Clinical Lab Practice Quiz For Module 2

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  • 1/222 Questions

    All of the following are traveler infections except

    • Typhoid fever
    • Leishmaniasis
    • Dengue Fever
    • Leptosporosis
    • Meningitis
    • Yellow Fever
    • Dysentary
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About This Quiz

This jerk cat came from a cat hospital built by some jerks who think cat's are more important than sick children. #kidslivesmatter

Clinical Lab Practice Quiz For Module 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The Lab is closed for Safety Stand-down and will not return to work until the following day. You have just withdrawn several different specimens from a pt who you suspect may have some sort of septicemia and pneumonia which is causing him idiopathic kidney pain. What is the proper method of storage for the following specimens: urine, blood culture, pleural aspiration

    • Urine-Fridge, Blood-Fridge, Pleural Aspiration-Freeze

    • Urine-Fridge, Blood-Room Temp, Pleural Aspiration-Room Temp

    • Urine-Room Temp, Blood-Room Temp, Pleural Aspiration-Fridge

    • Urine-Room Temp, Blood-Fridge, Pleural Aspiration-Fridge

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine-Fridge, Blood-Room Temp, Pleural Aspiration-Room Temp
    Explanation
    The proper method of storage for the given specimens is as follows: Urine should be stored in the fridge, blood culture should be stored at room temperature, and pleural aspiration should also be stored at room temperature.

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  • 3. 

    49 y/o pt presents to the clinic with 101F internal temp, nausea, and vomiting. You have treated this pt 6 times for Group A streptococcal pharyngitis in the last 12 months. You suspect the pt may have an acute infection of the blood and request a blood culture. The techs are only able to obtain 10mLs via syringe from the pt as he is extremely dehydrated. Which tube(s) do you send to the lab with the 10mL specimen?

    • 10mLs into anaerobic tube

    • 5mLs into aerobic tube, 5 mLs into anaerobic tube

    • 5mLs into virology specimen transporter, 5mLs into aerobic tube

    • 10mLs into aerobic tube

    Correct Answer
    A. 10mLs into aerobic tube
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient is suspected to have an acute infection of the blood, so a blood culture is requested. The techs were only able to obtain 10mLs of blood due to the patient's severe dehydration. The best option in this case would be to send the entire 10mL specimen into the aerobic tube. This is because aerobic cultures are used to detect bacteria that require oxygen to grow, which is the most common type of bacteria causing bloodstream infections. Sending the entire specimen in the aerobic tube maximizes the chances of detecting any potential pathogens present in the blood.

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  • 4. 

    Blood culture results for an expected pt with endocarditis are returned to you for review. In addition to Viridians Streptococci, several Cornyebacterium, Baccilus and Propionbacterium are also present. Are these test results consistent with endocarditis?

    • Yes, Viridian Streptocci, Cornyebacterium, Baccilus and Propionbacterium are all causal microbes for endocarditis.

    • No, none of the microbes present are causal to endocarditis

    • No, Virdians Streptoccci and Propionbacterium are from the pt’s oral Flora

    • Yes, Viridian Streptocci is a causal microbe of endocarditis. Corynebacterium, Baccilus and Propionbacterium are all part of the pt’s skin Flora

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, Viridian Streptocci is a causal microbe of endocarditis. Corynebacterium, Baccilus and Propionbacterium are all part of the pt’s skin Flora
    Explanation
    The presence of Viridian Streptococci, Corynebacterium, Baccilus, and Propionbacterium in the blood culture results is consistent with endocarditis. Viridian Streptococci is a known causal microbe for endocarditis. Additionally, Corynebacterium, Baccilus, and Propionbacterium are part of the patient's skin flora, which can also be associated with endocarditis.

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  • 5. 

    After performing an LP on a pt, you submit the specimens to the lab for analysis. When do you expect to see the preliminary results and what information can you expect?

    • Within 4-8 hrs of submission. Results will contain gram stain analysis and bacterial antigen analysis

    • Within 72hrs. Results will contain gram stain analysis, bacterial antigen analysis, viral antigen analysis and susceptibility study

    • Within 1hr. Results will contain gram stain analysis and bacterial antigen analysis

    • Within 2-4 hrs. Results will contain gram stain analysis and bacterial antigen analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 1hr. Results will contain gram stain analysis and bacterial antigen analysis
  • 6. 

    6 y/o male presents to clinic with a “whopping” cough, nasal exudate, and 103F fever. You want to run a viral panel on the pt. Where do you instruct your medics to obtain a specimen?

