1c651 Vol.2

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 811

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) How do aeronautical engineers define where space begins?
    • A. 

      Altitudes above 15 miles.

    • B. 

      Altitudes above 25 miles.

    • C. 

      Altitudes above 52 miles.

    • D. 

      Altitudes above 62 miles.

  • 2. 
    (201) The Air Force defines space for awarding astronaut wings at altitudes above
    • A. 

      52 miles.

    • B. 

      40 miles.

    • C. 

      25 miles.

    • D. 

      15 miles.

  • 3. 
    (201) Which type of threat is used because it is hard to detect and can be duplicated very quickly?
    • A. 

      Kinetic.

    • B. 

      Cyberspace.

    • C. 

      Anti-satellite.

    • D. 

      Microsatellite.

  • 4. 
    (201) Which is not a way to threaten space operations?
    • A. 

      Kinetic.

    • B. 

      Intentional.

    • C. 

      Blue-on-blue.

    • D. 

      Green-on-blue.

  • 5. 
    (201) Which non-kinetic threat generates a radio frequency beam to penetrate through cracks in a satellite?
    • A. 

      Low-power laser.

    • B. 

      High-power laser.

    • C. 

      High-power microwave.

    • D. 

      Ultrawideband weapon.

  • 6. 
    (201) Which non-kinetic threat generates radio frequency radiation and has limited directivity?
    • A. 

      Low-power laser.

    • B. 

      High-power laser.

    • C. 

      High-power microwave.

    • D. 

      Ultrawideband weapon.

  • 7. 
    (201) What material can be used to harden a facility against an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) burst?
    • A. 

      Steel.

    • B. 

      Concrete.

    • C. 

      Titanium.

    • D. 

      Aluminum.

  • 8. 
    (201) Which country blew up their own satellite with the intent on displaying the ability to destroy our space assets?
    • A. 

      Israel.

    • B. 

      China.

    • C. 

      Russia.

    • D. 

      North Korea.

  • 9. 
    (201) Which type of threat is the result of a satellite breaking up into hundreds of pieces that can damage space assets?
    • A. 

      Intentional.

    • B. 

      Blue-on-blue.

    • C. 

      Unintentional.

    • D. 

      Ground-based.

  • 10. 
    (201) Which system do you lose if you accidently interfered with the constellation that has secure voice and data communications for the U.S. military?
    • A. 

      Global Positioning System (GPS).

    • B. 

      Space Based Infrared System (SBIRS).

    • C. 

      Defense Meteorological Satellite Program (DMSP).

    • D. 

      Defense Satellite Communication System (DSCS).

  • 11. 
    (201) Which activity is a contributor to congestion in space and poses a critical threat to space assets?
    • A. 

      Anti-satellites.

    • B. 

      Microsatellites.

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic pulse.

    • D. 

      High altitude electromagnetic pulse.

  • 12. 
    (201) Which mitigation technique is used to defend our space systems by deterrence and recovery?
    • A. 

      Passive counterspace.

    • B. 

      Offensive counterspace.

    • C. 

      Defensive counterspace.

    • D. 

      Redundant counterspace.

  • 13. 
    (201) Which responsiveness tier delivers a new product in less than a year?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 14. 
    (202) Which of the following is not a layer of the atmospheric shell?
    • A. 

      Mesosphere.

    • B. 

      Stratosphere.

    • C. 

      Troposphere.

    • D. 

      Cumulusphere.

  • 15. 
    (202) Which limiting factor applies to sensors that use visible light in their mission?
    • A. 

      Only operate at night.

    • B. 

      Only operate at night and in clear weather.

    • C. 

      Can operate day and night, in clear weather.

    • D. 

      Can only operate in the day, in clear weather.

  • 16. 
    (202) Which type of wave is not normally found in the lower atmosphere where weather occurs?
    • A. 

      X-ray and gamma ray.

    • B. 

      Microwave.

    • C. 

      Ultraviolet.

    • D. 

      Infrared.

  • 17. 
    (203) Which is not a form of travel for the sun’s energy?
    • A. 

