CDC Z3DX7X 3DX7X Vol 2

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1/70 Questions

Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- Force protection.
- Airfield operations.
- Force accountability.
- Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'CDC Z3DX7X 3DX7X Vol 2', assesses knowledge in military deployment planning, including crisis response, mobilization policies, and force readiness. It is designed for learners aiming to understand Air Force operational strategies and readiness metrics.

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2.

What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- O–4.
- O–5.
- O–6.
- O–7.
Correct Answer

A. O–6.

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This indicates that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant leadership responsibilities and extensive experience in their field.

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3.

Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
- 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
- 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
- 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Correct Answer

A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.

Explanation

The correct answer is 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is because the other options listed (3D1X2, 3D1X3, and 3D1X7) are all related to different aspects of engineering installation units, such as cyber transport systems, RF transmission systems, and cable and antenna systems. However, 3D0X3, Cyber Surety, is not directly related to engineering installation units, but rather focuses on ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.

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4.

Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and TrainingSystem (SORTS)?
- Training
- Personnel
- Facility condition.
- Equipment condition.
Correct Answer

A. Facility condition.

Explanation

The correct answer is Facility condition. SORTS is a system used to measure and report the status of resources and training in various areas. Training, personnel, and equipment condition are all areas that are measured and reported by SORTS. However, facility condition is not included in the areas measured and reported by SORTS.

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5.

Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises,determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continuallyevaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- Deliberate planning.
- Crisis action planning.
- Mobilization planning.
- Force rotational planning.
Correct Answer

A. Deliberate planning.

Explanation

Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is systematic and thorough, allowing for careful consideration and planning to ensure effective and efficient deployment of forces. Crisis action planning focuses on immediate response to unforeseen events, mobilization planning is specific to the mobilization of forces, and force rotational planning is related to the rotation of forces in and out of a deployment area.

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6.

Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and SpaceExpeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- Training
- Personnel
- Home station mission
- Equipment condition.
Correct Answer

A. Home station mission

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories in order to assess the preparedness of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force. The categories typically include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the home station mission is not considered a readiness category measured by ART. This means that while ART evaluates the readiness of personnel, training, and equipment, it does not specifically assess the readiness of the home station mission.

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7.

The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- Scott AFB, IL.
- Travis AFB, CA.
- Peterson AFB, CO.
- Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Correct Answer

A. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This base is the headquarters for the Contingency Response Wing. It is located in New Jersey and serves as a joint base, meaning it is used by multiple branches of the military. The Contingency Response Wing is responsible for providing rapid response capabilities in support of global operations, and having its headquarters at Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst allows for efficient coordination and deployment of resources.

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8.

Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy therequirement for supplies or services?
- Sole Source.
- Firm Fixed Price.
- Time and Material.
- Performance Based.
Correct Answer

A. Sole Source.

Explanation

When there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services, a sole source contract is permissible. This means that there is only one potential supplier or service provider available, making it necessary to enter into a contract with them without competition. This type of contract is typically used when there are unique or specialized requirements that only one supplier can meet, or when there is a need for continuity or compatibility with existing systems or equipment.

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9.

Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
- Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- Joint Staff
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center

Explanation

The correct answer is the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. This center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process. They coordinate and manage the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources for expeditionary operations.

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10.

Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force orcapability in place of another service’s core mission?
- Standard unit type code (UTC).
- Joint force/capability.
- In-lieu-of (ILO).
- Ad hoc.
Correct Answer

A. Joint force/capability.

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves a service providing a force or capability to fulfill another service's core mission. This means that one service is temporarily taking on the responsibilities and tasks that would typically be carried out by another service. This can occur in situations where a particular service may not have the necessary resources or capabilities to fulfill their mission, so another service steps in to provide support.

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11.

Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC)?
- Pilot Units.
- Joint Planners.
- Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Correct Answer

A. Pilot Units.

Explanation

Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC). This means that the responsibility lies with the pilot units to plan and coordinate the necessary logistics support to ensure that the unit typecodes have the resources and supplies needed for 30 days of sustained operations. The other options, Joint Planners, Logistics Readiness Squadron, and Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET, are not the correct answer as they do not specifically mention the role of Pilot Units in this context.

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12.

Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- MQ–9 Reaper.
- RQ–11B Raven.
- MQ–1B Predator.
- RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Correct Answer

A. RQ–11B Raven.

Explanation

The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is typically used for short-range surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployable and operated by a small team, making it suitable for small-scale operations. The other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced UASs that are used for longer-range and more complex missions.

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13.

Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hourrapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support intelecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
Correct Answer

A. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

Explanation

The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in the fields of telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum analysis.

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14.

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- The status.
- A milestone.
- A deliverable.
- The final result.
Correct Answer

A. A deliverable.

Explanation

A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is the tangible or intangible result that is expected to be produced or achieved at the end of a project. This can include documents, reports, software, prototypes, or any other tangible or intangible item that is considered a valuable output of the project. The other options, such as status, milestone, and final result, do not accurately represent the specific outcome or output of a project, making them incorrect choices.

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15.

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- Force protection and logistics.
- Intelligence and force protection.
- Secure communications and intelligence
- Secure communications and force accountability
Correct Answer

A. Secure communications and intelligence

Explanation

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications are necessary to ensure that information is transmitted securely and cannot be intercepted by unauthorized parties. Intelligence is crucial for commanders to make informed decisions and effectively control their forces. By having access to reliable and timely intelligence, commanders can assess the situation, identify threats, and plan appropriate actions. Therefore, secure communications and intelligence are essential for establishing control in the Command and Control module.

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16.

Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force modulearrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- 2 days, 7 days.
- 2 days, 14 days.
- 7 days, 14 days.
- 14 days, 30 days.
Correct Answer

A. 2 days, 14 days.

Explanation

The airbase force module is expected to arrive within 2 days after the airbase is opened. The delivery of the module is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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17.

Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) isestablished within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- Command and control.
- Operate the airbase.
- Robust the airbase.
- Open the airbase.
Correct Answer

A. Command and control.

Explanation

The correct answer is Command and control. In a theater deployable communications (TDC) scenario, the force module that can be established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is the command and control module. This module provides the necessary communication infrastructure and systems for coordinating and controlling military operations in the field. It enables efficient decision-making, information sharing, and coordination among different units and personnel involved in the mission.

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18.

All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network(AFN) in
- 1942.
- 1952.
- 1988.
- 1998.
Correct Answer

A. 1998.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1998 because it was in this year that all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a unified broadcasting system for the armed forces, providing consistent and reliable news, entertainment, and information to military personnel around the world.

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19.

Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- Cost management plan.
- Allied support plan.
- Technical plan.
- Material plan.
Correct Answer

A. Cost management plan.

Explanation

The correct answer is the cost management plan. The project plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and resources required for a project. It includes various plans such as the cost management plan, which details how costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout the project. The allied support plan, technical plan, and material plan may also be part of the project plan, but the cost management plan is specifically mentioned in the question.

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20.

In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can belocated from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- 2 kilometers (km).
- 4 km
- 8 km
- 16 km
Correct Answer

A. 16 km

Explanation

The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.

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21.

What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capabilitycalled?
- Processes.
- Priorities.
- Requirements.
- Technical solutions.
Correct Answer

A. Requirements.

Explanation

The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the specific functionalities, features, and qualities that the cyberspace infrastructure should possess in order to meet the desired objectives and fulfill the needs of the organization or system. These documents serve as a guideline for designing and implementing the necessary capabilities in the cyberspace infrastructure.

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22.

Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implementusing base level support and resources?
- Organic.
- Contract.
- Inorganic.
- Self-Help.
Correct Answer

A. Self-Help.

Explanation

The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of relying on internal resources and personnel to accomplish tasks or provide support, without relying on external contractors or funding. This means that the squadron is able to utilize its own resources and expertise to fund and implement communication projects within the base, without the need for external assistance.

