1c651 Vol.2

100 Questions | Attempts: 1181
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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) How do aeronautical engineers define where space begins?

    • A.

      Altitudes above 15 miles.

    • B.

      Altitudes above 25 miles.

    • C.

      Altitudes above 52 miles.

    • D.

      Altitudes above 62 miles.

    Correct Answer
    D. Altitudes above 62 miles.
  • 2. 

    (201) The Air Force defines space for awarding astronaut wings at altitudes above

    • A.

      52 miles.

    • B.

      40 miles.

    • C.

      25 miles.

    • D.

      15 miles.

    Correct Answer
    A. 52 miles.
  • 3. 

    (201) Which type of threat is used because it is hard to detect and can be duplicated very quickly?

    • A.

      Kinetic.

    • B.

      Cyberspace.

    • C.

      Anti-satellite.

    • D.

      Microsatellite.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cyberspace.
  • 4. 

    (201) Which is not a way to threaten space operations?

    • A.

      Kinetic.

    • B.

      Intentional.

    • C.

      Blue-on-blue.

    • D.

      Green-on-blue.

    Correct Answer
    D. Green-on-blue.
  • 5. 

    (201) Which non-kinetic threat generates a radio frequency beam to penetrate through cracks in a satellite?

    • A.

      Low-power laser.

    • B.

      High-power laser.

    • C.

      High-power microwave.

    • D.

      Ultrawideband weapon.

    Correct Answer
    C. High-power microwave.
  • 6. 

    (201) Which non-kinetic threat generates radio frequency radiation and has limited directivity?

    • A.

      Low-power laser.

    • B.

      High-power laser.

    • C.

      High-power microwave.

    • D.

      Ultrawideband weapon.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ultrawideband weapon.
  • 7. 

    (201) What material can be used to harden a facility against an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) burst?

    • A.

      Steel.

    • B.

      Concrete.

    • C.

      Titanium.

    • D.

      Aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Steel.
  • 8. 

    (201) Which country blew up their own satellite with the intent on displaying the ability to destroy our space assets?

    • A.

      Israel.

    • B.

      China.

    • C.

      Russia.

    • D.

      North Korea.

    Correct Answer
    B. China.
  • 9. 

    (201) Which type of threat is the result of a satellite breaking up into hundreds of pieces that can damage space assets?

    • A.

      Intentional.

    • B.

      Blue-on-blue.

    • C.

      Unintentional.

    • D.

      Ground-based.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unintentional.
  • 10. 

    (201) Which system do you lose if you accidently interfered with the constellation that has secure voice and data communications for the U.S. military?

    • A.

      Global Positioning System (GPS).

    • B.

      Space Based Infrared System (SBIRS).

    • C.

      Defense Meteorological Satellite Program (DMSP).

    • D.

      Defense Satellite Communication System (DSCS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Defense Satellite Communication System (DSCS).
  • 11. 

    (201) Which activity is a contributor to congestion in space and poses a critical threat to space assets?

    • A.

      Anti-satellites.

    • B.

      Microsatellites.

    • C.

      Electromagnetic pulse.

    • D.

      High altitude electromagnetic pulse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-satellites.
  • 12. 

    (201) Which mitigation technique is used to defend our space systems by deterrence and recovery?

    • A.

      Passive counterspace.

    • B.

      Offensive counterspace.

    • C.

      Defensive counterspace.

    • D.

      Redundant counterspace.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defensive counterspace.
  • 13. 

    (201) Which responsiveness tier delivers a new product in less than a year?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.
  • 14. 

    (202) Which of the following is not a layer of the atmospheric shell?

    • A.

      Mesosphere.

    • B.

      Stratosphere.

    • C.

      Troposphere.

    • D.

      Cumulusphere.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cumulusphere.
  • 15. 

    (202) Which limiting factor applies to sensors that use visible light in their mission?

    • A.

      Only operate at night.

    • B.

      Only operate at night and in clear weather.

    • C.

      Can operate day and night, in clear weather.

    • D.

      Can only operate in the day, in clear weather.

    Correct Answer
    B. Only operate at night and in clear weather.
  • 16. 

    (202) Which type of wave is not normally found in the lower atmosphere where weather occurs?

    • A.

      X-ray and gamma ray.

    • B.

      Microwave.

    • C.

      Ultraviolet.

    • D.

      Infrared.

    Correct Answer
    A. X-ray and gamma ray.
  • 17. 

    (203) Which is not a form of travel for the sun’s energy?

