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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An ATX motherboard uses a ________ pin power connector?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    C. 20
    Explanation
    An ATX motherboard uses a 20-pin power connector. This connector is used to provide power to the motherboard from the power supply unit. The 20-pin connector is a standard in ATX motherboards and is designed to provide the necessary power and voltage levels for the motherboard to function properly. It is important to ensure that the power supply unit being used has a compatible 20-pin connector to properly power the ATX motherboard.

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  • 2. 

    How many pins are on a typical VGA cable connector?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    D. 15
    Explanation
    A typical VGA cable connector has 15 pins. These pins are used to transmit analog video signals from a computer or other video source to a display device, such as a monitor or projector. Each pin serves a specific purpose, such as carrying the red, green, and blue color signals, the horizontal and vertical synchronization signals, and ground connections. The 15-pin VGA connector has become a standard for connecting computers to displays, and is widely used in the industry.

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  • 3. 

    Which type of PCMCIA type is commonly associated with memory cards?

    • A.

      Type I

    • B.

      Type II

    • C.

      Type III

    • D.

      Type IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Type I
    Explanation
    Type I PCMCIA cards are commonly associated with memory cards because they are the thinnest type and are designed for memory expansion. They are typically used for flash memory cards and have a thickness of 3.3 mm. Type II and Type III PCMCIA cards are thicker and are used for other purposes such as modems, network cards, and hard drives. Type IV PCMCIA cards are not a standard type and are not commonly used.

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  • 4. 

    Which item listed below is considered a FRU?

    • A.

      CPU

    • B.

      PCIx Slot

    • C.

      Motherboard CPU socket

    • D.

      Power supply capacitor

    Correct Answer
    A. CPU
    Explanation
    The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is considered a FRU (Field Replaceable Unit). This means that it is a component of a computer system that can be easily replaced by the user or a technician without requiring any specialized skills or tools. The CPU is a crucial component that performs most of the processing inside a computer, and its replacement is a common maintenance task in computer systems.

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  • 5. 

    Which items would you expect to interrupt a home office wireless network?

    • A.

      Coffee Pot

    • B.

      Toaster Oven

    • C.

      Microwave Oven

    • D.

      FM radio

    Correct Answer
    C. Microwave Oven
    Explanation
    Microwave ovens can interfere with a home office wireless network because they operate on the same frequency as Wi-Fi routers, which is 2.4 GHz. The microwave oven emits electromagnetic waves that can cause signal interference and disrupt the Wi-Fi connection. This interference can result in slower internet speeds, dropped connections, or even complete loss of connectivity. Therefore, having a microwave oven in close proximity to the wireless router or the devices connected to the network can potentially interrupt the home office wireless network.

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  • 6. 

    A customer using Windows XP Professional calls tech support and says they try to right click on a file to create a share but they cannot find the option for sharing the folder and they cannot find the users and permission options. There is only an option to use the Shared Documents folder. What is most likely the problem?

    • A.

      The operating system needs service pack 2

    • B.

      The firewall must be turned off before you can share a folder

    • C.

      The need to uncheck “simple file sharing option in the folder options properties dialog box.

    • D.

      The operating system has been installed on NTFS and file sharing is only available in FAT32 systems.

    Correct Answer
    C. The need to uncheck “simple file sharing option in the folder options properties dialog box.
    Explanation
    The most likely problem is that the "simple file sharing" option in the folder options properties dialog box needs to be unchecked. This option, when enabled, limits the sharing options available to the user and only allows for sharing files through the Shared Documents folder. By unchecking this option, the user should be able to access the full range of sharing options, including the ability to create shares for individual files or folders and manage users and permissions.

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  • 7. 

    Which bus speed is associate with PCR3200 RAM

    • A.

      100 MHz

    • B.

      250 MHz

    • C.

      400 MHz

    • D.