      X-rays.

    • B. 

      Infrared.

    • C. 

      Visible light.

    • D. 

      Gamma shield.

  • 18. 
    (203) Which proton event level may cause some communication problems in Polar Regions?
    • A. 

      S1.

    • B. 

      S2.

    • C. 

      S3.

    • D. 

      S5.

  • 19. 
    (203) Which proton event level can cause a complete blackout of high frequency communications in Polar Regions?
    • A. 

      S1.

    • B. 

      S2.

    • C. 

      S3.

    • D. 

      S5.

  • 20. 
    (203) If a flare occurs, how long does it take for a cloud of solar material to reach Earth?
    • A. 

      One to three days.

    • B. 

      One to four days.

    • C. 

      Three to five days.

    • D. 

      Four to six days.

  • 21. 
    (203) Which geomagnetic storm level indicates there might be some impact to satellite operations?
    • A. 

      G1.

    • B. 

      G2

    • C. 

      G3.

    • D. 

      G5.

  • 22. 
    (203) Which geomagnetic storm level indicates there can be damaging surface charging to satellites?
    • A. 

      G1.

    • B. 

      G2.

    • C. 

      G3.

    • D. 

      G5.

  • 23. 
    (203) Which type of satellite will go through two eclipse seasons of 44 days each?
    • A. 

      Polar.

    • B. 

      Geosynchronous.

    • C. 

      Sun-synchronous.

    • D. 

      Semi-synchronous.

  • 24. 
    (203) Where does a satellite remain in the total shadow of an eclipse?
    • A. 

      Umbra.

    • B. 

      Perigee.

    • C. 

      Apogee.

    • D. 

      Penumbra.

  • 25. 
    (204) If left unprotected from solar energy, how low can the surface temperature of a satellite get on the shaded side?
    • A. 

      –259° Fahrenheit.

    • B. 

      –269° Fahrenheit.

    • C. 

      –279° Fahrenheit.

    • D. 

      –289° Fahrenheit.

  • 26. 
    (204) Which effect of radiation bounces off a satellite?
    • A. 

      Reflection.

    • B. 

      Absorption.

    • C. 

      Transmission.

    • D. 

      Reconstitution.

  • 27. 
    (204) Which effect of radiation is captured by materials on a satellite?
    • A. 

      Reflection.

    • B. 

      Absorption.

    • C. 

      Transmission.

    • D. 

      Reconstitution.

  • 28. 
    (204) Which protective measure has the “gold” foil interspersed in thin layers to reflect solar energy away from the satellite?
    • A. 

      Paint.

    • B. 

      Panels.

    • C. 

      Blankets.

    • D. 

      Antennas.

  • 29. 
    (205) Which is not a space vacuum related issue?
    • A. 

      Outgassing.

    • B. 

      Heat transfer.

    • C. 

      Cold welding.

    • D. 

      Radiation exposure.

  • 30. 
    (205) Which method works as a transfer method for moving heat away from a spacecraft?
    • A. 

      Radiation.

    • B. 

      Convection.

    • C. 

      Conduction.

    • D. 

      Thermal isolation.

  • 31. 
    (205) How does the Herschel space telescope cool certain parts to function properly?
    • A. 

      Using liquid helium.

    • B. 

      Using liquid nitrogen.

    • C. 

      Circulating cold air around the parts.

    • D. 

      Using water from air conditioning units.

  • 32. 
    (206) What is the offset between the earth’s magnetic field axis and the center rotational axis?
    • A. 

      5°.

    • B. 

      7°.

    • C. 

      9°.

    • D. 

      11°.

  • 33. 
    (206) Which part of the earth’s atmosphere does the Space X–37B leave before it enters space?
    • A. 

      Ionosphere.

    • B. 

      Mesosphere.

    • C. 

      Troposphere.

    • D. 

      Stratosphere.

  • 34. 
    (206) What type of spacecraft charging only lasts for microseconds due to plasma changing uniformly?
    • A. 

      Bulk.

    • B. 

      Solar.

    • C. 

      Absolute.