    • Using a swab, collect specimen from inferior tongue

    • Using a saline washing, ask the pt to spit into a collection cup

    • Using a swab, collect specimen from nasopharynx

    • Using an aerobic blood culture tube, instruct medics to draw blood from right or left medial cubital vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Using a swab, collect specimen from nasopharynx
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to collect a specimen from the nasopharynx using a swab. This is because the patient is presenting with symptoms of a respiratory infection, including a cough and nasal exudate. The nasopharynx is the area at the back of the nose and upper throat, where respiratory viruses are commonly found. Collecting a specimen from this area allows for the detection of viral pathogens that may be causing the patient's symptoms.

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  • 7. 

    62 y/o female is intubated in the SICU where you are performing a surgical rotation. The Charge Nurse flags you and alerts you that the pt’s bp is spiked and that she is running a 102F fever. After taking heroic actions to stabilize the pt, the Nurse asks if you would like to run some labs on the pt in order to rule out any hospital contracted diseases. You request several tests including a bacterial pneumonia panel you personally crafted with the Lab. What special instructions should you give to the nurse regarding the collection of a specimen for the bacterial pneumonia panel?

    • The nurse should use a swab and collect the specimen from the pt’s throat

    • The nurse should use a swab and collect the specimen from the pt’s nasopharynx

    • The nurse should retrieve a sputum culture from the intubated pt.

    • The nurse should utilize bronchiolavage fluid to retrieve a specimen

    Correct Answer
    A. The nurse should utilize bronchiolavage fluid to retrieve a specimen
    Explanation
    In order to accurately diagnose bacterial pneumonia, a specimen needs to be collected from the lower respiratory tract where the infection is likely to be present. Swabbing the throat or nasopharynx may not provide an accurate representation of the bacteria causing the infection. In an intubated patient, the nurse should retrieve a specimen from the lower respiratory tract by utilizing bronchiolavage fluid, which involves flushing the bronchial tree with sterile saline and collecting the fluid for testing. This method ensures that the specimen is obtained from the site of infection, increasing the chances of accurate diagnosis.

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  • 8. 

    21 y/o AD female arrives to Sick Call with c/c of lower back pain and dysuria. You suspect some sort of upper urinary tract pathology. What test should you run to confirm your suspicions?

    • Utilizing a catheter, retrieve specimen from the pt and run a urine culture

    • Obtain a “clean catch” urine specimen from the pt and run a urine culture

    • Obtain a wet mount specimen and perform a saline wet prep microscopy

    • Utilizing a swab, obtain a specimen from the pt’s external uretheral meatus and run a urine culture

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain a “clean catch” urine specimen from the pt and run a urine culture
    Explanation
    To confirm suspicions of upper urinary tract pathology, obtaining a "clean catch" urine specimen and running a urine culture is the appropriate test. This method ensures that the urine sample is free from contaminants and provides an accurate representation of the patient's urinary tract. A urine culture can identify any bacterial growth, indicating a urinary tract infection or other upper urinary tract pathology. This test helps in diagnosing the cause of the patient's symptoms and determining the appropriate treatment.

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  • 9. 

    19 y/o AD male arrives to Sick Call with c/c of dysuria. You suspect acute urethritis, how should you collect a specimen to run a culture?

    • Obtain a “Clean Catch” specimen in a urine collection cup

    • Obtain a blood culture set from the pt

    • Utilizing a urethral swab, obtain specimen from the pt

    • Utilizing a saline wet prep, perform a quantitative urine analysis on the pt’s urine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Utilizing a urethral swab, obtain specimen from the pt
    Explanation
    To diagnose acute urethritis, a specimen should be obtained from the patient's urethra using a urethral swab. This method allows for the collection of a sample directly from the site of infection, increasing the chances of accurately identifying the causative organism. A "Clean Catch" specimen in a urine collection cup may not provide an accurate representation of the infection, as it may include contaminants from the surrounding area. Obtaining a blood culture set or performing a quantitative urine analysis using a saline wet prep are not appropriate methods for collecting a specimen for culture in this case.

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  • 10. 

    After obtaining the correct specimen from the 19 y/o AD male in the previous question, he explains that he has been engaging in unprotected coitus with several of his female counterparts. Should you perform a gonorrhea culture from the pt and if so, why?

