2S051 CDC Materiel Management: Toughest Trivia Quiz

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1. Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items?

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2S051 CDC Materiel Management: Toughest Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Below is what is considered the toughest trivia quiz when it comes to 2S051 material management course. It has some of the questions from past exams that most students had a hard time answering, and it also shows what you might be tested come the finals. Give it a try... see moreand refresh your understanding while you still have time to study more. see less

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2. Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

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3. What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

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4. Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?

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5. An organizational refusal would be a customer's reponsibilty if the 

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6. What are the two types of open storage areas?

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7. Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be 

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8. What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

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9. The practice of storing item in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called 

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10. Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS?

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11. At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

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12. Which of the following in not  a factor to consider when operation MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

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13. The ERRCD for bench stock items must be 

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14. Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

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15. The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the 

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16. Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that 

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17. What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location?

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18. Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

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19. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage and utilization?

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20. What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

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21. Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

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22. What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?

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23. What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032

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24. Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

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25. Whose reponsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

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26. How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

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27. What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?

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28. Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

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29. Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

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30. An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance doe not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than

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31. What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poison, and certain batteries?

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32. Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

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33. The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?

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34. What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?

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35. To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

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36. Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?

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37. When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?

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38. Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

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39. Reusable containers come in how many categories?

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40. What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

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41. What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?

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42. Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?

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43. When deficiencies are noted during as scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many day does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?

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44. Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

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45. The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the 

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46. What three things are used to identify an item?

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47. Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?

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48. Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?

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49. Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change

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50. As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?

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51. How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared?

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52. What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

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53. What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

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54. Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?

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55. How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?

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56. This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item(there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately)

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57. Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

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58. Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed ?

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59. Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

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60. The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?

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61. When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

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62. For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?

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63. What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?

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64. Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items?

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65. What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record? 

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66. The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the following except 

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67. Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?

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68. Which objective is not  an objective of inventory research?

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69. When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such:

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70. What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

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71. When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?

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72. What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

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73. Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets?

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74. Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI)

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75. What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel?

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76. Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR?

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77. What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?

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78. The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number

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79. The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

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80. Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets?

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81. What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?

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82. What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer? 

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83. When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input?

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84. At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?

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85. Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation?

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86. What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag?

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87. What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

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88. How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?

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89. When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code

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90. Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control?

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91. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing?

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92. What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory?

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93. How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated?

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94. What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?

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95. Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable  shelf-life asset to a maintenance function?

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96. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?

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Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such...
Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
What type of receipt must be processed before all others?
Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?
An organizational refusal would be a customer's reponsibilty if...
What are the two types of open storage areas?
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently...
What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense...
The practice of storing item in a way that causes a loss of storage...
Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS?
At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be...
Which of the following in not  a factor to consider when...
The ERRCD for bench stock items must be 
Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?
The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the 
Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative...
What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location...
Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a...
What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?
What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032
Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
Whose reponsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a...
How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life...
What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the...
Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how...
Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?
An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the...
What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poison, and...
Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the...
The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never...
What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized...
To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA...
Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate...
When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of...
Which of the following is not a category of receipt...
Reusable containers come in how many categories?
What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse...
What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse...
Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the...
When deficiencies are noted during as scheduled warehouse...
Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution...
What three things are used to identify an item?
Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you...
Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when...
Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative...
As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify...
How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a...
What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which...
What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection...
How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?
This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable,...
Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section...
Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?
The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in...
When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest...
For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?
What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious...
Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance...
What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the...
The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the...
Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified...
Which objective is not  an objective of inventory research?
When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as...
What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution...
When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned...
What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item...
Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission...
Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel...
What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or...
Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming...
What type of shelf life coded item has a definite...
The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock...
The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a...
Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units...
What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on...
What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the...
When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on...
At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to...
Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items...
What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag?
What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage...
How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock...
When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are...
Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and...
What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process...
What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the...
How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated?
What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense...
Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable...
What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process...
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