    • A.

      X-rays.

    • B.

      Infrared.

    • C.

      Visible light.

    • D.

      Gamma shield.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gamma shield.
  • 18. 

    (203) Which proton event level may cause some communication problems in Polar Regions?

    • A.

      S1.

    • B.

      S2.

    • C.

      S3.

    • D.

      S5.

    Correct Answer
    A. S1.
  • 19. 

    (203) Which proton event level can cause a complete blackout of high frequency communications in Polar Regions?

    • A.

      S1.

    • B.

      S2.

    • C.

      S3.

    • D.

      S5.

    Correct Answer
    D. S5.
  • 20. 

    (203) If a flare occurs, how long does it take for a cloud of solar material to reach Earth?

    • A.

      One to three days.

    • B.

      One to four days.

    • C.

      Three to five days.

    • D.

      Four to six days.

    Correct Answer
    B. One to four days.
  • 21. 

    (203) Which geomagnetic storm level indicates there might be some impact to satellite operations?

    • A.

      G1.

    • B.

      G2

    • C.

      G3.

    • D.

      G5.

    Correct Answer
    A. G1.
  • 22. 

    (203) Which geomagnetic storm level indicates there can be damaging surface charging to satellites?

    • A.

      G1.

    • B.

      G2.

    • C.

      G3.

    • D.

      G5.

    Correct Answer
    D. G5.
  • 23. 

    (203) Which type of satellite will go through two eclipse seasons of 44 days each?

    • A.

      Polar.

    • B.

      Geosynchronous.

    • C.

      Sun-synchronous.

    • D.

      Semi-synchronous.

    Correct Answer
    B. Geosynchronous.
  • 24. 

    (203) Where does a satellite remain in the total shadow of an eclipse?

    • A.

      Umbra.

    • B.

      Perigee.

    • C.

      Apogee.

    • D.

      Penumbra.

    Correct Answer
    A. Umbra.
  • 25. 

    (204) If left unprotected from solar energy, how low can the surface temperature of a satellite get on the shaded side?

    • A.

      –259° Fahrenheit.

    • B.

      –269° Fahrenheit.

    • C.

      –279° Fahrenheit.

    • D.

      –289° Fahrenheit.

    Correct Answer
    C. –279° Fahrenheit.
  • 26. 

    (204) Which effect of radiation bounces off a satellite?

    • A.

      Reflection.

    • B.

      Absorption.

    • C.

      Transmission.

    • D.

      Reconstitution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflection.
  • 27. 

    (204) Which effect of radiation is captured by materials on a satellite?

    • A.

      Reflection.

    • B.

      Absorption.

    • C.

      Transmission.

    • D.

      Reconstitution.

    Correct Answer
    B. Absorption.
  • 28. 

    (204) Which protective measure has the “gold” foil interspersed in thin layers to reflect solar energy away from the satellite?

    • A.

      Paint.

    • B.

      Panels.

    • C.

      Blankets.

    • D.

      Antennas.

    Correct Answer
    C. Blankets.
  • 29. 

    (205) Which is not a space vacuum related issue?

    • A.

      Outgassing.

    • B.

      Heat transfer.

    • C.

      Cold welding.

    • D.

      Radiation exposure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Radiation exposure.
  • 30. 

    (205) Which method works as a transfer method for moving heat away from a spacecraft?

    • A.

      Radiation.

    • B.

      Convection.

    • C.

      Conduction.

    • D.

      Thermal isolation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Radiation.
  • 31. 

    (205) How does the Herschel space telescope cool certain parts to function properly?

    • A.

      Using liquid helium.

    • B.

      Using liquid nitrogen.

    • C.

      Circulating cold air around the parts.

    • D.

      Using water from air conditioning units.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using liquid helium.
  • 32. 

    (206) What is the offset between the earth’s magnetic field axis and the center rotational axis?

    • A.

      5°.

    • B.

      7°.

    • C.

      9°.

    • D.

      11°.

    Correct Answer
    D. 11°.
  • 33. 

    (206) Which part of the earth’s atmosphere does the Space X–37B leave before it enters space?

    • A.

      Ionosphere.

    • B.

      Mesosphere.

    • C.

      Troposphere.

    • D.

      Stratosphere.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ionosphere.
  • 34. 

    (206) What type of spacecraft charging only lasts for microseconds due to plasma changing uniformly?

    • A.

      Bulk.

    • B.

      Solar.

    • C.

      Absolute.