    • D. 

      Differential.

  • 35. 
    (206) What type of spacecraft charging is hazardous to the satellite’s internal electronics systems?
    • A. 

      Bulk.

    • B. 

      Solar.

    • C. 

      Absolute.

    • D. 

      Differential.

  • 36. 
    (206) Which is a space object that travels around the sun at speeds averaging 93,600 mph?
    • A. 

      Comet.

    • B. 

      Meteor.

    • C. 

      Meteorite.

    • D. 

      Meteoroid.

  • 37. 
    (206) Which is a space object that glows at about 40 and 75 miles above the earth?
    • A. 

      Comet.

    • B. 

      Meteor.

    • C. 

      Meteorite.

    • D. 

      Meteoroid.

  • 38. 
    (207) Which ellipse parameter is the gravitational center of the body about which the satellite orbits?
    • A. 

      Apogee.

    • B. 

      Perigee.

    • C. 

      Occupied/primary focus.

    • D. 

      Unoccupied/secondary focus.

  • 39. 
    (207) Which element of an ellipse is the intersection between the major and minor axis?
    • A. 

      Apogee.

    • B. 

      Focal length.

    • C. 

      Apogee height.

    • D. 

      Geometric center.

  • 40. 
    (207) Who was the first person to use the word ‘satellite’ and developed three laws of planetary motion?
    • A. 

      Copernicus.

    • B. 

      Galileo Galilei.

    • C. 

      Johannes Kepler.

    • D. 

      Sir Isaac Newton.

  • 41. 
    (207) “The squares of the sidereal periods of the planets are in direct proportion to the cubes of the semi-major axes of their orbits” identifies Kepler’s
    • A. 

      Law of areas.

    • B. 

      Law of periods.

    • C. 

      Law of ellipses.

    • D. 

      Law of universal attraction.

  • 42. 
    (207) “Every object persists in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed on it” identifies Newton’s
    • A. 

      First law of motion.

    • B. 

      Second law of motion.

    • C. 

      Third law of motion.

    • D. 

      Law of universal gravitation.

  • 43. 
    (207) “A body acted upon by a constant force will move with a constant acceleration in the direction of the force” identifies Newton’s
    • A. 

      First law of motion.

    • B. 

      Second law of motion.

    • C. 

      Third law of motion.

    • D. 

      Law of universal gravitation.

  • 44. 
    (207) What happens when you move a satellite away from the earth?
    • A. 

      Increase mass.

    • B. 

      Increase velocity.

    • C. 

      Increase the radius.

    • D. 

      Decrease the radius.

  • 45. 
    (208) What orbital component defines the time it takes the satellite to complete an orbital revolution from any given point back to that same point?
    • A. 

      Period.

    • B. 

      Epoch time.

    • C. 

      Right ascension.

    • D. 

      Argument of perigee.

  • 46. 
    (208) Which orbital component is used when acquiring a satellite using a tracking station?
    • A. 

      Period.

    • B. 

      Epoch time.

    • C. 

      Right ascension.

    • D. 

      Argument of perigee.

  • 47. 
    (208) How many minutes can the period be for a satellite that is re-entering the atmosphere?
    • A. 

      66.

    • B. 

      88.

    • C. 

      89.

    • D. 

      99.

  • 48. 
    (209) What is it called when the launch site is used to determine where a ground trace starts?
    • A. 

      Period.

    • B. 

      Inclination.

    • C. 

      Eccentricity.

    • D. 

      Injection point.

  • 49. 
    (209) What kind of day is it if the earth takes 1436.07 minutes to rotate about its axis with respect to the sun?
    • A. 

      Solar day.

    • B. 

      Lunar day.

    • C. 

      Sidereal day.

    • D. 

      Celestial day.

  • 50. 
    (209) If a satellite has a period of 448 minutes, what type of orbit is it in?
    • A. 

      Near-Earth orbit.

    • B. 

      Deep space orbit.

    • C. 

      Geosynchronous orbit.

    • D. 

      Semi-synchronous orbit.