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23.

If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on basefunctional area support is placed in the
- Programming Plan (PPLAN).
- Program Action Directive (PAD).
- Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
- Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer

A. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.

Explanation

The correct answer is Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because when the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, the information on base functional area support is included in the major paragraph of the Operations Plan (OPLAN). This ensures that all relevant information is included in the OPLAN and provides a comprehensive overview of the support required for the base functional areas.

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24.

Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meetsapplicable standards?
- Base Civil Engineering.
- Gaining Work Center.
- Contracting Office.
- Quality Assurance.
Correct Answer

A. Base Civil Engineering.

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards.

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25.

Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference sourcefor general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces intime of war?
- Volume 1.
- Volume 2.
- Volume 3.
- Volume 4.
Correct Answer

A. Volume 1.

Explanation

Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. This volume is likely to contain information on the overall strategic planning and policies that guide the mobilization of forces, as well as the support systems and resources that are necessary to sustain combat operations during a war.

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26.

Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 daysafter the deployed location is established?
- Generate the mission.
- Establish the airbase.
- Operate the airbase.
- Robust the airbase.
Correct Answer

A. Robust the airbase.

Explanation

The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This suggests that the process of robusting the airbase involves bringing in additional support forces to strengthen and fortify the base after it has already been established. This indicates that the support forces mentioned in this force module are not immediately available upon the initial establishment of the airbase, but rather require some time to arrive.

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27.

The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- Funding, execute, close, and control.
- Plan, execute, monitor, and control.
- Plan, execute, close, and control.
- Plan, control, close, and support.
Correct Answer

A. Plan, execute, close, and control.

Explanation

The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This sequence represents the typical phases of project management. First, a project is planned, which involves defining objectives, creating a timeline, and allocating resources. Then, the project is executed, meaning that tasks are carried out according to the plan. After completion, the project is closed, which involves finalizing deliverables and conducting a review. Throughout the entire process, control is maintained to ensure that the project stays on track and meets its objectives.

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28.

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements aretermed
- Major.
- Minor.
- Major and minor.
- Major and critical.
Correct Answer

A. Major.

Explanation

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed major. This means that if there are any significant issues or deviations from the specified requirements, they would be considered major exceptions. These exceptions can have a significant impact on the system's functionality, performance, or reliability. Minor exceptions, on the other hand, refer to less significant issues that may not have a major impact on the system's overall operation. The answer "major" is the most appropriate choice as it accurately reflects the impact of exceptions on meeting operational requirements.

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29.

As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?
- 6 months.
- 1 year.
- 2 years.
- 3 years.
Correct Answer

A. 3 years.

Explanation

A support agreement must be reviewed at least 3 years after its effective date. This ensures that the terms and conditions of the agreement are still relevant and meeting the needs of both parties involved. Reviewing the agreement after this time period allows for any necessary updates or changes to be made, ensuring that the support provided remains effective and satisfactory.

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30.

Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specifiedfixed hourly rates?
- Sole Source.
- Firm Fixed Price.
- Time and Material.
- Performance Based.
Correct Answer

A. Time and Material.

Explanation

A Time and Material contract is a type of contract that acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates. This means that the contractor is paid for the actual hours worked by their employees, as well as the cost of materials used. This type of contract is often used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is not possible to determine a firm fixed price for the project.

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31.

What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of acommunications system?
- AFTO Form 745.
- AFTO Form 747.
- AFTO Form 749.
- AF Form 1747.
Correct Answer

A. AFTO Form 747.

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is used to document the completion of a project and validate the successful installation of a communications system. This form is typically used in the military and is an official document that certifies the completion and functionality of the system. It serves as the final record and marks the end of the project, ensuring that all necessary steps have been taken and the system is ready for use.