      1 GHz

    Correct Answer
    C. 400 MHz
    Explanation
    PCR3200 RAM is associated with a bus speed of 400 MHz. This means that the RAM operates at a frequency of 400 million cycles per second. A higher bus speed allows for faster data transfer between the RAM and other components, resulting in improved overall system performance. Therefore, a RAM module with a bus speed of 400 MHz would be compatible with PCR3200 RAM.

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  • 8. 

    What is the definition of LCD display native screen resolution?

    • A.

      The highest possible screen resolution.

    • B.

      The lowest possible screen resolution.

    • C.

      The screen resolution the closely matches HDTV resolution.

    • D.

      The screen resolution that matches the number of physical pixels.

    Correct Answer
    D. The screen resolution that matches the number of physical pixels.
    Explanation
    The definition of LCD display native screen resolution is the screen resolution that matches the number of physical pixels. This means that the native resolution is the specific resolution at which the LCD display is designed to operate optimally, as it matches the actual number of pixels on the screen. Using any other resolution may result in a less sharp or distorted image.

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  • 9. 

    Which is the recommended way to clean up small toner spills?

    • A.

      A wash cloth that has been dipped in hot soapy water.

    • B.

      A soft dry lint free cloth.

    • C.

      A standard household vacuum cleaner.

    • D.

      A soft cotton cloth soaked with alcohol.

    Correct Answer
    B. A soft dry lint free cloth.
    Explanation
    A soft dry lint free cloth is the recommended way to clean up small toner spills because it will not leave any residue or fibers behind, ensuring a thorough and effective clean up. Using a cloth that is dry will also prevent any moisture from damaging the equipment or spreading the toner further. Additionally, a lint free cloth will prevent any lint or particles from getting trapped in the toner or the equipment, which could cause further issues.

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  • 10. 

    A laser printer was working fine and then started to print documents with light steaks runningvertically across documents making them almost impossible to read. What is most like the cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The printer configuration has been changed and now is trying to print in economy mode.

    • B.

      The printer toner cartridge is low on toner.

    • C.

      The printer drum has been scratched.

    • D.

      The paper has become damp and will no longer hold toner properly.

    Correct Answer
    B. The printer toner cartridge is low on toner.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is that the printer toner cartridge is low on toner. When the toner level is low, it can result in light streaks or faded printouts. This can make the documents almost impossible to read.

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  • 11. 

    A laser printer is centrally located in an office and used by many different people. The printerwas working fine before lunch. When a client returns to resume more printing of documentsthey notice that the printer performance is sluggish. It is taking much longer to print a document than it did this morning. What most likely has caused the poor printer performance?

    • A.

      The power cable to the printer is loose.

    • B.

      The electrical power voltage level has dropped to an unacceptable level.

    • C.

      The configuration of the printer has been modified by another user to print in high quality mode rather than draft.

    • D.

      The paper train has excessive paper lint and needs to be cleaned and lubricated.

    Correct Answer
    C. The configuration of the printer has been modified by another user to print in high quality mode rather than draft.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the poor printer performance is that another user has modified the printer's configuration to print in high quality mode. This mode typically requires more processing power and time to print, resulting in slower performance. The other options, such as a loose power cable, low power voltage, or excessive paper lint, may cause printer issues but are less likely to directly impact the printing speed.

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  • 12. 

    As a technician you are assembling a new computer system. You have installed a hard disk drive and a DVD-RW drive on IDE0. You have also installed two more hard disk drives on IDE1. Which best matches the current configuration?

    • A.

      Two slaves and two masters.

    • B.

      Three slaves and one master.

    • C.

      Three Masters and one slave.

    • D.

      One master, two slaves and one independent device.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two slaves and two masters.
    Explanation
    The current configuration matches with "Two slaves and two masters" because the hard disk drive and DVD-RW drive on IDE0 act as the master devices, while the two additional hard disk drives on IDE1 act as the slave devices. This configuration allows for efficient data transfer and organization between the devices.

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  • 13. 

    How many active partitions are on one physical hard drive?

    • A.

      Only one

    • B.

      One for each partition identified with a letter.

    • C.

      One for each operating system installed on the PC.