  • 51. 
    (209) What type of orbit is the International Space Station (ISS) in?
    • A. 

      Low-Earth orbit.

    • B. 

      Deep space orbit.

    • C. 

      Geosynchronous orbit.

    • D. 

      Semi-synchronous orbit.

  • 52. 
    (209) The period of a low-Earth orbit (LEO) is approximately
    • A. 

      80 minutes.

    • B. 

      90 minutes.

    • C. 

      99 minutes.

    • D. 

      120 minutes.

  • 53. 
    (209) What type of orbit is a geostationary satellite in?
    • A. 

      Equatorial orbit.

    • B. 

      Highly elliptical orbit.

    • C. 

      Geosynchronous orbit.

    • D. 

      Sun-synchronous orbit.

  • 54. 
    (209) A satellite’s ground track with nodal regression successively tracks
    • A. 

      Eastward.

    • B. 

      Westward.

    • C. 

      Northward.

    • D. 

      Southward.

  • 55. 
    (209) Which coordinate system uses the prime meridian as a fundamental component?
    • A. 

      Orbit.

    • B. 

      Geocentric.

    • C. 

      Geographic

    • D. 

      Topocentric.

  • 56. 
    (209) Which coordinate system uses a first point of Aries (vernal equinox) as a fundamental component?
    • A. 

      Orbit.

    • B. 

      Geocentric.

    • C. 

      Geographic.

    • D. 

      Topocentric.

  • 57. 
    (210) Which class of maneuver enables the Space X–37B to dock with the International Space Station (ISS)?
    • A. 

      In-plane.

    • B. 

      Transfer.

    • C. 

      Rendezvous.

    • D. 

      Out-of-plane.

  • 58. 
    (210) What is always common to the pre-thrust and post-thrust orbits?
    • A. 

      Perigee.

    • B. 

      Apogee.

    • C. 

      Inclination.

    • D. 

      Thrust point.

  • 59. 
    (210) Which maneuver is the slowest and uses fuel in the most efficient way?
    • A. 

      Fast transfer.

    • B. 

      Rendezvous.

    • C. 

      Out-of-plane.

    • D. 

      Hohmann transfer.

  • 60. 
    (210) What is the disadvantage of the fast transfer?
    • A. 

      Slowest maneuver.

    • B. 

      Uses 50 percent more fuel.

    • C. 

      Too difficult to perform safely.

    • D. 

      Requires a satellite to swing around another object.

  • 61. 
    (210) Which out-of-plane maneuver has an in-plane component?
    • A. 

      Simple.

    • B. 

      Combined.

    • C. 

      Rendezvous.

    • D. 

      Hohmann transfer.

  • 62. 
    (210) In what direction do the ascending/descending nodes move when a north thrust is applied?
    • A. 

      East.

    • B. 

      West.

    • C. 

      South.

    • D. 

      North.

  • 63. 
    (210) When a satellite is traveling in a south direction and a north thrust is applied, the inclination
    • A. 

      Increases.

    • B. 

      Decreases.

    • C. 

      Stays the same.

    • D. 

      Doubles by half.

  • 64. 
    (211) Which part of space situational awareness keeps track of enemy satellites?
    • A. 

      Solar day

    • B. 

      Laser deconfliction.

    • C. 

      Telemetry, tracking and control (TT&C).

    • D. 

      Satellite Reconnaissance Advance Notice (SATRAN).

  • 65. 
    (211) Which is true about a fast transfer versus a Hohmann transfer?
    • A. 

      More efficient and cost less.

    • B. 

      More efficient and cost more.

    • C. 

      Less efficient and cost less.

    • D. 

      Less efficient and cost more.

  • 66. 
    (211) Which type of rendezvous has the interceptor waiting in a phasing orbit?
    • A. 

      Coplanar.

    • B. 

      Co-orbital.

    • C. 

      Fast transfer.

    • D. 

      Hohmann transfer.

  • 67. 
    (211) Which target satellite helps the chase satellite with position and velocity updates?
    • A. 

      Cooperative.

    • B. 

      Unintentional.

    • C. 

      Uncooperative.