    • Yes, if the pt is engaging in unprotected coitus, he may possibly be spreading an infection

    • Yes, the lab will provide antibiotic resistance panel to accompany the culture to determine if the microbe present in the pt is resistant to specific antibiotics

    • No, it is obvious the pt is suffering from gonorrhea and should be administered antibiotics ASAP

    • No, it is obvious the pt is suffering from gonorrhea and should be administered antibiotics ASAP

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, the lab will provide antibiotic resistance panel to accompany the culture to determine if the microbe present in the pt is resistant to specific antibiotics
    Explanation
    Performing a gonorrhea culture is necessary because the patient is engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners, which increases the risk of spreading infections. The culture will help identify the presence of the gonorrhea-causing microbe in the patient's specimen. Additionally, the lab will provide an antibiotic resistance panel to determine if the microbe is resistant to specific antibiotics. This information is crucial for selecting the most effective treatment and preventing the spread of antibiotic-resistant strains of gonorrhea.

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  • 11. 

    A 62 y/o female admitted to the hospital 7 days ago is complaining of abdominal cramping, periumbilical pain, and free flowing stool for the last 72hrs. You suspect the pt may be infected with C. difficile antibiotic associated diarrhea (CDAD), what test should you run to confirm your suspicions?

    • Collect a stool sample and run a stool culture

    • Collect a stool sample and run a toxin assay

    • Collect a stool sample and run a fecal smear

    • Obtain a blood culture set from the pt and run a culture for C. Difficile

    Correct Answer
    A. Collect a stool sample and run a toxin assay
    Explanation
    To confirm the suspicion of C. difficile antibiotic associated diarrhea (CDAD), a stool sample should be collected and a toxin assay should be run. This test is used to detect the presence of toxins produced by C. difficile in the stool, which is a key indicator of CDAD. Stool culture is not the recommended test for CDAD as it does not directly detect the toxins. Fecal smear is also not the appropriate test for CDAD. Blood culture is not necessary for the diagnosis of CDAD as the infection primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following special considerations should be taken when submitting a viral specimen for analysis?

    • Viruses require living cells and must be transported in a Viral Transport Medium with antibiotics/antifungals

    • Viruses must be transported via a dark collection tube as they are anaerobic

    • Viruses must be transported via a collection tube which contains a 10% saline solution

    • Viruses do not require special considerations

    Correct Answer
    A. Viruses require living cells and must be transported in a Viral Transport Medium with antibiotics/antifungals
    Explanation
    Viruses require living cells to survive and replicate. Therefore, when submitting a viral specimen for analysis, it is important to transport the virus in a Viral Transport Medium that contains antibiotics/antifungals. This medium helps to maintain the viability of the virus during transportation and prevents the growth of bacteria or fungi that could potentially contaminate the specimen.

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  • 13. 

    The facility where you are assigned for Phase 2 has a BSL3 equipped lab for mycobacteria. In order to maximize this resource, when is the best time to collect a specimen from a pt whom you suspect to have active TB?

    • There is no such thing as a BSL3 equipped lab for mycobacteria.

    • As TB is diurnal and is most active in the evening, collect a sputum sample after 2000

    • Mycobacterial specimens are best when collected in the morning

    • Mycobacterial specimens are best when collected after the pt eats

    Correct Answer
    A. Mycobacterial specimens are best when collected in the morning
    Explanation
    The best time to collect a mycobacterial specimen, such as for suspected active TB, is in the morning. This is because mycobacteria, including TB, tend to be more concentrated in the respiratory tract in the morning due to overnight accumulation. Collecting the specimen in the morning increases the chances of detecting the bacteria and improving diagnostic accuracy.

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  • 14. 

    What special characteristic is given to stool specimen collection containers when parasites are suspected?

    • Parasitic stool collections require a living host

    • Parasitic stool collections contain KOH in order to eliminate non-parasitic particles

    • Parasitic stool collections contain antibiotics/antifungals in order to best

    • Parasitic stool collections contain preservatives

    Correct Answer
    A. Parasitic stool collections contain preservatives
    Explanation
    Parasitic stool collections contain preservatives in order to maintain the integrity of the specimen and prevent the growth of bacteria or other organisms that could interfere with the identification of parasites. Preservatives help to preserve the morphology and viability of the parasites, making it easier for laboratory technicians to accurately identify and diagnose any parasitic infections.

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  • 15. 

