Random Clinical Lab Tests

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| By Srwestrick
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Srwestrick
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 124
Questions: 20 | Attempts: 124

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Random Clinical Lab Tests - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the below is not a cause of increased Na+ levels (above 145 mEq/L)?

    • A.

      Drinking salt water

    • B.

      Mineralcorticoid excess

    • C.

      Dehydration

    • D.

      Addison disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Addison disease
    Explanation
    Addison's disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones, including aldosterone. Aldosterone is responsible for regulating sodium levels in the body. Therefore, in Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of aldosterone, leading to decreased sodium levels rather than increased.

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  • 2. 

    Your patient has hyperchloremia... what action would specifically be contraindicated?

    • A.

      Rest

    • B.

      Administration of IV NS

    • C.

      OTC NSAIDS

    • D.

      Getting an EKG

    Correct Answer
    B. Administration of IV NS
    Explanation
    administration of IV NS in great amounts is a cause of hyperchloremia, so you would not want to administer this. everything else was just made up for no real reason as choices.

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  • 3. 

    How does Hyperkalemia appear on EKG:

    • A.

      Peaked T waves and a widened QRS and a depressed ST segment.

    • B.

      Flattened T waves and prominent U waves

    • C.

      Peaked T waves, shortened QRS, depressed ST segment

    • D.

      Jacked up

    Correct Answer
    A. Peaked T waves and a widened QRS and a depressed ST segment.
    Explanation
    Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. On an EKG, it appears as peaked T waves, which are taller and more pointed than normal. Additionally, hyperkalemia can cause a widened QRS complex, indicating delayed electrical conduction in the heart. Lastly, the ST segment may be depressed, indicating abnormal repolarization of the ventricles. These EKG findings are indicative of the effects of high potassium levels on the electrical activity of the heart.

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  • 4. 

    _____________ is a measure of the osmoles of solute per liter of solution.

    • A.

      Osmolality

    • B.

      Osmolarity

    • C.

      Serum osmolality

    • D.

      Osmotic pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Osmolarity
    Explanation
    Osmolarity: is a measure of the osmoles of solute per liter of solution. A capital letter M is used to abbreviate units of mol/L. Since the volume of solution changes with the amount of solute added as well as with changes in temperature and pressure, osmolarity is difficult to determine. Adult: 278-300 mOsm/kg of water.

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  • 5. 

    What are measures of nutritions?

    • A.

      Calories

    • B.

      Globulin

    • C.

      Serum albumin

    • D.

      Total protein

    • E.

      B and c

    • F.

      A & d

    Correct Answer
    E. B and c
    Explanation
    The measures of nutrition mentioned in the answer are globulin and serum albumin. Globulin is a type of protein found in the blood that helps with immune system function and blood clotting. Serum albumin is another protein found in the blood that helps maintain proper fluid balance and transport nutrients. Both of these measures are important indicators of nutritional status and can provide valuable information about a person's overall health and well-being.

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  • 6. 

    What are the key building blocks of antibodies?

    • A.

      Globulin

    • B.

      Albumin

    • C.

      Amino acids

    • D.

      Legos

    Correct Answer
    A. Globulin
    Explanation
    Antibodies are composed of proteins called globulins. These globulins are produced by white blood cells and play a crucial role in the immune response. They recognize and bind to specific antigens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. Therefore, globulins are considered the key building blocks of antibodies. Albumin and amino acids are not directly involved in antibody formation, and "legos" is not a biological component of antibodies.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the below is not a cause for decreased albumin levels:

    • A.

      Malnutrition

    • B.

      Dehydration

    • C.

      Pregnancy

    • D.

      Liver disease

    • E.

      Metastatic tumor

    Correct Answer
    B. Dehydration
    Explanation
    dehydration causes increased albumin levels.

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  • 8. 

    Serum osmolarity= (2 x (Na + K)) + (BUN / 2.8) + (glucose/18) Plays an important role in toxicology work-ups!

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    serum osmolality= (2 x (Na + K)) + ( BUN / 2.8 ) + (glucose / 18)

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  • 9. 

    If the osmolal gap is large, what is suspected to be present?

    • A.

      Solutes such as organic acids (ketones)

    • B.

      Usually high levels of glucose or ethanol by-products

    • C.

      Large amounts of organic solution

    • D.

      A & B

    • E.

      B & C

    Correct Answer
    D. A & B
    Explanation
    If the osmolal gap is large, it is suspected that solutes such as organic acids (ketones) and usually high levels of glucose or ethanol by-products are present.

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  • 10. 

    What test is used to: -evaluate fluid and electrolyte abnormalities? -used to investigate ADH abnormalities and inappropriate ADH secretion?

    • A.

      Serum osmolality

    • B.

      Osmolal gap

    • C.

      Total protein

    • D.

      Urine osmolality

    Correct Answer
    D. Urine osmolality
    Explanation
    Urine osmolality is used to evaluate fluid and electrolyte abnormalities as well as to investigate ADH abnormalities and inappropriate ADH secretion. It measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, which can indicate the body's ability to regulate water balance and the functioning of the kidneys. Abnormal urine osmolality levels can suggest dehydration, overhydration, kidney dysfunction, or hormonal imbalances related to ADH secretion. Therefore, urine osmolality is a valuable test in assessing fluid and electrolyte status and investigating ADH abnormalities.