    • D.

      One for each logical drive on the HDD.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only one
    Explanation
    On one physical hard drive, there is only one active partition. This means that there is only one partition that is currently being used and can be accessed by the operating system. The other options are incorrect because they suggest that there can be multiple active partitions on a single physical hard drive, which is not the case.

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  • 14. 

    Why should you never turn power off to an inkjet printer using the power strip switch? 

    • A.

      The print head may not be properly parked and result in the print head drying out.

    • B.

      A large static electricity surge can be generated thus damaging the printer.

    • C.

      The ink jet must be cooled down before turning the printer off, you must use the printer switch.

    • D.

      Using the on off switch on the power strip is the recommended method for turning off a standard ink jet printer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The print head may not be properly parked and result in the print head drying out.
    Explanation
    If the power to an inkjet printer is turned off using the power strip switch, the print head may not be properly parked. This means that the print head will not be in its designated resting position, and as a result, the ink inside the print head may dry out. This can lead to clogging and damage to the print head, affecting the printer's performance and print quality. Therefore, it is important to use the printer's own power switch to ensure that the print head is properly parked before turning off the printer.

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  • 15. 

    Which answer contains the best example of a secure password example?

    • A.

      XtuvabcxxxxCf

    • B.

      Pa$$word1425

    • C.

      TopTune

    • D.

      ZZZaaaCCC

    Correct Answer
    B. Pa$$word1425
    Explanation
    The answer "Pa$$word1425" contains a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. This makes it a strong and secure password example as it is difficult for hackers to guess or crack.

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  • 16. 

    Which Windows XP command can be used to check and repair disk errors?

    • A.

      Fdisk /r

    • B.

      Defrag

    • C.

      Chkdsk /f

    • D.

      Scandsk /r

    Correct Answer
    C. Chkdsk /f
    Explanation
    Chkdsk /f is the correct answer because it is a Windows XP command that can be used to check and repair disk errors. Chkdsk stands for "check disk" and the /f parameter is used to fix any errors found on the disk. This command is commonly used to scan the file system and file metadata of a disk for errors and fix them if possible.

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  • 17. 

    Which command is used in Windows XP to create a disk partition?

    • A.

      Format

    • B.

      Fdisk

    • C.

      Chkdsk

    • D.

      Diskpart

    Correct Answer
    D. Diskpart
    Explanation
    Diskpart is the correct answer because it is a command-line utility in Windows XP that allows users to create, delete, and manage disk partitions. It provides more advanced functionality compared to other options like Format, Fdisk, and Chkdsk, making it the appropriate choice for creating a disk partition in Windows XP.

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  • 18. 

    Which is an example of an IPv6 address?

    • A.

      Fe80::9970:32b2:ab45:0:a231:c54c

    • B.

      192.168.0.1

    • C.

      AB-00-4D-10-0F-6D

    • D.

      88453672

    Correct Answer
    A. Fe80::9970:32b2:ab45:0:a231:c54c
    Explanation
    The given answer "fe80::9970:32b2:ab45:0:a231:c54c" is an example of an IPv6 address. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit hexadecimal addresses that are used to identify devices on a network. They are written in eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. In this example, "fe80::9970:32b2:ab45:0:a231:c54c" follows the correct format for an IPv6 address.

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  • 19. 

    A customer’s machine fails to turn on and you notice that the case fan is not running. What ismost likely the cause of the problem?

    • A.

      A corrupt registry

    • B.

      A complete operating system failure.

    • C.

      A loose connection to the motherboard.

    • D.

      A defective power supply.

    Correct Answer
    D. A defective power supply.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is a defective power supply. If the case fan is not running, it indicates that there is no power reaching the fan. This could be due to a faulty power supply that is not providing the necessary power to the fan. A corrupt registry or a complete operating system failure would not directly affect the functioning of the case fan. A loose connection to the motherboard could potentially cause the fan to not receive power, but a defective power supply is a more common and likely cause.

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  • 20. 