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32.

What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly,regardless of the phase?
- Follow-up.
- Controlling.
- Organization.
- Documenting.
Correct Answer

A. Follow-up.

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. Follow-up involves regularly checking the status of tasks, monitoring progress, and addressing any issues or delays promptly. It helps to keep the project on track, identify potential risks, and make necessary adjustments to meet project goals and deadlines. Without effective follow-up, it becomes difficult to maintain control over the project and ensure that it is progressing as planned.

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33.

Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supportsenhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in lessthan 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- Work orders.
- Trouble tickets.
- Infrastructure requirements.
- Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Correct Answer

A. Work orders.

Explanation

The functional area of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are typically used for specific tasks or projects that require maintenance or improvements to the existing infrastructure. They provide a systematic way to track and prioritize the work that needs to be done, ensuring that it is completed efficiently and within the specified timeframe.

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34.

What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining thecommunications systems under contract during peacetime?
- Special Measures.
- Administration.
- Assumptions.
- Logistics.
Correct Answer

A. Logistics.

Explanation

The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely covers the logistical aspects of maintaining and operating the communication systems, such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and personnel support. It would provide guidelines and procedures for ensuring the continuity and effectiveness of communication systems during wartime.

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35.

Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirementfor a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 besubmitted to the Base Contracting Office?
- 10 calendar days.
- 30 calendar days.
- 35 calendar days.
- 50 calendar days.
Correct Answer

A. 35 calendar days.

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date. This allows enough time for the necessary research and preparation of the requirement before submitting it to the contracting office.

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36.

Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs forsupplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply?
- Sole Source.
- Time and Material.
- Indefinite Delivery.
- Blanket Purchase Agreement.
Correct Answer

A. Blanket Purchase Agreement.

Explanation

A Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. This means that instead of going through the process of soliciting and awarding contracts each time a purchase is needed, a BPA allows the buyer to make purchases directly from pre-approved vendors. This streamlines the procurement process and allows for more efficient and cost-effective purchasing of goods and services.

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37.

What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as theapplication of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet projectobjectives?
- MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Correct Answer

A. MPTO 00–33A–1001.
38.

What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- Funding.
- Technical solution.
- Requirements management plan.
- Answers, guidance, and education.
Correct Answer

A. Answers, guidance, and education.

Explanation

In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education. This means that they offer information and expertise to help stakeholders understand the project and its objectives. They also provide guidance on best practices and methodologies to ensure the project's success. Additionally, the project manager educates stakeholders about the project's processes, roles, and responsibilities, enabling them to make informed decisions and contribute effectively to the project's initiation.

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39.

Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- Project monitor.
- Project manager.
- Communication squadron.
- Implementing organization.
Correct Answer

A. Implementing organization.

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who take charge of executing the necessary steps to put the solution into action. This involves coordinating and overseeing the implementation process, ensuring that all the required resources and personnel are in place, and managing any potential challenges or issues that may arise during the implementation phase. The project monitor, project manager, and communication squadron may play important roles in the project, but it is ultimately the implementing organization that carries out the actual implementation of the technical solution.

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40.

The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service lifecycle are service strategy,
- Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
- Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
Correct Answer

A. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

Explanation

The correct answer is service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. This is because these stages represent the key phases in the ITIL service lifecycle. Service design involves designing new or changed services, service transition involves transitioning services into the live environment, service operation involves managing and delivering the services, and continual service improvement involves continuously improving the services based on feedback and analysis.

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41.

As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technicalsolutions?
- Base Communications Systems Officer.
- Affected Work Center.
- Base Civil Engineer.
- Project Managers.
Correct Answer

A. Base Civil Engineer.

Explanation

To review and validate technical solutions, various roles and expertise are required. The Base Communications Systems Officer is responsible for overseeing the communication systems, the Affected Work Center ensures that the technical solutions align with the needs of the specific work center, and the Project Managers oversee the overall project. However, the presence of a Base Civil Engineer is not necessary for reviewing and validating technical solutions, as their role primarily focuses on construction and infrastructure-related tasks.