    What characteristic of Extremely Drug Resistant (XDR) organisms distinguishes them from Multi-drug resistant (MDR) organisms

    • XDR are non-susceptible to at least 2 agents in all but one or fewer antimicrobial categories

    • XDR are non-susceptible to at least 1 agent in all but two or fewer antimicrobial categories

    • XDR are non-susceptible to at least 1 agent in all but three or fewer antimicrobial categories

    • XDR are non-susceptible to all agents in antimicrobial categories

    Correct Answer
    A. XDR are non-susceptible to at least 1 agent in all but two or fewer antimicrobial categories
    Explanation
    XDR organisms are distinguished from MDR organisms by being non-susceptible to at least 1 agent in all but two or fewer antimicrobial categories. This means that XDR organisms have developed resistance to a wide range of antimicrobial drugs, making them extremely difficult to treat. Unlike MDR organisms, which are resistant to multiple drugs but still have some treatment options available, XDR organisms have very limited options for effective treatment. This makes them a serious public health concern, as infections caused by XDR organisms are often difficult to control and can lead to higher mortality rates.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following cell types is not part of the ADAPTIVE immune response

    • Lymphocytes

    • Plasma Cells

    • Neutrophils

    • Cytotoxic T-Cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are not part of the adaptive immune response. While lymphocytes, plasma cells, and cytotoxic T-cells are all involved in adaptive immunity, neutrophils are part of the innate immune response. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cells and are responsible for phagocytosis and the initial response to infections. They are not involved in the specific recognition and memory response that characterizes the adaptive immune system.

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  • 17. 

    Which type of immunity yields a prompt response to antigens through the rapid secretion of immunoglobins

    • Innate Immunity

    • Passive Immunity

    • Active Immunity

    • Cell-Mediated Immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Active Immunity
    Explanation
    Active immunity is the correct answer because it refers to the immune response that is generated by the body itself after exposure to an antigen. This type of immunity involves the production of specific antibodies, such as immunoglobulins, by B cells. These antibodies are then able to recognize and neutralize the antigens, providing a rapid response to future exposures. In contrast, innate immunity is the body's general defense mechanism that provides immediate, but non-specific, protection against a wide range of pathogens. Passive immunity, on the other hand, is acquired through the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another individual or source. Cell-mediated immunity involves the activation of T cells to directly attack infected cells.

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  • 18. 

    Which class of immunoglobin is secreted FIRST in a Secondary response?

    • IgA

    • IgG

    • IgM

    • IgF

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    During a secondary immune response, the immune system produces a higher quantity of antibodies at a faster rate compared to the primary response. IgM is the first class of immunoglobulin secreted during a secondary response. This is because IgM is the first antibody produced by B cells when they encounter an antigen. It plays a crucial role in activating other components of the immune system and initiating the immune response. As the response progresses, other classes of immunoglobulins like IgG may also be secreted, but IgM is secreted first.

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  • 19. 

    A pt receives a titer test with a 1:30 ratio of IgM. If you perform a second titer test on this pt in 5 days, what ratio is needed to confirm an ACUTE infection?

    • 1:10

    • 1:90

    • 1:100

    • 0.120

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.120
  • 20. 

    Which of the following infection would be classified as self-limiting?

    • Hep A

    • Hep B

    • Hep C

    • Strep Throat

    Correct Answer
    A. Hep A
    Explanation
    Hepatitis A infection would be classified as self-limiting because it typically resolves on its own without any specific treatment. The immune system is capable of clearing the virus from the body within a few weeks to months. Unlike Hepatitis B and C, which can become chronic and cause long-term liver damage, Hepatitis A does not persist in the body and does not lead to chronic infection. Strep throat, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection and not an example of a self-limiting infection.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following antigens is not used as a marker for Hep B?

    • Surface

    • Core

    • Gram E

    • E-Antigen

    Correct Answer
    A. Gram E
  • 22. 

    The EIA Assay is a common screening test for which disease?

    • Pertusis

    • Hep B

    • Hep C

    • HIV/AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. Hep C
    Explanation
    The EIA Assay is a common screening test for Hepatitis C. This test is used to detect the presence of antibodies to the Hepatitis C virus in the blood. It is an important tool in diagnosing Hepatitis C infection, as it can identify individuals who have been exposed to the virus and have developed an immune response. The EIA Assay is a sensitive and specific test that helps in early detection and management of Hepatitis C, allowing for timely treatment and prevention of complications.

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  • 23. 

    The RIBA assay is a _______ test for Hep C

    • Screening

    • Confirmatory

    • Negatory

    • Sensitive

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirmatory
    Explanation
    The RIBA assay is a confirmatory test for Hep C. This means that it is used to confirm the presence of Hep C antibodies in a person's blood after a positive screening test. The RIBA assay is highly specific and accurate in confirming the presence of Hep C infection, making it an important tool in the diagnosis and management of the disease.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following would a Viral Load test provide for a pt/clinician?