    What type of the female DB-style connector does SCSI-2 use? (Choose all that apply.)

    • A.

      25-pin

    • B.

      50-pin

    • C.

      68-pin

    • D.

      72-pin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 25-pin
    B. 50-pin
    C. 68-pin
    Explanation
    SCSI-2 uses three types of female DB-style connectors: 25-pin, 50-pin, and 68-pin. These connectors are used to connect SCSI devices to the SCSI controller. The 25-pin connector is commonly used for SCSI-1 devices, while the 50-pin and 68-pin connectors are used for SCSI-2 devices. The 72-pin connector is not used in SCSI-2 connections.

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  • 21. 

    Internally, what type of wire ribbon cable does SCSI use?

    • A.

      25-pin

    • B.

      50-pin

    • C.

      68-pin

    • D.

      72-pin

    Correct Answer
    B. 50-pin
    Explanation
    SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) internally uses a 50-pin wire ribbon cable. This type of cable is commonly used for connecting various devices, such as hard drives, tape drives, and scanners, to a computer system. The 50-pin configuration allows for multiple data lines and signal lines to be transmitted simultaneously, enabling faster data transfer rates and improved performance.

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  • 22. 

    You have a floppy drive in your laptop's modular bay, and your laptop is on. What is the recommended first step in removing it so you can put a CD-ROM drive in instead?

    • A.

      Turn off the laptop.

    • B.

      Use the latch on the underside of the laptop to release the drive, and pull gently.

    • C.

      Use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop the device.

    • D.

      Use Add/Remove Hardware in Control Panel to remove the device.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop the device.
    Explanation
    The recommended first step in removing the floppy drive from the laptop's modular bay is to use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop the device. This ensures that any data being accessed or transferred to the floppy drive is properly closed and saved before removing it. Turning off the laptop or using the latch to release the drive may cause data loss or damage to the drive. Using Add/Remove Hardware in Control Panel is not necessary for removing a removable drive like a floppy drive.

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  • 23. 

    Which laptop accessory allows you to power your laptop from a car or airplane?

    • A.

      AC adapter

    • B.

      DC adapter

    • C.

      Battery converter

    • D.

      Automotive Wizard

    Correct Answer
    B. DC adapter
    Explanation
    A DC adapter is the correct answer because it allows you to power your laptop from a car or airplane. DC stands for direct current, which is the type of power source provided by vehicles and airplanes. This adapter converts the DC power from the vehicle or airplane into the appropriate voltage and current required by the laptop, allowing it to be powered and charged while on the go.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a requirement to install Windows XP?

    • A.

      233MHz Pentium processor or equivalent

    • B.

      64MB memory

    • C.

      1GB free hard-disk space

    • D.

      CD-ROM

    Correct Answer
    C. 1GB free hard-disk space
    Explanation
    To install Windows XP, a 233MHz Pentium processor or equivalent, 64MB memory, and a CD-ROM are required. However, 1GB free hard-disk space is not a requirement for installing Windows XP.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is/are performed by formatting the hard drive? (Choose all that apply.)

    • A.

      Formatting scans the surface of the hard-drive platter to find bad spots and marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors.

    • B.

      Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles.

    • C.

      The tracks are split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors.

    • D.

      Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that contains information about the location of files.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Formatting scans the surface of the hard-drive platter to find bad spots and marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors.
    B. Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles.
    C. The tracks are split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors.
    D. Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that contains information about the location of files.
    Explanation
    Formatting the hard drive performs several tasks. It scans the surface of the hard-drive platter to locate any bad spots and marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors. It also lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles on the platter. These tracks are then split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors. Additionally, formatting creates a File Allocation Table (FAT) that contains information about the location of files on the hard drive.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following methods correctly adds new hardware to a Windows 2000 system if Plug and Play does not work? (Select all that apply.)

    • A.

      Exit to a command prompt and use the software that came with the device to run the installation.

    • B.

      Choose Start -> Settings -> Control Panel and then double-click the Add/Remove Hardware icon.

