock number

    • D. 

      Equipment manufacturer ID number

  • 63. 
    What Air Force technical order (TO) is not a type of time compliance technical order (TCTO)?
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Interim

    • C. 

      Urgent action

    • D. 

      Emergency action

  • 64. 
    What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) can be identified by red border markings - either red Xs or circled red Xs alternately spaced?
    • A. 

      Routine and urgent

    • B. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • C. 

      Routine and emergency

    • D. 

      Emergency and immediate

  • 65. 
    Interim time compliance technical order (TCTO) are normally replaced by formal TCTOs within a maximum time period of
    • A. 

      7 days

    • B. 

      10 days

    • C. 

      36 hours

    • D. 

      48 hours

  • 66. 
    What letters are contained in the numerical designator of a checklist technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      CL

    • B. 

      LC

    • C. 

      WC

    • D. 

      CW

  • 67. 
    What type of number identified a technical order (TO) as a preliminary TO?
    • A. 

      TO number

    • B. 

      Change number

    • C. 

      Supplement number

    • D. 

      Sequential copy number

  • 68. 
    Where are change pages inserted in existing technical orders (TO)?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      After the page of the same number

    • C. 

      Before the page of the same number

    • D. 

      In place of the page of the same number

  • 69. 
    The authorized types of technical order (TO) supplements are
    • A. 

      Routine, safety, and formal

    • B. 

      Routine, safety, and operational

    • C. 

      Safety, operational, and interim

    • D. 

      Interim, safety, and operational

  • 70. 
    Which statement best describes technical order page supplements (TOPS)?
    • A. 

      Like standard TO supplements, TOPS replace outdated TO pages

    • B. 

      Unlike standard TO supplements, TOPS do not include a title page

    • C. 

      TOPS can be issued when the time factor prevents issuing a standard change

    • D. 

      TOPS can be issued only when procedural changes could cause personal injury

  • 71. 
    In a basic technical order (TO), how are the pages of an appendix filed?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      In front of the title page of the TO

    • C. 

      In page number sequence throughout the TO

    • D. 

      In section number sequence throughout the TO

  • 72. 
    The types of technical order (TO) improvements are
    • A. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • B. 

      Emergency and urgent

    • C. 

      Emergency, urgent, and routine

    • D. 

      Emergency, immediate, and routine

  • 73. 
    The alpha identifiers used in the organization maintenance manual set (OMMS) are
    • A. 

      GS, JG, FA, WD, IPB

    • B. 

      GS, JG, FR, WD, IPB

    • C. 

      GS, GV, JG, FR, WR, IPB

    • D. 

      GS, GV, JG, FR, WD, IPB

  • 74. 
    The number 32-11-10-110-6 is an example of what type of organization maintenance manual set (OMMS) reference number?
    • A. 

      Reference designator

    • B. 

      Ground readiness test number

    • C. 

      SRU system/subsystem number

    • D. 

      SRU system/subsystem/subject number

  • 75. 
    What does the -003 in system/subsystem/subject number 34-11-10-003 identify?
    • A. 

      Shop replaceable unit (SRU) identification

    • B. 

      Line replaceable unit (LRU) identification

    • C. 

      Functional procedure

    • D. 

      General procedure

  • 76. 
    What does the alpha code in reference designator 3231FC01 identify?
    • A. 

      Sub-subsystem

    • B. 

      Component type

    • C. 

      Diagram reference

    • D. 

      Line replaceable unit (LRU) identification

  • 77. 
    What type of organization maintenance manual set (OMMS) manual would you use to find an overall description of aircraft systems?
    • A. 

      Wiring data

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      General vehicle

    • D. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown

  • 78. 
    A job guide (JG) manual includes
    • A. 

      General systems theory

    • B. 

      Output conditions pages

    • C. 

      Functional maintenance procedures

    • D. 

      A means of identifying and reporting faults

  • 79. 
    Section I of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides information on use of codes and designations found in the technical order and a
    • A. 

      Table of contents for the IPB

    • B. 

      List of related technical orders (TO)

    • C. 

      List of part numbers cross-referenced to stock numbers

    • D. 

      Cross-reference information on related supply publications

  • 80. 
    The introduction to section I of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides the user the capability of cross-referencing
    • A. 