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  • 11. 

    In renal damage, the urine osmolality is similar to the plasma osmolality.  & In pre-renal impairment: high urine osmolality is present.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In renal damage, the urine osmolality being similar to the plasma osmolality suggests that the kidneys are not properly concentrating the urine, which is a sign of impaired renal function. On the other hand, in pre-renal impairment, where there is a decreased blood flow to the kidneys, the high urine osmolality indicates that the kidneys are trying to conserve water by concentrating the urine. Therefore, the statement is true as it correctly describes the differences in urine osmolality between renal damage and pre-renal impairment.

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  • 12. 

    Johnny's serum osmolality is raised (>295 milliOsmol/kg) with inappropriately dilute urine (urine osmolality <700 milliOsmol/kg.)  what do you suspect Johnny's problem is?

    • A.

      Pre-renal impairment

    • B.

      Post-renal impairment

    • C.

      Diabetes insipidus

    • D.

      Abuse of a loop diuretic

    Correct Answer
    C. Diabetes insipidus
    Explanation
    Johnny's elevated serum osmolality (>295 milliOsmol/kg) along with inappropriately dilute urine (urine osmolality

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  • 13. 

    When ingested _________ bind phosphorus and decrease intestinal absorption:

    • A.

      Beta-blockers

    • B.

      NSAIDS

    • C.

      Calcium supplements

    • D.

      Antacids

    Correct Answer
    D. Antacids
    Explanation
    Antacids are substances that neutralize stomach acid and are commonly used to relieve symptoms of acid reflux or indigestion. They contain compounds such as magnesium or aluminum hydroxide, which can bind to phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract and decrease its absorption. This can be beneficial for individuals with conditions such as kidney disease or hyperphosphatemia, where high levels of phosphorus in the blood need to be reduced. Beta-blockers, NSAIDs, and calcium supplements do not have a direct effect on phosphorus absorption.

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  • 14. 

    Most Magnesium is bound to:

    • A.

      ATP

    • B.

      Albumin

    • C.

      Calcium

    • D.

      Urine solute

    Correct Answer
    A. ATP
    Explanation
    Magnesium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various biological processes. It is primarily bound to ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is the main energy currency of cells. Magnesium-ATP complexes are involved in energy transfer and are required for many enzymatic reactions. Although magnesium can also be bound to other molecules such as albumin and calcium, ATP is the most common binding partner for magnesium in the body.

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  • 15. 

    Besides dehydration, _______________ will cause an abnormal elevation in creatine

    • A.

      Skeletal muscle injury

    • B.

      Myasthenia gravis

    • C.

      Renal disorders

    • D.

      Decreased GFR

    Correct Answer
    C. Renal disorders
    Explanation
    Renal disorders can cause an abnormal elevation in creatine levels. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in filtering and excreting creatine from the body. When the kidneys are not functioning properly due to renal disorders, they may not be able to effectively remove creatine, leading to its accumulation in the body. Therefore, renal disorders can be a possible cause of abnormal elevation in creatine levels.

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  • 16. 

    A doubling of creatinine suggests a _____% reduction in GFR:

    • A.

      15%

    • B.

      25%

    • C.

      50%

    • D.

      75%

    Correct Answer
    C. 50%
    Explanation
    A doubling of creatinine suggests a 50% reduction in GFR because creatinine is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a measure of how well the kidneys are functioning and it is calculated based on the creatinine levels in the blood. When creatinine levels double, it indicates that the kidneys are not filtering waste as effectively, leading to a 50% reduction in GFR.

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  • 17. 

    Cystatin C may predict the risk for developing _______________ better than GFR and increased levels are associated with a risk for death (mean is 0.71-0.77mg/L)

    • A.

      Acute kidney disease

    • B.

      Chronic kidney disease

    • C.

      Contagious herpes

    • D.

      Glomerulonephritis

    Correct Answer
    B. Chronic kidney disease
    Explanation
    Cystatin C is a protein produced by the cells in the body. It is filtered by the kidneys and its levels in the blood can be used as a marker of kidney function. In this case, the statement suggests that cystatin C may be a better predictor of the risk for developing chronic kidney disease compared to glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is another commonly used marker of kidney function. Additionally, increased levels of cystatin C are associated with a higher risk for death. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic kidney disease.

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  • 18. 

    Isolated elevation of LDH-1 (above LDH-2) indicates:

    • A.

      Myocardial injury

    • B.

      Congestive heart failure

    • C.

      Hepatic congestion

    • D.

      Decreased renal perfusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Myocardial injury
    Explanation
    An isolated elevation of LDH-1 (above LDH-2) indicates myocardial injury. LDH-1 is one of the isoenzymes of lactate dehydrogenase, which is found predominantly in the heart. When there is damage to the heart muscle, such as in a myocardial infarction, LDH-1 levels can increase. Therefore, an isolated elevation of LDH-1 suggests myocardial injury.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Srwestrick
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