    • C.

      If Plug and Play does not work, there is no way to get the hardware working in the Windows 2000 environment.

    • D.

      On the Desktop, double-click the My Computer icon, double-click the Control Panel icon, and then double-click the Add/Remove Hardware icon.

    Correct Answer
    D. On the Desktop, double-click the My Computer icon, double-click the Control Panel icon, and then double-click the Add/Remove Hardware icon.
    Explanation
    To add new hardware to a Windows 2000 system when Plug and Play is not working, the correct method is to double-click the My Computer icon on the desktop, then double-click the Control Panel icon, and finally double-click the Add/Remove Hardware icon. This will open the Add/Remove Hardware Wizard, which allows the user to manually install the hardware by following the on-screen instructions. This method does not require using any specific software that came with the device or exiting to a command prompt.

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  • 27. 

    Where do Windows 2000 and Windows XP keep the disk cache settings?

    • A.

      WIN.INI

    • B.

      SYSTEM.INI

    • C.

      Registry

    • D.

      REGEDIT.EXE

    Correct Answer
    C. Registry
    Explanation
    Windows 2000 and Windows XP keep the disk cache settings in the Registry. The Registry is a centralized database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. It is a more advanced and efficient method of storing system settings compared to the older WIN.INI and SYSTEM.INI files used in earlier versions of Windows. The Registry can be accessed and modified using the REGEDIT.EXE utility.

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  • 28. 

    Which utility that comes with Windows 2000 Professional is used to create an image of an existing computer for network installation?

    • A.

      Ghost

    • B.

      Sysprep

    • C.

      Sysimage

    • D.

      RIS

    Correct Answer
    B. Sysprep
    Explanation
    Sysprep is the utility that comes with Windows 2000 Professional and is used to create an image of an existing computer for network installation. This utility allows administrators to prepare a computer for cloning or imaging by removing unique identifiers and settings, such as computer name and security identifiers. This ensures that the cloned or imaged computers can be deployed on a network without conflicts or issues.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not a common location for Windows temporary files?

    • A.

      C:\TEMP

    • B.

      C:\WINDOWS\TEMP

    • C.

      C:\TMP

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above" because all of the given options are common locations for Windows temporary files. C:\TEMP, C:\WINDOWS\TEMP, and C:\TMP are all commonly used directories to store temporary files in Windows operating systems. Therefore, none of the options listed are incorrect.

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  • 30. 

    In Windows XP, where can you check to see the location of where your temporary files are being stored?

    • A.

      System control panel, Advance tab, Environment Variables button

    • B.

      System control panel, Advance tab, Temporary Files button

    • C.

      System control panel, Advance tab, Windows XP Temp Files button

    • D.

      Your temp files are always in the same directory in Windows XP

    Correct Answer
    A. System control panel, Advance tab, Environment Variables button
    Explanation
    In Windows XP, you can check the location of where your temporary files are being stored by accessing the System control panel, going to the Advance tab, and clicking on the Environment Variables button. This will allow you to view and modify the system variables, including the location of the temporary files.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following are Windows file-related problems except _______________.

    • A.

      System files not found

    • B.

      Configuration file issues

    • C.

      AUTOEXEC.BAT issues

    • D.

      Swap-file issues

    • E.

      Boot file issues

    Correct Answer
    C. AUTOEXEC.BAT issues
    Explanation
    AUTOEXEC.BAT issues are not a Windows file-related problem. AUTOEXEC.BAT is a system file used in MS-DOS and early versions of Windows to automatically execute commands during startup. However, in modern versions of Windows, such as Windows 10, AUTOEXEC.BAT is no longer used and does not cause any file-related problems. Therefore, the correct answer is AUTOEXEC.BAT issues.

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  • 32. 

    Symptoms of swap-file problems include extremely slow system speed and a disk that is constantly being accessed, which is referred to as ______________.

    • A.

      Clocking

    • B.

      Thrashing

    • C.

      Booting

    • D.