    • Concentration of Anti-HBCAg

    • Concentration of Anti-HBeAg

    • Concentration of HCV

    • Titer of IgG or IgM

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentration of HCV
    Explanation
    A Viral Load test measures the concentration of Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) in a patient's blood. This test is used to determine the amount of active virus present in the body, which helps in monitoring the progression of the infection and evaluating the effectiveness of antiviral treatment. By measuring the concentration of HCV, the test provides crucial information for both the patient and the clinician regarding the viral activity and the response to treatment.

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  • 25. 
    Point C represents which of the following? - ProProfs

    Point C represents which of the following?

    • Primary Response

    • Secondary Response

    • Concentration of antigen A

    • Concentration of antigen B

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary Response
    Explanation
    Point C represents the primary response. This is because the primary response is the initial immune response that occurs when the body is exposed to an antigen for the first time. It involves the activation and proliferation of specific immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, to produce antibodies and eliminate the antigen. Point C on the graph likely represents the time when the primary response is occurring, as the concentration of antibodies or immune cells is increasing.

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  • 26. 

    Patient yields an initial titer of 1:256, this represents what type of response?

    • Initial Response

    • Secondary Response

    • Cell-Mediated Response

    • WBC concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary Response
    Explanation
    A titer of 1:256 indicates a secondary response. A secondary response occurs when the immune system has been previously exposed to the antigen and has developed memory cells. These memory cells can quickly recognize and respond to the antigen, leading to a more robust and rapid immune response compared to the initial response. This results in a higher titer, indicating a stronger immune reaction.

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  • 27. 

    The persistence of which marker is the BEST evidence of Chronic Hep B infection?

    • HBeAg

    • HBsAg

    • Anti-HBe

    • Anti-HBs

    Correct Answer
    A. HBsAg
    Explanation
    HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) is the best marker for chronic Hep B infection because it is present in the blood during the acute and chronic phases of the infection. It indicates ongoing viral replication and is used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. HBeAg (Hepatitis B e antigen) is present during the acute phase but disappears during the chronic phase, indicating a decrease in viral replication. Anti-HBe (antibody to HBeAg) is produced during the chronic phase and indicates a decrease in viral replication. Anti-HBs (antibody to HBsAg) is produced after recovery from the infection or vaccination and indicates immunity to Hep B.

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  • 28. 

    Interpret the following serological results: HBsAg (+), IgM anti-HBc (+), IgM anti-HAV (-), Anti-HCV (-)

    • Hep B Acute

    • Heb B resolved, Hep C resolved

    • Hep A acute

    • Hep B resolved

    Correct Answer
    A. Hep B Acute
    Explanation
    The given serological results indicate the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc, which are markers for acute Hepatitis B infection. The absence of IgM anti-HAV and Anti-HCV suggests that the patient does not have acute Hepatitis A or Hepatitis C infections. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the serological results is Hepatitis B Acute.

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  • 29. 

    Interpret the following serological results: HBsAg (-), IgM anti-HBc (-), IgM anti-HAV (-), Anti-HCV (-), ALT 2000 (normal is 45)

    • Hep B Acute

    • No Hep infection, possible liver pathology

    • Hep A acute

    • Hep B resolved, possible liver pathology

    Correct Answer
    A. No Hep infection, possible liver pathology
    Explanation
    Based on the given serological results, it can be concluded that there is no Hepatitis infection detected as HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc, IgM anti-HAV, and Anti-HCV are all negative. However, the elevated ALT level of 2000 suggests possible liver pathology. Therefore, the interpretation of the serological results is that there is no Hepatitis infection present, but there may be some underlying liver pathology causing the high ALT level.

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  • 30. 

    Interpret the following serological results: HBsAg (-), IgM anti-HBc (-), IgM anti-HAV (-), Anti-HCV (+), RIBA (+), ALT 1500 (normal is 45)

    • Hep B Acute

    • Hep C acute, possible liver pathology

    • Hep A acute

    • Hep C resolved, possible liver pathology

    Correct Answer
    A. Hep C resolved, possible liver pathology
    Explanation
    The given serological results show that the patient is negative for HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) and IgM anti-HBc (IgM antibodies against Hepatitis B core antigen), indicating that the patient does not have acute Hepatitis B. The patient is also negative for IgM anti-HAV (IgM antibodies against Hepatitis A virus), ruling out acute Hepatitis A. However, the patient is positive for Anti-HCV (antibodies against Hepatitis C virus) and RIBA (recombinant immunoblot assay) which confirms the presence of Hepatitis C. The elevated ALT levels (1500, with normal range being 45) suggest liver pathology. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the patient has resolved Hepatitis C but may still have liver pathology.