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42.

Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation ofthe Competition in Contracting Act?
- Unusual or compelling urgency.
- Unit commander’s interest.
- National security interests.
- Sole Source.
Correct Answer

A. Unit commander’s interest.

Explanation

The "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act requires that government contracts be awarded through a competitive process, except in certain circumstances. Unusual or compelling urgency, national security interests, and sole source situations are exceptions to this requirement. However, the unit commander's interest is not considered an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation. This means that the unit commander's personal preference or interest cannot be used as a justification to bypass the competitive process when awarding contracts.

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43.

Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- Strategy.
- Combat plans.
- Combat support.
- Combat operations.
Correct Answer

A. Combat support.

Explanation

Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are typically found within an Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support refers to the various activities and resources that are provided to combat forces in order to enable them to accomplish their mission effectively. While combat support is crucial to the overall operations, it is not considered a separate division within the Air and Space Operations Center structure.

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44.

When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared insupport of the contingency plans?
- Concept Plan.
- Functional Plan.
- Supporting Plan.
- Operational Plan.
Correct Answer

A. Supporting Plan.

Explanation

When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. This plan provides additional details and resources needed to execute the contingency plans effectively. It outlines specific actions, responsibilities, and timelines for supporting the main operational plan. The supporting plan ensures that all necessary support functions, such as logistics, communications, and intelligence, are coordinated and integrated into the overall mission.

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45.

Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the projectnot meeting requirement specifications?
- Status request.
- Defect repairs.
- Preventive action.
- Corrective action.
Correct Answer

A. Defect repairs.

Explanation

Defect repairs is the correct answer because it refers to a type of change request used to fix a portion of the project that does not meet the requirement specifications. When a defect is identified in the project, a change request is made to address and correct the issue. This ensures that the project meets the desired specifications and quality standards. Preventive action, on the other hand, focuses on identifying and addressing potential issues before they occur, while corrective action is taken to rectify problems that have already occurred. Status request is not related to correcting requirement specifications.

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46.

What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling programmanagement duties?
- Project monitor.
- Project manager.
- Program action officer.
- Program action monitor.
Correct Answer

A. Program action officer.

Explanation

A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for executing the actions required to achieve program goals and objectives. This role involves coordinating and monitoring program activities, ensuring that tasks are completed on time and within budget. The program action officer acts as a liaison between different stakeholders, communicates program progress, and helps in decision-making processes.

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47.

Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- Requires services from outside agencies.
- Mobility (deployment) equipment.
- Requires additional manpower.
- Requires additional funding.
Correct Answer

A. Requires additional funding.

Explanation

The requirement for additional funding is not considered a special cause because it is a common and expected need in many projects or initiatives. It is often necessary to allocate extra resources or budget to meet the requirements of a project. On the other hand, the other options mentioned - requiring services from outside agencies, mobility equipment, and additional manpower - can be considered special causes as they involve specific and unique needs that may not be present in every project.

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48.

Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including newconstruction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?
- Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum.
- Facilities Utilization Board.
- Mission Briefings.
- Informal Meeting.
Correct Answer

A. Facilities Utilization Board.

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is the type of planning meeting that specifically identifies civil engineering projects such as new construction, renovations, demolitions, and relocations of organizations. The other options, such as the Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum, Mission Briefings, and Informal Meeting, do not specifically focus on civil engineering projects and their planning.

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49.

Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization andappropriation are required for what type of construction projects?
- Major Construction
- Minor Construction.
- All military construction
- None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation.
Correct Answer

A. All military construction

Explanation

All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction project related to the military, regardless of its scale or significance, must go through the approval and funding process involving these entities. The involvement of these authorities ensures that proper oversight and decision-making take place for the allocation of resources and the execution of military construction projects.

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Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

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