      Filtering

    Correct Answer
    B. Thrashing
    Explanation
    Thrashing refers to a situation where the computer's performance significantly decreases due to excessive swapping of data between the RAM and the hard disk. When the system is experiencing swap-file problems, it can lead to extremely slow system speed and constant disk access. This is because the system is continuously swapping data in and out of the RAM, causing the disk to be constantly accessed. Therefore, the correct answer is "Thrashing".

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  • 33. 

    What is the quickest solution to fixing a corrupt NTOSKRNL.EXE file?

    • A.

      Reinstall Windows

    • B.

      Replace the corrupt file with a new one

    • C.

      Modify the BOOT.INI file to point to the backup NTOSKRNL.EXE file.

    • D.

      Boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD-ROM

    Correct Answer
    D. Boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD-ROM
    Explanation
    The quickest solution to fixing a corrupt NTOSKRNL.EXE file is to boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD-ROM.

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  • 34. 

    In Windows 2000, NTDETECT.COM _______________.

    • A.

      Pareses the system for hardware information each time Windows 2000 is loaded

    • B.

      Detects information about what OSs are installed on the computer

    • C.

      Bootstraps the system

    • D.

      Recognizes and loads the SCSI interface

    Correct Answer
    A. Pareses the system for hardware information each time Windows 2000 is loaded
    Explanation
    NTDETECT.COM is a system file in Windows 2000 that parses the system for hardware information every time the operating system is loaded. This process helps Windows 2000 identify and recognize the hardware components present in the system, allowing it to properly configure and initialize them. By parsing the system for hardware information, NTDETECT.COM ensures that Windows 2000 can effectively communicate with and utilize the hardware resources available, resulting in a stable and functional operating system environment.

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  • 35. 

    In Windows 2000 and Windows XP, which of the following files is specifically responsible for enabling communication between the system hardware and the operating system?

    • A.

      NTDETECT.COM

    • B.

      NTOSKRNL.EXE

    • C.

      NTBOOTDD.SYS

    • D.

      HAL.DLL

    • E.

      NTLDR

    Correct Answer
    D. HAL.DLL
    Explanation
    HAL.DLL is responsible for enabling communication between the system hardware and the operating system in Windows 2000 and Windows XP.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following URLs would indicate a secured HTTP server?

    • A.

      HTTP://SECURE/WWW.WHEEBO.COM

    • B.

      HTTP://WWW.WHEEBO.COM -S

    • C.

      HTTPS://WWW.WHEEBO.COM

    • D.

      HTTPSSL://WWW.WHEEBO.COM

    Correct Answer
    C. HTTPS://WWW.WHEEBO.COM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "HTTPS://WWW.WHEEBO.COM". The "HTTPS" in the URL indicates that the server is using the secure version of HTTP, which encrypts the data being transmitted between the server and the client. This ensures that the information exchanged is secure and cannot be easily intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals.

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  • 37. 

    The I/O address 3F8 is commonly assigned to __________________.

    • A.

      COM1

    • B.

      COM2

    • C.

      COM3

    • D.

      LPT1

    Correct Answer
    A. COM1
    Explanation
    The I/O address 3F8 is commonly assigned to COM1. COM1 is a communication port used for serial communication in computers. The I/O address 3F8 is the standard address for COM1 in many systems.

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  • 38. 

    Which type of conditions promote ESD?

    • A.

      Cool, dry air

    • B.

      Cool, moist air

    • C.

      Warm, dry air

    • D.

      Warm, moist air

    Correct Answer
    A. Cool, dry air
    Explanation
    ESD stands for Electrostatic Discharge, which is the sudden flow of electricity between two electrically charged objects. Cool, dry air promotes ESD because it has low humidity, which reduces the moisture content in the air. Low humidity decreases the conductivity of the air, allowing static charges to build up on surfaces and objects more easily. Additionally, cool temperatures also contribute to the buildup of static charges. Therefore, cool, dry air provides ideal conditions for promoting ESD.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following are good ideas when it comes to maintaining batteries? (Choose all that apply)

    • A.