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  • 31. 

    You suspect a pt has endocarditis, which lab should you run to CONFIRM your DDx?

    • CBC

    • BMP

    • Serology Titer

    • Blood Culture

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood Culture
    Explanation
    To confirm the diagnosis of endocarditis, it is essential to run a blood culture. This test helps identify the presence of bacteria or other pathogens in the bloodstream, which could indicate an infection in the heart valves. Blood culture is a crucial diagnostic tool in determining the causative organism responsible for endocarditis, allowing for appropriate treatment and management of the condition. CBC (Complete Blood Count) and BMP (Basic Metabolic Panel) may provide additional information, but they are not specific for confirming endocarditis. Serology Titer may help in detecting antibodies but is not a definitive test for confirming the diagnosis.

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  • 32. 

    Twenty-four hours after ordering x2 blood cultures on a febrile patient, the lab contacts you to let you know that 1 out of the 4 bottles flagged positive. Preliminary gram stain: GPC. What can you suspect from these results?

    • Suspected endocarditis

    • Confirmed endocarditis

    • Possible cross-contamination of samples

    • Suspected bacteremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Possible cross-contamination of samples
    Explanation
    Possible cross-contamination of samples can be suspected based on the given results. Since only 1 out of the 4 bottles flagged positive and the preliminary gram stain showed GPC (Gram-Positive Cocci), it suggests that there may have been contamination during the collection or processing of the samples. This means that the positive result may not be due to an actual infection, but rather due to external factors. Further testing and evaluation would be needed to confirm the presence of endocarditis or bacteremia.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is not a defensive characteristic of the urinary system?

    • Flushing action of urine

    • Alkalinity of Urine

    • Antibacterial Proteins in urine

    • Secretory IgA

    Correct Answer
    A. Alkalinity of Urine
    Explanation
    The alkalinity of urine is not a defensive characteristic of the urinary system. The flushing action of urine helps to remove bacteria and other pathogens from the urinary tract. Antibacterial proteins in urine help to fight against bacterial infections. Secretory IgA is an antibody that provides immune protection to the urinary system. However, the alkalinity of urine does not play a direct role in defending against pathogens or infections.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a normal flora of the urinary tract?

    • Nonhemolytic streptococci

    • Corynebacteria

    • Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • Gardnerella vaginalis

    • Lactobacilli

    Correct Answer
    A. Gardnerella vaginalis
    Explanation
    Gardnerella vaginalis is not a normal flora of the urinary tract. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally reside in a specific area of the body without causing harm. Nonhemolytic streptococci, Corynebacteria, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, and Lactobacilli are all known to be part of the normal flora of the urinary tract. Gardnerella vaginalis, on the other hand, is commonly associated with bacterial vaginosis, an infection of the vagina, and is not typically found in the urinary tract.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an Uncomplicated (simple) Cystitis

    • Healthy adult female

    • Healthy adult male

    • Non-pregnant female

    • Absence of flank pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Healthy adult male
    Explanation
    An uncomplicated (simple) cystitis is a urinary tract infection that occurs in otherwise healthy individuals without any complicating factors. It is more common in females, especially those who are not pregnant. One of the characteristics of uncomplicated cystitis is the absence of flank pain, which is pain in the side or back. However, healthy adult males can also experience uncomplicated cystitis, so they are not excluded from this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is "Healthy adult male."

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following infections yields flank pain, nausea, fever?

    • Cystitis

    • Pyelonephritis

    • Lower UTI

    • Prostatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyelonephritis
    Explanation
    Pyelonephritis is the correct answer because it is an infection of the kidneys, which can cause flank pain. Nausea and fever are also common symptoms of pyelonephritis. Cystitis refers to a bladder infection and may cause urinary symptoms but not necessarily flank pain. Lower UTI is a general term that includes infections of the bladder and urethra, which may cause urinary symptoms but not specifically flank pain. Prostatitis refers to an infection of the prostate gland and may cause urinary symptoms, but flank pain is not typically associated with it.

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  • 37. 