    • D. 

      Non-cooperative.

  • 68. 
    (211) Which target satellite forces the chase satellite to have information independence?
    • A. 

      Cooperative.

    • B. 

      Unintentional.

    • C. 

      Uncooperative.

    • D. 

      Non-cooperative.

  • 69. 
    (211) Which target satellite interferes with the chase satellite?
    • A. 

      Cooperative.

    • B. 

      Unintentional.

    • C. 

      Uncooperative.

    • D. 

      Non-cooperative.

  • 70. 
    (211) Which type of burn must be performed at the nodal crossing?
    • A. 

      In-plane.

    • B. 

      Posigrade.

    • C. 

      Retrograde.

    • D. 

      Out-of-plane.

  • 71. 
    (212) Which part of the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum would you use to communicate with the International Space Station (ISS)?
    • A. 

      Radio spectrum.

    • B. 

      Optical spectrum.

    • C. 

      Infrared spectrum.

    • D. 

      Ultraviolet wave spectrum.

  • 72. 
    (212) Which radio frequency supports the mission of Global Positioning Systems (GPS)?
    • A. 

      Very high frequency (VHF).

    • B. 

      Ultrahigh frequency (UHF).

    • C. 

      Super high frequency (SHF).

    • D. 

      Extremely high frequency (EHF).

  • 73. 
    (212) Which radio frequency supports the mission of Wideband Global SATCOM?
    • A. 

      Very high frequency (VHF).

    • B. 

      Ultrahigh frequency (UHF).

    • C. 

      Super high frequency (SHF).

    • D. 

      Extremely high frequency (EHF).

  • 74. 
    (212) Which region of the ultraviolet (UV) light wavelength is the most energetic?
    • A. 

      Far UV.

    • B. 

      Near UV.

    • C. 

      Close UV.

    • D. 

      Extreme UV.

  • 75. 
    (212) Which part of the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum has wavelengths ranging between 0.03 and 3 nanometers?
    • A. 

      X-ray.

    • B. 

      Infrared.

    • C. 

      Gamma-rays.

    • D. 

      Ultraviolet waves.

  • 76. 
    (213) Which technique lowers the power of a signal to below background noise?
    • A. 

      Spread spectrum.

    • B. 

      Time division multiple access.

    • C. 

      Direct sequence spread spectrum.

    • D. 

      Frequency hopping spread spectrum.

  • 77. 
    (213) Which multiple access method overlaps the signals and their frequencies?
    • A. 

      Code division multiple access (CDMA).

    • B. 

      Time division multiple access (TDMA).

    • C. 

      Demand assigned multiple access (DAMA).

    • D. 

      Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

  • 78. 
    (213) Which radio frequency (RF) is also known as longwave?
    • A. 

      Low frequency (LF).

    • B. 

      Medium frequency (MF).

    • C. 

      Very low frequency (VLF).

    • D. 

      Very high frequency (VHF).

  • 79. 
    (213) Which radio frequency (RF) is used for frequency modulation (FM) radio broadcasts?
    • A. 

      Low frequency (LF).

    • B. 

      Medium frequency (MF).

    • C. 

      Very low frequency (VLF).

    • D. 

      Very high frequency (VHF).

  • 80. 
    (214) Which component of a signal is where information is attached before transmission?
    • A. 

      Sine wave.

    • B. 

      Phase wave.

    • C. 

      Carrier wave.

    • D. 

      Ground wave.

  • 81. 
    (215) Which component of the communications segment performs the commanding of sensors?
    • A. 

      Uplink signal.

    • B. 

      Downlink signal.

    • C. 

      Control link.

    • D. 

      Mission link.

  • 82. 
    (215) Which component of the communications segment transmits the satellite’s operational data?
    • A. 

      Ground segment.

    • B. 

      Airborne segment.

    • C. 

      Control links.

    • D. 

      Mission links.

  • 83. 
    (215) What type of interference does an adversary use to appear as an authorized user to send false commands?
    • A. 

      Spoofing.

    • B. 

      Link jamming.

    • C. 