      Keep the contacts clean by using alcohol and a soft cloth.

    • B.

      Store them in the freezer if they will not be used for a long period of time.

    • C.

      Toss them in the garbage when they wear out.

    • D.

      Store them in a cool, dry place.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Keep the contacts clean by using alcohol and a soft cloth.
    D. Store them in a cool, dry place.
    Explanation
    Keeping the contacts clean by using alcohol and a soft cloth is a good idea for maintaining batteries because dirt and debris can interfere with the connection and reduce battery performance. Storing batteries in a cool, dry place is also recommended as high temperatures can cause batteries to degrade faster. Storing them in the freezer is not a good idea as it can actually cause moisture to condense inside the battery, leading to damage. Tossing them in the garbage when they wear out is also not a good idea as batteries contain hazardous materials and should be properly disposed of at a recycling center.

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  • 40. 

    A system BIOS with LBA support will _____________.

    • A.

      Support drives larger than 504 MB

    • B.

      Require a method of setting DOS to use the hard drive.

    • C.

      Not support more than 8 MB of RAM.

    • D.

      Require special cables to adapt to higher capacity hard drives.

    Correct Answer
    A. Support drives larger than 504 MB
    Explanation
    A system BIOS with LBA support will enable the computer to recognize and access hard drives that are larger than 504 MB. LBA (Logical Block Addressing) is a method used by the BIOS to access data on the hard drive by assigning logical block addresses to each sector. This allows the BIOS to support larger capacity drives, as it can address more sectors using LBA.

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  • 41. 

    What is the fastest common speed standard for modems?

    • A.

      V.8

    • B.

      V.32

    • C.

      V.92

    • D.

      V.99

    Correct Answer
    C. V.92
    Explanation
    V.92 is the correct answer because it is the fastest common speed standard for modems. V.92 is an ITU-T recommendation that supports data transfer rates of up to 56 kbps downstream and 48 kbps upstream. It also includes features like Quick Connect, Modem On Hold, and PCM Upstream, which enhance the performance and functionality of the modem.

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  • 42. 

    A crossover cable would normally be used in a 10BaseT network to connect _____________. (Choose all that apply)

    • A.

      A client through a switch to a server

    • B.

      A client to a client

    • C.

      A server to a server

    • D.

      A client through a switch to a client

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. A client to a client
    C. A server to a server
    Explanation
    A crossover cable is used to connect similar devices directly together without the need for a switch. In a 10BaseT network, a crossover cable would be used to connect a client to a client or a server to a server. This is because both clients and servers have similar networking interfaces and can communicate directly with each other using a crossover cable. However, a client through a switch to a server would not require a crossover cable as the switch acts as a mediator between the client and the server.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following applies when using 10Base2 cabling to connect computers to a network? (Choose all that apply)

    • A.

      The cable must be terminated at each end.

    • B.

      Each segment must be no longer than 200 meters.

    • C.

      Each segment must be no longer than 185 meters.

    • D.

      Every machine must be terminated.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The cable must be terminated at each end.
    C. Each segment must be no longer than 185 meters.
    Explanation
    When using 10Base2 cabling to connect computers to a network, the cable must be terminated at each end to ensure proper signal transmission. Additionally, each segment of the cable must not exceed a length of 185 meters to maintain signal integrity. Therefore, the correct answers are "The cable must be terminated at each end" and "Each segment must be no longer than 185 meters."

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following uses a serial bus architecture?

    • A.

      USB

    • B.

      FireWire

    • C.

      IEEE 1284

    • D.

      IEEE 1449

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. USB
    B. FireWire
    Explanation
    USB and FireWire both use a serial bus architecture. A serial bus architecture is a type of data transfer that transmits data one bit at a time over a single communication channel. USB (Universal Serial Bus) is a widely used standard for connecting devices to a computer, such as keyboards, mice, and external storage devices. FireWire (also known as IEEE 1394) is another high-speed interface used for connecting devices like digital cameras, external hard drives, and audio/video equipment to a computer. Both USB and FireWire provide a reliable and efficient way to transfer data between devices using a serial bus architecture.