    55 y/o male pt presents to the clinic with pain in lower abdomen, testicles, penis and blood in his semen. Which of the following is a possible DDx given these symptoms?

    • Cystitis

    • Pyelonephritis

    • Lower UTI

    • Prostatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostatitis
    Explanation
    Prostatitis is a possible differential diagnosis (DDx) for a 55-year-old male patient presenting with pain in the lower abdomen, testicles, penis, and blood in his semen. Prostatitis refers to the inflammation of the prostate gland, which can cause symptoms such as pain and discomfort in the lower abdomen and genital area. It can also lead to blood in the semen. Other conditions like cystitis, pyelonephritis, and lower urinary tract infection (UTI) may cause similar symptoms, but prostatitis specifically involves inflammation of the prostate gland.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following microbes is the MOST prevalent in female urinary tract infections (first occurrence)?

    • Pseudomonas

    • Staphylococcus

    • E. Coli

    • Klebsiella

    • Treponema pallidum

    Correct Answer
    A. E. Coli
    Explanation
    E. Coli is the most prevalent microbe in female urinary tract infections (UTIs) because it is a common bacterium found in the gastrointestinal tract and can easily travel from the anus to the urethra. The short urethra in females makes it easier for E. Coli to reach the bladder and cause an infection. Additionally, E. Coli has adhesive properties that allow it to attach to the urinary tract walls, further contributing to its prevalence in UTIs.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following microbes is the most prevalent in male urinary tract infections (first occurrence)?

    • Enterobacteriaceae

    • Staphylococcus

    • E. Coli

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    • Klebsiella

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterobacteriaceae
    Explanation
    Enterobacteriaceae is a family of bacteria that includes several species, such as Escherichia coli (E. coli) and Klebsiella. These bacteria are known to be the most common cause of urinary tract infections in males, especially in the case of a first occurrence. Staphylococcus is also a common cause of urinary tract infections, but it is less prevalent compared to Enterobacteriaceae. Chlamydia trachomatis is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause urinary tract infections, but it is less common in males compared to females. Therefore, the most prevalent microbe in male urinary tract infections (first occurrence) is Enterobacteriaceae.

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  • 40. 

    During a physical exam of a 39 y/o male, you discover costovertebral angle tenderness in the pt. Which of the following infections is MOST LIKELY the cause of his pain?

    • Cystitis

    • Pyelonephritis

    • Lower UTI

    • Splenomegaly

    • Prostatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyelonephritis
    Explanation
    Pyelonephritis is the most likely cause of the patient's pain because costovertebral angle tenderness is a classic sign of kidney infection. Pyelonephritis is an infection of the kidneys, usually caused by bacteria ascending from the bladder. It commonly presents with symptoms such as fever, flank pain, and urinary symptoms. The presence of costovertebral angle tenderness indicates inflammation and infection in the kidneys, supporting the diagnosis of pyelonephritis. Cystitis refers to a bladder infection, lower UTI refers to a urinary tract infection that can involve the bladder or urethra, splenomegaly refers to an enlarged spleen, and prostatitis refers to inflammation of the prostate gland. These conditions are less likely to cause the specific symptom of costovertebral angle tenderness.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following would not require a urine culture prior to treatment of a patient with UTI?

    • Uncomplicated Cystitis

    • Uncomplicated Pyelonephritis

    • Complicated Cystitis

    • Uncomplicated Prostatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Uncomplicated Cystitis
    Explanation
    Uncomplicated cystitis typically presents with symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) in otherwise healthy individuals. It is usually caused by a common pathogen, such as Escherichia coli, and can be effectively treated with empirical antibiotics without the need for a urine culture. In contrast, uncomplicated pyelonephritis, complicated cystitis, and uncomplicated prostatitis may have more severe symptoms, involve upper urinary tract or prostate infections, and may require a urine culture to guide appropriate antibiotic treatment.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following microbes is NOT a common agent in cystitis, pyelonephritis and prostatitis?

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    • Proteus mirabilis

    • Klebsiella

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Enterococcus

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlamydia trachomatis
    Explanation
    Chlamydia trachomatis is not a common agent in cystitis, pyelonephritis, and prostatitis. C. trachomatis is a bacterium that causes sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia. It primarily affects the reproductive organs, such as the cervix, urethra, and fallopian tubes, but it is not commonly associated with urinary tract infections or prostatitis. The other options listed, Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella, Neisseria gonorrhea, and Enterococcus, are all known to cause urinary tract infections and are more commonly associated with the mentioned conditions.