      Part numbers and figure numbers

    • B. 

      Part numbers and reference designators

    • C. 

      Reference designators and index numbers

    • D. 

      Reference designators and figure numbers

  • 81. 
    In section IV of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB), reference designations are arranged
    • A. 

      Numerically

    • B. 

      Alphabetically

    • C. 

      Alphanumerically

    • D. 

      By order of assembly

  • 82. 
    The data system used to assign and control computer program identification numbers (CPIN) is the
    • A. 

      Embedded computer system (ECS)

    • B. 

      Computer software component (CSC)

    • C. 

      Computer software configuration item (CSCI)

    • D. 

      Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS)

  • 83. 
    The Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) provides a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except
    • A. 

      Manage software

    • B. 

      Develop software

    • C. 

      Identify software

    • D. 

      Distribute software

  • 84. 
    Which major functions of the Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) provides a short summary of information for each computer program identification numbers (CPIN)?
    • A. 

      Compendium requirements

    • B. 

      Interactive CPIN assignments

    • C. 

      Compendiums and cross-references

    • D. 

      CPIN data entry and database management

  • 85. 
    United States Air Force customers must establish computer program identification numbers (CPIN) requirements through
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) contractors

    • B. 

      Technical order distribution office (TODO)

    • C. 

      Administrative contract officers

    • D. 

      Procuring contract officers

  • 86. 
    How many separate components may a computer program identification numbers (CPIN) have?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 87. 
    A computer program identification numbers (CPIN) prefix indicates that the CPIN is
    • A. 

      A revision

    • B. 

      Identified for a specific category

    • C. 

      Assigned a major function identifier

    • D. 

      Assigned to a country standard CSCI

  • 88. 
    How many computer program identification numbers (CPIN) identifier fields are there?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 89. 
    In the computer program identification numbers (CPIN) identifier, the first field consists of
    • A. 

      Software-tupe code

    • B. 

      CSCI baseline code

    • C. 

      Subsystem and system codes

    • D. 

      Category and major function codes

  • 90. 
    How many general types of Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) compendiums are there?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 91. 
    An Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) cross-reference compendium contains
    • A. 

      Command managed CPINS

    • B. 

      Quick reference for research aids

    • C. 

      A list of currently published ACPINS compendiums

    • D. 

      Computer software configuration items (CSCI) assigned to major equipment

  • 92. 
    An Automated Computer Program Identification Number (ACPINS) command compendium contains
    • A. 

      Equipment to part number computer program identification numbers (CPINS)

    • B. 

      Country standard computer software configuration items (CSCI)

    • C. 

      CPINs identified with a MAJCOM designator

    • D. 

      CSCIs assigned to fields of technology

  • 93. 
    If you wanted to address inquiries on a classification interpretation, then what section of the security classification guide would you use?
    • A. 

      Operational data

    • B. 

      General Instructions

    • C. 

      Release of information

    • D. 

      Performance and capabilities

  • 94. 
    Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?
    • A. 

      Hardware

    • B. 

      Operational data

    • C. 

      Performance and capabilities

    • D. 

      Funding, procurement, and production

  • 95. 
    The SF 702, Security Container Check Sheet, is used to
    • A. 

      List and record security inspection items

    • B. 

      Approve the storage of classified material

    • C. 

      Document opening and closure of the security container

    • D. 

      Provide an inventory of classified material in the security container

  • 96. 
    If you order a Secret classified asset from base supply, what do you need to receive custory of the asset?
    • A. 

      Have a military identification card and a valid need to know

    • B. 

      Hold a top secret security clearance and a valid need to know

    • C. 

      Have a valid need to know and be listed on an authorized roster

    • D. 

      Have a military identification card and be listed on an authorized roster

  • 97. 
    What safeguarding is necessary for top-secret equipment installed aboard an aircraft without priority A designation?
    • A. 

      Use an intrusion detection system

    • B. 

      Check the aircraft every three hours

    • C. 

      Park the aircraft in a restricted area for priority B

    • D. 

      Take no further action if owner/user stays with the aircraft

  • 98. 
    In the event of an emergency landing, responsibility for the security of classified equipment on an aircraft rests with the
    • A. 

      Aircraft commander

    • B. 

      Unit commander

    • C. 

      Allied base commander

    • D. 

      Receiving base's wing commander