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  • 45. 

    Before opening the system unit case, you should ______________.

    • A.

      Check free disk space.

    • B.

      Record CMOS settings.

    • C.

      Record monitor settings.

    • D.

      Disconnect the network cable.

    Correct Answer
    B. Record CMOS settings.
    Explanation
    Before opening the system unit case, it is important to record CMOS settings. CMOS settings refer to the configuration settings of the computer's BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). These settings include information about the hardware installed in the computer, such as the hard drive, memory, and peripherals. By recording these settings, one can ensure that they are properly restored after opening the system unit case, as opening the case may require disconnecting certain components. This helps to avoid any potential issues or errors that may arise from incorrect or missing CMOS settings.

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  • 46. 

    Fred has a PnP modem that needs to have its IRQ manually changed from IRQ 3 to IRQ 5. Can this be done on his Windows 9x system? If so, from where is this accomplished?

    • A.

      Yes. Go into Dial-up Settings.

    • B.

      Yes. Select the Telephony applet in the Control Panel.

    • C.

      No. Plug and Play is not suppose to be manually changed.

    • D.

      Yes. Select the modem in the Device Manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Yes. Select the modem in the Device Manager.
    Explanation
    In Windows 9x system, the IRQ for a PnP modem can be manually changed by selecting the modem in the Device Manager.

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  • 47. 

    A box is displayed after booting Windows 9x into Safe Mode that describes the failure to initialize the display adapter. What would you then do?

    • A.

      Change the Windows desktop background

    • B.

      Eliminate the screen saver.

    • C.

      Select the minimum standard Windows colors.

    • D.

      Change the video properties.

    Correct Answer
    D. Change the video properties.
    Explanation
    When booting Windows 9x into Safe Mode and encountering a failure to initialize the display adapter, changing the video properties would be the appropriate action to take. This involves adjusting the settings related to the display adapter, such as resolution, color depth, or refresh rate. By modifying these properties, it may be possible to resolve the issue and successfully initialize the display adapter.

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  • 48. 

    Flash ROM chips can be ______________.

    • A.

      Upgraded if necessary.

    • B.

      Used a read/write memory.

    • C.

      Erased by the disk operating system.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgraded if necessary.
    Explanation
    Flash ROM chips can be upgraded if necessary. This means that the firmware or software stored in the flash ROM chip can be updated or replaced with a newer version. Flash ROM chips are commonly used in devices such as computers, smartphones, and game consoles to store the operating system or other essential software. Being able to upgrade the flash ROM chip allows for improvements, bug fixes, and new features to be added to the device without having to replace the entire chip.

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  • 49. 

    Zelda installs a SCSI host adapter and a single SCSI hard drive into her working Windows 9x PC. How should she set the termination?

    • A.

      Terminate only the host adapter.

    • B.

      Terminate only the hard drive.

    • C.

      Terminate both the hard drive and the host adapter.

    • D.

      Terminate neither. You only have to terminate external devices.

    Correct Answer
    C. Terminate both the hard drive and the host adapter.
    Explanation
    When installing a SCSI host adapter and a single SCSI hard drive, both the hard drive and the host adapter should be terminated. Termination is necessary to prevent signal reflections and ensure proper communication between devices on the SCSI bus. In this case, since there is only one hard drive, termination is required for both the hard drive and the host adapter. Terminating only the host adapter or only the hard drive would result in improper communication and potential data errors. The statement "Terminate neither. You only have to terminate external devices" is incorrect because termination is required for internal SCSI devices as well.

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  • 50. 

    How many pins are there on a floppy drive interface?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      34

    • C.

      40

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    B. 34
    Explanation
    A floppy drive interface typically has 34 pins. This is a standard number of pins for the interface, allowing for the necessary connections between the floppy drive and the computer.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 02, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Taco666hate
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