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  • 43. 

    21 y/o male presents to clinic with burning on urination and purulent discharge. Which microbe do you suspect is causal to the pt’s infection?

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Proteus mirabilis

    • Klebsiella

    • Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • Enterococcus

    Correct Answer
    A. Neisseria gonorrhea
    Explanation
    The symptoms described by the patient, including burning on urination and purulent discharge, are consistent with a sexually transmitted infection. Neisseria gonorrhea is a common cause of such infections, especially in young sexually active individuals. It is a gram-negative bacterium that primarily infects the genital tract and can lead to complications if left untreated. Therefore, Neisseria gonorrhea is the most likely microbe responsible for the patient's infection.

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  • 44. 

    19 y/o male present to clinic with cloudy or watery discharge, burning on urination, fever, swollen or tender testicles. Which microbe do you suspect is causal to the pt’s infection?

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Proteus mirabilis

    • Klebsiella

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    • Haemophilus ducreyi

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlamydia trachomatis
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, such as cloudy or watery discharge, burning on urination, fever, and swollen or tender testicles, are consistent with a sexually transmitted infection known as epididymitis. Chlamydia trachomatis is a common causative agent of epididymitis in young sexually active males. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most likely microbe responsible for the patient's infection.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following testing procedure is BEST for diagnosing Urethritis and/or Cervicitis?

    • Blood culture

    • Urine (clean void) 3mL

    • Urethral/cervical swab

    • Perineal swab

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethral/cervical swab
    Explanation
    Because of possible STD

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  • 46. 
    What do you suspect to be the primary cause of the gram stain of urine (shown below) from a 21 y/o sexually active male? - ProProfs

    What do you suspect to be the primary cause of the gram stain of urine (shown below) from a 21 y/o sexually active male?

    • Gonococcal Urethritis

    • Non-gonococcal Urethritis

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Pharyngitis

    • Candidiasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-gonococcal Urethritis
    Explanation
    Non-gonococcal urethritis is the primary cause of the gram stain of urine from a sexually active male. This is because non-gonococcal urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra that is not caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhea. It is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be caused by various other bacteria, such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Mycoplasma genitalium. The gram stain of urine helps to identify the presence of bacteria and can be used to differentiate between different causes of urethritis.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is the BEST laboratory mechanism for Dx of Urethritis/Cervicitis?

    • Urine Culture

    • Serology Test

    • Nucleic Acid Amplification

    • Blood culture

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleic Acid Amplification
    Explanation
    Nucleic Acid Amplification is the best laboratory mechanism for the diagnosis of Urethritis/Cervicitis. This technique allows for the detection and amplification of specific nucleic acid sequences, such as DNA or RNA, from pathogens that cause these infections. It is highly sensitive and specific, providing accurate results even in cases with low pathogen levels. Urine culture, serology tests, and blood culture are not as effective in diagnosing Urethritis/Cervicitis as they may not directly detect the causative pathogens or may have lower sensitivity and specificity.

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  • 48. 

    22 y/o sexually active female presents with vaginal itching/irritation, vaginal discharge, foul vaginal odor and dysuria. Which of the following BEST represents the pt’s signs

    • Urethritis

    • Cervicitis

    • Prostatitis

    • Vulvovagintis

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulvovagintis
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of vaginal itching/irritation, vaginal discharge, foul vaginal odor, and dysuria are consistent with vulvovaginitis. Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina, which can be caused by various factors such as yeast infection, bacterial vaginosis, or sexually transmitted infections. Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra, which typically presents with symptoms like dysuria and urinary frequency. Cervicitis refers to inflammation of the cervix, which may cause vaginal discharge but is less likely to cause itching or odor. Prostatitis refers to inflammation of the prostate gland, which is not relevant in this case as the patient is female.

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  • 49. 

    24 y/o sexually active female presents with intense perivaginal itching, perivaginal burning and observed “cottage cheese” texture lining vaginal wall. Which of the following BEST represents the pt’s signs/symptoms?

    • Urethritis

    • Cervicitis

    • Candidiasis

    • Bacterial Vaginosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Candidiasis
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of intense perivaginal itching, perivaginal burning, and the presence of a "cottage cheese" texture lining the vaginal wall are indicative of candidiasis. Candidiasis, also known as a yeast infection, is caused by an overgrowth of the fungus Candida. It commonly presents with symptoms such as itching, burning, and a thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge. This is a common infection in sexually active females and can be treated with antifungal medications.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 16, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Knowaruss

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