      Uplink jamming.

    • D. 

      Downlink jamming.

  • 84. 
    (216) What is the decibel used to define on an antenna?
    • A. 

      Amplifier losses.

    • B. 

      Amplifier gains.

    • C. 

      Component gains.

    • D. 

      Noise losses.

  • 85. 
    (216) Which decibel (dB) value represents 100?
    • A. 

      0 dB.

    • B. 

      10 dB.

    • C. 

      20 dB.

    • D. 

      40 dB.

  • 86. 
    (216) What happens when you convert a decibel to a number by subtracting the decibel value?
    • A. 

      Multiply linear values.

    • B. 

      Divide linear values.

    • C. 

      Double linear values.

    • D. 

      Subtract linear values.

  • 87. 
    (216) Which decibel digit represents the integer factor?
    • A. 

      Leftmost.

    • B. 

      Center.

    • C. 

      Rightmost.

    • D. 

      Linear number.

  • 88. 
    (216) What does a signal gain of 100 percent equal in dB power?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      9.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 89. 
    (217) Which type of antenna has an increase in power that emits radiation in specific directions?
    • A. 

      Low-gain.

    • B. 

      High-gain.

    • C. 

      Medium-gain.

    • D. 

      Ultrahigh gain.

  • 90. 
    (217) How is the linear polarization oriented for a geo-stationary satellite that is parallel to the earth’s axis?
    • A. 

      Vertical.

    • B. 

      Circular.

    • C. 

      Elliptical.

    • D. 

      Horizontal.

  • 91. 
    (217) Which antenna polarization is predominantly used for space communications?
    • A. 

      Vertical.

    • B. 

      Circular.

    • C. 

      Elliptical.

    • D. 

      Horizontal.

  • 92. 
    (217) If the antenna is pointed at the receiver, then what is the main beam pointed at?
    • A. 

      Center.

    • B. 

      Boresight.

    • C. 

      Lobesight.

    • D. 

      Center focus.

  • 93. 
    (217) Which subsystem loss is from absorbing oxygen and water vapor?
    • A. 

      Equipment loss.

    • B. 

      Free space loss.

    • C. 

      Atmospheric and rain loss.

    • D. 

      Antenna tracking error loss.

  • 94. 
    (217) Which antenna component is designed to perform data transmission, reception, and tracking?
    • A. 

      Filter.

    • B. 

      Diplexer.

    • C. 

      Waveguide.

    • D. 

      Feed assembly.

  • 95. 
    (217) Which antenna tracking mode loads a time table of coordinates into the ground station computer?
    • A. 

      Autotrack.

    • B. 

      Slave mode.

    • C. 

      Forced track.

    • D. 

      Manual track.

  • 96. 
    (217) What tracking method uses the ground equipment to transmit equally time spaced pulses to the satellite?
    • A. 

      Passive.

    • B. 

      Passive beacon.

    • C. 

      Passive beacon.

    • D. 

      Pseudo-random noise.

  • 97. 
    (217) What tracking method is a precise digital ranging signal modulated onto the uplink carrier?
    • A. 

      Passive.

    • B. 

      Passive beacon.

    • C. 

      Beacon transponder.

    • D. 

      Pseudo-random noise.

  • 98. 
    (218) Which frequency is not used in military satellite communication (SATCOM)?
    • A. 

      Very high frequency.

    • B. 

      Ultrahigh frequency.

    • C. 

      Super high frequency.

    • D. 

      Extremely high frequency.

  • 99. 
    (218) Which satellite communication (SATCOM) system uses ultrahigh frequencies to transmit to small tactical terminals?
    • A. 

      Gapband.

    • B. 

      Protected.

    • C. 

      Wideband.

    • D. 

      Narrowband.

  • 100. 
    (218) Which satellite communication (SATCOM) system is broken out into three segments?
    • A. 

      Global Positioning System (GPS).

    • B. 

      Wideband Global Satellite (WGS).

    • C. 

      Military Strategic and Tactical Relay (Milstar).

    • D. 

      Advanced extremely high frequency (AEHF).