2S051 CDC Materiel Management: Toughest Trivia Quiz

1. Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items?

Safety or security reasons

Priority processing

Minimize materiel handling

Protection from the weather

2. Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

Warehouse location

NSN

Unit of issue

Quantity

3. Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

Obliterated

Saved as historical data

Recycled

Ignored

4. What are the two types of open storage areas?

Improved and unimproved

Surfaced and graded

Graded and covered

Graded and improved

5. Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?

Acids and alkalis

Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid

Organic and nonorganic acid

Acetic and nonacetic

6. What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

MICAP

Routine

Priority

Equipment

7. An organizational refusal would be a customer's reponsibilty if the

Customer failed to cancel the due-out

Property was misidentified

Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute

Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered

8. What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

Daily document register (D04)

Document log

Transaction log

Central locator listing

9. The practice of storing item in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called

Honeycombing

Cross stacking

Mezzanine storage

Potential vacant space

10. The ERRCD for bench stock items must be

XB3

XF3

ND2

XD2

11. At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

Between 32 and 50*F

Between 50 and 60*F

Below 32*F

Below 0*F

12. Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS?

General-purpose shelves

Overhead trolleys

Affixed cranes

Conveyors

13. Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

Spotter

In-checker

Vehicle assistant

Transportation personnel

14. The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

Materiel management inspector

Supplier

Warehouse

Cargo movement representative

15. Which of the following in not a factor to consider when operation MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

Cost

Operational deficiencies

Workload breakdown

General layout

16. Whose reponsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

Inspector

Item manager

Maintenance

In-checker

17. What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

Drainage

Concrete

Steel mats

Crushed stone

18. What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?

Color tape

Bin label

Condition tag

Identification label

19. Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

8, 9, or M

E, F, or 7

3, 6, or N

H, G, or 8

20. Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that

All containers are accounted for

Damaged property is returned to the sending activity

Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative

The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document

21. What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032

Updates inspection data

Identifies condemned items

Identifies property turned over to maintenance

Identifies property in stock that has been suspended

22. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage and utilization?

Work areas

Bin rows

Bulk storage

Special storage

23. Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

Left to right and front to rear

Right to left and rear to front

Left to right only

Right to left only

24. Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

Deleted

Reset

Updated

Suspended

25. What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location?

*

#

R

D

26. Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

Using organization

DRMS

Distribution officer

Inspection element

27. Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

10

3

7

14

28. What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?

Classified

MICAP

Sensitive

Pilferable

29. What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poison, and certain batteries?

Low hazard

High risk

Flammable

Corrosive

30. How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

15 to 45

10

60 to 90

120

31. Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

10

25

50

100

32. An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance doe not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than

$100

$50

$25

$1,000

33. What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?

Two person

Retinal identification

Special markings

Fingerprinting

34. The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?

12 months

15 months

18 months

24 months

35. To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

Quality Status List

Chemical Reference List

Retest Control List

Health Hazard Guide

36. When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?

12

Six

Three

18

37. Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?

SERV BAL= 0

ZERO BAL

SERV BAL= 1

INSUFFICIENT BAL

38. Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

Serviceable/ undamaged items

Quantity

Documentation

Misidentified items

39. Reusable containers come in how many categories?

2

1

3

4

40. What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

Single capital letter

Single number

Two-position number

Two-position capital letters

41. What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?

D

F

056

045

42. Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

Two

One

Three

Four

43. Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?

Materiel management inspectors

In-checkers

Storage personnel

Inventory personnel

44. What three things are used to identify an item?

Reference number, stock number, and item descripition

Reference number, part number, and stock number

Stock number, nomenclature, and item description

Stock number, item description, and specifications

45. Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change

FIC

FCD

FCH

1SC

46. When deficiencies are noted during as scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many day does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?

10

2

5

7

47. Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?

MAJCOM

Stock control function

Accountable officer

Item manager

48. The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the

Storage space

Storage plan

Materiel handling equipment

Gross space available

49. Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?