    • D.

      Differential.

    Correct Answer
    C. Absolute.
  • 35. 

    (206) What type of spacecraft charging is hazardous to the satellite’s internal electronics systems?

    • A.

      Bulk.

    • B.

      Solar.

    • C.

      Absolute.

    • D.

      Differential.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulk.
  • 36. 

    (206) Which is a space object that travels around the sun at speeds averaging 93,600 mph?

    • A.

      Comet.

    • B.

      Meteor.

    • C.

      Meteorite.

    • D.

      Meteoroid.

    Correct Answer
    D. Meteoroid.
  • 37. 

    (206) Which is a space object that glows at about 40 and 75 miles above the earth?

    • A.

      Comet.

    • B.

      Meteor.

    • C.

      Meteorite.

    • D.

      Meteoroid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Meteor.
  • 38. 

    (207) Which ellipse parameter is the gravitational center of the body about which the satellite orbits?

    • A.

      Apogee.

    • B.

      Perigee.

    • C.

      Occupied/primary focus.

    • D.

      Unoccupied/secondary focus.

    Correct Answer
    C. Occupied/primary focus.
  • 39. 

    (207) Which element of an ellipse is the intersection between the major and minor axis?

    • A.

      Apogee.

    • B.

      Focal length.

    • C.

      Apogee height.

    • D.

      Geometric center.

    Correct Answer
    D. Geometric center.
  • 40. 

    (207) Who was the first person to use the word ‘satellite’ and developed three laws of planetary motion?

    • A.

      Copernicus.

    • B.

      Galileo Galilei.

    • C.

      Johannes Kepler.

    • D.

      Sir Isaac Newton.

    Correct Answer
    C. Johannes Kepler.
  • 41. 

    (207) “The squares of the sidereal periods of the planets are in direct proportion to the cubes of the semi-major axes of their orbits” identifies Kepler’s

    • A.

      Law of areas.

    • B.

      Law of periods.

    • C.

      Law of ellipses.

    • D.

      Law of universal attraction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Law of periods.
  • 42. 

    (207) “Every object persists in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed on it” identifies Newton’s

    • A.

      First law of motion.

    • B.

      Second law of motion.

    • C.

      Third law of motion.

    • D.

      Law of universal gravitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. First law of motion.
  • 43. 

    (207) “A body acted upon by a constant force will move with a constant acceleration in the direction of the force” identifies Newton’s

    • A.

      First law of motion.

    • B.

      Second law of motion.

    • C.

      Third law of motion.

    • D.

      Law of universal gravitation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Second law of motion.
  • 44. 

    (207) What happens when you move a satellite away from the earth?

    • A.

      Increase mass.

    • B.

      Increase velocity.

    • C.

      Increase the radius.

    • D.

      Decrease the radius.

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase the radius.
  • 45. 

    (208) What orbital component defines the time it takes the satellite to complete an orbital revolution from any given point back to that same point?

    • A.

      Period.

    • B.

      Epoch time.

    • C.

      Right ascension.

    • D.

      Argument of perigee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Period.
  • 46. 

    (208) Which orbital component is used when acquiring a satellite using a tracking station?

    • A.

      Period.

    • B.

      Epoch time.

    • C.

      Right ascension.

    • D.

      Argument of perigee.

    Correct Answer
    B. Epoch time.
  • 47. 

    (208) How many minutes can the period be for a satellite that is re-entering the atmosphere?

    • A.

      66.

    • B.

      88.

    • C.

      89.

    • D.

      99.

    Correct Answer
    A. 66.
  • 48. 

    (209) What is it called when the launch site is used to determine where a ground trace starts?

    • A.

      Period.

    • B.

      Inclination.

    • C.

      Eccentricity.

    • D.

      Injection point.

    Correct Answer
    D. Injection point.
  • 49. 

    (209) What kind of day is it if the earth takes 1436.07 minutes to rotate about its axis with respect to the sun?

    • A.

      Solar day.

    • B.

      Lunar day.

    • C.

      Sidereal day.

    • D.

      Celestial day.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sidereal day.
  • 50. 

    (209) If a satellite has a period of 448 minutes, what type of orbit is it in?

    • A.

      Near-Earth orbit.

    • B.

      Deep space orbit.

    • C.

      Geosynchronous orbit.

    • D.

      Semi-synchronous orbit.

    Correct Answer
    B. Deep space orbit.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 19, 2018
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 17, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    DwigAsh1
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