System designator and due-in document number

Quantity

Stock number

Tote box/hold bay location

50. How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared?

1

3

5

7

51. How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?

Type cargo code 3

Type cargo code 4

IEX code 3

IEX code 4

52. Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?

Inspector

Logistics manager

Accountable officer

Warehouse supervisor

53. What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Limited use of MHE

Adverse weather

Wet ground conditions

Slipping on steel mat toppings

54. As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?

Monthly

Daily

Weekly

Quarterly

55. What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

Quality Status List

Quick Reference List

Condemned Item List

Defense Referral List

56. Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient

Wrong part is delivered to a customer

Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report

Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero

57. This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item(there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately)

NWRM

COMSEC

Classified

Sensitive

58. Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

Serviceable items

WCDO

Unserviceable items

Tires

59. Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed ?

Daily Document Register (D04)

Stock Fund Due-Out Report (M36)

Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)

Daily PFMR/OCCR Update and Reconciliation (D11)

60. The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?

30

15

45

60

61. What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?

R

J

N

Q

62. When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

FCC

FCA

FCB

FCD

63. For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?

Identity

Serviceability

Status

Condition

64. What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record?

+

*

-

@

65. The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the following except

Keep the length and number of moves to a minimum

Don't obstruct other materiel movements

Position containers to facilitate picking up

Use conveyors to reduce accidents and prevent damage

66. Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items?

C

A

B

D

67. Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?

Inventory Count File Program (R12)

Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)

Supply Point Listing (Q13)

Sample Inventory Program (NGV535

68. Which objective is not an objective of inventory research?

Process requisitions when required

Reverse-post erroneous transactions

Correct warehouse location errors

Account for rejected transactions

69. When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such:

On the container

On the DD Form 1576

With a K in the NSN

TEX code 3

70. What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

AF-EMIS

AFEMS

AF-CMOS

AF-HAZMAT

71. When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?

Transaction exception code Z

Transaction exception code P

Supply condition code P

Supply condition code Z

72. What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

FCD with suspect flag S

FCC with suspect flag S

FCC with suspect flag F

FCD with suspect flag F

73. Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR?

Procedures

Receiving

Inspection

Stock control

74. Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI)

34-101

314-1

31-4-1

31-401

75. Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets?

Item manager

LRS commander

DLA

AFMC item management item

76. What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?

Type I

Type II

Type B

Type A

77. What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel?

DD Form 1574

DD Form 1575

DD Form 1576

DD Form 1577

78. The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number

TRIC, and warehouse location

TRIC, and routing identifier designator

Warehouse location, and priortiy

Warehouse location, and document identification code

79. The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

Model and manufacturer's name and address

Model, and manufacturer's reference number

Part number, and manufacturer's name and address

Part number, and manufacturer's reference number

80. What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer?

FCH

FCC

FCL

FCU

81. Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets?

Storage activity

Mobility section

Inspection section

Equipment element

82. What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?

I302

I203

I301

I103

83. When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input?

Q

J

P

Z

84. At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?

Monthly

Annually

Weekly

Semiannually

85. Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation?

Maintenance contact point

Cheif of Maintenance

Quality Control

Job Control

86. What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag?

FCD

FCU

FCI

FCC

87. What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

Send the items to the receiving supervisor

Send the items to inspection

Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it

Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it

88. How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?

15

10

5

20

89. When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code

N

J

K

M

90. Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control?

1

8

9

M

91. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing?

MSI, C

MSI, E

ISU, C

ISU, E

92. What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory?

Form 475

Form 450

Form 350

Form 375

93. How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated?

Annually

Semiannually

Quarterly

Monthly

94. Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf-life asset to a maintenance function?

FCC

ISU

MSI

TIN

95. What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?

IRC output document

Reverse post output document

Inventory count record

Annotated 1GP notice

96. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?

ISU, C

MSI, E

ISU, E

MSI, C